#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 306 of 1
Ive been here for a lot longer i got kicked once lol
Goëtia
A shameful moment in my history indeed
okee elder
Yes yes ma’am or sir or something else
🙂
what are you?
...
hello im trying to solve this problem
im not sure what a unique prime ideal
does that mean that R only has one prime ideal
and that ideal have no subset that is prime?
It means R has exactly one prime ideal yes
Well, then you would have two
im confused about part (ii) of this theorem
how come it says that all non units of R are contained in some ideal
M
wouldn't the nonunits of R just be a maximal ideal?
that sounds right. And a ring is local if it has exactly one maximal ideal
and that maximal ideal would just be the non units of R right?
actually, my bad. In general the set of non-units of a ring does not form an ideal
for example in Z, 3 + (-2) = 1
but as it turns out, if the non-units form an ideal, then that ideal is the unique maximal ideal of the ring (i.e. it's a local ring, and that ideal of non-units is maximal)
that's the content of (ii)
ok nice that was what im getting out
wait, I just said the content of (iii) when I meant to be speaking of (ii)
but hopefully you see anyway
the non-units aren't generally contained in a (proper) ideal
afraid I don't know what transcendental set means here
but when they are contained in a proper ideal then it must be maximal right?
yes, because (ii) is equivalent to (i) by the theorem
thinkin about it. My field theory is quite bad so I dunno if I can figure this out without doing some reading
I never even really learned galois theory despite seeing it as an undergrad and grad 
just terrible
Do not ping random users
can a local ring have more than one prime ideals?
why? it just says local rings have one maximal ideal not one prime ideal
oh wait maximal ideal
idk dimension theory
why are rational functions defined on a variety "geometric"?
oh ok nice thks
Suppose H is a normal subgroup of G. Then obviously G/H forms a group. Let $x_1, ..., x_k$ denote representatives for the k distinct cosets. Then do ${x_i}_{i=1}^k$ form a subgroup in G?
Ante0417
Another easy example is any local domain (other than a field) since then the maximal ideal and 0 ideal are distinct prime ideals
E.g. Z_(p) or Z_p or F[[t]]
I imagine you mean just the set {x_1, …, x_k}. Sometimes you can choose representatives such that this holds (but you must choose them well). This is when G is a semidirect product of H and G/H. But not all groups are like this.
oh right yeh that's nice
So let $R$ be a factorial ring and $K = \mathbf{Quot} R$ and $f \in R[x]$ a monic polynomial. I'm trying to prove that if $a \in K$ with $f(a) = 0$ then $f \in R$:
$f$ factorizes as $f = (x - a)g$ over $K$ and we can write write $g = s \cdot h$ such that $h \in R[x]$ and $s \in K$ and then $f = (x - a)sh$ so $sh$ must also be a monic polynomial so since $h \in R[x]$, $s$ must be a unit in $R$ so $sh = g$ is a polynomial in $R[x]$ where the leading coefficient is a unit and we can perform the polynomial division $f / g$ to obtain a polynomial in $R[x]$ but $f / g = x - a$ so $a \in R$.
Is that correct?
eggman
So it doesn't seem to me that you're using that R is factorial (which is necessary).
Also I don't see how you're concluding that s is in R. For example
(1/2)(2x + 1) = x + 1/2
is a monic polynomial, but 1/2 is not an integer.
ah i see where i went wrong, thanks!
To prove that $\mathbb{Z}/n\mathbb{Z} \otimes_{\mathbb{Z}} \mathbb{Z}/m\mathbb{Z} = 0$ if $m$ and $n$ are coprime, we have the following:
Consider the relations $a x \otimes y = x \otimes a y$ and $x \otimes y = 0$. Since $m$ and $n$ are coprime, we can choose $a \in \mathbb{Z}$ such that $a \equiv 1 \pmod{n}$ and $a \equiv 0 \pmod{m}$.
This gives us $x \otimes y = x \otimes 0$. Since the right-hand side is equal to 0, we conclude that $x \otimes y = 0$.
is it correct?
Notknow🙇
Yeah
thanks
In the construction of extension of scalars, we start with a ring homomorphism ( f: A \to B ). Given an ( A )-module, we want to extend its scalars.
\textbf{Step 1:} Since we can view ( B ) as an ( A )-module, the module action of ( A ) on ( B ) is given by:
[
a b = f(a)b \quad \text{for all} \quad a \in A, , b \in B.
]
\textbf{Step 2:} We construct the ( M_B = B \otimes_A M ), where ( M ) is an ( A )-module. Since we are tensoring with ( B ) over ( A ), this gives a new module over ( B ), and it naturally inherits an ( A )-module structure.
\textbf{Step 3:} Now, we define the ( B )-module structure on ( M_B ) by the following action:
[
b \cdot (b' \otimes x) = b b' \otimes x \quad \text{for all} \quad b, b' \in B \text{ and } x \in M.
]
This defines the scalar extension of the module structure to ( A)-module
Notknow🙇
But you should prove that R/I (x) R/J = R/(I+J)
i wrote in my language and then use ai to latex it, so it is not copy from ai, is i got it correct?
To get another proof of this
i know from chinese - remainder theorem, I and J are co-maximal ideal
right?
Yes and that shows I + J will be (1)
yes
But what I wrote is true always
The (x) is a tensor product
Not a direct product
equal, you mean isomorphic?
tfw no isomorphism key on keyboard
Yeah
yeah
yeah
so first we define the mapping $M\times R/I \rightarrow M/IM$ such that $(m, r+ I)\mapsto rm + IM$ it is bi-linear so it induce the mapping $M\otimes R/I \rightarrow M/IM$ such that $m\otimes (r+I) \mapsto rm + IM$, right?
Notknow🙇
then we construct its inverse mapping
No
why?
Show it’s bijective
Yeah
If k <= F is a splitting extension, then every embedding of F in k-bar has the same image, right? While for example Q(cbrt(2)) has 3 embeddings with 3 different images in Q-bar (the canonical one, plus 2 others corresponding to the other roots of x^3 - 2)?
What is a splitting extension?
Splitting field (I prefer the term splitting extension, since it's a property of an extension, not of a field itself)
since $(m, r+I)\mapsto rm + IM$ is onto so induce map also onto, but i am not sure about one-one
Notknow🙇
then no
The number of embeddings into k-bar (I am assuming embeddings which fix k) is equal to the separability degree
an open source textbook and reference work on algebraic geometry
Okay the above doesn’t really define separable degree in the right way
Hmm
what assumptions do we need for the image to be the same? Splitting and separable?
Image is same if and only if tbe extension is purely inseparable
an open source textbook and reference work on algebraic geometry
Sorry, this is the actual page you want to look at
Look at Lemma 9.14.8 in particular
Think for a while
Hmm, are you sure we are talking about the same thing? Like, Q[x]/(x^2 - 2) has 2 distinct embeddings in Q-bar, but they have the same image, since Q(sqrt(2)) = Q(-sqrt(2)). The same is not true for Q[x]/(x^3 - 2) for example
Sorry, what's the proper term? 🙃
That is the right term
I just
I don’t know
It seems like a funny thing so I just immediately thought about distinct embeddings
Ah, I see
I've just started learning Galois theory, so purely inseparable extension and stuff is still a bit above my head
But my understanding is that in Galois theory we want to look at splitting fields because then there is a correspondence between the Galois group and the set of embeddings in the algebraic closure, is that correct?
Yes, the image of F into k-bar is the same for all embeddings iff F is normal iff F is the splitting field for some family of polynomials.
So I am going for elementary proof, let rm in IM, then rm = im_1 for some i in I and m in M, and now I have to prove m \otimes r +I = 0.
I think this approach is not good
Any hint?
Does anyone mind providing some insight why I should assume that M is primary. I know that the module will decompose into primary components, and so will the subgroups, so it makes the quotient have a nice structure.
Should I try to incorperate a similar technique that jacobson uses for the case of trying to prove the invariance of the decomposition of the module, by considering the descending module chain p^n M and taking the quotients to consider them as vector spaces over D/(p)?
I just don't think it would behave as well due to the quotienting by p^kM not p^k N
I'm still trying to wrap my head around this sorta stuff tbh, since p^kN is the intersection of N and p^kM
If
M = D/p^n1 (+) D/p^n2 ...
