#groups-rings-fields
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I don't see a way to do this avoiding something slightly more subtle like transcendence bases
If F and E have the same char, then they are both vector spaces over the base field. Does it work to just take the direct sum of these vector spaces?
No, as that needn't be a field
that might not be a field
Hmm, okay
potato what's wrong with this one
brother I do not know what you said
just do K(L) the rest will figure itself out 😌
For that to make sense you need to have embedded them both in a common field already tho
do u? Just take polynomials with variables in every element of L and then formally adjoin inverses. A little K_0 if u will
if u use the woke definition where u intersect a bunch of shit then sure
How do you map into that?
Oh ok
As in take K and then do a big ting for each el of L
But then how do you map from L into that
Anyway what I said is this: every field extension K/k can be cut up as k( {x}) for some big set of indeterminates followed by an algebraic extension K/k({x})
So in particular every extension embeds into the algebraic closure of k({x}) for some set of indeterminates
Now just take that set big enough for both the fields that you started with and both will embed in the alg closure
I think I get it, thanks 
ah good point
I will simply embed it.
For an answer that sounds different but is probably the same, take the tensor product of the two fields (which is a commutative ring) and quotient it by a maximal ideal.
How do you prove that neither of the fields vanish when quotienting? Genuine question
Ah nice, i did wonder if you could tensor stuff lol
this is very nice!
Good question.
I suppose the choicy part of it is then transferred from picking a transcendence basis to picking a maximal ideal aha, just the latter is much more familiar
Any map from a field (into something nonzero) is injective anyway
So it'll still be an iso onto image
Right yes.
Ohh right cuz there is no 0 map
Haha my brain is kinda funky atm
My argument was that if k (⨯) 1 ↦ 0, then 1 = (k (⨯) 1)(k^{-1} (⨯) 1) ↦ 0, so the ideal of K (⨯) L would be improper.
Yeah thats the usual argument hehe,
or as a slogan, "the pullback of a proper ideal is proper".
Really elegant, wow
And yeah like
any nonzero element of K remains a unit in K (x) L, so it's not in a max ideal
Mhm
i guess that is just identical to what you are syaing though
Hence doesnt get yeeted into the void
but really these arguments are all the same lol
Yeah
Every homomorphism from a field is injective
And all because of the fact that 1=0 <=> R = 0
How nice for you guys
cries in universal algebra
Yeah but i was thinking about a 0 map, not considering the fact 0 maps do not exist in ring theory
I guess one would actually have to argue that the tensor product isn't 0, which is what happened when the characteristics are different
But then you just need to consider them as vector spaces
Example of a subset of a ring that is a subgroup under addition but not a subring.[give 3 or 4 example]
Zx < Z[x]
Ri < C
Polynomials in one variable with coefficients in ℤ
Why Zx is not a subring of Z[x].
you tell us
Let ax and bx belongs to Zx for a,b belongs to Z
Then ax-bx=(a-b)x this is also belongs to Z since a-b belongs to Z
ii. ax.bx=ab.x² this is also belongs to Z
Am I wrong?
Please guide me..
ax-bx ∈ ℤx
ax.bx = abx² ∉ ℤx
Yeah got it...thank you so much..
hi! for determining the number of homomorphisms between Z -> Z_9 x Z_12, am I correct in thinking that, as Z is cyclic (generated by 1), effectively, a homomorphism is "dictated" by where f(1) goes? given |Z_9 x Z_12| = 108, I'd imagine this means there are 108 of them
the very next problem is how many homomorphisms g: Z_36 -> Z_9 x Z_12 exist, but I'd imagine this is exactly the same thing given Z_36 is cyclic, right?
It's correct that f(1) determines all of f, but it's not clear that f(1) could be any element of the group apriori
Well, given f(1) are you able to define f for the other elements? Is this definition well defined?
Try to find a relation between the order of an element in the domain and the order of its image under a homomorphism
Is Z the limit of all C_n or is it some adic thing
I feel like I could construct some coherent series of elements thats, say, 1 mod every multiple of 11
So either that yields something not in Z or its forbidden by some other coherence condition
Nvm it literally just yields the number 1 lol
I feel like it's either [yes, by Chinese remainder theorem] or [no, by counterexample]
hi I'm new to abstract alg can I get good resource recommendations?
hopefully something available online
I wanna get into group theory
from a CS pov (if that matters)
If you're at a uni/college and it's free to just attend lectures in your country, you can do that
At my uni in Germany, you can just walk into any lecture without being enrolled
U enrolled in compsci?
yea
but I don't think I'll take this stuff in cs
so if I do that I'll prolly have to figure out at which college in my uni It's taught and attend there
things are pretty lax so I can prolly just attend in a college that isn't mind (depends on the prof)
one of the profs I was attending a lecture for made a whole deal and took the id of a student that wasn't in cs that was attending so idk tbh ☠️
The limit of the finite cyclic groups is called the profinite integers. It's an uncountable group.
Ah right I've heard of that
I was wondering if you could relate the natural logarithm in complex analysis to the n-th roots, cause their riemann surfaces have fiber Z resp. C_n over the complex plane (punctured)
But I guess what you'd get instead is a profinite gluing of all the roots
oh also any idea where I can find practice problems with solutions?
And maybe the logarithm maps to that gluing if it's lucky
Well the idea behind attending a lecture is
You'd get access to a bunch of exercises, proper educational pacing, peers to study with...
weeeell
idk about that tbh
my uni is kinda mid
I'd mostly attend sometihng like that for the lectures
Idk if a unis midness is reflected in algebra exercises tho
Depends more on the midness of the professor
@rocky cloak ?
I'm not entirely sure what you're asking.
How are you gluing these Riemann surfaces in the first place?
By taking a limit, of top spaces or G-bundles or something
And lifting all roots simultaneously
Over each point, the limit is the profinite group, so you just need to topologize it
how is HOM(E,F) a commutative ring? it isnt even a ring, no? given two elements, there is no multiplication structure unless F=E??
i think im just tripping really bad but i dont see where
Here they seem to be using pointwise multiplication
Wait, hm, no, i guess i assumed E,F were fields when i saw that notation lol
there is no multiplication structure for vectors either
Yeah okay i have no idea what they are doing lmao
oh okay this book is pretty thoroughly written so i thought this must be a mistake on my part
also how is F^E a product group? (how commutative?? maybe they mean commutative under addition but then what does product group mean)
is this bourbaki 
most likely a typo ring -> group
May anyone suggest me an easier way to prove that A_4/V_4 is Z_3?
Finding the cosets for everything is taxing
Something has gone wrong. S_4 has order 24, and V_4 has order 4, but Z_3 has order 3, not 24/4=6. So what you claim is impossible
that'd give you order 2 iso Z2
Wait what
Oh, A_4 instead of V_4?
I mean I actually want to prove it's the commutator so I want to use the isomorphism A_4/V_4 is Z_3 to show the commutator is a subgroup of V_4 first
True, especially as this is probably translation lol
Actually there is a proper class of groups of order 3
....that is true.
But if someone asks me to provide an explicit isomorphism? Or atleast a surjective isomorphism from A_4 to Z_3 so that I can use the first iso thm
you gotta quotient 😢
There should be some geometric way to do this lol
Well, really it's probably easier the other way round
Defining a map out of Z/3 is super easy
Oh shit so this is about some magic stuff permuting some points in some way
Just send 1 to an element of order 3 in thjs case and you'll be done
Yeah
That
But does that automatically force a product of transpositions to be mapped from 0
I think we need that as well
Because we have to show the kernel is V_4
...you know what i'll stick to "every group of order 3 is abelian"
This is fucking with me
Thanks guys

sit for an weekend and classify up to order 20

given that the sign of 3 permutations are all even. how do you show no ordering of these 3 permutations can result in an odd one?
all categories are skeletal
Blasphemy
Patience is a Virtue
Virtue is a Grace
Grace is a little girl
Who would not wash her face
here the transitive property of being gives us some very interesting equivalences
She is very young and doesn’t know any better
Hey folks, just a quick reminder that the Abstract Algebra Lecture series is meeting regularly again ^_^
We've worked out our technical issues and will convene to discuss the Sylow theorems in about 20 minutes over in the #1055201711679082516. More information can be found in our thread: #1317307081535000606
@feral kraken check this out
thanks
I suspect that a, b !=0 in an Euclidean Domain implies that one of (a, b/(a,b)), (b,a/(a,b)) is a unit. Is there a way to prove this without using Euclidean Domain -> UFD?
heya, for what it's worth, if you're interested in coming along with us i'd definitely recommend joining the Simple Group server— we're missing one of our admins so the thread doesn't get updated as much as it probably should
Hello
I am trying to prove that ring R sinple => R primitive, is it true that if I take I to be some maximal left ideal in R, then R/I is a faithful and simple left-R-module because if I were to find an element of r that annihilates all a' in R/I, then that would mean that ra in I, hence bra in I hence the 2 sided ideal generated by r is under I and so it has to be the zero ideal by R being simple?
