#groups-rings-fields
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No problem :3
I'm reading this proof that x^p - x - 1 is irreducible over Z_p. I'm not quite sure why [Z_p(a) : Z_p] = p, is it just because adjoining a automatically gives you all p roots? What's the significance of it being a splitting field?
I don't know if this is exactly what the proof is trying to say, but the fact that
Zp(alpha) = Zp(beta) for any two roots, means they all have the same degree minimal polynomial.
So if you write f as a product of minimal polynomials, they all have the same degree.
And p is prime, so that means they have degree either 1 or p
One of my homeworks was all about this polynomial
That makes sense, thanks
tbh, if the book was trying to convey this, then it failed hard π
aeaeaeae
An alternative could be that the Frobenius homomorphism has order p on Zp(alpha), showing it has degree p
But yeah, I don't really see how they're justifying the claim that the degree is p. But it can be justified
uh, stupid question, but since a being a root implies that a + 1 is a root, why doesn't this imply that every element of Z_p(a) is a root of x^p - x - 1? There would be p^k roots, but it can only have p roots
There wouldnt, a is already a root of the polynomial
a is not an element of Z_p, so a + k will only reach elements in a + Z_p
ooh, I was (subconsciously maybe) thinking of GF(p^k) as cyclic, but yeah, I get it now 
you can't reach every element of GF(p^k) by just adding 1
the characteristic of GF(p^k) must equal the characteristic of GF(p) 
Prime field moment
I know how to prove the converse part, but in forward direction, I think we just need to use the converse part
Say it has $((1, 2 \dots n_1 )(n_{1} +1,\dots 2n_1)\dots ((k-1))n_1 + 1\dots kn_1))$
Notknowπ
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So every cycle has n_1 size and there are k disjoint cycle
So I think p is v^k for some cycle v
and v has length kn_1
Is there any easy way of determing the intermediate fields between the extension Q to Q(sqrt(2+i), sqrt(2-i)) (this should be a degree 8 extension if my diagram below is correct)?
I am working with the polynomial x^4-4x^2+5 over Q and am having trouble identifying all the field extension in between.
right now i have something like
Q -> Q(i) -> Q(sqrt(2-i) -> Q(sqrt(2+i), sqrt(2-i))
| ^
-> Q(sqrt(2+i) - |
the original problem was making finding the minimal polyniomal for for sqrt(2+i) over Q. I know all the roots should be +/- sqrt(2+i) and +/- sqrt(2-i) but I can't prove that say sqrt(2-i) is not contained in Q(sqrt(2+i)).
Im getting conflicting definitions of the ideal. Are these equivalent defintions of an ideal. Because the latter doesnt mention anything about it needing to be a subring of R.
Is it just because in DF they require a subring to have the unity of R whereas in gallian it it is only required that (S, +, x) is a subset of R which forms a ring with the same operations as that of R
Because based on these definitions
If I consider Z then 2Z is a subring (if I follow gallians definitions) but 2Z isnt not a subring of Z because it doesnt contain the unity of Z (per DF).
do gallian rings have multiplicative identity
the df one talking about "the" unity of R tells me that dummit foote ones do
Yes
I like the convention of calling rings with unity rings and rings without unity rngs
I donβt consider rings without unity
No same, but the once in a blue moon that i do it's nice to have a name
Nonunital associative Z-algebras
Aren't sqrt(2 + i) and sqrt(2 - i) both roots of x^4 - 4x^2 + 5?
if so, Q(sqrt(2 + i), sqrt(2 - i)) can't have degree 8 over Q
Yes
:/
I'm struggling with this
The roots are just +/- those 2 terms
Not 100% sure what the best way to solve it is, but I think the idea is that if F is an intermediate field between Q and Q(sqrt(2-i)) then F is algebraic and simple, and the minimal polynomial of F divides the minimal polynomial of Q(sqrt(2-i))
Let a be algebraic over Q (probably any field of characteristic other than 2 works equally well) with minimal polynomial p. Is it true that the minimal polynomial of a^2 is p(sqrt(x)) if that is a polynomial in x and p(sqrt(x)) p(-sqrt(x)) otherwise?
You can show that the quadratic extensions β(sqrt(2+i)), β(sqrt(2-i)) of the field β(i) are equal iff (2+i)/(2-i) (or equivalently (2+i)(2-i)) is a square in β(i). (This is a special case of what is called Kummer theory.) So is (2+i)(2-i) a square in β(i)?
If deg(p) = deg(a) is odd, then usual divisibility arguments show that deg(a^2) = deg(a) and p' st p(x) p(-x) = p'(x^2) has the right degree. More generally, if deg(a) over β(a^2) is 2 then a, -a are conjugate over it hence over β, which implies p(x) β£ p(-x) β p(-x) = Β±p(x) β p is a polynomial in x^2 or p(x) = x; and in the latter case deg = [β : β] = 1. Conversely, if p(x) = p'(x^2), then deg(a^2) β€ deg(p') = deg(a)/2. Thus, we see that deg(a^2) = deg(p)/2 if p is a polynomial in x^2 and deg(a^2) = deg(p) otherwise. Hence our candidate minimal polynomial has the right degree; we are done.
YIIIIKES!
Hello to you too.
w e a k
is there a type of product that one can use to express C_p^2 as the product of C_p and C_p
clearly it isn't the direct or semidirect product
C_{p^2} is an extension of C_p by C_p, i.e., there is a subgroup of C_{p^2} isomorphic to C_p such that the quotient is C_p.
However, extensions are not unique (e.g., C_p β¨― C_p is also such an extension), so there is not any "binary operation" called "extension" that takes in two groups and returns another one.
I need dumb stuff to study again
Dis is too much thinking 4 me π
right but like, C_p x C_p is the direct product, there are other kinds of "binary operations" that are a "type of extension" like the wreathed product or the semidirect product
is there something that generalized the kind of way that C_p^2 is an extension of C_p by C_p
I love that you write the solution instead of just "nvm, figured it out" 
I didn't know whether I had figured it out until I finished typing
and at that point it seemed a waste not to send it.
if you wanna do dumb stuff then go do a first course in proofs or smt
Lolol
Now someone do a+1/a for me π₯Ί
It should be the same replacing p(-x) with p(1/x) (i.e., p with the order of the coefficients reversed) but I don't want to prove it.
I love kind of winging how much preliminaries I put into my paper
I've never written a proper paper before, but from what I've gathered from reading it's really just to make sure everyone knows what conventions and notation you're using, right?
depends on how mean you want to be
you get NO preliminaries and have to FIGURE IT OUT YOURSELF BY CONTEXT
There's a subtelty where it's not as easy to rule out p being "skew-symmetric" as it was in the even case.
Ah, got it: if x^{deg p} p(1/x) = -p(x), then the constant coefficient of p is -1, which forces 1 to be a root of p, so p(x) = x-1 by irreducibility, and that's a separate case.
This is very reminiscent of every skew-symmetric polynomial being Vandermonde times a symmetric polynomial, honestly.
Theres also rig categories, as another fun play on the name
no additive inverses right?
lol
Yep, ring without negatives lol
Its the categorification of N
what about a rg
oidification?
Im so tired dude
Its a bimonoid, unsure what you mean by oidification
same ngl
Ahh
Yeah its a monoid under 2 operations, i dont know a huge ammount about them ive just heard a talk about building quantum computing out of reverseable classical computing and rig categories where the kinda key object
math is so weird
They were talking about finding a similar notion to like algebraic closure, such that you can recover quantum computing from classical
Was pretty interesting
Get into the categorical quantum information sphere
why do those words make sense together
Precisely: let K be a field, c β K \ {0} and a be non-zero and algebraic over K with minimal polynomial p. Assume that char(K) β 2 or a^2 β c. Then a has degree 2 over K(a+c/a) β p(x) = x^{deg p/2} p0(x + c/x) for a unique monic polynomial p0 (of degree deg p/2). If this happens, p0 is the minimal polynomial of a+c/a. If this doesn't happen, then the polynomial q(x) = p(x) x^{deg p} p(c/x) is of the form x^{deg p} q0(x+c/x) and q0 is the minimal polynomial of a+c/a. (Finally, if char(K) = 2 and a^2 = c, then a+c/a = 0 has minimal polynomial X, while p(X) = X^2 - c = X^2 + c = X(X + c/X) or p(X) = X - a and p(X) X p(c/X) = X^2 - c. In both cases the previous algorithm is still correct.)