With n1 >= n2 ...
then any quotient of M will be if the form
D/p^m1 (+) D/p^m2 ...
with
m1 >= m2 ...
and mi <= ni.
This you can see by just ordering the mi by size and looking at the dimension of p^(ni-1) M / p^ni M.
Once you have the result for the primary parts you just use that if X is p-primary with invariant factors x1, x2, ... and Y is q-primary with invariant factors y1, y2,...
Then X(+)Y will have invariant factors x1*y1, x2*y2, ...
Damn I thought about considering p^(ni)M and trying to quotient by the next power but that wouldn't necessarily be a vector space. i didn't think about just removing one lol
thank you very much
So let $G$ be a (finite?) group and $g, h \in G$ with $hgh^{-1} \in <g>$ and let $U = <g, h>$. Can we then conclude already that $<g> $ is normal in U and $U = <g><h>$?
eggman
Which textbook are you doing?
none at all
Source of this question?
doing exam prep and there is one question where if that were true i could save a lot of labourious calculations
How is <g> defined ?
So hgh^-1 in <g> ensures that
h<g>h^-1 is a subset of <g>.
For <g> to be normal in U you need that h<g>h^-1 equals <g>.
If <g> is finite this is true, because they have the same size. But for infinite G it could be a proper subset
sorry the typesetting is probably wonky, just the cyclic group generated by g
Lol, alr, very sleepy, also jagr is here
To take an example, let G be the group of functions of the form
f(x) = ax + b
for a and b rational (a non-zero). This is a group under composition.
Let g be g(x) = x+1. Then <g> consists of functions of the form x+k for k an integer.
Let h(x) = 2x.
Then h g h^-1 = x + 2 is in <g>. But h^-1 g h = x + 1/2 is not in <g>
ah okay, interesting counterexample for the infinite case, thanks
Hmm, counter-examples when G is infinite would be an interesting way to introduce the semi-direct product.
what is $(\mathbb{Z}/n\mathbb{Z})/(m\mathbb{Z}\times \mathbb{Z}/n\mathbb{Z})$?
Notknow🙇
any hint?
i mean i have result M\otimes R/I \cong M/IM, so i let M = Z/nZ and R = Z and I = mZ
GUYS !!!
Is Aut(G) always a non-trivial subgroup of S(G) for |G| > 3?
I'm struggling to know if it is true :/
If |G| > 1, then G contains a nonneutral element g. Then you can simply write down a map sending e to g in S(G)
For G non-abelian G/ZG is a nontrivial subgroup of Aut(G). For G abelian, inversion is an automorphism. Inversion is the identity iff all elements have order 2. That would make G an F2-vector space, so you would get a nontrivial automorphism by permuting basis vectors.
That leaves the G = C2 or the trivial group as the only cases where Aut(G) is trivial.
Aut(G) is trivial with G = C2 or the trivial group yes
But I was asking about Aut(G) != S(G)
But it's okay I got it
I see, that's usually called a proper subgroup
f(e) != e, so f € S(G) \ Aut(G)
Ok ok didn't know it in english haha
suppose $m\in\bZ$ and $\bar N=a^2-mb^2$ is prime in $\bZ$. can $\bar N\mid b$? if so, under what conditions will that be impossible?
(if $m<0$ them definitely not, but what about $m>0$?)
eigentaylor (STfFGMOaPID)
(this is in service to prove that if N bar is prime then a+bsqrt(m) is prime)
If N divides b, then N also divides
N + mb^2 = a^2
since N is prime N divides a.
But that means N^2 divides a^2 - mb^2 = N
Which is impossible
wait why does N^2 divide that? because N^2 divides a^2 and b^2?
Yup
ahhhh genius!
thank you so much!
okay so this seems to work even if m is a perfect square (i.e. were in Z[m]). because then the norm function never yields a prime so it's vacuously true.
Norm prime implies prime might work in general...
this might be super obvious but I'm trying to figure out and prove it on my own.
i think this is not well defined
How can we tell that y - x^2 is irreducible over k[x, y]
Oh, so then it's a polynomial of degree one over k[x] and hence irreducible right
Cool thanks
then by one of the isomorphism theorem its just Z/mZ
Indeed
If A → B is an injective integral morphism of commutative rings, then Spec B → Spec A is continuous, closed and surjective, hence a quotient map. This means that the map I ↦ sqrt(I^e) from radical ideals of A to B should be injective, which is true iff for all radical ideals I of A, I = sqrt(I^e)^c = sqrt(I^ec) iff I = I^ec, where ^e means extension of ideals and ^c means contraction of ideals. Is there a direct algebraic argument to see this?
i.e., I want to show that if A → B is injective and integral, I is a radical ideal of A and a ∈ A, then a^n = b_1 i_1 + ... + b_k i_k for n ≥ 0, b_j ∈ B, i_j ∈ I implies a ∈ I.
OK, I found a proof in a book: replacing B by A[b1, ..., bk], we can assume that it is finite; it is also a faithful A-module (because a ⋅ 1 = a). x^n B ⊆ IB, so picking a spanning set, multiplication by x^n can be given by some matrix with coefficients in I, so its characteristic polynomial p has coefficients except the leading coefficient in I. By the "determinant trick" + faithfulness, p(x^n) = 0. Modulo I, this means x^n is nilpotent. Thus some power of x is in I so x is in I.
If this can be turned into an application of Nakayama's lemma, I'm not sure how (maybe consider the fg A-module B/x^nB?).
Could anyone explain how to compute character tables, or point me to somewhere that does? I need to find the characters of C_6 and prove theyre all distinct, but as far as I can tell all my notes say is that its easy to compute the characters of a cyclic group, without saying how
10.4 of artin has characters and some examples
okay now, i have to show R/(I+J) \cong (R/I)(J (R/I) )
Is it not clear that J(R/I) = (J+I)/I?
no
i mean how?
J(R/I) = {jr + I, j in J, r in R}
oh i can send jr + I \mapsto jr + I, right?
it is onto and also one-one
right? @next obsidian
sorry to ping
If E is sequence then what is the meaning of sequence Hom(E, Hom(N,P) )?
Hom(0, Hom(N, P)) → Hom(M'', Hom(N, P)) → Hom(M, Hom(N, P)) → Hom(M', Hom(N, P)).
You don't need character tables for that. (but they're cool, so learn them anyways)
Let C_n be the cyclic group of order and let g be a generator. A character is a homomorphism f: C_n --> C* to the non-zero complex numbers. Every element of C_n is of the form g^m, and f is a homomorphism, so f(g^m) = f(g)^m. In other words, each character f is completely determined by the value of f(g).
Now, using the same sort of trick I just used above, you can determine the exact possibilities for what complex values f(g) can take on.
How do I get this?
can we apply regular "algebra" on cosets for example if aH = Hb then we can do a^-1 on both sides to obtain H=a^-1 Hb
Yes
as long as it's cosets of normal subgroups (assuming group theory here)
but yes, that is kind of the point of taking cosets
why if H is not normal it fails?
I used this in the technique of proving H is normal, is this not allowed?
well, if aH = Hb and we take a^-1 on both sides, we get that aHa^-1 = Hba^-1
but now we can no longer assume that aHa^-1 = H
that sounds like a circular argument to me
because algeba with cosets is defined if an only if you are doing it with a normal subgroup
that's the entire point of normal subgroups
you took a^-1 on the right side then the left side?
aHa^-1 = Hba^-1 is still true, so you can do ""algebra"" like that
but using that, you cannot then conclude that H = Hba^-1
because aHa^-1 is no longer necessarily equal to H
that is true but im confused why you applied a^-1 to the right of aH and then to the left of Hb
why don't u do left and left consistent and right and right consistent
but my point is, you essentially assumed that H is normal to prove that H is normal, you see the problem?
suppose 4x=8 then u can apply the inverse of 4 on the left side with 1/4 times 4x = 1/4 times 8
see how i applied 1/4 on the left side of both sides of the equation
why did you apply a^-1 to the right of aH and left of Hb
okay yes that makes sense I used a^-1 aH = H = a^-1Hb to show H=a^-1 Hb but did not conclude that means H is normal
hmm, so what exactly is your proof here?