It seems like so to me but I thought I had it like twice already so I'm not quite so sure anymore lol
hi
Yes, any non-zero R-module is faithful for this reason
Any hints for 2.2? I think I should prove that L is algebraically closed by showing that every polynomial in L[x] splits, but I'm not sure how to do that
Haven't they told you that that is the case?
Every polynomial in k[x] splits in L, but I don't see how to prove it holds for every polynomial in L[x]
Wait, I think this works: any a in k-bar is algebraic over k, and therefore the root of a polynomial p in k[x]. But p splits in L, so every root of p is in L, in particular a, so k-bar <= L
i don't mean product
so here's the question
given that the sign of 3 permutations are all even. how do you show no ordering of these 3 permutations can result in an odd one?
i mean to say
that
say you have 3 even permutations a,b,c. i want to show that no matter what order you do a,b,c or to what extent, you can't have an odd permutation
here i would want to show that $A_i \cap A_j = {e}$ for all $i\neq j$, right? if that is the case, given $i$, we know that for all $j < i$, $A_i \cap (A_1 A_2 ... A_j ... A_{i-1}) = {e}$ so in particular, since $A_j \subseteq A_1 A_2 ... A_j ... A_{i-1}$, we have $A_i \cap A_j = {e}$. by symmetry, we get that $A_j \cap A_i = {e}$ for all $j > i$. so we are done?
bathroom mug
you need a little more - in particular to finish the proof you need an isomorphism from $\varphi: \bigoplus_{i=1}^k A_i \to \prod_{i=1}^k A_i = G$
HChan
but that isn't too hard
i suppose its the most natural one? (a,b,c...) -> abc..
so what exactly is the definition? that we have G = A1A2... and that we have the above isomorphism?
i feel like having that isomorphism should somehow be equivalent to trivial pairwise intersection
the distinction I'm trying to make here, is that the product of the normal subgroups is a subgroup of G
while the direct product is completely outside of G
and although we know that they are the same, a priori you need to prove that
ah, okay
i thought the definition of direct product is what you call the product of the groups
not sure which definition you're working with here, but that's not a hard proof
just prove it's a group homo plus 2 of the 3: injective, surjective, |G| = |\bigoplus A_i|
you also have freedom to chose which direction you want your isomorphism to go from
choose which one is easiest for your proof
this has trivial kernel, because all the groups intersect trivially so that (a,b,c,...) -> abc... = e =>a = b = .. = e . it is surjective, since G = A1A2...
yeah checks out
thanks
Hey can you please help me with this problem:
There are 2 operations defined on a subgroup of a symmetry group given by cycles (1 3 2) and (3 4 5). Determine if cycle (1 3 4) is a member of this subgroup
Sorry if this is trivial
what do you mean by operations
Permutations*
Still what do you mean by "permutations defined on a subgroup"
Sorry, I mean there are 2 types of permutations allowed (and their multiples)
I wanna know if using those permutations you could get the same effect as cycle (1 3 4)
so you are asking if (1 3 4) is in the subgroup generated by (1 3 2) and (3 4 5)
Yes
what do you think?
I would think probably yes
why?
it should be consistent with the orbits
not sure exactly what that means since there isnt an explicit group action here…
however, you can compute all of the elements in the subgroup generated by (1 3 2) and (3 4 5)
do you see a way of doing this?
Is there no better way of doing this?
I could try conjugating stuff and multiplying them out
there are only so many ways to multiply the two elements since they have order 3
so it’s not terrible
Damn I mean. Alright I got you. Thank you!
Solved. Yes it is an element. Thank you again
(see question below)
so i want to find the order of G here and just divide by 2. that just means i have to count the number of solutions to ad - bc = 1 in F_p. There are a few cases i can think of here:
1)one of the terms ad, bc = 0
say a = 0. then d can take p values, and say b can take p-1 values and c is forced by b. so we have p(p-1) solutions. adding up for b = 0, c=0 and d=0, there are 4p(p-1) solutions
2)both terms are nonzero:
so here we can just isolate one element, say c = (ad-1)/b. here b can take p-1 values, and a,d can take p-1 values as well, so in total (p-1)^3 solutions.
thus we have in total:
(p-1)(p+1)^2 solutions.
since quotienting by C identifies a matrix and its negative together, and since X is a solution => -X is a solution, the order of G/C is (p-1)(p+1)^2/2
did i miss anything here?
i apparently have overcounted somewhere hmm
ohh d cant be the inverse of a i see
so the second case needs to be modified to (p-1)^2(p-2) so in total there are (p-1)(4p + (p-1)(p-2)) solutions and so G/C has order (p-1)(p^2 + p + 2)/2
perfect
Hi I had a question……if k is a field will any maximal ideal of k[x,y] always contain a quadratic irreducible polynomial
Don't think so.
What about something like (x^3 - 2, y^3 - 3) in Q[x, y]
Yes
Btw don't post the same question in several channels
But can it be shown true for algebraically closed fields without referring to any form of Hilbert Nullstellansetz
It is true but I want a proof without using HN
Hmm, I don't have any good idea for how to do it without using something like at least Zariskis lemma, but maybe it's possible...
I cant find a proof of this theorem is it true?
but this theorem just lets me check very quickly if a group is cyclic
It would really help me for my algebra exam If this theorem is true and Im allowed to use it
I mean given a p-group you can decompose it as a direct sum of cyclic groups. If you know that every group of order n is cyclic and p^{k} is the greatest prime power of p that divides n then every p-group of that order has to be cyclic as well, which implies that k = 1 for every prime divisor of n
It sounds true, but also not an interesting result
A cyclic group of order n always exists for any n, so if you know that there’s only one group of order n then of course it’s cyclic
But actually finding how many groups of order n there are up to isomorphism is generally pretty hard
The fact that all such groups are isomorphic is a direct consequence of the fact that two cyclic groups are isomorphic if and only if they have the same order.
This is not a conclusive test, but the way - just because v(n) != 1 doesn’t mean a group of order n can’t be cyclic
Cyclic groups have really, really degenerate structure - it shouldn’t be that hard to determine if a group is cyclic
(On a test, anyway)
This is certainly not the case. A simple calculation is much easier
Also the theorem that you stated is not a test for cyclicity of a group, rather for a property of a positive integer. The order of a group might not be free of squares, and yet it can still be cyclic
I should proof or disproof if Groups of Order 15 are always cyclic or not.
You can use Sylow's theorem
And what that theorem its a 1 liner
yeah I think they want me to use those
It is the standard way and much more useful to understand Sylow's theorem than the theorem you provided.
It is intersting as an excercise, but a direct corollary of more fundamental results.
For m>1 note that CpxCp is a non-cyclic group.
So for n square free you can go by induction. By some Sylow counting argument you can show that G has a normal sylow subgroup. Then by induction the quotient group is cyclic, so G is a semidirect product. Then the fact that p is not 1 modulo any of the primes means those primes don't divide p-1, so the semidirect product is direct.
Conversely if p is 1 modulo q then you have a non-cyclic group of order pq given by semidirect product
Actually you might need a little more work than just Sylow counting. But G will have a nontrivial normal subgroup at least.
I mean we have outlined the proof of the stated theorem. If your goal is to prove that any group of order 15 is cyclic, there is nothing quicker than Sylow
As a second exercise perhaps try and write in more detail what @rocky cloak outlined for you!
To me their just two ways to describe the same thing.
A representation refers to the G -> End(M) definition and a module refers to the GxM -> M definition.
The answer is saying that the word module specifically refers to linear things, and that representation is more general. And maybe some people use it that way, but to me representations are always linear anyway.
But in that case a G-set would have a corresponding representation G -> Sym(X), which is not a module, since there is no linear structure.