This is probably all a special case of elimination theory using resultants. Hmmm.
Now we can use this to find the minimal polynomial of 2 cos(rational multiple of pi) and 4 cos^2(rational multiple of pi).
Suppose a, b, k are elements of a ring such that ab-ba = k(a - b) (e.g., take the free ring on 3 generators with that relation). Must there exist some x such that aba-bab = x(a-b)?
I do have an example of this where x = k^2 + k + (a+b)-1 although I can't fathom why that works. There should be roughly no extra relations in my example beyond k^2 being central. Assuming a+b+k to be central may also simplify things somehow, although I'm not sure how.
Turns out it's really simple: a(a-b) = a^2 - ab, k(a-b) = ab-ba so (a+k)(a-b) = (a-b)a. Similarly (b+k)(a-b) = (a-b)b. Hence the left ideal generated by a-b is closed under right-multiplication by a and b. Hence difference of any two words in a, b can be obtained. For example, aba - bab = (ab-ba)a + ba(a-b) = k(a-b)a + ba(a-b) = (k(a+k) + ba)(a-b), etc.
I'm not sure the product itself has a name, but extensions with abelian kernel are classified group cohomology, and the construction is fairly similar to the semidirect product:
For a group G and a G-module M, you consider a 2-cocycle s: GxG -> M, then you put a group structure on MxG by
(m, g)(n, h) = (m + g(n) + s(g,h), gh)
In your example G=Cp and M=Cp with trivial action.
Also note that the semidirect product happens when s=0.
Also in your example s can be interpreted as a "carry". I.e. you simply choose s to be the carried digit of the sum g+h
i think the product is written in above form that is (a1...am)(a{m+1}...an) instead of
$(a_1*\cdots *a_{n-1})a_n$
Abstract Afzal
cuz of this definition isn't it?
For L/K Galois, can I say a sub extension L/E is Galois because it is still normal and separable?
I understand why its separable but why is it normal? Normal means what again, the splitting field of a set of separable polys?
Being normal is equivalent to being a splitting field.
L is still the splitting field for the same polynomials that show L/K is Galois
So the fact that L/E is Galois is kind of an obvious fact?
Sure
jagr im still kinda struggling with that finite index problem
how did the automorphisms thing work?
im trying to do it purely by considering the actions itself, as im struggling to understand the homomorphism approach
the index m subgroups would be given by distinct stabilizers given by the action of G on {1,...,m}
i can probably just look at stabilizers of 1 across every action
although, it might be nice to use that every other stabilizer is conjugate to one another
regardless, the possible transitive actions for m =3 are
b(1) = 2, b(2) = 3, b(3) = 1
or b(1) = 3, b(3) = 2, b(2) = 1
a(1) = 1, a(2) = 2, a(3) = 3, or a is some transposition
i anticipate that the stabilizer of 1 given by one choice of b is the same as another choice of b by choosing a different a
so i can probably just focus on the first action for b
idk its hard to think about because its an infinite group
so its hard to think about when two stabilizers are distinct
If you first determine the kernels of maps G -> Sn, then you can work with G/N which is a finite group.
but those would all be normal
Yes exactly
Well they're not of index m, they are the normal cores of subgroups of index m
Like you have H of index 3 for example.
Then the action of G on G/H induces a map G -> S3. Then there are two cases, either the image has size 3 or is all of S3.
In the first case H is normal. In the second case S3 = G/N for some normal subgroup contained in H.
Then you know that the index 3 subgroups that contain N correspond to indeed 3 subgroups of S3, hence there are 3 of them.
is there like a super obvious way its either 3 or all?
or is it because, for it to be transitive, b has to have an orbit of size 3
so either you have 1, (123),(132)
Yeah it's just because S3 is so small. The only transitive subgroups are A3 and S3, so it must be one of them
For m=4, you have Klein 4, C4, A4, D4, and S4. But it should be easy to see that the first two cannot be quotients of G
Ok this is making more sense
Ok for m=3, once you have the two possible transitive subgroups A3 and S3
How did u get H is normal for A3?
So I mean using first iso thm, G/ker ~= A3
Oh and the kernel is precisely the intersection of the stabilizers or smth
Wait I saw this in dummit and Foote lemme check
Yes, but also the kernel is an index 3 subgroup contained in H, so must equal H
Oh because |G: ker| = |G/ker| = |A_3| = 3
That makes a lot of sense
But in the other case G/ker ~= S_3
So the index is 6
Oh and |G:ker| = |G:H||H:ker| = 3|H:ker| = 6 so |H:ker| = 2
Oh yeah I just check dummit and Foote
Kernel of this action would be intersection of conjugates of H, and kernel is largest normal subgroup of G contained in H
Oh and the last thing you said is the fourth iso thm/correspondence/lattice
yo this is actually making me so happy
so many different things used in a problem
i really gotta do more exercises so i can actually do these problems
I think i actually understand the m=3 case π
I think the m=4 and m=5 case should go through pretty similarly. But m=6 seems like pain
yeah google tells me the answer is 22 for 6
Feels like there should be some clever tricks beyond this brute force approach
Maybe there's a solution sheet for this problem with something clever
no solution out yet
i wouldn't be surprised if its brute force, you are given a month to work on the problem set
it looks like there is a lot of theory on counting finite index subgroups of PSL(2,Z), but its beyond my understanding
like this series of blogposts: https://qchu.wordpress.com/2015/11/15/finite-index-subgroups-of-the-modular-group/
counts them, but like i have no idea what they are doing
I guess by not just consider transitive actions you can think of any subgroup of index <= n as a map G -> Sn. Then you just have to sort of what you're double counting
Hmm, when looking at the previous post where he got the formula he uses what I think is category theory, so I stopped really reading
just to confirm why:
to get a homomorphism, we need to map generators to generators. For C4, we would be forced to have b |-> e, and phi(a) is the generator of C4, but obviously that isnt surjective
for V4 (<x,y | x^2,y^2>), we have to map b to e and a to x, which is also not surjective
then for the rest its a bit repetitive?
so im just counting index 4 subgroups of A4, D4, and S4?
that doesnt feel quite right
Yup, though D4 you can also throw out.
alr nice
but im already going over
for A4
If H is index 4, |A4:H| = |A4|/|H| = 12/|H| = 4, so |H| = 3
and vice versa
it would suffice to consider cyclic subgroups because so small
so lcm of sizes of disjoint cycles is 3
so its just all the possible 3 cyces
which is 432/3 =8
but the answer overall is 8
and for S4, |H| = 6, so it would cycles of type 2,3 and type 6
which is obviously a lot more
actually maybe there is no surj homo to S4
thats also def not true, because google says S4 ~= PSL(2,Z/4Z)
oh wait nvm S4 doesnt work
A group of order 3 contains two 3-cycles. So you've double counted
So A4 has 4 index 4 subgroups and same with S4
wait actualy why is it 4 for S4
since you need order 6 subgroup
it cant be cylic, since there are no 2,3 or 6 type cycles in S4 (cuz theres only 4 numbers)
Yeah, there are 4 such subgroups, just count them
alr
S{123}, S{124}, S{134}, S{234}
my book is asking if this is an acceptable definition
a prime field is a field that has no proper subfields
and apparently it is, but i don't understand why, when the book defines a prime field as Z_p and Q. it provides a theorem:
a field F is either of prime characteristic p and contains a subfield isomorphic to Z_p or of characteristic 0 and contains a subfield isomorphic to Q
but how can i rule out the possibility, for example, that Q contains a proper subgroup isomorphic to Q?
and actually something seems wrong, because there could be a field isomorphic to Z_p which has no proper subfields
Is that Fraleigh? He describes prime fields extremely poorly in my opinion. The basic idea is that there is a unique ring hom from Z to any field F, which must have kernel (0) or (p). In the first case, F contains Z and therefore Q, otherwise F contains Z/(p) by the first isomorphism theorem
yes it's fraleigh
Consider looking up the definition in another book, Aluffi's Notes from the Underground for example
thanks π
oh fraleigh does explain the homomorphism idea
and actually if a field has no proper subfields, it must still have a subfield isomorphic to either Z_p or Q, so the field itself must be isomorphic to Z_p or Q. Conversely, Z_p contains no proper subfields. i just need to see that Q contains no proper subfields
Notice that Z must be contained in every subfield of Q, and as its a subfield, every inverse of elements in Z too
Unity? Do you mean inverses?
by definition?