I later used that a is in aH and since aH=Hb a is in Hb and since a is in Hb e is in a^-1Hb then since e is in a^-1Hb that is equal to H
why is H equal to a^-1Hb
because Hb contains a since Hb=aH
so is that a given?
no no no, why is Hb = aH
that one is given in the problem
yes
okay, now could you repeat your proof for me please
well actually given a exists a b
next time please tell people what your givens are
yes I just wanted to know if you can perform algebra on cosets
but the problem i think i figurd it out by myself
depends on what you mean by algebra
like applying things to both sides of an equivalence relation
because the aH notation always makes sense for any subgroup, and things like a*bH = abH are still true
but if you want any meaninful way of doing algebra between the cosets, you need your subgroup to be normal
thats one way to call it
but in general supose you have two subgroups H and K
then take some element a,b in G containing H and K
then is it true that if aH=bK I can do stuff like a^-1 aH=H=a^-1bK
that always works regardless if they are normal or not
you just can't "push" things past the cosets
right right that wasn't what my intentions were okay that makes sense
can you also help me on another problem involving intersections
sure, just ask
H and K are normal
then the intersection is normal
is this not just inherited since the intersection i have proven before is a subgroup
like the way we inherit associativiy
it's a nontrivial thing
for example if only H is normal, then the intersection is no longer guaranteed to be normal
normality is a slightly more subtle property than you think
right but we are given that both H and K is normal
just like both H and K have associative elements
then like we can say H $\cap$ K is associative we can also say H $\cap$ K is normal?
redoftwored
then it is inherited, sure, but I don't like that word
because again, normality is more subtle than that
for instance, if A is normal in B and B is normal in C, that does not guarantee that A is normal in C
in fact it's "usually" not true
i guess the implications of the proof would mean that you can say the property is inherited
but im not sure if I can just say that for the proof
if I want to prove that H $\cap$ K is normal how would I do that?
redoftwored
well, usually the simplest way to prove things in beginner abstract algebra is to just go back to definitions
show that gxg^-1 is in HnK, for all x in HnK
H is normal then cxc^-1 is in H for x in H and K is normal then dyd^-1 is in K for y in K is this true?
that is the definition, yes
oh I see wait does not necessarily need to equal H
just needs to be in H
then we can have the possibilty that cxc^-1 for x in H forms something that is not all of H but must be in H
..what? cxc^-1 is just some element in H
I think you may be overthinking it a little
I meant cxc^-1 for all x in H forms something that is not all of H but must be subgroup of H***
this is possible^
well, it has to be all of H actually
(think about why)
but that's not needed for this problem
it's just some random element of H, that's all you need
wait so youre saying that cHc^-1 = H no exceptions?
when c is in G
if you fix c, yes
isn't this only true if c in H?
nope
why does my textbook give a definition that H is normal when cHc^-1 contained in H then
because it is true
if this case never happens
it just so happens to also be equal
what?
which textbook are you using, which page, let me see
hungerford thm 8.11
sorry are u assuming H is normal?
because that is true if H is normal
but not necessarily true if H is nort normal
How it is exact?
I think I see the thm you're referring to
they're equivalent conditions, is just what your book is saying
if cHc^-1 is in H iff cHc^-1 = H
oh i see
its basically if it contains it must be equal to
so proving it contains is equivalent to proving equality
think about why, that's a good exercise as well
but, the most convenient definition for normal subgroups (in my opinion at least) is just that if n is in N, g is any element in G, then gng^-1 is in N
that's it
closed under conjugation right
yes, that is essentially what my definition says
the book defines it as Na=aN then N is normal I don't really like this definition
they're equivalent, but that is a sucky definition
also, having a subsection on category theory right after introducting the symmetric group is kinda crazy
maybe skip subsection 7, and get back to it later (the section titled "categories: products, coproducts and free objects")
wait is this a grad textbook?
okay that explains it
oh boy, this book looks dense
is this the one your prof chose for an introductory AA series?
I hope they know what they're doing
thomas hungerford right?
How do you say Int(G) in english ?
the content is somewhat overwhelming
Interns morphisms ?
inner auts?
No I mean Int(G) ~ G/Z(G)
Yeah that's Inn(G), the inner automorphism group of G
Oh ok ok thanks !
I don't really like group theory i like rings more for NT
yes, it looks like a grad textbook, i hope whoever's teaching you know what they are doing
And how do you write Aut(G)/Inn(G) ?
im forced to learn this lol
Out(G)
Ok ok same
if you ever get to study galois theory, you'll see group theory and ring theory come together beautifully
yea for solvability by radicals for degree 5 polynomials cry
but uh groups are really cool, just stick with it you'll see
if you like ring theory, a lot of the knowledge from ring theory carries over into group theory
normal subgroups are just ideals for groups, that's it
okay i see
is that how kernel is a normal subgroup in group theory but kernels are ideals in ring theory
yes
then u can always do a quotient group with the kernels
and do modular stuff
okay i see
yes
in groups, since you only have one operation you only need conjugation for taking the quotient to work
my intuition for groups is terrible im worried for the tests I will get stuck a lot
you actually need conjugation for ideals as well, it just so happens that commutativity makes the conjugation invisible
if you have a solid foundation in ring theory, you should not do too bad in group theory
in a lot of ways they are extremely similar
so what advice would you give regarding the problems
i seem to get stuck a lot more often
and it takes a lot longer to get unstuck
since the holes i fall into seem harder to get out of metaphorically
I mean, since you're already familiar with ring theory just think about their ring theory equivalents
it's really not that different
alternating group symmetric group etc the structures are lot bendier idk
like D_4 is crazy to me
like I had a problem that was prove Aut(z_2 x z_2) iso to S_3
and that was a very intersting problem
the interesting thing you'll soon realise, is that one big difference between group and ring theory, is that commutative rings are still very interesting
but commutative groups are actually really boring
I see that's probably why I havent done a lot of proofs where the abelian nature is given
in fact we have a complete classification of noetherian abelian groups, they are known fully up to isomorphism
see "fundamental theorem of finitely generated abelian groups"
fun fact, this falls out as a special case of the fundamental theorem of fintiely generated modules over a PID
because every abelian group can be viewed instead as a module over the ring Z, if you know what that means
I haven't learned modules yet
yeah don't worry about it then
are you an algebraist
no, just a humble undergrad
yes
do you know much about AG ?
I know enough algebra to know that I know nothing about AG
and that AG is fucking massive
but am currently trying to study some
I need to finish learning basic algebra yikes
hello does anyone know if the following fact is true? If R is a commutative ring with a unit and all its non units are zero divisors then all of its elements are nilpotents. I've been struggling to show this.
It will be hard to show, because it's not true
damn that sucks, but is there a counter example
Consider products of rings
The nonunits all being contained in a common ideal is a very strong property, called being a local ring
im confused as to why (iii) imply (ii) doesn't just show what i said above
Because (iii) is much stronger than what you wrote above
It has the added assumption that all nonunits are contained in a common ideal
In (iii) yes, it says they form a prime ideal
but the common ideal is just the ideal of all non units right?
Yes, and that is usually not an ideal
Consider Z, then 2 and 3 are nonunits but 3-2 = 1
ok i think i see what you mean now
So we know that for a polynomial $ f \in \mathbb{F}_p[x]$ where $p$ is prime and $\alpha$ from some larger field containing $\mathbb{F}_p$, then $f(\alpha^p) = f(\alpha)^p$. Does that still hold when $p$ is a prime power?
eggman
Notice that
x^p^2 = (x^p)^p
Or, you're asking for Fp with p a prime power maybe?
Yes, it is true
You are really asking if in a field of characteristic $p$ (i.e., a field containing $\mathbb F_p$) the map $x \mapsto x^p$ is a homomorphism of fields. Indeed this is the case. The proof is in fact completely the same as the proof you have likely seen for the field $\mathbb F_p$.
$\mathbf{Boytjie}$
You just have to do the verification. Hom(0, whatever) = 0. Exactness at M'' is because M → M'' is epi. Exactness at M is because of the universal property of cokernels.
yes i got it, thank you
In this proof, we find that [k(a) : k(b)]_s [k(b) : k]_s = [k(a) : k(b)] [k(b) : k], but why does this imply that [k(b) : k]_s = [k(b) : k]?
Look at the two terms in the <=
In the left, both things in the product are <= the corresponding thing in the product of the right term
So for these to be equal, you need both of those things in the product on the left to be equal to the corresponding thing in the product on the right
Ah, so we have ab = cd and also a <= c and b <= d, which gives b = d?