Another example could be quivers, where a representation is usually thought of as a homomorphism of quivers to the underlying quiver of some category. Here I'm not familiar with any "module definition" for representations. But representations correspond to modules over the path algebra. This works fine for finite quivers, but for infinite quivers the correspondence breaks down. So that would perhaps be a significant difference.
(you can fix the correspondence, but then you have to talk about nonunital rings with enough idempotents and locally unital modules and horribleness)
aH -> aHa^{-1} is a well defined bijective mapping? so that [G: aHa^{-1}] = [G : aH] < infty? is this valid?
I don't really get what you're doing
How is [G:aH] defined?
And it's true that the index of aHa^-1 is finite, but I don't see how it helps the problem
sorry. number of elements in {aHa^{-1}| a in G}=[G:H]
That equality certainly doesn't hold in general - suppose everything is abelian, for example
Indeed the assignment aH |-> aHa^-1 needn't be injective
perhaps i define the map the other way round?
Well this means there cannot exist such a bijection
I mean it's well defined, just not a bijection.
Think about when
aHa^-1 = bHb^-1
Can you frame that in terms of a relationship between a and b?
I think you're pretty close to something with approach you had actually
Would it be productive to consider the action of the normalizer of H on the syzygy classes of H (by syzygy i mean the internal automorphism h -> ghg^{-1})?
(my explanation of syzygy is perhaps redundant but i am not that familiar with English terminology on group theory and my memory is disappointing me)
with my original approach i wanted atleast an injection into G/H. anyways this gives me that ba^-1b^-1a in H. im still not seeing anything
i could switch the roles of a and b and get another such similar relation. but what after that?
So if you instead of trying to construct an injection into G/H you tried to construct a surjection from G/H you could have something.
Anyway, your relation is not quite right. It should be that b^-1 a is in the normalizer of H.
sorry, what is a normalizer?
is it elements that commute with elements of H? because if so, this does give me that
ah wait, yes i do have that relation here but not quite following from what i said
x is in the normalizer iff xHx^-1 = H
so for any h in H, aha^-1 = bh'b^-1 for some h' in H. from this i have, b^-1aha^-1b = h' => b^-1aHa^-1b subset H => b^-1aH = Hb^-1a
Here p is a prime, K a number field an O_K its ring of integers. Why does p | q?
right, so there is a surjection, the one i said initially, which is aH -> aHa^-1. so the cardinality is <=. my bad. anyways i have what i want now
thanks for the help, jagr2808, Prismatic Potato
The norm of p1 divides the norm of p. And the norm of p is just p^n
So q is a nonunit divisor of p^n
Ahh makes sense. Thanks!
One thing to be careful though between linear reps and modules over k[G] is that many constructions are not what one might naively think
for example the tensor product of G-reps is not just the tensor product of the corresponding k[G]-modules
Is there an actual terminology clash there? Like do people usually mean tensor product over kG if they talk about "the tensor product of two G-modules"
I wouldn't say it's a clash, just that you should be a bit careful w stuff like that
I agree you should be careful, but I'm not sure it's coming from a distinction between reps and modules.
It's just that there are two things "tensor product of G-reps" can mean
Whether a field is a splitting field depends on the base field, right? Like if k <= F then F may or may not be a splitting field over k, but F is always a splitting field as a trivial extension F <= F?
When talking about a splitting field dont u need to specify the polynomial too
And specifying the polynomial means a polynomial over some field right
Sure
am i tripping or is this not true? take R over R, and the set {...,-2,-1,0,1,2,...} is a stable subgroup but is certainly not a submodule over R
Well it is still meaningful to say smth is a splitting field, but you should say it relative to a base. Like for example if F is characteristic 0 then an extension K is a splitting field over F iff K/F is finite Galois
Hello, does all ideals finitely generated <=> no infinitely ascending chain of ideals depend on choice?
A polynomial could be a polynomial over several fields at once I guess, e.g.
splitting field of x^2 + 1 over Q vs splitting field of x^2 + 1 over R.
oh wait bruh they mean something else by subgroup. the operators will be R here
Thank you, so this holds for any nonzero R-module whenever R is simple?
Well => should be clear at least.
But the converse seems to me you might need some weak form of choice. But maybe you can do it without...
Wait I got stuck in my head uh
Okay yeah you can definitely do it with just dependent choice by building a countable infinitely ascending chain if it's not fg
Probably does need dependent choice
If k <= F then we call F a splitting field if it's a splitting field for some polynomial in k. So it's a property of a field extension rather than a field I guess
Indeed for this reason some people say "splitting extension"
as there isn't a meaningful absolute variant
Thank you guys
Yeah, that's a better term imo 
Hmm I'm not sure I see this completely still, if the module M is not simple then it might be not faithful right? If R isn't guaranteed to be commutative
Any homomorphism R -> End(M) can only have kernel (0) because R is simple
The only exception being if M=0, when the kernel is all of R
Ohhh right
So the proof I sent was not needed at all
Thank you
Riiiight annihilator is not just one but two-sided ideal
Suppose G is a finite group, A and B are subgroups, A intersect B is trivial, #A * #B = #G
Therefore each element of G can be uniquely represented as a*b, a in A, b in B
Consider b*a, apply previous statement to it
So we have a function f from BxA onto AxB such that:
f(b, a) = (a', b') iff b*a == a'*b'
Through f we can ask the question: given A and B, try to find G (how can subgroups be combined to get a bigger group?)
f has to satisfy a bunch of properties, for example we expect (b*b')*a == b*(b'*a) , which produces equations:
(denoting fA for the first component of f, fB for second, so f = (fA, fB) kinda)
fA(bb', a) == fA(b, fA(b', a))
fB(bb', a) == fB(b, fA(b', a)) fB(b', a)
Similar for b*a*a'
Also some simple properties due to 1B and 1A getting glued together kinda:
fA(1B, a) = a
fA(b, 1A) = 1A
Suppose we knew A was normal in G
Then
b * a == b * a * b^-1 * b = phi_b(a) * b; phi_b : A -> A isomorphism
We get semidirect products
So my question: is the more general construction through f fruitful? Is it explored somewhere?
Atm the functional equations feel pretty terse / impenetrable, though some more properties can be shown, like fA(fixed, varied) : A -> A is bijective, for every fixed b in B
It's called Zappa-Szep product
https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Zappa–Szép_product
In mathematics, especially group theory, the Zappa–Szép product (also known as the Zappa–Rédei–Szép product, general product, knit product, exact factorization or bicrossed product) describes a way in which a group can be constructed from two subgroups. It is a generalization of the direct and semidirect products. It is named after Guido Zappa ...
I’ve been thinking about for this about 30 minutes, but I still don’t see why them being disjoint except at the identity implies the representations of elements are unique. I’ve been trying to find a contradiction, but I really need to learn more AA..
Anyone got any hints?
Uniqueness is 2 parts: each element in G has an ab representation, and the representation is unique
Did you show the first part?
Try figuring out how many elements the set AB = {ab : a in A, b in B} has
I’m using the assumption that 1. Is true(which includes HK=G and H$\cap$K is trivial, and trying to derive a contradiction from also assuming there is some g in G with hk=g=h’k’ for h≠h’, so I’m already assuming every element have a representation
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The same amount as G, since it’s equal to G
This is good approach, try to manipulate algebraically
Write
a b = a' b'
Manipulate the equation to get
Something in A = something in B
Hence what you get must be in the intersection
You know how SU(2) is the universal cover of SO(3)? Is there some sort of generalization to higher dimensions?
Yes
Sp(2) is the universal cover of SO(5) and SU(4) is the universal cover of SO(6)
does that generalize to arbitrary dimension or is it just a few exceptional cases
It’s just a few exceptional cases
ah, alas
In general you have the Spin(n) group is a double cover of SO(n), but I guess that's more or less by definition.
is there some general relationship between SU(n) and Spin(m)?
Don't think so
Hello, is it correct that every simple module is isomorphic to R/I as an R module for some maximal proper left I < R?
Do you know the correspondence theorem?
The module has to be cyclic else you would get a proper submodule that is cyclic. From there you see it is R/I for some I, and then if I wasn’t maximal it has a submodule
No
I arrived at it going R^{+J} = F -> M surjective and through F I can drag some nonzero R
Alright, well without that it's quite hard to see.