I believe so? Do your rings not have a unit element
no
Shame on your book (kidding)
lol
Any nonzero idempotent element in a field must uniquely be 1
Because of properties of groups
Anyhow, I believe it silly to not include this in the definition itself
ok fair enough
if R < S and S has a multiplicative identity 1, then 1 acts as a multiplicative identity in R too, so R can't have a different one because of uniqueness as enpeace said
if R < S and S has a multiplicative identity 1, then 1 acts as a multiplicative identity in R too
that assumes 1 is in R
oh maybe i misunderstood
i think i get it
Galois group of (x^2-x+1)(x^3+x^2-1) over Q. When doing problems such as these, is it worthwhile to try first explicitly computing the splitting field?
For (x^3-2)(x^3-3), i know I had the splitting field be Q(3rd root 1, cr(2), cr(3))
So Gal group for that should be order 18?
Uh yeah, that might not be correct, noggin is not working today 
In any case, you know that for a polynomial factored into irreducibles pq with p deg n q deg m, the galois group is subgroup of Sn x Sm right
Not necessarily
i found an example for rings with unity
Z_6 has unity 1, and the subgroup {0,2,4} has unity 4
but for fields it seems unity must be shared
Uniqueness follows either locally from group properties, or uniqueness of identity is only applicable for two elements from the same monoid
so a subfield of Q contains 1 and thus Z and thus Q
Ye
Enpeace learn galois theory rn so u can help me
U could learn it in like idk 30 mins
Hehe
Could I qwq
Universal algebra is just sets and functions
Some, yes
should be possible until the fundamental theorem atleast, I think we learnt (basic) galois theory for number fields in one lecture in my number fields course
Though I am busy with a research project atm
Thats true, but time yk
i need so much time
to learn alla dis shi
AllaDisShi
π₯
hey, im happy though because my presentation today went well
on infinite Galois theory
Keith Conrad W
I just learnt about infinite galois theory recently too! I was using Milne's book
Nice, I just learned the beginnings of it from keith conrads notes, and i presented the galois correspondence for subextensions and closed subgroups
Milne's book is something on number theory is it?
nope his Fields and Galois theory book
although he speedruns some basic facts in one paragraph in his elliptic curves book, i havent read any other stuff of his
it was good for me but I was already familiar with a little galois theory ( But I didnt do a course in it, I didnt know much about separable extensions for example)
It has a 2 hour examination at the end which I thought was pretty cool (for self study), and the last chapters have some advanced stuff
its free on his website
I wasnt sure about the discussion on the splitting field being given by adjoining the square root of the discriminant and all that β¦ where is that coming from?
I know root(D) is always contained in the splitting field
So does that just follow from that? In that case where D is not a square in F, the degree of the splitting field is 6, so adjoining root D gives a quadratic extension, and adjoining some root of f would multiply to degree 6 extension
yep that seems correct
What elements in F(theta, root(D)) are roots of the irreducible cubic?
Theta is one, what are the others ?
Random: the only subgroup of S4 divisible by 6 that isnt A4 is S4?
Well you have the polynomial as one algebraic relation for the other roots and root(D) is the product of their differences, ig you can get it from these
by manipulating it
whats the point of the charastirstic of a Ring
Ok makes sense
but you might be rederiving the cubic formula in the process (someone fact check me here)
use the sum of roots product of roots stuff too
S3 is also a subgroup, otherwise yes
You can find all subgroups here
https://groupprops.subwiki.org/wiki/Subgroup_structure_of_symmetric_group:S4
Is there a database of websites like this? I know there's one for counterexamples in topology too. My bookmark folder is already overloaded enough
oh wait https://mathbases.org/
S3 being a subgroup of S4 in the sense of, leave say 4 fixed and then take the 6 permutations of the other 3 elements?
So its not a transitive subgroup
Idk about complete list, but
https://ringtheory.herokuapp.com/
https://groupprops.subwiki.org/wiki/Main_Page
https://www.math.uni-bielefeld.de/~jgeuenich/string-applet/
Are good
An interactive tool for computations with special biserial algebras, string algebras, and gentle algebras. It displays many combinatorial invariants of these algebras and their module categories.
Any transitive subgroup will have order a multiple of 4.
(So a multiple of 12 if it's also divisible by 6)
Its been hard for me to understand βtransitive subgroupβ properly
Obviously it keeps coming up with Galois theory
Is it because any transitive subgroup would need to contain a 4 cycle? Im not convinced on that im just throwing it out there
Prob not
It doesn't need to contain a 4-cycle (see Klein 4 for example), but it needs to contain an index 4 subgroup as per the orbit stabilizer theorem
Ay yai yai!
I have been needing to learn this stuff
Ty for klein 4 example
What is orbit stabilizer theorem? Is that just the class equation for G acting on a set S?
Oh so, if G acts transitively on S then there is one orbit, meaning there needs to be a subgroup of G with index size of S
By the partition equation
Its essentially the kernel of the natural map Z -> R
Also, for example, fields with certain characteristics have nice properties with respect to for example representation theory
Its just some property of a ring that one needs to consider a lot (and it behaves especially nice in integral domains, as then n β’ r = 0 <=> n = char R), so we've given it a name
Lol i was about to ask can the characteristic of a ring not be prime (cuz i been studying fields so much recently)
Z/4Z be like
The humble Z/nZ
If you take the the natural numbers (including 0) as a posetal category where n -> m iff n | m, noting that every number divides 0 as 0 * x = 0, char is a contravariant functor from Ring to this category lol
This is not unique to rings though, just that the lattice of ideals of Z is opposite to the lattice of integers ordered by divisibility
For a group action G on X and an element x, the index of the stabilizer (all g such that g(x) = x) is the size of the orbit of x.
More explicitly the map
G -> X
g |-> gx
Gives a bijection between G/H and the orbit of x, where H is the stabilizer
It's not really by convention.
0 = 0*n, so every number does indeed divide 0
Yeah, true, bad wording
Fixed
Every variety of algebras has a such a characteristic functor to the congruence lattice of the initial algebra, its just that the congruence lattice of Z has a convenient representation :3
true or false
A ring with zero divisors may contain one of the prime fields as a subring
QxQ contains Qx{0} which is isomorphic to Q, does that count?
i'm gonna say true
Does not count because Q x {0} is not a subring. It doesn't contain 1 = (1, 1)
However, the same example of your ring with zero divisors does have Q in it. Just somewhere else.
The humble diagonal map X -> X x X
Also more obvious examples like Q[x]/x^2
Yes
Thats smart
I mean really like these two are isomorphic anyway right
But I find it more easy psychologically lol
I mean also like
Any ring map out of a field is injective lol (except a map to 0)
And every ring admits a map from a prime field
No?
QxQ is reduced, Q[x]/x^2 isnt
:P
Yes the second is a square zero extension of Q whilst the first isn't lol
QxQ β Q[x] / (x - x^2)
Though, right?
Ye
Just pulling it out of my ass
Chinese remainder
Yeah ok
Freely adjoining an idempotent
I will NOT be calling it chinise remaejinder this is the lemma used in proving that an algebra is subdirectly irreducible iff it has a unique minimal nontrivial congruence >:((((
Lol
I hate this fact
It looks so unclean
What does a reduced ring mean?
Also, how?
No nilpotents
Oki
Equivalently, some subring of a direct product of fields
Because reduced rings are quotients by radicals, radicals are intersections of primes, and primes are ideals where the quotient ring can be embedded into some field
Isn't it enough to require it to be a direct product of integral domains?
Or even reduced rings lol
Only subdirect product
I believe
Yeah
Reduced rings are subdirect products of integral domains
I guess one could say that ISP(K) = IP_s(IS(K))
But I'd look like a crackpot
let homomorphism $f\colon A\to B$
IHaveABoner12
So true
$\to$
HChan
ain't no waaay lmao
xde
$\to$
donut123
$\rightarrow$
donut123
why is weird for you all
$\to$
Homogeneous spaces
NAT Enthusiast
isnt is a bit confusing
one defined symmetry interms of rigid motion and other defined rigid motion in terms of symmetry
they're both just essentially saying that you have some map that preserves the structure of the object
a rearrangement of the figure preserving the arrangement of its sides and vertices as well as its distances and angles
oh i see, so rigid motion is a map that preservers structure of the objective and symmetry is also the same thing
so rigid motion isn't same as symmetry
well depends on what context you're using the words in
but practically its not something to worry about, just semantics
In mathematical terms, you define a plane symmetry as an isometry of R^2, that is a map f from R^2 to itself that is 1-1 and onto, and preserves distances. For a geometric figure, say M in R^2, you want M to be invariant under f in the sense that f(M) = M, and in that case you say f is a symmetry of M. Now plane symmetries are equally termed to as rigid motions.
i see, so plane symmetries are rigid motion in R^3 are like same?