I see, thanks 

In Hungerford, he defined cardnial number of a set A, is the equivalence class of A under the equivalence relation of equipollence, now my doubt is there are many equivalence class or it means number of equivalence classes ?
The equivalence class itself is what is the cardinality of A.
If I understand what you're asking
But there are many equivalence classes, right?
I'm not sure what you mean exactly.
A is only contained in one equivalence class.
But if you forget about A and are just asking in general, then there are many cardinal numbers yes
Yes
i'm just double checking, is the $\phi(2\cdot2k) = \phi(2k + 2k)$ step valid in both scenarios
sleepi
i'm sure it is but it feels like i'm not adding in the ring because i think about stuff like $\phi(2k) \neq 2\phi(k)$ here because $\phi(k)$ isn't defined for odd $k$.
sleepi
2.x = x + x in any ring, yes
Oh god wait you're looking at rungs, not rings
It is true that 2.2k = 2k + 2k in 2Z
no
rings
wait
yeah rungs
these definitions are weird imo
gallian just weird
groups so cool for having a standardized definition
functional analysts are annoying af for calling monoids "semigroups"
roings
why is Z -> O_X -> F zero? It takes n to e^{2\pi i n}, which is one, not zero
By the zero-map here, one means the constant map mapping everything to the identity.
So in this case mapping everything to 1 would be the "zero map"
I believe that for it to be isomorphism 2 need to be mapped to 3
Use that to show the map is not surjective
So let $z$ be an n-th root of unity, then we can represent $C_n \coloneqq \langle a \coloneqq \mathbf{diag}(z, z^{-1})\rangle \le GL_2(\mathbb{C})$. Set $R \coloneqq \mathbb{C}[x, y]$. Then $C_n$ acts on $R$ by $a \cdot p(x, y) = p(zx, z^{-1}y)$. By looking at monomials I can see that the invariant ring $R^{C_n}$ of polynomials in $R$ fixed under the operation of $C_n$ is equal to $\mathbb{C}[x^n, xy, y^n]$. How does one follow from that, that
$R^{C_n} = \mathbb{C}[xy, x^n + y^n] \oplus (x^n - y^n)\mathbb{C}[xy, x^n + y^n] $? Sleeping now, please ping if you reply
hello im confused about the wording here
lets say p is the minimal prime ideal in question.
Is p a minimal prime ideal, which happens to contain all the zero divisors
Or is p the smallest ideal which contains all the zero divisors, and that p can have a prime ideal as subset
im trying to show that this if and only if R has a unique prime ideal
eggman
i think its the former, because i can't prove assuming the latter lol
Hm in functional analysis these are probably honest semigroups right
As in nonunital monoids
Yes, the former is equivalent to R having a unique prime ideal.
I think so; I've tried reading some Banach algebra theory and they usually reduce non-unital to unital by adding a unit (if A is a Banach algebra, ℂ (+) A is a unital Banach algebra, with the new ℂ being "span(1)", containing A as the closed maximal ideal 0 (+) A).
im trying to prove properties of automorphisms of reals.
ive already deduced that for positive r. f(r) must be real because f(r) = f(sqrt(r))^2 > 0
but how do i show it preserves order
suppose a < b
i.e. b - a > 0
apply the automorphism and the result you just mentioned about sending positives to positives
when they say bijection between Hom(F(A), A') -> Hom(A, F'(A')) do they mean that
some arbitary rule or map between the elements that are injective and surjective?
but by bijection is it just a rule that is injective and surjective. The reason im confused is because they define maps as follows
Hom_C'(F(A),A') and Hom_C(A,F'(A')) are sets, for any A in C, A' in C' (assuming C and C' are locally small)
the bijection between them for a given A, A' is an actual function between sets
but the way the bijections vary with A and A' has a naturality condition
that all the collections of morphisms between two objects are in fact sets
the Hom things
oh ok so just to make it clear that natural bijection is a mapping between the Hom sets that satisfies the naturality condition and is a bijection?
the "natural bijection" they speak of isn't really one bijection between two sets
but a collection of bijections between all possible pairs of hom sets of that type
with the naturality condition
the naturality amounts to that compositions of morphisms go through the adjunction in an, uh, natural kind of way
ok i think i get what you mean now thanks
Why is this in #groups-rings-fields, are you going to ask a question about specific adjoint functors on the category of groups maybe? Perhaps #category-theory would be a better fit if not – people there are used to explaining this stuff
idk this is in a commutative algebra textbook
"Adjoints are everywhere." - S. Mac Lane
but yeah without more specific context this is just category theory
yeh maybe i should ask in cat theory then
How do we rephrase this in terms of natural isomorphism of functors
You can show adjunction by natural isomorphism of some Hom functors right
yeah, hom(F(-),-) is naturally isomorphic to hom(-,G(-))
If F is a char 0 field is the ideal (x-y, x+y-4) prime in F[x,y,z]? I feel like it's probably true because the quotient ring formed has x=y and 2x=4 so x is just 2; it's really just F[z].
because x and y are both identified with units
this part I get
but not this
It's more of a surprise when a functor which arises naturally isnt an adjoint tbh
An ideal I of a (commutative) ring R is maximal if and only if R/I is a field
So if you see why the ideal is maximal, you have that it is the ground field
i see that it is equal to (x-2,y-2) but it's not obvious why that ideal is maximal
like
(x-2,y-2,z) is surely an ideal containing it properly
Yeah I was about to say, without working it out im not conviced it is maximal, but thats just vibes based ive not actually sat down to work it out
Actually, assuming F is algebraicly closed I dont think it is maximal. For K algebraicly closed, maximal ideals of K[x_1,...,x_n] have the form (x_1-a_1,...x_n-a_n)
It is prime no? F[x,y,z]/(x-2,y-2) \cong F[z] which is a PID
i accidentally assumed it was a pid
this makes sense to me yeah
I believe the argument is to show that (x-y,x+y+4) = (x-2,y-2), then take the quotient, thats a PID which is in particular an ID, so then the ideal must be prime
I could be mistaken, Boytjie is far better at this than I am, but I think he may have missed the z
I defined a homomorphism on the generators of F[x,y,z] by identity on F, x and y to 2 and z to itself
so the kernel is seen to be (x-2,y-2)
it's surjective onto F[z]
seems easier than quotienting
Same difference
Think of the map F[x, y] -> F sending both x and y to 2, and compute the kernel.
Then use first isomorphism theorem. It's always first iso!!!!
Oh wait.
Darn, sorry I did indeed misread. I thought it was just F[x, y] not F[x, y, z]. That's my bad
@chilly radish A while ago you asked about G x H^op-sets. It turns out there is a relatively well-known terminology for these things: bisets! In fact these bisets are crucial for the concept of biset functors, which are (as a friend of mine put it) a sort of 'global Mackey functor'.
One thing that may interest you is that there is a well-defined tensor product of bisets. If X is a (G, H)-biset and Y an (H, K)-biset, then write x (x) y for the H-orbit of (x, y) in X x Y, where h(x, y) = (xh^-1, hy). Then note that xh (x) y = x (x) hy. Write X (x) Y for the set of H-orbits here, and you can easily verify that this is a (G, K)-biset in a natural way.
This is helpful because certain bisets encode certain operations on (for example) representations. If H is a subgroup of G, then G is an (H, G)-biset and tensoring by this biset gives you induction of H-representations to G-representations, for example. This is where the idea of biset functors comes from.
Forgot to mention: Serge Bouc has a book on biset functors where he classifies all the simple biset functors. Pretty neat!
I replied in category theory
so i see that the p adic integers contain the integers and also some fractions, what im wondering, are there p adic integers that have no corresponding representation in Z or in Q?
Yes
You are aware of the p-adic expansion I hope?
You can show that a rational has a repeating p-adic expansion, using the same argument that you use to show it has a repeating decimal expansion. So simply choose an expansion that has no period.
yes
But also, you can use size arguments. It's not too hard to argue that there are uncountably many p-adic integers – this is just Cantor's diagonal argument (without the fluff that the reals add in!). So obviously they can't all be rational.