But it says that every submodule of R/I corresponds to a submodule of R containing I.
So in particular R/I is simple iff I is maximal
But I wasn't sure if the conclusion was correct
Ah that's this I didn't know it had this name
Okay thank you guys very much
Gotta learn UA better then smh
Dawg, 1 is in only a single ideal
The entire ring
😭
Also r^n = r^m doesn’t mean r^(m-n) = 1, you need to be in an integral domain to conclude this
Consider the element (1,0) in say
Any product R x S
This satisifies x^2 = x
For this, if 1 is in I, then for any x in R, x•1 = x is in I, so I = R
No
They are specifically not subrings
Unless they’re everything
They’re a submodule of R
Considering R as a module over itself
Ehhhh
Okay so
If your convention for ring doesn’t involve having a 1
Then it’s a subring
But then if you have a ring with 1 and wanna deal with those
A subring should not only have a 1
It should be the SAME 1
Again consider R x S
And the set R x {0}
This is a ring
In fact, even under the induced operation from R x S
It has a 1
But that 1 is the element (1,0)
Which is not the 1 of R x S
Very confusing no?
They r cool
I gave u an example
But it’s because you can have
xy = xz without y = z
You don’t have cancellation when you have zero dicisors
Yup
That was the example I gave u even
Just to dot the ts here. You can have radical ideals.
Just take k a finite field and R = k[x]/(x^2) and I = (x) for example
Is there any generalization of a field with exponents? E.g. like how a ring is a group with multiplication too, or a field is a commutative ring with division too?
it sounds like it could maybe be covered by the concept of Lawvere theory or algebraic theory
but I haven't thought through the details
if you've seen how there's a certain finite graph category that encodes the axioms for a group
and that any particular group can be realized as the image of that category through a functor to Set
algebraic theories are like that but more general
I don't know if there's a type of algebraic theory that corresponds to your idea and has a name
Alright, thanks!
Theorem: let G be a group. If the derivative G' is 0, then G is a constant
what do you mean?
Like if you have a function whose derivative is 0 then it must be constant. Same is true for groups
what do you mean by derivative of a group
The derived subgroup
broke: i only work with abelian groups they're nicer
woke: all abelian groups are literally trivial
woah is that the game with omega
Based
Division in a field is a partial operation, which is the problem.
What you can do is take the axiomatic definition of a ring and simply adjoint an exponential operator ^ and adding the rules
(a ^ b) ^ c = a ^ (b * c)
(a ^ b) * (a ^ c) = a ^ (b + c)
(a ^ b) * (c ^ b) = (a * c) ^ c
a^1 = a
Although the last one could be a little too strong perhaps
Using induction you can prove that indeed a^n aligns with the monoid definition of power
Ah wait, this would probably not even be defined propeely
Oh well
As long as you do not force both a^0 = 1 and a^1 = a
Because then you'd have a^-1 * a^1 = a^{1-1} = a^0 = 1 thus giving 0 and inverse, collapsing the ring to the 0 ring
is there a good reason to believe A4 can be a product of two proper subgroups? and is there a good reason to believe that there is no subgroup of order 6 of A4?
i know that if |H| = 6 and H < A4 then the only possibility can be S3 here
Given the ring A=Z/3[X] and the polynomial f=X^4+k, how do I find the characteristic of the quotient ring A/(f)? It'd have to be at most 3 I'd say because 3*1=0, but I'm not sure how to conclude that it is exactly 3.
A subgroup of order 6 has indeed 2, so must be normal and hence the kernel of a surjective map A4 -> C2. But A4 is generated by elements of order 3, so any such map is trivial.
And I'd say there isn't a good reason to believe it can be written as a product mostly because it can't.
So since it divides 3 it's either 3 or 1.
So you just have to prove 1 =/= 0.
I guess you can argue by degree, any element in (f) has degree at least 4
Oh right thanks!
hmm what about C3 and V4 subgroups of A4?
what about order 3 subgroups here?
Ah, you don't mean direct product
oh yeah actually i was kinda confused about this too in my quiz
Then sure, the fact that just two primes divide it would be a good reason
Yeah, any such group will be a (not necessarily direct) product of its sylow subgroups
It has order 3 subgroups. But the same argument will give that they can't be normal
also one more question: is the map h(H intersect K) -> hK a bijection H/(H intersect K) -> HK/K? its well defined, because if h(H intersect K) = h'(H intersect K) then hh'^-1 in K . its surjective clearly one preimage of hK is h. injective because if hK =h'K then hh'^-1 = k in H, so that h(H intersect K) = h'(H intersect K)
But I guess this is also just true for any group that isn't cyclic (maybe depending on how you're defining product)
Yes, this is one of the isomorphism theorems
doesnt that say something about H,K being normal subgroups?
like one of H or K must be normal afaik.
so you cant directly quote the theorem, but this proof works anyways
ah. i guess i didnt tell you where H and K come from. they are just subgroups of some G
Yeah, I guess there is some subtlety whether HK = {hk} or if it's the subgroup generated by H and K.
"Hua's identity": if $a,b$ are nonzero elements of a division ring, with $a \neq b^{-1}$, then
$$a - aba = (a^{-1}+ (b^{-1}- a)^{-1})^{-1}$$
how the heck did someone in the 20th century get their name on this thing??
According to Wikipedia, this identity is a crucial step in proving Hua's theorem, which is a bit more natural statement to consider.
So I guess that's how they stumbled upon it / how it got named
what am i looking at ?
ManifoldCuriosity
put \textbf or underline at the heading if you want
fair enough, though I'd hope it has more than just one application to get named like that
Maybe you're more hopeful than me
Me when i give a fancy name to a lemma I'll never use again
Guys what's $2x2
localization at prime ideal p is a process of construct ring of fraction of ring R\p, correct?
high chances to be wrong
Its constructing ring of fractions where your denominators are R-p
R take away p is the multiplicatively closed set
yes, isn't same as constructing ring of fraction of ring R\p?
I don't know much about localization, but R\p isn't a ring, so I don't think that definition works
yes i know they write R\p as set theory notation of difference but i am asking different question i have a doubt what if i take ring R\p and the construct its ring of fraction
i got it
annihilator of submodule generated by m in M is not necessary prime ideal, right/
let m in M, i know Ann(m) \subset Ann N, where N is a submodule generated by m, is Ann N \subset Ann(m)? I think no
M is a R - module
They’re the same
what is a good motivation for the definition of a semidirect prodcut? i dont understand why it is defined the way it is AT ALL
OK
from my understanding, if G,H are groups, phi a compatible association of H with elements of Aut(G), then G semidirect_phi H is defined (g1,h1) (g2,h2) = (g1phi(h1)(g2),h1h2)???
Suppose $G$ is a group with a normal subgroup $N$. Now we have a quotient $G/N$. Note that typically, there is no subgroup of $G$ which is isomorphic to $G/N$.
Let's suppose that we are in a `nice' circumstance where there is. So there is a subgroup $H \leq G$ such that the map $H \to G/N$ defined by $h \mapsto hN$ is an isomorphism. Then $G$ is isomorphic (in a natural way) to the semidirect product $N \rtimes H$.
$\mathbf{Boytjie}$
So there you go. Semidirect products are this 'nice' circumstance where the overall group looks like the normal subgroup and the quotient combined in a nice way.
oh huh i didnt know this i saw some book defining it this way and it confused the shit out of me like i felt like i was understanding what was going on but not at the same time
In general, if:
\begin{enumerate}
\item $N$ is a normal subgroup of $G$,
\item $H$ is a subgroup of $G$,
\item $NH = G$, and
\item $N \cap H = 1$,
\end{enumerate}
then $G \cong N \rtimes H$ in a natural way.
$\mathbf{Boytjie}$
So this is good motivation I think.
oh wait is the external semidirect product creating a group where these nice circumstances occur with these specific groups being the nice gourps???
Yes
i think i can work out verifying that these nice circumstances occur (in the external case) on my own
That sounds worthwhile
Visual Group Theory? I've read a bit of it, but it's never really helped me understand much, except maybe parts of the first chapters with simple Cayley graphs. I wonder if it's even possible trying to get any actual visual intuition in a subject like algebra, it feels like an impossible endeavour imo
nvm ignore that
so talking about rings of fractions... we have the denominators as a multiplicative system (closed under mult and has unity).
and for the def we basically have a/b=c/d iff ad-bc is a zero divisor.
is there an intuitive reading why zero divisor is natural? like it's not obvious to me atm. zero, sure, and it sounds reasonable it would more generally by zero divisor but like I'm not seeing the necessity
I guess like just an example of a ring of fractions where you actually need the zero divisors would be super helpful and I can try to come up with an example myself?