Well, not β€.
You extend the notion naturally to R^3 and R^n, n >= 3, and futhermore to abstract metric spaces, wherever there's a notion of distance.
i think a rigid motion in R^3 would be an isometry that preserves orientation
are reflections rigid motions?
i guess for the n-gon you can make a reflection with a rigid motion in R^3
i see
well reflections are orientation reversing isometries
the idea of "symmetries of a shape" became clearer to me when i understood isometries
Well, mathematics can be so frustrating in any case but you just need to get used to all this kind of terminology coming around. Afterall it specifies the language we speak of in order to gain precision in what we are trying to say, formulate and prove. As frustrating as it may be, notice that the same term can be also used by others in various places with a slightly different meaning, if not equivalent, and in some sense it's part of your understanding to try to make things clear. For some it's also fun, a conceptual one!
is this the principal ideal generated by a+M ?
yeah i hope so i will be able to understand these terms soon, after having some experience with algebra
thank you guys for help
HChan, Flexibile , axe

Yes.
thanks π
In general, for R a commutative ring and x in R, Rx is an alternative notation for the ideal (x) of R generated by x. If R is not commutative, Rx is merely a left ideal.
Rx looks so cursed
It just signifies we multiply all elements of R with x from the left.
I know, I guess I havent seen it much so im not used to it
Yes, I don't use it either much. I prefer the more conventional (x).
It does make ideal notation more homogenous
i have written this def
Sometimes it's preferable where there are more than one ring involved, so we can keep track which ideal in which ring we are referring to.
It stands but it can become better!
oh, for now i hope it will work, maybe will edit it more once i read about this stuff more
i do wonder why they defined "rigid motion" as preserving symmetry
because i think it's any map preserving distance and orientation
It comes as a theorem that a symmetry of an n-gon preserves the arrangement of sides and vertices.
idk 
Also that "n" in n-gon is generally different from the other "n" for the dimension of the ambient space.
For the case of n-gons, it's better to stick in R^2 even though things can be also done in higher dimensional spaces.
make sense
I should try this: A map f: R^d -> R^d, d >= 1, that preserves distances is called a rigid motion. A symmetry of an n-gon P, n >= 3, is a rigid motion in R^2 that maps P to itself.
Why is $\langle g \rangle H \cap K = H$
Luke
What's K
K is a subgroub of G/H
Ok so let me ask just to clarify, we have G a group, with H a normal subgroup, and K is a subgroup of G/H. Right?
Also, is anything said about small g?
G is a finite abelian p-group and g is an element of maximal order
I don't know.. maybe you can do an induction? A finite abelian p-group is of always order p^n for some n. Maybe induction on n should work
If G/H = <g> x K, then they have trivial intersection per def .
But it's a little unclear what information is given to you
What definition? This is a random proof from a video I am wathcing, I have never seen this defined anywhere
A group A is a product BxC if B and C are normal subgroups that don't intersect and generate A. There are many equivalent definitions.
Protip: when asking for something it's a good idea to identify what you don't understand and give the relevant context.
Just throwing out some symbols you don't understand and ask "why?" Won't lead to helpful answers
Except your helpful answer. checkmate 
bit of a stupid question here uhhh
is there a name for a structure consisting of a set X with addition and multiplication
where X, + is an abelian group
and * distributes over +
and * isn't necessarily commutative or associative?
People usually call that a (non-associative) algebra.
thank you!
Lie Algebras 
Don't you need scalar multiplication for it to be an algebra?
Any abelian group is vacuously a Z-module, as Z is the initial ring
So nonassociative rings are nonassociative Z-algebras
I see 
Module, not algebra, oops
it feels very wrong to me to say that this vacuous, there is something to show here
For me, R-modules with underlying abelian group G are ring homomorphisms R -> End_Z(G)
So, as Z is initial, the Z-module structure on G is unique and essentially by definition
Though vacuous isnt really the right word i suppose, as Z-module doesnt add any new information
yeah, but vacuous rather means there is no information
What word would you use?
this sounds intriguing btw, do you have an example other than rings and Z?
Any abelian group is canonically a Z-module, or uniquely a Z-module, or trivially a Z-module
Yeah thats better, thanks jagr
Groups lol, although as the trivial group has a one element normal subgroup lattice, i cant say that the functor is very interesting :P
for something more interesting, take the comma category (G \downarrow Grp) for some group G. This is the category of group homomorphisms from G and maps making a triangle commute. The initial object here is G, and this gives a functor from this category to the normal subgroup lattice
Also, yes, coslice categories are also varieties
What you do, for the coslice category of A, is adjoin nullary operations for all elements in A and gives those the structure of A with respect to the fundamental relations
I dont think any of this is particularly useful, it only is for Z as the ideals are conveniently numbers
I could be wrong but im not sure how much the characteristic says about your algebraic structure or vice versa
interesting
category theory is crazy 
what does variety mean here
Variety of algebraic structures, in the universal algebra sense
A bit of unfortunate naming
They are classes of algebraic structures of the same type which satisfy some axioms
(Although in a sense they are very alike)
i still havenβt had a look at universal algebra, just seen it mentioned here and there
do you know of some nice expository article 
Its really awesome, although it is built more on lattice theory and closure operators than category theory. This meant that, with the rise of Bourbaki, it kind of faded into obscurity, but didnt disappear completely, luckily. What comes close is the study of monads or operad theory, but I like the classical UA
iirc it predates category theory so thatβs not so surprising
Hmm, I dont know of expository articles, I'd have to look for you, but I do believe that Burris and Sankappanavar's book is a great introduction
i think Ore published something universal algebra -like
π category theory is making its way into UA though
noted, thanku
Like, direct limits, pushout and pullbacks, and free objects are all important objects
Free algebras especially, as they are essentially the algebras of expressions over some set of variables
So that gives the link between algebraic logic and category theory
Furthermore, I am working on linking (universal) algebraic geometry to algebraic logic, which is also cool
Anyhow
Yes, universal algebra, very cool
lovely
they donβt seem to have the book at my uni library, which is rare; on another note i see this burris seems more than healthily obsessed with george boole
The boolean algebra chapter is longer than the "elements of universal algebra" chapter in his book

in case youβve never had the displeasure of reading early 19th century logic: boole was of tremenduous influence, not only on mathematical logic, but also on spiritualism and parapsychology

Stone duality gives rise to cool constructions
is $\frac{\mathbb{R}[X,Y]}{<X^2+Y^2-1>}$ a ufd and what if We replace $\mathbb{R}$ by $\mathbb{C}$.
Ricci 10
consider X in A = R[X,Y]/(X^2 + Y^2 - 1). you can show that X is not prime but irreducible so A cannot be a UFD
if you replace R with C, you can show that its isomorphic to C[t,t^-1] which is a localisation of C[t], which is a UFD, at t so it must be a UFD
what is the map for isomorphism
C[t,t^-1] -> C[X,Y]/(X^2 + Y^2 - 1) via t -> X+iY
Trying to make sure I understand this right: for any field extension k <= F (not necessarily algebraic) there is a correspondence between intermediate fields k <= E <= F and subgroups of Gal_k(F), which is actually an adjoint functor between their preorders. When k <= F is Galois this correspondence is bijective, and the preorders are isomorphic. Is this correct?
isnt x is not prime also in C
Not sure about the question about adjoint functors, but the first part I'm pretty sure yes, because given an intermediate field E, k \subset E subset F, we can construct a subgroup of Gal_k(F) by considering Gal_E(F). The same goes the other way, given a subgroup of Gal_k(F) (a bunch of automorphisms of F which fix k), we can construct an intermediate subfield by considering all elements fixed by your subgroup.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Adjoint_functors#Posets There is a section on the wikipedia page here that you may find useful
In mathematics, specifically category theory, adjunction is a relationship that two functors may exhibit, intuitively corresponding to a weak form of equivalence between two related categories. Two functors that stand in this relationship are known as adjoint functors, one being the left adjoint and the other the right adjoint. Pairs of adjoint ...