And indeed this shows there are transcendental p-adic integers too.
oh, i see, makes sense
am I the friend
I'm a fiend for the biset category
the biset DOUBLE category if one were to be so bold
Alas you are not the person in mind... afaik
Unless you moved to the states
grrrrrrrrrrrr
we can consider vectors in $F^n$ as functions from ${1,2,\ldots,n}$ to $F$. so does that mean like... $F^n$ is the free left $F$-module on the set ${1,2,\ldots,n}$?
eigentaylor (STfFGMOaPID)
Or right, yeah. It's the free F-module.
since it's a field, it doesn't matter right?
Yes
Np
What part doesnt matter?
if it's left or right
ok i don’t understand your idea; but i found another which i’m pretty sure works except that taking the radical of an infinite intersection doesn’t necessarily distribute, which i’m not sure how to deal with
Btw, in what way are covectors dual to vectors? Like, I know the definition, but which arrows are actually reversed?
There is a sense in which you can see vectors as functions from the base field to the vector space
As in, given the vector space V as abstract object in the category K-vect, then the vectors "in" V can be seen as the elements of Hom_K(K, V)
Oh, I see
is it because K is a terminal object in K-vect, so it plays the same role as the singleton set in Set?
Wait, K isn't a terminal object
K-Vect has a zero object hehe
K is the free vector space on a singleton though
So Hom_K(K, V) is naturally isomorphic to Hom_Set(*, V)
By the free functor adjunction
(Similar thing holds for any variety of algebras)
V → V* is a contravariant functor.
Yes, it doesn't distribute. For example consider the intersection of (X^n) over all n in ℂ[X]. All the radicals are (X), but the intersection is (0) with radical (0).
However, an arbitrary intersection of radical ideals is radical, so in that case the radical does respect the intersection.
I can't really say anything else without knowing if there's anything specific about my hint you're finding confusing, or what your idea is.
My prof. showed that if F/E is a finite normal extension and K is the maximal subfield of F which is purely inseparable over E, then F is separable over K. His argument was: if a in F has minimal polynomial g(X) in E, then write g(X) = h(X^{p^n}) for a separable irreducible h with coefficients h_i. Let l_i the the p^n th root of h_i in the algebraic closure of F and let l(X) be the polynomial with these coefficients. Then he showed that the l_i are in K and claimed l has no repeated roots, so since l(a) = 0, a is separable.
How does he know l has no repeated roots?
The roots of l are the p^n-th roots of the roots of h, and since h is seperable they're distinct.
so about hensels lemma, is the converse trivially true, as in, if we have an equation in the p adic integers does that equation also hold mod p^n for any n?
Yes, you can just reduce the equation modulo p^n
my idea is to take some prime J, and note that the intersection of the maximal ideals containing it, is the same thing as the intersection of the maximal ideals corresponding to the points of Z(J), so when we take the zero set we get an expression for Z(J) in terms of this intersection, taking the ideal then by the nullstellensatz we get that the radical of the intersection of maximal ideals is equal to J
Right, so maximal ideals are prime hence radical and the intersection of radical ideals is radical. So in your last sentence phrase, you don't have to take the radical of the intersection.
You can also take J radical instead of prime (if you want), since you don't use the fact that Z(J) is irreducible anywhere.
does radicals distribute over arbitrary intersections if the ideals are all radical ?
Yep, because taking the radical does nothing then.
Z mod p^k is is just Z_p mod p^k
right, se we also need that the intersection of radical ideals is radical
That is true :3
In fact, the set of radicals of R is the intersection closure of Spec R, but that aside
lovely
Using the fact that rad I is the intersection of all primes containing I, the proof becomes a fairly routine order theory exercise
guh plz don’t tell me i need to use zorn
No dw lmaoo
i’ve had three too many exposures to that today
Well i suppose it's more lattice theory
It's surprising how much the study of primes can be done using lattice theory (if the desired connections between the algebra and the lattice theory are established)
But big math does not want you to know this
:(
I'd like to hear more about this if you're willing to take the time to explain
can you give a reference?
Well in typical UA fashion i saw how many different types of ideals there were, and saw that congruences only really were classified into "minimal, nonproper, maximal", and i wanted to classify them better in some way.
That begs the question: "what is a classification?"
And the answer i came up with (taking properties from primes, radicals, etc) is as follows:
a classification of congruences \phi in a variety V is, for any algebra A in V, a set of congruences Spec^\phi A such that for any homomorphism h : A -> B we have the preimage h^-1 : S_B -> Spec^\phi A, and if R in Spec^\phi A, and S \subseteq R, then R/S in Spec^\phi A/S
then you can define (for a classification \phi) notions of the \phi-radical, which satisfies a lot of the same identities w.r.t. preimage and quotients and all.
The central theorem really is that such classification is equivalent to a class of algebras contained in V closed under subalgebras and isomorphisms.
Then you can define a special subset of those classifications which are defined by some set of model-theoretic sentences in some way (in actuality the corresponding class of algebras is the class of algebras satisfying said sentences), but I'm still looking into that.
I suppose it's not really the study of primes themselves? But a lot of basic facts one uses plenty are simply general facts about these classifications of congruences.
I dont know the paper but I remember seeing somewhere that the notion of a prime ideal and prime element of a lattice coincide
:P
Oh yeah! Under certain conditions (namely that Spec^\phi A consists of prime elements), you can define the Zariski topology too

so real
Oh, fun fact! The class of these classifications (let's call them coherent systems) can be complete lattice ordered giving a poset category with arbitrary small products and coproducts.
You can define a radicalisation closure operator (in the form of a monad) which takes a coherent system to it's radicalisation (like it takes the coherent system of primes to that of radicals), and in the corresponding classes of algebras that is actually reflected in taking closure under products! So this is a general version of the fact that a commutative ring is reduced iff it can be embedded into a product of fields
And as any prevariety (that is a class closed under products subalgebras and isomorphisms) is defined by a particular collection of sentences, so is automatically such a special coherent system
I know i havent given a lot of details but i wouldnt want to clog this chat more than I've done already
Its also not really groups/rings/fields :P
and how does lattice theory help?
in congruence-modular varieties (where the congruence lattices are modular) you have a well-defined notion of the commutator of congruences, which for rings is I•J, from which you can define a specific type of coherent system, and is studied in a paper called "The spectrum of a universal algebra", ill look for it, hold on
Im not sure if it explicitly helps there, i havent read that paper
https://link.springer.com/article/10.1007/BF01195383
this was the article
It is my life goal to get published in algebra universalis one day 🔥
godspeed
so i want to prove there is a non abelian group of order 55, let $N = C_{11}$, $U = C_5$, then obviously there is a non trivial map $\varphi : U \xrightarrow{} \mathbf{Aut}N = C_{10}$, then is it already guaranteed that the direct product of $N$ and $U$ with $U$ acting by $\varphi$ is non abelian?
eggman
semidirect product
and yes
In the semidirect product N x_phi U we have (1,u).(n,1) = (phi_u(n), u) while (n,1).(1,u) = (n,u)
take n in N that's not in the kernel of some u in U
U won't be normal but it's a Sylow 5-subgroup, so it's not nilpotent!
Okay, so trying to prove that $f = 1 + x + x^2 + x^3 + x^4$ is irreducible over $\mathbb{Z}$ by showing that it's irreducible over $K = \mathbb{F}_2$, since if it obviously has no root in $K$ so if it were reducible it would have to factor into 2 polynomials of degree 2 but if that were the case let $g$ be a quadratic factor of $f$ in $K[x]$ and then $g$ would have a root $\alpha \in K[x]/(g) = \mathbb{F}_4 = L$ and that root would have multipicative order $5$ in $L^*$ which obviously isn't possible. Is that correct?
why didn't you just write 1 + ... + x^4
no good reason, ill edit
eggman
Oh I really just meant
1+ ... + x^4
like
1 + \cdots + x^4
because to me it just takes up less time to write and looked cleaner than the \sum_[...]