So the condition isn't exactly it being a zero-divisor, but specifically that it becomes 0 when multiplied by something in your multiplicatively closed set.
The reason for this is that you want
s/s = 1/1
so then if sa=0, then
a/1 = sa/s = 0/s = 0/1
Consider C[x, y]/(xy) and {1, x, x^2, ...} as your set
ohhhhh. so like... an "S zero divisor"? or torsion element of S?
I'll try this ty!
Yes that's right.
So then you want
a/b = c/d
iff
a/b - c/d = (ad - bc)/bd = 0
um
it would be a black jack
with 1 total deck left and 6 in game
just want to check: can we say
"I is a left ideal of R iff RI subset I"
basically just wanna know if "RI subset I" means that rx in I for all r in R and x in I
Yes
though RI should really be closed under addition which isn't immediate if I isn't already
so basically we need that
- I+I subset I (closed under addition)
- RI subset I (closed under left mult by R)
these are just more compact ways to say that?
Yeah
N.b you need nonemptiness
Otherwise the empty set is an ideal (it’s not)
You can express this by just saying 0 is in I
It isn't immediate even if I is
True yes
I guess I am finding it hard not to think of I as an ideal lol
I am used to writing RI when I is an ideal of a subring or smth
Yeah, though I guess for the purposes of showing I is an ideal it doesn't matter that much how you define RI.
But the normal definition is sums of things of the form ri
Hello, I came upon an exercise that asks for the initial object of R-Alg, in the general case where R is not commutative this is not some "known" object or is it? Would it be something like R/C where C is some kind of commutator ideal?
Agreed
How are you defining R algebra? For most notions can think of there is a clear choice
Ring A with a f: R -> C(A) I guess
what is C(A)?
why do you need to map it into something that commutes?
are your algebras commutative?
Because of the identity
r • (x • y) = (r • x) • y = x • (r • y)
I presume
(r in R, x, y in A)
ah okay that makes sense
Maybe try R/I where I = ( xy - yx | x, y in R )
isn't the initial object just R?
Oh yeah I forgot about minus thank you
C(R) is a subring of R
:P
That's what I meant by some kind of commutator ideal
That, like the commutator subgroup, is a specific case of smt from universal algebra
I don't think so but I'm not good with noncommutative rings so I don't think I can come up with a counterexample xd but you have to specify the homomorphism too
yeah lol I might be thinking too much in commutative algebra land
Noncommutative rings at it again making things complicated
For an identity p≈q consider the congruence generated by the pairs
< p(a_1, ..., a_n), q(a_1, ..., a_n) >
For all a_i in A
Every homomorphism h : A -> B where B satisfies p≈q must factor through that quotient algebra, hence every homomorphism h : R -> C(A) must factor through R/I, as C(A) is commutative
At least you mfs have a notion of commutativity/noncommutativity smh
Be grateful
I see thank you
:3
But I don't think there is like a good way to describe the ring in ring terms at least as far as I've gone in the book xD
@aluffi
I believe this is a good description at least already
It's the same with the abelianisation
It has a universal property and a construction, but you cant get much better than that
The initial R-algebra is simply R
consider noncommutative R
There isn't anything called R-algebra for R noncommutative as far as I'm aware
R -> Z(S)
where Z(S) is the center of S
Well R/[R, R] it would be then
Kinda silly though, since you would just replace R by something commutative
ye that's the conclusion we came to too :3
agreed, every homomorphism factors through R/[R, R] anyways
but still
Is [R, R] the commutator ideal
Yeah
Oh truu lol
Oh I see my bad
I've also seen like.. "balanced" R-algebras or smt?
with
(x * r) * y = x * (r * y)
over a left- and right-module
Definition 5.7. Let R be a commutative ring. An R-algebra [...]
Sorry lol
My eyes went over this when Id gone back to check before
nah it's cool
Hello, Im wondering a little bit about the importance of rings. When studying group theory, I was able to understand it at least somewhat as "studying symmetries" and so some importance was immediately relevant, but im having a hard time seeing the main idea of rings. Most theorems just seem like "technical" details so im not really sure what we are building up to and why. I know its somewhat used in algebraic geometry but I probably wont be taking that soon (if ever) and so it's not very immediately satisfying. So, I was wondering why rings are important and perhaps some applications?
Sure ok
So you're saying you find groups easily motivated because they act on sets via symmetries.
Rings are quite similar. They act on Abelian groups, and by 'linear' (kinda) maps instead of symmetries.
Maybe you know about Cayley's theorem, saying that every group is embeddable in a group of permutations.
Rings have a similar thing, saying that every ring can be embedded in the ring of endomorphisms of an Abelian group
Do you know much linear algebra? Fields and vector spaces are a (very nice) first example of rings and modules. Rings can act in much more exotic ways than the nice simple structures of vector spaces, and this leads to a truly enormous amount of very cool mathematics.
If you end up doing some ring theory, it's actually very likely you will do at least a little algebraic geometry.
ah I see, that actually does seem to be fairly interesting
the most popular application outside of algebraic geometry is in number theory, and particularly cryptography
my 2 cents: rings are algebraic structures inspired by the integers and polynomials over the integers, and can be used to study things like divisibility and primeness in new places. So there are lots of applications to number theory. One classic theorem is that a prime number p can be expressed as a sum of two square integers exactly when p is congruent to 1 modulo 4. The most revealing proofs make use of the Gaussian integers: numbers a + bi where a,b are integers and i^2 = -1. This is a ring.
Lovely example
The number 5 is prime as an ordinary integer, but in the Gaussian integers it can be written (2+i)(2-i), showing it to not be prime there
and multiplying that out gives 2^2 + 1^2
I think they're kind of incomparable in some ways, but I think it's not that wild to say that rings are much more general than groups. So the theory is less neat (in some ways) but a lot more varied.
well, at least if you look at the universal algebra side of things, then rings admit a much larger variety of "purely ring-theoretic" classifications, simply by the characteristic alone
You should hopefully be familiar with a lot of rings already, even if you haven't explicitly thought of them in terms of ring theory:
Z, the integers forms a ring. As does Z/n, the integers modulo n. A lot of number theory can be expressed through these rings and related rings.
The set of all polynomials (with for example real coefficients) forms a ring. And ring theory can be useful for studying polynomials and their roots. (Studying roots of polynomials is in fact the origin of group theory, so rings and groups go hand in hand here)
The set of nxn matrices forms a ring. This gives an example of what Boytjie mentioned how a ring can act as symmetries on spaces with more structure. (Matrices are like the symmetries of a vector space in a sense).
The set of smooth or continuous functions (from some space to R for example) is a ring by point-wise multiplication. And this ring can contain a lot of information about the geometry of your space.
not to mention all the definitions of a more model-theoretic character, such as primality, reducedness, etc
Honestly I am speaking purely on vibes lmao, I think every group is a precious gem, whereas rings feel a lot more arbitrarily structured
But if there is a good technical justification, I'll take it
I do believe there is merit to what you said
yeah, it's more often you see someone studying one group in particular than someone studying a ring in particular, maybe because of the fact a group is a monoid that it is a "set of functions" by cayleys theorem, and therefore is more easily related to other objects, lending itself to a more interesting/in-depth study
i see. Thank you all for the explanations!
Idk, groups can go kinda crazy too.
Fields I can get behind
groups are a more structured kind of crazy
I'd say they are less structured, since they literally have less structure
for me they feel more structured
Well of course, Galois has told us that some fields are not too unlike groups
I think of groups as being more rigid. It's harder to quantify that, I realise
But when I see a finite group, I feel like it's a minor miracle it exists
Modulo the boring examples of course :P
terrible pun, I love it
The empty set has no structure at all, but it is very structured, no?
Is it? Does it even make sense to measure
Maybe, but I'm not so sure
Do the parts relate well to each other though?