ISNT THERE any elementary answer without localization
thanks
I wanna learn more about lattices and posets, I bet it's possible to understand this part 2 of the fundamental theorem in a lattice-theoretic way, atleast if it's possible to define normal subgroups in terms of lattices
Im trying to understand the construction of rational canonical form in D&F and I'm confused. Suppose we have a pair (V,T), where V a vector space and T a linear map of V. Our goal is to find a basis for V which gives a matrix rep for T as close to diagonal as possible. To this end, first pass the pair (V,T) to its corresponding F[x]-module. Then the fundamental theorem gives us this isomorphism:
Ok, so now let's focus on one of these F[x]/(a(x)) in particular.
we know F[x] is an F vector space, and (a(x)) a subsapce, so F[x]/(a(x)) is an F vector space
It has the basis described here:
that is, if a(x)=x^k+b_{k-1}x^{k-1}+...+b_0, then a basis of F[x]/(a(x)) is the images of x^{k-1},...,1 under the projection map to the quotient.
Now, we have a linear map T:F[x]/(a(x)) to F[x]/(a(x)): [p(x)] mapsto [xp(x)]
Its matrix represnetation relative to that basis is the comapnion matrix described here
thats fine, all of it makes sense to here
but then Im confused here:
what is B_i exactly?
The basis for F[x]/(a_i(x)), with say a_i(x)= x^k+b_{k-1}x^{k-1}+...+b_0 is the equivalence classes of x^{k-1},...,1
what are the elements of V corresponding to this basis?
would it just be for example, the element corresponding to [x^{k-1}] is (0,0,...x^{k-1},0,...0), were x^{k-1} occurs at the ith component?
This is something called a Galois connection
Its the same as an adjoint functor between categories, except for the special case that the categories are thin (there exists at most one morphism between two objects)
Yep, that's pretty much what I pieced together; in this case the categories are preorders of field extensions and subgroups respectively. I read on wikipedia that every Galois connection gives rise to a closure operator. What is the closure operator in this case?
So you've got
E -> Gal_E(F)
H -> field fixed by H
Right?
I dont know enough field theory to know whether or not this is an actual inverse mapping and such
I'd have to look into it
In general it's not, but they are inverses when the field extension is Galois
The closure operator though is given by the composition
E -> Gal_E(F) -> field fixed by Gal_E(F)
So the "closed" fields are all fields which are fixed by some subgroup of automorphisms of F
ahh, so the last two lines of this proposition is actually describing the closure properties of the closure operator?
Yes
a)
We need to show that if a = b in Zn, then f(a) = f(b) in Zm. Since a = b in Zn, then a - b = 0 in Zn. Then we can apply f. So, f(a) - f(b) = f(a-b) = f(0) = 0 in Zm. Since f(a) - f(b) = 0 in Zm, then f(a) = f(b) in Zm. f is well defined.
Is my proof correct?
wow, cool
thanks 
Are Galois extensions the fields which are fixed by some subgroup of the galois group?
Because if so, then the closure operator on the subgroup lattice of Gal_k(F) is the normal closure
"Galois field" typically refers to a finite field of order p^n
Sorry, i meant extensions
hmm, so the question is if G <= Gal_k(F), then is k <= F^G a Galois extension? I think so, let me see if I find can it
only if G is normal in Gal_k(F)
Yeah, that seems correct. I only found that F^G <= F is Galois in general
i think i was able to prove this, but i never used the fact that p,q are prime. only that p,q > 1
p, q prime is a requirement
You can use the fact that integral domains can be embedded into a field, and then that Z_p must be the prime subfield of that field
Think about the characteristic
Maybe
haha
Much more simple :P
i believe a subring isomorphic to Z_n means the integral domain has characteristic n
Yes
even for composite n
Integral domains cannot have a subring isomorphic to Z_n for some nonprime n
Yes
thanks π
Can someone take a look at this please
hmm, if Z_n <= R does R have to have characteristic n? Or is it just that n divides char(R)?
Looks good
the subring must contain unity of the integral domain, right?
that's what i wrote
any "a" in the integral domain added to itself p times can be written a(1+1+1+...) = a(p dot 1) = a(0)=0
that's Theorem 19.15
yep, that looks correct 
π
yeah, the argument you gave works for any ring AFAICT, so the characteristic should be equal
I was thinking of the result that if R -> S is a ring hom then char(S) divides char(R), if I remember correctly
oh, interesting
which ties in to the big brain stuff enpeace was talking about, where the characteristic is a functor from the category of rings to the divisibility lattice of integers
i just started studying again after a break i kinda forget the idea behind of an order of a ring or the order of an element , if anyone could tell me the idea behind it
the order of an element "a" of a group is the order of the cyclic subgroup generated by "a", or equivalently, the smallest positive integer n such that a^n is the identity of the group
A W explanation, Axe
thanks big man
The order of an algebraic structure is usually the number of elements in the underlying set
(Sometimes also called power >~>)
my brain is bugging for some reason. Can anyone help find what I overlooked?
If I have a left ideal I, I can consider the left R-module R/I.
The annihilator is a bilateral ideal, however it should also be equal to I?
Divides if β€/nβ€ maps to R, equal if it maps to R injectivedy.
nvm
poor sleep I see my mistake
I guess you could say it was trivial.. (lemma)
im reading the product of two ideals A and B is an ideal where we define AB is the finite sums of product ab. But i am a bit confused on where in the proof that we require both of them to be ideals
i must be missing something obvious
like if AB = { sum a_i*b_i | ai in A, bi in B}
the abosring can all be done using the ideal A
and likewiise the inverse requirement I believe
and i think by defintion of AB then any s1 + s2 where s1 and s2 are finite sums of products aibi then it must be in the set AB
is rA an ideal?
It's not an if and only if.
If A and B are ideals, then AB is an ideal, but that will also happen if only A is an ideal for example
For any sets A, B, AB is an additive submonoid (by construction). For any r, (rA)B = r(AB) and A(Br) = (AB)r (more generally, (AB)C = A(BC) = ABC for any sets A, B, C), so if A (resp. B) is closed under multiplication on the left (resp. right), e.g. because it is a left (resp.) right ideal, then AB is a left (resp. right) ideal.
is there a name for the subgroup of S1 of only the elements of finite order
hey, where do i learn about the ring of taylor polynomials?
This is the subgroup $\mathbf Q/\mathbf Z \subset \mathbf R/\mathbf Z$
Prismatic Potato
ok cool thanks
Okay π.
It's p-torsion is called the Prufer group (Prufer p-group? p-Prufer group? this is there somewhere on Wikipedia) sometimes.
Yes (I assume here R was commutative)
And PrΓΌfer pedantically aha
But yes this is a good point
And then those I guess are equivalently like Z[1/p]/Z
I want an easy way to type those characters on phone :/
Question here for anyone who has used Fraleigh 8th edition for an abstract algebra course. Wondering if you would be willing to share a list of chapters and homework exercises that you had to do for the course. Not the solutions, but just the problem numbers.
Lol yeah
I guess I should say like typically the German convention is to spell ΓΌ etc as ue if you don't have the character
ah lol
that's important
what name do you use for the arithmetic of subsets of a ring?
Or even when you have a subset of a ring with a subset of a module
this type of arithmetic on sets is constantly used but I don't know if it has a name
it's really useful for saving time cause I don't have to grab elements from the set when using it
Arbitrary subsets?
just the algebra in general though usually ideals
and submodules I suppose
though sometimes we consider small sets
like singletons
Well, thats just ring/module theory no?
For ideals you can make the case that its commutator theory but besides that
Lol
Sure but in this argument I wanted to refer to it directly
R = I1 + ... + It (direct sums, R is semisimple these are minimal left ideals)
RM = (I1 + ... + It)M = I1M + ... + ItM
Rm = (I1 + ... + It)m = I1m + ... + Itm = I1m
I guess "by commutative algebra"
these are non-commutative rings
This is about modules, which is commutative algebra no?