oh yeah i forgot mhm
it has multiplicative order 5 since f(x-1) = x^5-1
so all the roots are 5th roots of 1
that therei s only one irreducible degree 2 polynomial
nice argument
the proof I knew is just saying f is cyclotomic
and proving cyclotomic polynomials are irreducible
is hard 😄
pretty sure it only holds for cyclotomic poly's of degree p-1 for p prime
let me check
oh idk never saw a proof for that, is it simple
nah cause one of the possible definitions is as the minimal polynomial of a primitive nth root
You could also use change of variables + Eisenstein for this
Notice f(x+1) = x^4 + 5x^3 + 10x^2 + 10x + 5
This also works in general to show that the pth cyclotomic polynomial is irreducible
oh I forgot about change of variables
But if I'm not missing anything that seems like a bit of a hassle to calculate? Or is there a reason it's easily seen
f(x) = (x^5 - 1) / x - 1
f(x+1) = ((x+1)^5 - 1) / x
= x^4 + 5C1 x^3 + 5C2 x^2 + 5C3 x + 5C4
And you don't actually have to compute 5Ck to finish the argument
oh that's real neat, thanks
there is no calculation, you just consider when pCk is divisible by p (and p^2 when k=0)
btw, it's not just change of variables, this specifically works because f(x) = x+1 is a ring automorphism of Z[x]
so you'll have to prove that as well (not too hard)
yeah I already had seen that that holds previously, thanks though
Makes sense
I didn't know the terminology, thanks for sharing!
hi chat
How can statements like [ \big(\mathbb{Q}[x,y,z]/(xy-z^2)\big)/(x,z) \cong \mathbb{Q}[x,y,z]/(x,z,xy-z^2) \cong \mathbb{Q}[y]] be justified in general? What theorems are used in stating these isomorphisms?
soup_norm
A combination of the usual isomorphism theorems will give you this
oh right, for this example $(xy-z^2)$ is contained in $(x,z)$ so the first isomorphism follows by the third isomorphism theorem. How about [ \big(\mathbb{Q}[x,y,z,t]/(xy-z^2)\big)/(x,t) \cong \mathbb{Q}[x,y,z,t]/(x,t,xy-z^2) ]?
soup_norm
In the quotient ring xy - z^2 = 0, so (x, t) = (x, t, xy - z^2)
I don’t understand, (xy-z^2) isn’t contained in (x,t), so the third isomorphism theorem can’t be used here, right?
so it can’t directly be applied using $(xy-z^2), (x,t)$, and $\mathbb Q[x,y,z,t]$ to show [ \big(\mathbb{Q}[x,y,z,t]/(xy-z^2)\big)/(x,t) \cong \mathbb{Q}[x,y,z,t]/(x,t,xy-z^2) ]
soup_norm
So (x, t) means the ideal generated by x and t.
But we still need to consider which ring we're working in.
Since we wrote Q[x,y,z,t]/(xy-z^2) / (x, t)
The ideal (x, t) is in the ring Q[x,y,z,t]/(xy-z^2). And there it does contain xy-z^2 because that's 0.
More generally ideals in Q[x,y,z,t]/(xy-z^2) correspond to ideals in Q[x,y,z,t] that contain (xy, z^2)
Oh, I see, so the statement actually hides some notation, and it should be written [ \big(\mathbb{Q}[x,y,z,t]/(xy-z^2)\big)/(x,t) = \big(\mathbb{Q}[x,y,z,t]/(xy-z^2)\big)/\big((x,t,xy-z^2)/(xy-z^2)\big) ] \ [\cong \mathbb{Q}[x,y,z,t]/(x,t,xy-z^2) ] and here the third isomorphism theorem can be applied to the ideals $(xy-z^2), (x,t,xy-z^2)$ in the ring $\mathbb Q[x,y,z,t]$. Thanks!
soup_norm
doom
so let $M = \mathbf{Mon}(K[x_1, \ldots, x_n])$ the set of all monomials in $n$ indeterminates. according to lecture notes the (formal) sum of all elements of $M$ is given by $$ \frac{1}{(1 - x_1)(1 - x_2) \cdots (1 - x_n)} ,$$ i fail to see why
eggman
Consider it inductively when you factor out x_n^k from all the monomials with an x_n^k
What is left over?
hmm
My first thought for this one would be to set up a sequence like
[\begin{tikzcd}
\bullet & \bullet & \bullet \
\bullet & \bullet & 0
\arrow["B", from=1-1, to=1-2]
\arrow["AB"{description}, from=1-1, to=2-1]
\arrow[from=1-2, to=1-3]
\arrow["A"{description}, from=1-2, to=2-2]
\arrow[from=1-3, to=2-3]
\arrow[from=2-1, to=2-2, equal]
\arrow[from=2-2, to=2-3]
\end{tikzcd}]
apply the snake lemma and reason using the resulting exact sequence.
jagr2808
I haven't learned the snake lemma in this textbook
I don't expect jacobson to expect you to use a homological lemma he doesn't introduce until midway through the second book
ah i see how it follows inductively, thanks!
Nah, you can probably do it by fideling with matrices or something, but I like this approach
plus I don't see why this is helpful.
The problem is that you can't just multiply the diagonal matricies because your original matricies are only similar, not conjugate (which is not a congruence relation)
Well, you would go from the language of matrices to the language of modules. Then you have a lot of tools, and you can reduce to the case of p-primary modules and suddenly is starting to get easier
actually that might do it.
I just need to go from the characterization in forms of matricies to splitting it up into a sum of p-primary modules
and how that goes down
But we're only talking about D^n here no?
not some quotient or anything
Unless you decompose A
into prime diagonal matricies
Well it would be about
D^n / AD^n
where the p-valuations are on the diagonal
And D^n / BD^n and for AB
I might try to prove it with just matricies first and then come back to your idea and do it twice
But I think you can do it via the prime decomposition of the diagonals into like a "prime decomposition" of the whole diagonal matrix and see what I can do from there
Since you can break D^n / BD^n down into a direct sum of prime components, do you think there is a way to reflect that as a matrix?
I don't understand how the last line makes sense semantically
the left hand side has a B module structure and the right side has an A module structure, where does the isomorhpism take place?
In Z-modules, i.e, Abelian groups
so hensels lemma applies to valuation rings of complete fields with a discrete valuation, so for example Q_p with the valuation ring Z_p if i understand correctly, and since Z_(p) is contained in Z_p, can i use hensels lemma to show that Z_(p) is not complete?
Hi, I am trying to do this problem and I don't see how it immediately follows from (3.5)
(3.5) just says $$ S^{-1} M = S^{-1} A \otimes_A M$$
Musa
The suggested solution avoids that by passing to tensor products
but I do not see how you can use the usual tensor product isomorphisms to get the other side
rewrite S^-1 N as S^-1 A (x)_A N
use the fact that M (x)_R R = M
(for a fixed p not for all p)
not sure how this works in this situation, since N is not originally a $S^{-1} A$ module, but $S^{-1} A \otimes N)$ is
Musa
I'm not entirely sure what your confusion is, but you start with the expression
$$S^{-1}M \otimes_{S^{-1}A} S^{-1} N$$
Then rewrite it to
$$S^{-1}M \otimes_{S^{-1}A} S^{-1} A \otimes_A N$$
jagr2808
Now I'm saying you want to use the fact that for any R-module X
X(x)_R R = X
Do you see how you can use that to simplify the expression further?
honestly, I don't 😭
Well do you see something that looks like $\otimes_R R$ anywhere in the bottom expression for some value of R?
jagr2808
yeah like the $\otimes_{S^{-1} A} S^{-1} A$?
Musa
Right, so then we can cancel that part
Then we could also rewrite S^-1M
And then I claim we're done
right, I am a bit worried in how you would justify the associativity of the tensor product in this case
I see, you haven't proven that tensor product is associative
oh no I have
Then I'm not sure I see the issue
just so I understand what you are saying, is the claim that $S^{-1} M \otimes_{S^{-1} A} (S^{-1} A \otimes_A N) = (S^{-1} M \otimes_{S^{-1} A} S^{-1} A) \otimes_A N$? and then use the cancellation thing you were talking about on the first term?
Musa
if so, I don't see how you are putting a S^{-1} A structure on N
or wait I guess you dont need that
but I don't think this follows from regular associativity
but the iso is correct anyhow
but this isn't happening at any point
you never say N is a S^-1A module
I'm not sure what regular associativity is, but
(A (x)_R B) (x)_S C = A (x)_R (B (x)_S C)
is all that's happening
I guess something that maybe isn't stated explicitly is that the right A-module structure of
S^-1 M and S^-1 M (x) S^-1 A is the same.