All its parts relate exactly 
This makes sense in a non-Abelian way imo
I'm not sure if there is a nice way to make this precise
Groups can have non-Abelian operations, the underlying additive group of a ring can’t
there are no "proper" parts, so I'd say yes. The empty set is related to itself quite well
And is the structure even that clear. I mean maybe the empty set has a million n-ary functions defined on it. Should they not contribute to the structure?
there are no functions is just one function related to the empty set tho, unless I forgot the definition of function. Like it should be some element subset of emptyset x X x Y x... where X, Y, ... are sets. But this product is again the empty set
Yes, there is a unique map {} -> Y for any set Y
The structure of the empty set is induced by the controversy of whether or not it should be considered an algebra
there's none
Cayley's theorem feels like a heavily constraining kind of result on groups. Maybe that's a sense that they're more rigid or "structured". I don't know about an analogous result for rings
Making it the only superposed algebraic structure in existence
If you think of a function X -> Y as a subset of X x Y with some univerally quantified properties (which is indeed the definition), then trivially the empty set is a function {} -> Y for any Y.
This also works in type theory btw, this is how we define exfalso
oh wait yeah it was a subset, not an element. mb you are right
Any ring R is a subring of End_Ab(R).
The proof is the same as Cayleys
No problemo, it's confusing
Note this is why some people might argue that 0^0 = 1 in combinatorics
The thing is that for groups the group it gets embedded in is the same for groups which have the same size
Well for rings it's the same for rings that have the same underlying abelian group
oh nice. Is there a good intuition for what End_Ab represents in general? Along the lines of Sym being permutations?
Thats a way stronger condition though
Not really, the classification of finite abelian groups is pretty close to just the classification of finite integers
I think it's best to just picture matrices
it's not quite easy to imagine automorphisms of Abelian groups in the same way, but you get most of the right picture if you just imagine you're working over a field instead
So instead of End_Ab picture End_k where k is a field
Linear transformations are nice, right? That's basically the picture
for sure they are. I'll have to think about this more
Yeah if you replace ring with algebra, then the classification of vector spaces is literally by cardinality (dimension)
End_Ab(R) is still nowhere near as nice as S_n though
Hmmm I think it's more similar than you might think
I suppose
But guess which one can be made into a Latin square and which can't? Checkmate atheists
I think of M_n(k) as a bit like a linearisation of S_n. And of course the algebraic group SL_n has the same dynkin diagram and whatnot
I wonder if I can make this precise.
Well ok I'm internally just identifying kS_n with its image in End_k(k^n), so it's kind of cheating.
Or is it? Not sure.
Identifying is the wrong word
Just shoving it through the map
Which should be injective right? Due to the existence of 1
Oh I don't think so
I did make a typo originally, I meant k^n not kS_n
the algebra kS_n has dimension n! and End_k(k^n) has dimension n^2
I made the same mistake
Reason for that is that i always see S_n in the context of Latin squares, so order n and S_n are always paired together
If F is a field and {p_i} is a finite set of irreducible polynomials is the ideal generated by the p_i maximal
Polynomials in F[x]?
Well if you have two distinct irreducible polynomials, they are coprime, so...
And Bézout does work in F[x]
Hm well is F[x] a maximal ideal of F[x]?
If you have two coprime polynomials in an ideal, then you have 1 in the ideal.
(Because of Bézout)
What if the set is empty
Jk
For ✨ reasons ✨, the determinant is supposed to flip sign when two columns are interchanged. This essentially forces the use of the sign factor because any permutation is a product of transpositions and a product of one (-1) for each transposition gives the sign of the permutation.
I done this exercise but I don't get the meaning of remarks here, the sets V(E) satisfy the axioms for closed sets in a topological space.
Oh so complement of V(E) are open set
Okay I done i) but what's the point of this i) exercise?
for any two basis elements B1, B2 and for any x in B1 n B2, there should be a B3 contained in B1 n B2 with x in B3
Here in v), quasi - compact, isn't the same as compactness?
i) shows that the intersection of two basis elements is again a basis element
I got it thank you ❤️
Yes
somewhere in the text, do they define compactness differently?
The exact definition of compactness varies some, especially in older texts iirc
yea
What they call quasi-compactness is mostly known nowadays as compactness.
hmm. not sure then. what text is it?
Atiyah
And to show $X_f$ are basic open sets we have to show that $X \subseteq \bigcup_{f\in A} X_f$, so we can take $ f = 1 $
Notknow🙇
Is it correct?
i believe some texts, e.g., heartshorne, use compactness to mean compact + hausdorff, while quasi-compact is just compactness
Yes
this makes sense in the given context, since the zariski topology is not hausdorff
Oh
This one?
yea, by iii)
assume for contradiction that the f_i’s don’t generate 1
then there is a prime ideal containing the ideal generated by the f_i’s…
Sn = Mn(F1) right
this is in hoffman kunze Linear algebra page 179, I want to check if the sgn(sigma) formula they wrote is correct, I am pretty sure it should be (-1)^{sigma(1)+...+sigma(r)+(r(r+1))/2}
because it take sigma(i)-i adjacent swaps to move sigma(i) to the ith position
Yes, I guess the easy check is that your formula give the right answer when sigma is the identity.
yeah pretty sure hoffman's gives -1 when r=3 😂
But you know, up to sign it's correct 
ok cool thanks for confirming, ig this was never listed in the list of errors page for hoffman and kunze on stackexchange
@rocky cloak lol have you seen the fun way to define sgn using graphs
Hey there, how can I show, that the only units in Z[sqrt(-5)] are plusminus 1? I heard from an approach using something like a norm function, but we didnt introduce that in the lecture, so I am looking for another way to proof this 😅
I tried it like that but the b != 0 case does not work out in this case
It's a bit easier if you note that it is easy to write down the inverse within Q(sqrt(-5))
You then just need to check if that is in Z[sqrt(-5)]
This helps avoid tedious calculations
like so?
Don't think so
Ye though I wouldn't say it obviously implies 1/a is an integer
It's more that the numbers above have the wrong magnitude unless a = +-1 and b = 0
Okey, thanks 😄
Honestly feel like you deserve a thank you for helping me get these @rocky cloak, massive amount of help to me last semester 
got it
Congrats!!
Were these grad level courses? They look interesting
There are many goats in this server for sure
Topics in ring and representation theory was, math10 is for final year UG and math11 is for masters level stuff
Nice
Random question: When talking about the disjoint union of sets X and A, is that always equal to X x {0} U A x {1} by definition?
subset of (X U A) x {0,1}
yesno
that definition can be used in all cases
it gives precisely a disjoint union
yeah you can use the definition with {0} and {1}
Thx
nothing wrong with it other than that it's a bit long to notate sometimes
share plz 
I’d want to see this too
does anyone have an example, which is not S_3, of a solvable group with only one minimal normal subgroup?
Apologies I meant specifically not p-groups
As for noncommutative, I think you should be able to find examples amongst the dihedral groups perhaps?
Am I barking up the wrong tree here
and I want like two different primes for the order of the minimal normal subgroups
Is there a group theory version of DaRT? I.e. somewhere you can search for known groups with a combination of properties?
Dih meaning Dihedral group?
Exceptional isomorphism
Are rules (3) and (4) pictured here supposed to be immediately obvious
You can calculate them to be the same 3-cycle on both sides very easily
I'm not sure if they're immediately obvious, but they're extremely easy to verify.
Right
For any prime, the semidirect product of Z/p and Aut(Z/p) should work I think
Also dihedral group like Boytjie said
I guess the dihedral group is just a proper subgroup of what you mentioned, so it's a lesser example
Hom
A4 should be another
damn
Let $L = K(a) = K[X]/(p(X))$ be a simple field extension. The map $f \colon E \mapsto \operatorname{min}_{E}(a)$ from intermediate extensions $L/E/K$ to polynomials over $L$ dividing $p(X)$ and divisible by $X - a$ is injective and satisfies $E_1 ⊆ E_2 \implies f(E_2) \mid f(E_1)$ (in fact, $E_1 ⊆ E_2 \iff f(E_1) \in E_2[X]$, see https://math.stackexchange.com/a/3960876).
\begin{enumerate}
\item Is the converse true? That is, does $f(E_2) \mid f(E_1)$ imply $E_1 ⊆ E_2$? (Equivalently, does $f(E_2) \mid f(E_1)$ imply that $f(E_1)$ also has coefficients in $E_2$?)