Nvm
That just seems like module theory
yeah it's module theory
I meant nothing else specifically, like arithmetic of ideals
Its just what you do
:P
I was solving all modules are semisimple iff all finitely modules are semisimple iff regular R module is semisimple
By regular R-module is this like R as an R-module
yeah
For our first course we did
- Section 0
- Part I: Sections 1β6
- Part II: Sections 8β10
- Part III: Sections 12β15
- Part IV: Sections 16, 17, 27
- Part V: Sections 22, 23, 24
- Part VI: Sections 27, 28, 30, 31
- Part VII: Sections 33
- Part VIII: Sections 42
For exercises, just pick and choose. I recommend a couple of computations, a few from the concepts section and a few from the theory part. (I particularly like the true/false questions and questions about correcting definitions)
Nice! Thanks for putting that together, you have no idea how helpful that is.
Which group am I looking at here?
my thought was that it must have 2 generators cus it has two types of lines
what diagram is this
Looks like S_3
Generated by two transpositions, but not commutative
well i guess the expectation is u write the group
as <a, b | ababab> ?
and then figure what it is?
or am i being silly
Also a^2, b^2
ah right
So that gives the relation aba = bab
I.e. its a coxeter group, D_6
Or D_3, whatever your convention
Isn't s_3 supposed to look more like a triangle inside a triangle?
hmm, apparently it can look different depending on the generating set
Yee
Cayley graphs are great for certain things but not great for determining stuff up to isomorphism
Does the notion of two ideals being comaximal/co-prime have some analog to that of two numbers who have a gcd of 1 so we can find a linear combination of those elements?
Reading Dummit and foote generalization of Chinese remainder theorem and trying to draw connections to the typical way it is viewed about some integers being coprime
yes
Yes, this is the motivation for it. You can define the gcd of two integers $a,b$ as the (positive) generator of the ideal $(a,b) = a\mathbf Z + a \mathbf Z$ and check that this matches the useful definition, so in particular if $a,b$ are coprime then the corresponding ideals are coprime/comaximal. Note though this doesn't really work well in general, which is a reason to use the term comaximal here
Prismatic Potato
Bro said aZ + aZ πππ
If $\exists n\in Z$ such that $n \cdot a=0,\forall a \in R$ then we call $n$ the characteristic of the ring R.\
For example, in $\mathbb{Z}_6={0,1,2,3,4,5}$, we have\
$6\cdot1=0$,$3\cdot2=0$,$2\cdot3=0$,$3\cdot4=0$,$6\cdot5=0$, \so the character would be lcm ${6,3,2,3,6}=6$
I noticed that in some places, they just check what smallest $n$ satisfies $n\cdot1=0$ and then say characteristic of R is $n$.
\
I was wondering if there was a ring where the unit element's corresponding $n$ is not the chracterstic of R.
Does there exist a ring where some of the elements (includes identity) have $m$ as the smallest integer and the oher elements have $l$ as the smallest integer.\
eventually making the characterstic of the ring , lcm$(m,l) \neq m$
HandT
I would appreciate some directions on this
the characteristic of a ring can equivalently be defined as the smallest positive integer n such that n*1 = 0 (try and prove this)
I see,n.a= (n.1).a=0.a=0
What does class number of cyclotomic field mean
As for any number field, the cardinality (which is finite) of the ideal class group of its ring of integers.
I'm using G-board, you just hold a letter and accents/variations show up. Is that not how all phone keyboards work more or less / is that not an easy way?
Oh. I use a different keyboard, but I can indeed do that if I switch back. π€¦
ai is getting scary smart π€―
Lobotomy
Is a. basically asking to prove that there exists no permutation with n elements can be written as a product of more than n β 1 transpositions? Iβm confused since there is a counterexample to this i believe
What's your counterexample?
This permutation has only 4 elements but can be expressed as a product of 5 transpositions
Yes, but it can also be written as (14)(24)(34), which is 3 transpositions. The point is that there exists such a decomposition, not that "there are no products of more than n transpositions in S_n"; there are, because S_n is a group
For example, the identity can be written as (12)(12)(12)(12)(12)(12)(12)(12) \in S_3, but it can also be (12)(12) or the "empty" product.
Any ideas on Q8
Let D be a division ring prove that every finite commutative subgroup of the multiplication group of D is cyclic
Soβ¦it says that all permutations S_n can be expressed as a product of n β 1 transpositions?
I have very interesting problems on algebra please DM if you are interested we can discuss
This one is interesting
You can use the classification of finite abelian groups.
|| you can make that commutative subgroup into the field, just add 0 and then use that x^n = 1 has at most n roots ||
Is this one correct? Jagr?
is this that simple
Maybe wrong
There is an argument that goes along those lines
that we do exactly when D is field and yes the previous problem assumed D to be field
The technique is exactly the same. You can even explicitly reduce to a field like notknow said
does this #groups-rings-fields topic exist as a subject on itself or is it always part of another subject?
yes correct
What do you mean?
like do u get a subject called fields for example. Like the study of fields
Yes. Field theory
ohh i see
And it's hard
Group theory, field theory and ring theory are all fields in their own right yeah.
oh i see. thank you
i was reviewing the proof (dummit n foote)for existence of algebraic closure can any one tell why the resultant field is algebraic over the base field
The reason to group them together is just because they're usually introduce at the same time (in an academic setting)
I think I have to do more, because adding 0 is not enough to make into the field, what about closure under addition?
take field generated by set , if you are desperate
You need to take the division ring generated by the elements, so close under addition subtraction multiplication and division
Then its multiplicative set needs the same?
I see
theorem for finitely generated group is precise way to do this
Oh so its multiplicative set is cyclic and our original multiplicative set is subgroup so it is cyclic
I guess it's not completely obvious that the division ring generated by commuting elements is commutative, but it's true
Shout out wedderburn
But why do I have to make a division ring, why not a field?
why to overkill
What would it mean to "make a field"
wedderburn theorem is outlined in excersises and involves many steps to proove it
I mean make a field of fraction
wait what does βat mostβ mean
What does it mean by division ring generated by the elements?
You mean make a subring generated by the elements?
The smallest subdivision ring that contains all the elements
Which will be the division ring because our ring is division ring
There exists a way of writing an element of S_n that is the product of < n transpositions, so at most n-1 transpositions.
Yes I got it
Oh thanks
I thought it meant it has always to be less than or equal to n β 1
No
The subring of Q generated by 1 is Z
I guess you can also split it into first looking at the ring generated, which is clearly commutative.
Then if two elements commute they also commute with their inverses (simple calculation)
So adjoining inverses gives the field of fractions for this commutative ring
By adjoining you mean add inverse such that it will be closure under addition and closed under multiplication, right?
It's enough to adjoin all the inverses, and closure under addition follows
So it's closing under multiplication I guess
What I mean it's consider everything of the form a*b^-1
I think it closed under multiplication but I have to show it is closed under addition
Say x^-1 and y^-1 , then I have to x^-1 + y^-1 is an inverse of S, where S is ring generated by that set
x and y in S
It's common denominator, just like in primary school.
x^-1 + y^-1 = y(xy)^-1 + x(xy)^-1 = (x+y)(xy)^-1
Not necessarily no. For example if R is the ring of polynomials then you can use the degree as a norm, so N(1) = 0
It follows from the division algorithm that N(a) = 0 only if a is a unit or 0 though
I am not sure how it comes from a dummit's division algorithm definition
I know other authors use that N(xy) β€ N(x)N(y) but dummit didn't introduce yet
Consider
1 = qb + r.
If N(b) = 0, then N(r) < N(b) is impossible, so you have r=0 and b a unit
I see
how is Klein 4 a transitive subgroup of S4?
I mean I guess writing it out I can see that any element in {1,2,3,4} can go to any other element by applying some element of Klein 4
but, I dont see that with the galois group of (x^2-5)(x^2+5)
galois group of that is Klein 4 isnt it?
But you cant make sqrt(5) map to sqrt(-5) ... so i dont get it
unless the galois group is not klein 4 and im just wrong there
Ok I guess it shouldnt be because the galois group acting on the roots should have two orbits not one
Not sure where im going wrong
Do you guys see my confusion?
The galois group of that should be C2 x C2
Ok I think gpt helped me
Klein 4 is a subgroup of S4 in different ways ... ech
{(), (12), (34), (12)(34)} is the one im looking at
but then you have {(), (12)(34), (13)(24), (14)(23)} which is the transitive one
I've never seen this stuff before, can someone please elucidate whats going on here?