But that is the case
It's just (m/s)a = ma/s in both cases
are A, B, C bi modules?
by regular associativity I just meant the usual $(A \otimes_R B) \otimes_R C = A \otimes_R(B \otimes_R C)$
Musa
Yes
B,C are galois extensions of k contained in E. Is this hint completely unnecessary? can i not just say
G(E/k) = G(E/B cap C) = G(E/B) v G(E/C) = G(E/B)G(E/C)?
if P ∈ Rn[X] and Q ∈ Rn[X]
is possible deg(P+Q) <= max{deg(P),deg(Q)}?
Think about for example if P = -Q
any tips on how to approach these problems? I keep getting the trivial ring but im pretty sure thats not true. For example, in a i have x^2 = 3 and 2x = -4, but im not sure I can do these because it may have a zero divisor. Well, it would be trivial if it could, so how should I go about it? for b i multiplied by conjugate and that worked, but I dont see how to work with the other ideals
For a), notice that Z[x] is a ufd, so it can’t have any zero divisors
And you can check that any quotient ring of an integral domain must also at least be an integral domain lmao.
Z is an integral domain, but Z/4Z isnt
update: I got skill issued
Now for which rings R is it possible to write it as a quotient of an integral domain
||All||
So you can use the trick that
R/(f, g) = (R/(f))/(g)
That at least simplifies it down quite a bit.
And if you have guessef for what the rings should be you can construct some homomorphisms and use the first isomorphism theorem
Another useful thing might be to try to find some integers in your ideal, then you can at least reduce it to some quotient of (Z/n)[x]. Then you just have something finite to deal with
I see, i will try that
commutative*
True, tbh I hadn't even considered the notion of a noncommutative ring when I said that lol
neither did anyone else tbh
I mean, just change "integral domain" to "domain", problem solved
Sure
But if we're meeting on convolution algebras of finite groups surely we want to let in convolution algebras for infinite groups.
I propose, all rings are commutative, but not all algebras are.
Then we have Z-algebras in case we need them.
And we get to keep our group algebras, and path algebras and endomorphism algebras

What if i want the addition in my ring to be not necessarily associative
Honestly a pretty good separation in terminology
What if I want the square root of fish to be a flying monkey
If my grandma had wheels she would be a bike
Exactly, those are the real questions
Why arent we mathematicians answering those
To be fair, ham in carbanana is pretty good
Damn
That would be a 1 2 2 50
i am very confused by this, how would an algebra be defined if not as a ring over another?
Just as you would any algebraic structure I guess.
You have a multiplication and an addition, and it satisfies some axioms
There are many ways one can think of certain structures.
In particular, here an R-algebra isnt just a ring homomorphism from R anymore (as that would make the algebra commutative), but defined as it would be in universal algebra, as abstact operations and axioms
As far as I’m concerned, a ring is an associative unital algebra
As far as I'm concerned, an algebra is an associative unital algebra
is the word algebra used for a structure that is not over another? i’ve really only come across algebra over a ring
The word algebra is used in quite a lot of contexts, but it usually is defined over a (commutative) ring yes
The only actual correct definition of "algebra" is ours, tyvm
But you also have sigma-algebras and F-algebras
Your structure should be called monoid-enriched R-module or smt
Probably other uses aswell
guh i forgot sigma-algebras have the word algebra in them
Tbf sigma-algebras are just certain algebras over F2
i kinda just don’t want to check that
Yeah qwq there is at least one
i am not looking forward to doing measure theory someday
I mean, you can choose not to

I think measure theory is kinda fun. If it wasn't for all those pesky integrals
i just dont have the analysts capacity to name magic sets
same i find it really hard to think about
not that im good at algebra but i find it muuch more comfortable to think about
and reason through
I feel like algebra is all about building something beautiful, and analysis is about showing you how ugly the world really is
Just do algebra like you normally would except drop the assumption that your algebraic theory is locally small
Hahaha
so real
Ya jagr actually spit some heat
There's a reason all those horrible AoC paradoxes were proven by analysists
there’s some ugly AoC algebra things as well though
I’ve seen that quote before
Yeah i guess this is why i prefer algebra
Its more satisfying to learn because of this
Universal algebraists solve this by assuming it
like, the cardinality of the automorphism group of the complex numbers…
Right
Cool, who is it due to?
I just pulled it out of my hat
Probably you
Hahahaha
Every ideal is embedded into a maximal one
or any maximal congruence
that’s not all that wild
There's also this thing about how you eat your corn on the cob. Don't remember how that one goes
No but its slightly annoying that a should-be-trivial fact is equivalent to AoC
I think the claim is that analysts eat corn on the cob in a kind of spiral, while algebraists eat row by row
Hmm, and is there an armchair psychology that goes with it?
there are only two continuous automorphisms, identity and conjugation, but $|\mathrm{Aut}(\mathbb C)| = 2^{2^{\aleph_0}}$
rødbet-jens
No idea about the psychology, I only know that eating corn in a spiral is for psychopaths
That analysts like uzumaki?
Does complex conjugation generate a normal subgroup of Aut(C)?
Very cursed
But iirc complex conjugation is the only automorphism of finite order up to conjugation
This is for the algebraic closure of Q. C has others
Again, very cursed
I believe there are models of ZF where Aut C is generated by complex conjugation, but with choice you can get rather bizarre automorphisms by e.g. extending autos from Q bar I guess
Makes sense, any two real-closed fields of the same transcendence degree over ℚ (or as a special case, uncountable cardinality) ought to be isomorphic.
While this is eventually going to get used for things like for #numerical-analysis I'm trying to figure out how to algebraically characterise things I'm thinking of.
- There are sequences of vector spaces and/or algebras, often polynomial-centric.
- The basis REALLY matters, so some way to say that whatever these things are, a different basis means it's a completely different thing could help.
- Maybe some good examples might be orthogonal polynomials, interpolatory Hermite polynomials & Bernstein polynomials for the varieties of things that need to be taken into account. (Note these «Hermite polynomials» are not the sequence of orthogonal polynomials, but rather, the basis polynomials for the interpolation problem that includes derivative values beyond just the function values, where the basis sets for each degree are distinct.)
- There needs to be some sort of way to have an idea that a nontrivial projection can happen from a higher to lower grade space, e.g. that things expressing degree constraints on e.g. Bernstein polynomials are dealing with a completely different set of basis functions, not just a subset of the ones already there, and that it matters that the basis is different.
- It would be super good if there were some way to throw things like condition numbers or some sort of description of numerical behaviour into the various kinds of mappings between the spaces.
What kinds of algebraic structures am I looking for?
Is there some sort of representation-theoretic thing I'm looking for?
It's mostly a terminological question, to be clear.
By Aut(ℂ) here do you mean the group of group automorphisms of (ℂ,+)?
And by continuity you mean with respect to the euclidean topology on ℂ, right?
This should come from some sort of Hamel basis construction if I'm not wrong
As a field, and the Euclidean topology.
Ah ok
So the Hamel basis part is correct right? Viewing the field ℂ as a vector space over ℚ
And then characterising automorphisms using that
Or is something else going on here
No, because it wouldn't give you field automorphisms.
You use a transcendence basis instead.
(And a lemma about extending automorphisms to algebraic closures.)
Going to take a stab at this although I know almost nothing about the examples you've mentioned: (i) Are you trying to represent vector spaces with a specified basis (and maybe linear maps between them), or elements of such vector spaces? (ii) Do you need to do anything special for 4. beyond defining a new vector-space-with-basis and a linear map from it to the old one which happens to be injective?
Vector spaces (well, mostly algebras) with those specified bases.
I don't think there's any term more specific for those than "vector space with a (specified/privileged) basis", if that's what you're searching for.
I guess the point of 4 is that the grading scheme's interaction with concrete instances of the bases isn't necessarily a nesting set inclusion tower.
At least in algebra. I suppose it's possible in theory that another subfield like numerical computing might have invented its own terms? But the point of "basis" is to capture this.
I'm sorry, but I have no idea what a grading scheme is (unless it's about how to score tests...), or "concrete instances of the bases".
You do mean that you might want to consider a subspace with a basis that is not a subset of the original basis, right?
By the grading scheme, I mean how the algebra is graded.
What I was saying is that you could define a new vector space with its own basis and then a linear map from the second to the first which is injective, representing the inclusion.