\item What is the range of $f$? In particular, if $p$ is separable, is $f$ surjective? In general, is the range of $f$ all factors of $p$ such that all roots have the same multiplicity, equal to some power of the characteristic exponent?
\end{enumerate}
Raghuram
https://math.stackexchange.com/a/3960876 for easy clicking.
okay i feel like i'm going a bit crazy. consider $R=\bZ[x]/(x^2+5)$ and $\mu=\alpha+\beta x\in R$. let $\bar N\defeq N(\mu)=\alpha^2+5\beta^2$. if $\beta$ is coprime to $N(\mu)$, then $\beta^{-1}$ exists mod $\bar N$.
we can define the homomorphism $\phi$ from $R\to\bZ/\bar N\bZ$ via
$$\phi(1)=1,\quad \phi(x)=-\alpha\beta^{-1}$$
then the kernel of $\phi$ is precisely the ideal generated by $\mu$. thus, $R/(\mu)\cong \bZ/\bar N\bZ$ by the first iso theorem.
would this prove that if $\beta$ is coprime to $\alpha^2+5\beta^2$ then $\alpha+\beta\sqrt{-5}\in\bZ[\sqrt{-5}]$ is prime if and only if the norm $\alpha^2+5\beta^2$ is prime in $\bZ$?
eigentaylor (STfFGMOaPID)
in my class, we had a question on our midterm where we showed that 6+sqrt(-5) is prime in Z[sqrt(-5)] step by step, and it very much came down to the primality of 41=N(6+sqrt(-5)) in Z and the equivalence of divisibility of a-6b by p and a+bsqrt(-5) by p. but like... this seems like a much more concise way to argue it. in that case we just have
phi: Z[sqrt(-5)]->Z/41Z via phi(a+bsqrt(-5))=a-6b mod 41.
which seems to tie it all together much more nicely? like... is this right?
So it's certainly not surjective. Like if the degree of L is prime, then there are no intermediate extensions.
It's right, but I guess there is some work in showing well definedness and that the kernel actually is (6+sqrt(-5))
good to know it's right. yeah i feel it's more obvious with the
phi(a+bx)=a-b(alpha beta^-1) mod (alpha^2+5beta^2) construction
What's a way to tell if a degree 2 polynomial in F[x, y] where F is a field is irreducible
Eisenstein + Gauss lemma is always something to try. But in general I think it's difficult
Got it, thanks
For degree 2 you can actually just brute force
But for bigger degrees it gets more anoying quick
how is a two fold rotation axis different than a mirror plane?
Hmm... that's not actually a problem unless there are intermediate factors. But we can ensure that if L/K is Galois cyclic. IIRC this means we either have a Kummer extension p(X) = X^p - a or Artin-Schreier extension p(X) = X^p - X - a.
I can't think of an obvious further condition to impose on the factors that will fix these.
The former fixes a line (the axis) and inverts a plane (normal to the axis), while the latter fixes a plane (the mirror) and inverts a line (normal to the mirror).
in (c), X^A is the collection of set functions A->X? So A^X is then the collection of set functions X->A?
Yes
It's fairly annoying notation for Hom_Set(X, A)
In general for any locally small category C, Hom_C(-, Y) is a contravariant functor from C to Set
Similarly, Hom_C(X, -) is a covariant functor
That's just exercise (b)
This gives a so-called bifunctor
Hom_C(-, -) : C^op x C -> Set
A bifunctor is a functor on some "product" category?
Ye
(Here with C^op and C cuz the first variable is contravariant)
Everytime you've got something with the first variable of the Hom-functor there will be some kind of contravariance
im not sure why u do C^op x C
A morphism f : A -> B becomes f^* : Hom(B, X) -> Hom(A, X). Note the change of direction.
That's why you need the C^op
you can leave it as C, its just convenient to have C^op there so that you dont have the bifunctor being covariant in one component and contravariant in the other
I like my functors covariant until proven contrarily
im trying to do this question from hungerford
anyone know what $E_1E_2$ means? is it like the field formed from taking the product of element from $E_1$ and $E_2$?
thebirdsandbees
compositum
usually E_1 and E_2 are taken to be subfields of a field E, then E_1E_2 is the smallest subfield of E containing both E_1 and E_2
you can write this using fields of fractions like E_1E_2=E_1(E_2)=E_2(E_1)
oh ok ok nice thanks
Incidentally, the set of sums of products of elements of E1 and E2 is the smallest intermediate ring including both E1 and E2. It is equal to E1 E2 if and only if it is a field (in general E1 E2 is its field of fractions), which happens if (but not only if) one of E1, E2 is algebraic.
Hope I'm not intruding on a current discussion here. As an exercise I've been trying to classify all of the commutative rings R with the property that every subring of R is a (two-sided) ideal of R. when I got stuck I looked on stack exchange and found this post which was just baffling to me. https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/2262859/ring-such-that-every-subring-is-an-ideal#comment10801495_2262859
How can it be that Z and Z_n are the only rings with this property? Even if the class is reduced to unital rings and subrings which contain the identity 1_R, it seems like other examples exist like the finite fields F_p. What the heck am I missing? Thanks in advance
The only ideal containing 1 is the whole ring.
So a ring such that every subring is an ideal must have the property that any subring (containing 1) is the whole ring.
In particular, the additive subgroup generated by 1 is a subring (the image of the unique (unital) ring homomorphism from ℤ), so it has to be an ideal, so it has to be the whole ring. That is, the ring is generated as an additive group by 1.
This implies that the ring must be ℤ/nℤ for some non-negative integer n.
Oh my gosh I feel like a goob. In the post, Z_n is denoting the quotient Z/nZ, not the direct product of Z with itself n times, huh
Let a_n = sigma^{-d_n}(leading coefficient of f_n), i.e., a_n is the leading coefficient when f_n is written in the form ∑_{0 ≤ i ≤ d_n} X^i a_i. Then you can use
f_{m+1} - ∑_{i = 0}^m sigma^{d_{m+1}}(r_i) X^{...} f_i.
Do you know if the result is supposed to be true when sigma is not invertible?
IIRC it is not unless you pick between Xr = sigma(r) X + delta(r) and rX = X sigma(r) + delta(r) carefully.
I can't think of any counterexamples though...
The idea is along the right lines, although it's not a proof in and of itself.
Try subrings of ℚ.
I fail to see how any subrings of Q would fail the closure under multiplication. I was thinking of some wonky matrices
since when you add the elements from A and B, they will eventually share the same denominator
What subrings are you thinking of?
What is 1/2•1/3
diagonal and/or upper triangle matrices
within the ring of 2x2 matrices
usually those mess up at the multiplication part
Wait this doesn’t work elegiggle
ChmonkaS
Turns out 1/2 - 1/3 = 1/6
This is a little late but
is this correct?
theres an example with Z i believe
If you add any 2 elements of Z, you get another element in Z. If you multiply any 2 elements in Z, you still get another element in Z.
thus it is still closed under addition and multiplication
oh wait I wonder if I can do quotient rings
It just bothers me knowing the statement is false but I cant come up with any counterexamples
wait does it have to proper
I came up with a counterexample with subrings of Q
I have a question
If $A,B \in M_{m,n}(\mathbb{C})$ and $v \in \mathbb{C}^n$, does $(A+B)v = Av + Bv$?
clubsoda14
Nvm I think I convinced myself that this is true
Yes, matrix multiplication is just dot producting with the rows, and the dot product has this distribution property
That is true
I remembered that the matrices are just linear transformations from C^n to C^m
Pointwise addition
This is true of matrices with entries in any field
Not just ℂ
Would this be the right channel for discussing crossed modules and crossed complexes?
perhaps #advanced-algebra but eh I wouldn’t sweat it, no clear line separating these two channels
but I dont even know what those things are
sounds like homological algebra or something
This is correct yes, but you're maybe missing the conclusion
The easiest examples should be those with few relations. So maybe think of subrings of Z[x, y]
Nonabelian groups are fucking weird
Hey, there! Could maybe someone verify my tables? The assignment was to show that Z3[x]/(x^3+x^2+2) is a field, depict its + and * tables and find the inverse of alpha + 1
any ring
That’s a good idea! Thank you!