My group theory isnt the best
Is this the subgroup {1, (1 2)(3 4), (1 3)(2 4), (1 4)(2 3)}?
Yea
Yeah.
I think this is what you have here though.
Yeah that makes sense
But for some reason I just havent seen this before
Like, I usually would just think "its a subgroup" full stop
not like its the transitive one
But if you find a primitive element for the field extension the Galois group should act transitively on that.
makes sense
So that would give you a different embedding of the Galois group (which is still the Klein-4) into S4 (corresponding to its action on a different set of 4 elements) which is a transitive action, i.e., has image a "transitive" subgroup.
the Galois group should act transitively on the roots of the minimal polynomial for that primitive element
is what it means fully explained?
IG then it would be the (12)(34) (13)(24) (14)(23) subgroup.
Ok, weird / interesting .. (to me). It has been kind of tricky thinking about Galois group acting on the stuff
Prob because i havent worked with group actions that much before in general
Well, everything comes with experience, I guess.
Haha yeah
So how do those two Klein 4 subgroups of S4 relate? Are they related by conjugation or just something like that?
is there a way of describing the difference?
They are isomorphic groups but not the "same"?
i just read in dummit and foote say "... is a biquadratic extension hence the Galois group is isomorphic to the klein 4 subgroup of S4"
i dont like how they said the
Hmm. Conjugation by an element of S4 corresponds to relabelling the elements the group acts on, which shouldn't be able to change whether the group acts transitively or not.
Indeed, if we look at the cycle types one subgroup has 3 "product of 2 2-cycles" and the other has only 1. So they're not conjugate.
Well, that's bad language.
I think the "transitive" subgroup is the unique subgroup of A_4 isomorphic to the Klein-4 though.
Maybe Dummit & Foote meant to write A_4?
Oh ok and the transitive one {1, (1 2)(3 4), (1 3)(2 4), (1 4)(2 3)} is in A4 because each element is an even permutation (even number of transpositions?)
and the other one is not in A4 because it has odd permutations
Yeah, different subgroups can be isomorphic.
So here being transitive is a property of the subgroup, not of the group.
And being transitive or not requires us to tecnically specify a set S and define a group action ... ?
Is it just with elements / subgroups of Sn its natural to think of it already as a group acting on a set cause its just acting on {1,2,...n}
I know this is kind of like fundamental group theory knowledge but i havent thought about this too much
Yeah, I mean transitive is really a word about group actions, which has been translated to subgroups of Sn
thanks im learning
Absorbing the knowledge, even
So true
Yep. In the other direction, an action of G on a set with n elements is the same as (after choosing a labelling by 1, ..., n) a homomorphism G β S_n and whether or not it's transitive only depends on the image of this homomorphism. So both definitions are the same thing really.
I think I understand it up until "both definitions are the same thing really"
I mean that you can define either in terms of the other: H β S_n is transitive iff H on {1, ..., n} is transitive, and G on {1, ..., n} iff im(rho) β S_n is transitive, where rho: G β S_n is the action map.
$\frac{\mathbb{C}[x,y]}{<x^2-y^3>}$ is UFD?
Curvature
Notice that it's isomorphic to C[t^2, t^3], is this a UFD?
I am / was also confused on this because I was introduced to the idea then given a specific ring and they gave me a norm which was multiplicative to do the proof. My book called this the measure and it was never specified that this measure had such multiplicative properties.
So like I don't know if given a euclidean domain I'm unsure if I can find a euclidean function which is multiplicative.
If that is always possible or not. Or how that works
Ok ye so im still tryna figure out the Galois group of x^5+x-1 = (x^2-x+1)(x^3+x^2-1) over Q. So I know its a subgroup of C2 x S3. The discriminant of the quadratic and cubic are -3 and -23, not squares in Q, so the splitting field is divisible by 2 and 6. They are not related by a square so Q(sqrt(-3), sqrt(-23)) is contained in the splitting field so the splitting field is also divisible by 4. So split field is divisible by 12 so the galois group must then be C2 x S3?
I'm curious
solvable groups are usually(?) defined as groups that have a subnormal series whose factors are abelian
but the derived series will be a normal series, and its factors will be abelian. So why even say subnormal series?
Shii i gotta learn that^
My exam next friday lol
I have to learn those radical extension solvable extensions stuff
With the solvable groups and allat
Why use a seemingly stronger definition when a weaker will do I guess
fair
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hey guys
can you guys help me with the following statement
Let G be infinite cyclic. There exists exactly two possible generators for G
how to approach this?
ok...
we could have like <1> = Z... <2> = 2Z and so on
but Z can only be generated entirely by <1> and <n>? idk
wait
this kinda makes sense
either it makes sense or i got it completely wrong
wait
fuck
I think I got it
the possible generators are exactly <g> and <g^{-1}>
duh
RIGHT?
apologize the spam
what if g = g^{-1}
I got it, but in that case I think we are not sure that the Euclidean algorithm will stop at some point, right?
No it will
Then g^2 = 1, so it's not infinite cyclic.
I knew the answer tho
cause that question was on my exam and I lost a point cause I missed that lol
You can see G as a Z module here so G is isomorphic to Z^n but G is cyclic so it is enough to check for Z
No this is not
Is there a way to avoid unity argument? I can't figure out how I would extend this or show it is surjective if R was without unity.
i know given A + B = R then for all r in R there exist an a and b such that r = a + b. But I don't know how I can work this backwards from saying
given (r1 + A, r2 + B) there exist an r in R such that r -> (r1+A, r2+B)
r1 = a1 + b1
r2 = a2 + b2
What's the image of
a2 + b1
I think you'll have problems with the induction step though
For example consider R = Z/2 x Z/2 where all multiplications are 0.
Then A1 = ((1,0)), A2 = ((0, 1)), A3 = ((1, 1)). Then they are pairwise comaximal and R/Ai = Z/2.
But R is of course not (Z/2)^3
What you need is that A1\cap A2 is comaximal with A3, and this doesn't follow in the non-unital case
a2 = (r2-b2)
b1 = (r1-a1)
f(a2+b1) = (a2+b1+A, a2+b1+B) = (a2+r1-a1+A, r2-b2+b1+B) = (r1+A, r2+B)
b1 , b2 in B so b1 + B = 0 + B = b2 + B
a1, a2 in A so a1 + A = 0 + A = a2 + A
correct?
from what book is this? if i may ask
looks like dummit foote
True
If F is a field and algebraic closure of F has finite dimension over F, is F isomorphic to Reals
Not isomorphic, but it will be a real closed field
https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Real_closed_field
In mathematics, a real closed field is a field F that has the same first-order properties as the field of real numbers. Some examples are the field of real numbers, the field of real algebraic numbers, and the field of hyperreal numbers.
Truncated exponential polynomials are irreducible for every n
Means n terms of tayler series of e^x
whew i remember elementary equivalence being a personal highlight of the model theory course i took
As mentioned by @south patrol you can assume without loss of generality that G = Z. Now if n is a cyclic generator of Z, then nZ = Z which implies that n | 1. That forces n = 1 or n = -1.
Knowing in advance that any infinite cyclic group G is isomorphic to Z, you cannot have g = g^(-1) unless g is of course the identity element of G. In additive notation, that would be translated in (Z, +) as g = -g => g + g = 0 which automatically yields g = 0 (the additive identity of Z). Moreover any element of G has infinite order apart from the identity that has always order 1.
Can I get a hint?
Consider the smallest possible norm of an element in R-tildeR
I got it, thank you
But how did you get the idea that we have to take smallest norm of an element in R-tildeR?
Well, I looked at the equation
x = qu + z with N(z) < N(u)
How can I force z to be a unit? Well if everything with norm less than N(u) was a unit that would do it. Okay then just do that
Dummit and foote chapter 7 section 6
Okay
Galois group of (x^3-3)(x^3-2). So Galois group is a subgroup of S3 x S3. The splitting field is degree 18 over Q so the Galois group is not going to be the full S3 x S3... so can I just say its A3 x S3 then?
Do subgroups of G1 x G2 have to be like H1 x H2?
Maybe try to figure out what all the subgroups of C2xC2 is
oh right
So I guess I can't really say A3 x S3 right away
Yeah, it's not that if you think of it as a subgroup of S3xS3, but I think it will be that up to isomorphism
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Goursat's_lemma if you're interested
Goursat's lemma, named after the French mathematician Γdouard Goursat, is an algebraic theorem about subgroups of the direct product of two groups.