Yes, lower-degree Bernstein polynomials are the premier example. Maybe a different one would be interpolatory Hermite bases that forget a knot or tie derivatives' values to adjacent intervals via implicit differentiation with the denominators cleared.
It seems to me there's nothing you can do here except declare each vector-space-with-basis (so "polynomials with the 1, X, X^2, ... monomial basis" and "polynomials with the 1, X, X(X-1), ... falling factorial basis" are two different vector spaces) and represent linear maps between them by how they act on components with respect to the respective bases (i.e., by matrices with respect to the chosen bases). For example, the identity map from "polynomials with the monomial basis" to "polynomials with the falling factorial basis" would be represented by the change-of-basis matrix between those two bases - which makes sense, because the operation is doing something computationally non-trivial by converting from components wrt one basis to another.
And I'm not sure what else you need that you don't get by doing this.
But I suppose your question was about terminology, not implementation. And regarding that, I can only say I haven't heard a term other than "vector space with a (specified/privileged) basis".
Maybe someone else will know more.
That'll have to do, then. I'm surprised there's nothing already out there for it, but if that's the answer, that's the answer. Thanks!
I mean, I suspect there is, just that no-one bothered to name it anything more specific.
If I knew what to Google for, I might be able to survey what theorems exist that I can use.
girls i need a sanity check, am i writing nonsense here?: $\mathbb Z[x,\sqrt x] \cong \mathbb Z[\sqrt x] \cong \mathbb Z[x]$
rødbet-jens
No, this is fine
Note the first isomorphism you list is in fact just equality, since $\sqrt x$ generates $\bZ[x, \sqrt x]$.
$\mathbf{Boytjie}$
sure equality between the sets, but the map from formal polynomials in x and sqrt x to polynomials in sqrt x requires some shifting coefficients around so i prefer writing it like this
it’s possibly stupid of me to be thinking about polynomials in x and sqrt x though
No they are literally the same ring if you take the right perspective
Remember that $\bZ[k]$ can mean a subring generated by $\bZ$ and $k$. So in particular $\bZ[\sqrt x]$ is the subring of $\bZ[x, \sqrt x]$ generated by $\sqrt x$. So they are literally equal
$\mathbf{Boytjie}$
Now if you want to construct these rings in different ways, that's fair enough
yeah my problem is that i’m separating these i shouldn’t be doing that
I have no idea how you would justify that without first seeing it the way I described
Magic
Is the fixed field corresponding to all of Aut(K/F) always F?
No, the extension needs to be Galois
Oh ok thanks
For example, Aut(Q(∛2)/Q) is trivial, so the fixed field is all of Q(∛2). And Q <= Q(∛2) is not Galois
Coordinate frame or affine frame is at least a piece of it.
@tough raven That idea of a frame describes the basis as an attribute of an object involving a vector space.
Um, reading Wikipedia, an affine frame would essentially amount to choosing a basis of the form (monomials in p1, ..., pn), where p1, ..., pn are linear polynomials with exactly one common zero (equivalently, for some scalars a1, ..., an; p1, ..., pn forms a basis of span {X1 - a1, ..., Xn - an}). That doesn't sound nearly general enough for what you want to do.
The frame of the framed space doesn't seem to have the constraints you're describing. Why would they all need to be linear?
Maybe the neologism of «framed space» could make sense.
I'm just going off what I read at https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Affine_space#Affine_coordinates.
In mathematics, an affine space is a geometric structure that generalizes some of the properties of Euclidean spaces in such a way that these are independent of the concepts of distance and measure of angles, keeping only the properties related to parallelism and ratio of lengths for parallel line segments. Affine space is the setting for affine...
In 1, when it says A is possibly noncommutative, it means the multiplication in A as a ring could not be commutative?
Hi, I need to find an example of a cubic field extension of Q (i.e. [Q(alpha):Q]=3) such that alpha cannot be written as the cube root of some number
I know that this exists. I was thinking about complex extensions maybe, but i can
can't really find anything
yes
ty
i was thinking about maybe trying something simple, like 1+i or something.
but the minimum polynomial of this is of degree 2
that's just
finding a polynomial of degree 3
with a root which is not a cube root
Yes
Well we always have Q(1+cbrt(2)) =Q(cbrt(2)) right
So like it doesnt really hold?
But yes that's essentially where i'm stuck @arctic trail
an affine function isn't necessarily linear, it's linear plus a constant
so, similar but that's where the confusion may be coming from
Sure - that matches with what I said originally. My point is that I doubt you can get interesting polynomial bases like anything similar to Hermite polynomials with just products of powers of n given affine-linear polynomials.
One thing that comes to mind would be, say
E = Q(a) for a cuberoot a. Then the splitting field of E contains a 3rd root of unity, hence must have degree 6.
So if you can find an extension whose splitting field has degree 3, then that proves it doesn't have any cube roots.
You can determine the splitting field from the discriminant.
For example ||x^3 - 3x + 1|| should work
Or possibly easier, if the splitting field is real, then it can't contain any roots of unity. Splitting field is real if the discriminant is positive
i’m not used to asking this kind of question but i’m curious if anyone have some insight to this: under what conditions is there a constructive proof that every ideal is contained in some maximal ideal?
obviously if the is finite there will be such a proof (just compare all ideals), but surely there are more general conditions?
if it's noetherian?
Does the argument use countable choice 
Seems finitely generated algebras would work
Depends on your definition of Noetherian
i’m not sure if i understand this idea of “constructively noetherian,” i guess the idea that whenever you have an ideal you must have a constructive way to check whether or not there is a larger proper ideal?
if so i don’t see how to apply the nullstellensatz
https://arxiv.org/abs/1605.04832 is a good reference for doing commutative algebra constructively, though I can't point you to a specific result of the form you ask. I suspect there aren't many: constructive reasoning usually avoids using prime ideals entirely (proving something for every prime ideal of a commutative ring A can often be replaced by a "finite cover" of A by rings like A[a^{-1}, ...]/(b, ...) and a local-global principle).
This book is an introductory course to basic commutative algebra with a particular emphasis on finitely generated projective modules. We adopt the constructive point of view, with which all existence theorems have an explicit algorithmic content content.
In particular, when a theorem affirms the existence of an object -- the solution of a prob...
Constructively there are several ways you could define Noetherian (any infinite ascending chain stabilises, any infinite ascending chain has two equal consecutive terms, no infinite strictly ascending chain exists, every ideal is finitely generated) and it's not always clear which one to use.
And this book says (although I haven't read enough to see it backed up) that it seems better to replace "Noetherian" and "finitely generated" hypotheses with "coherent" and "finitely presented".
amazibg, thank you, i’m not intimidated by the length at all 
Fair
. I find a section on something specific and read it when I get interested in that.
i’ll see what i can get out of it mwahaha
Say R = k[x1, ..., xn]/I
The Nullstellensatz says that if I is not (1), then there is a point in k^n where I vanishes. This then gives you a map R -> k.
Let V be a vector space over a field K and k a positive integer.
For w: V^{k-1} → K alternating multilinear, define
i_w: ∧^k V → V: v1 ∧ ... ∧ vk ↦ w(v1, ..., v(k-1)) vk - ... + (-1)^(k-1) w(v2, ..., vk) v1.
For any subspace W of V, if h ∈ ∧^k W then i_w h ∈ W for any w.
Is the converse true: for
W = {i_w h: w alternating (k-1)-multilinear},
is h ∈ ∧^k W?
Why is it that a simple tensor m x n is 0 iff all R bilinear maps take (m,n) to 0?
I dont think i really ever understood tensor products that well
Okay consider a vector space $V$ and we have an element $x \in V$. Note that $x$ is zero iff all maps $V \to k$ send $x$ to $0$. $\Rightarrow$ is trivial, and $\Leftarrow$ follows because, for example, if $x \ne 0$ then you can extend it to a basis of $V $ and find a map $V \to k$ sending $x \mapsto 1$
Prismatic Potato
Now you want to apply this to the case where V is a tensor product and use the universal property of tensor products (in terms of bilinear maps)
The map that takes (m,n) to m(x)n is bilinear.
So if all bilinear maps take it to 0, then m(x)n is 0.
Conversely if f is a bilinear map, then the universal property says there is a linear map f' with f'(m(x)n) = f(m, n). If f(m, n) is nonzero then m(x)n must be as well