Yes but that makes them more interesting!
tbh i just can't handle normal subgroups all that well, i lack intuition for them
maybe if there were a group conjugacy index, with normals having index 1, it'd be a bit more chill
and you wrote that down very very frequently (for ALL subgroups, not just normals) to hammer it in your head
apparently already S4 has a normal klein subgroup, but also three nonnormal klein subgroups which are conjugate to each other 😁
Ah right
let A be a Boolean ring and let X = spec(A), how can i show for each f in A, the set X_f = X\V(f) is closed ?
I mean there is.
Like you can count the number of conjugates a subgroup has, or the index of its core.
In both cases a group is normal iff the number is 1
yeah it should just be communicated more and mapped out for more examples
Groupprops usually lists it as "size of conjugacy classes" in their tables for subgroups
Well I can absolutely recommend groupprops for numerical facts about small groups
mhm
.enpeace_music
Is there a groups version DaRT btw? Is groupprops the closest thing there is?
The ability to search for combinations of properties on DaRT is really cool but I don’t think you can do that on groupprop
But I could also just be dumb/blind
got it
I just realised this is isomorphic to the group of automorphisms \psi where \psi(x) = f(x) • x for some homomorphism f : G -> Z(G)
Well, you don't know it's false yet.
Since H and K are subgroups, $a’^{-1}a\in{H}$ and $b’b^{-1}\in{K}$
Oh yeah also forgot to write a, a’ and b, b’ belong to H and K respectively lol
NAT Enthusiast
Let $R=\mathbb{Z}[j]$ for $j^2+5=0$, and suppose $p=\alpha+\beta j$ is such that $\bar N=N(p)=\alpha^2+5\beta^2$ is prime in $\mathbb{Z}$. Let $r\equiv-\alpha\beta^{-1}\bmod{\bar N}$. Since $\bar N$ is prime, then $\beta$ has an inverse mod $\bar N$ and $p$ is irreducible. We know that if $p$ is prime in $\mathbb{Z}[j]$, then $N(p)$ is prime in $\mathbb{Z}$. We aim to prove the converse.
We can define a ring homomorphism $\phi:R\to S$ where $S=\mathbb{Z}/\bar N\mathbb{Z}$ via
$$\phi(1)=1,\quad \phi(j)=r\implies \phi(a+bj)=a+br$$
By construction of $r$, we have $p\in\ker(\phi)\implies(p)\subset\ker(\phi)$.
$$\phi(p)=\alpha+\beta(-\alpha\beta^{-1})=0\bmod{\bar N}$$
In fact, $\ker(\phi)\subset(p)$ as well. $a+bj\in\ker(\phi)$ if and only if
$$a=b(\alpha\beta^{-1})+\bar Nk\iff a+bj=p(b\beta^{-1}+(\alpha-\beta j)k)$$
$$\implies p\mid a+bj\implies a+bj\in(p)$$
Further, this is clearly a ring epimorphism, so by the first isomorphism theorem, $R/(p)\cong \mathbb{Z}_{\bar N}$ which is a field (integral domain) so $(p)$ is prime so $p$ is prime.
Therefore, $p\in\mathbb{Z}[j]$ is prime if and only if $N(p)$ is prime in $\mathbb{Z}$.
eigentaylor (STfFGMOaPID)
is this proof correct?
and, if so, for what other j does this proof work for? like the key is that N is a multaplicative norm function. so i assume j^2<0.
but like what else?
there are three possibilities essentially
and they depend on the legendre symbol
either your prime is inert (which happens in your case), it splits or it ramifies
oh wait
agh okay I have different notation in mind
I thought p was a prime in Z
anyways if N(p) is prime then p is prime
But the other direction doesn't hold generally
It can happen that N(p) is the square of a prime for some prime p
The direction you've proven is correct, but p can be prime without N(p) being.
Like p=7 for example.
ohhhh uhhhh what if i specify that alpha and beta are both nonzero
but good point. i guess N(p) prime implies p prime is good enough
maybe 2+j is a counterexample?
I think that's prime and N(2+j)=9
Yeah your ring isn't a UFD!!!
So the intersection of a prime ideal with Z is again a prime, so for a+bj to be prime there must exist c + dj with (a+bj)(c+dj) prime in Z.
Taking norm yields that c+dj must have norm 1, hence is a unit. So either a+bj has norm a prime or a+bj is a prime in Z times a unit
And for this ring in particular ±1 are the only units.
Hello! I wanted to ask for some guidance with the following question: Suppose that a group $G$ has at least three elements of order $4$. Can $G$ be cyclic? What if $G$ has exactly two elements of order $4$?
s
Not quite sure how to proceed with this, but I know that for $G$ to be cyclic, there must be an element of order $20$, i.e. every other element can be written as a power of this element.
s
I think the key is that $G$ has three or more elements of order $4$. But I'm just not sure how this relates to $G$ being/not being cyclic.
s
there's a condition on orders for G to be cyclic
I don't think we've covered the Euler totient function as of yet
Say G is cyclic of order n generated by g.
Can you see what the order of g^d is in terms of d and n?
Or more specifically what must happen for g^d to have order 4?
the order would be ceil(n, d)? or lcm(n, d)?
no wait
that's stupid sry
It's not stupid, but it's not quite right
So let's go specific.
How could g^d have order 4, or what does that even mean?
that means g^{4d} = id
So n divides 4d
i have a feeling it's gonna be something like $n/lcm(n, d)$
s
And we can say a little more.
Like for example g^0 does not have order 4 even though g^4*0 = id
yeahj
Well maybe test with a few cyclic groups and see if any of your guesses seem correct.
Then you can try to prove it
i have a feeling that this will have to do with subgroups since this is the chapter on subgroups
specifically cyclic subgroups
what if we have three cyclic subgroups, one generated by a, b, and c all of order 4
Yeah, so cyclic groups do have a very nice property when it comes to subgroups.
Namely ||a cyclic group of order n has exactly one subgroup of order d for each d that divides n||
i did not know that
should i try to prove it?
Sure
so it doesn't feel like i'm using it for granted
or maybe i can use lagrange's theorem
like if we have three groups: {a, a^2, a^3, a^4 = id}, {c, c^2, c^3, c^4 = id}, {d, d^2, d^3, d^4 = id}
Well Lagranges theorem tells you the order of subgroups divides the order of the group.
This is like a converse to that for cyclic groups. Whenever you have something dividing the order you also get a subgroup
But yeah for your original question, Lagrange tells you that n must be a multiple of 4 if you have an element of order 4.
So then g^(n/4) would be one element. Then you have to figure out if there can be any more
i think i got it from here, thank you @rocky cloak 💟
We argue by contradiction. Let $I \subseteq R$ be an ideal that is not finitely generated. Let $a_1 \in I$. Since $I$ is not finitely generated, there is $a_2 \in I \setminus (a_1)$. Similarly, there is $a_3 \in I \setminus (a_1, a_2)$. Continuing on in this fashion, we obtain an infinite ascending chain of ideals $(a_1) \subsetneq (a_1, a_2) \subsetneq (a_1, a_2, a_3) \subsetneq \dots$, which contradicts the assumption that every ascending chain of ideals in $R$ is finite.
Is this correct?
okeyokay
yeah that's great
Thanks
Let $X$ be a commutative $F$-algebra. To prove that $X$ is a field, what conditions should I prove? Only the inverse of multiplicity, or is there smth else?
𝒢𝒾𝓃𝑔𝑒𝓇 𝑀𝒶𝑔𝓂𝒶
A commutative F-algebra is a commutative ring with an injection h : F -> X
so yes, only inverse of multiplication for non-zero elements
Nice, thanks
Does adding two subrings of a ring R always yield a subring within ring R?
for context - subrings require to be closed under addition, multiplication, negation, contains 0 and 1 element
What does "adding" mean
Sure okay just that
I did subring of Z[x] and Z[y] but that also doesn't work
A homomorphism of a ring does not necessarily map identitys to each other but an isomorphism does. Correct?
For most people, ring homomorphisms send identity to identity by definition
how do you prove all automorphisms of complex numbers send i to i or -i
A good place to start is seeing where real numbers get sent under any automorphism of ℂ
this is as a field homomorphism, correct?
yes
Yes
If I know something is an ideal, can I conclude that it is closed under negation or no?
negation, as in, the additive inverse?
Yes
yes additive inverse
so I wasn't sure if I could conclude it automatically has addictive inverse
quite addictive
it's closed under addition, multiplication and has 0 element
You should try and prove it then