It can be stated more generally in a Goursat variety (and consequently it also holds in any Maltsev variety), from which one recovers a more general version of Zassenhaus' butterfly lemma. In this f...
I guess enpeace would love to mentioned that the Galois group would need to be a subdirect product of the Galois groups of x^3 - 3 and x^3 - 2
The first part seems clear to me from orbit stabiliser, we have a map H-> Orb(i) which induces a bijection H/Stab(i) -> Orb(i). I'm unsure how to prove the second part, and also where to use the hypothesis that H is normal in G. Any help would be appreciated
Actually I think I'm going to take a break from galois theory and come back to it in a few months. It's becoming a real slog honestly
Hopefully by then my brain will have matured and understood what is going on
It's becoming pretty hard to carry on studying this subject
All H orbits are the same size. So if n = p what are the possible orbit sizes
Youβve done the hard part lol
What are you using to study it? Dummit and foote?
I feel like the possible orbit sizes are 1 or p but i dont know dawg im falling apart
jacobson, basic algebra 1
U literally just cited orbit stabiliser og so yes itβs 1 or p. If itβs p itβs transitive so u just have to reason why H != 1 doesnβt act trivially
i feel u
Totally stuck on this one
My first idea was to get a basis for ker(phi) and extrnd it to a basis for M
But i don't think you can do that in PID modules like u can in vector spaces
The hint is supposed to be applied to ||the image of phi||.
Ok let me think
Maybe if phi(V) has a basis so does M/ker(phi), take coset representatives of this basis of M/ker(phi) in M?
The submodule they generate might direct sum with the kernel to M
if you have 2 vector spaces and a homomorphism of groups between them, must it be a homomorphism of vector spaces?
no

I seem to remember some deduction where you can get phi(ax) = a phi(x) from phi(x + y) = phi(x) + phi(y), but I'm guessing that only works in a field? I think in a vector space you can only deduce phi(a x) = a phi(x) for integers a
For example think of complex conjugation
Over C as a C space
Thanks
I guess any nonidentity field automorphism haha
This doesn't work in a field either
Well I guess kerchooboi's example works for that lol
I think I was thinking of the proof that if f : R -> R is additive and continuous then it's linear. Does additive imply linear for maps between vector spaces over prime fields?
Oh so the size of homF(Es, Fs) being equal to [Es : F] is clear right
[Es : F] is like some [F(a) : F] so every embedding of Es is determined by where it sends a and you have all [F(a) : F] distinct choices because Fs contains all roots
Im not sure how dummit and foote justifies that separable degrees are multiplicative
In the corollary there
for the product of ideals
How is something like A(BC) defined if A,B,C are ideals from a ring R
my confusion is
BC = {b1c1 + .... + bkck | k in N and bi in B and ci in C)
so I was unsure of it was some nested sum
BC is an ideal, and as the product is defined for any two ideals, A(BC) is also defined
Im not sure what the problem is? Do you want an explicit description?
That involves just some distributivity
I guess I want to know if saying A(BC) has elements of the form
$\sum_i a_i (\sum_j (b_jc_j))$
was incorrect
Brandon7716
Its the definition, so it is correct
but I cant figure out how to work with a basic example and say rewrite
a1b1c1 + a2b2c2
into something of the form a1'(x)+a2'(x)
where x would just be whatever the value of that finite sum was iterated over j
like i have to find a choice of a1' and a2' that gives back the original sum
Oh wait no this isnt correct
or maybe im misunderstanding something
It has to b_ij and c_ij
^ your inner sum depends on i
oh...
Just like how in BC it wasn't the same c for each b in the sum
just write it as a1(b1c1) + a2(b2c2)
b1c1 and b2c2 are in BC
in this case the indeces of the inner sums run from j=1 to j=1
The summation is doing heavy work there π₯
or i guess i should say the first one runs from 1 to 1 and the second one runs from 2 to 2
Could be worth trying out a specific example with 3 ideals in your favourite ring (as long as you don't end up making it trivial)
A = B = C = (0) 
would this be a better description?
$A(BC) := {\sum_{k=1}^i a_kx_k | a_k \in A, x_k \in BC, i \in \mathbb{N}}$
and then I guess x_i does have dependencies on the inner sum of BC stuff so another index?
Yeah you just know what an x_i looks like because of the defn of BC
Brandon7716
if a field is separable over K, is it also separable over F if F subset of K?
prob not
Let the field = K.
Now all field extensions are separable
One thing that is true is uh
Suppose you have extensions L/K/F. Then tfae; 1) L/K and K/F are separable 2) L/F is separable
Any counterexample in the case where we consider proper extensions?
Well you can just compose with any separable extension
As in let L/K be separable and K/F inseparable
Then L/F inseparable
Ah, i see, cool
The roots are distinct by construction
Npp
yes im really struggling to see why dummit and foote says separability degree is multiplicative
like based on their discussion there
was so bad i hit my vape again after quitting for like 1.5 months
lol
IG we need to show that if F/E is purely insep and K/F is sep, then when we take K^sep the separable closure of E in K, [K^sep : E] = [K : F] and [K : K^sep] = [F : E].
they never even defined separable closure so idk what they are getting at
also every time i ask for help on this question here, ppl mention something like Q7
but Q6 (showing sep degree multiplicative) is before Q7
so idek
I mean the field E_sep in the second proposition.
oh ok
IG I should have written K_sep but π€·
Anyway, IDK how to show this off the top of my head.
The proofs about this stuff that I can actually remember are in terms of counting embeddings.
Do you think I should think about Q7 before looking at Q6 then?
That Q7 in my hw was stuff about counting embeddings
NGL I don't understand this notation.
Let me just give some statements to develop this in terms of embeddings.
tysm
-
For E/F a field extension, define S_E(K) := Hom_F(E, K) for all extensions K/F. Obviously for K β L, S_E(K) β S_E(L) (if you want to be categorical, replace β with β and call S_E a functor). Define [E : F]_sep = max S_E(K) over all extensions K/F, as an element of β βͺ {β}.
-
If E/F is finite, |S_E(K)| β€ [E : F] is bounded above. Therefore it has a finite maximum, i.e., [E : F]_sep is finite.
-
[E : F]_sep is multiplicative in towers (the actual degrees don't need to be finite as long as the _sep degrees are).
-
If a is algebraic over F, write its minimal polynomial p(x) as q(x^i) where q is separable irreducible and i is a power of l in characteristic l and 1 in characteristic 0. Then [F(a) : F]_sep = deg(q); in particular, [F(a) : F]_sep divides [F(a) : F] (their ratio being i).
-
[E : F]_sep divides [E : F] for all finite E/F so we can define [E : F]_insep as their ratio; it is also multiplicative in towers.
-
The composite of finite separable (meaning [:]_sep = [:]) extensions is still separable. Hence for any extension E/F, the union of all finite separable subextensions is a subfield of E; call it E_sep.
From now on, assume E/F is algebraic (these definitions aren't that useful for transcendental anyway).
-
Redefine [E : F]_sep as [E_sep : F]; check that this is the same as before. Define [E : F]_insep = [E : E_sep]; check that this is the same as before if [E : F] is finite (but now makes sense slightly more generally, namely when E_sep/F is infinite but E/E_sep is finite).
-
For E/F algebraic, define E/F to be separable if E_sep = E i.e. [E : F]_insep = 1 and purely inseparable if E_sep = F i.e. [E : F]_sep = 1. By 4., this can be phrased in terms of the minimal polynomials p(x) = q(x^i) of a in E: E/F is separable β p is separable (i.e., i = 1) for all a in E; E/F is purely inseparable β p(x) = x^i - b for some b in F (because deg(q) = 1 β q(x) = x-b for some b in F) for all a in E.
- If p(a) = 0 for any separable p, then the minimal polynomial of a is separable. If a^i = b in F for any i a power of p in characteristic p or 1 in characteristic 0, then the minimal polynomial of a is also x^i' - b' for some i' a power... and b' in F (in fact, you can get there by taking p^th roots of b' as many times as possible). So you can check separability/pure inseparability of extensions by using any polynomial killed by a whether or not it's minimal.
Oh shoot, thanks. I will read this when i have the energy to
I feel like the main question of the exercise is pretty straightforward. But then they say "conclude that [...]". and then you have to actually do something
just wanted to ask whats a good philosophy for doing exercises?