#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 303 of 1
Well a bijective matrix is invertible, but that’s a LA result that’s not too hard to show
Here’s one way to prove this: let B represent the inverse function (which must exist due to bijectivity). Prove that B is linear, and thus B can be represented by a matrix and you get that AB = I
can I use some injectivity argument perhaps? like saying T is bijective --> T is injective --> Ax = 0 has a trivial nullspace --> A is invertible
Sure I don’t see why not
You’d have to assume that A is a square matrix which is something that ive been trying to sidestep
i think that's vacuously true since otherwise it wouldnt have an inverse
Incomparability can't be reflexive, and is often not transitive...
A Galois connection between intermediate subfields and subgroups of the automorphism group?
yeah I wonder if it's just stating what a Galois connection is in general. If it's something else, then I'm curious
Wow everyone wants the notes, i would love to send it to ppl hopefully my prof posts them
Otherwise i have my handwritten notes buttt not the prettiest lol
well the individual objects are functions right ?
a) so the natural way to counter this would be to find a function ?
idk can't think of anything
The kernel is just the set of all continuous functions that is 0 on [0,1]
for b) i think i have a intuition, which is to make the ideal consisting of those functions which is zero everywhere but a subset wisely chosen to contain I
So suppose that f*g is 0 on [0,1]. Can you figure out a way for neither f nor g to be 0 on the entire interval?
Certainly ||at least one of f and g has to be 0 for every point in the interval||
For b, here’s a hint. An ideal I in R is maximal iff R/I is a field
i thought about that but it seemed that to create a ideal bigger than I be easier !
hmm lemme see
oh yeah i got it, inside [0,1] split it,
then make f to be 0 on one, g to to be 0 on another
too bad that it didnt click
stupid question: If $k$ is an algebraically closed field and I have an algorithm that can find a root for any polynomial in one variable over $k$ (besides a nonzero constant), does it follow that there's an algorithm for finding a root for any polynomial in $n$ variables?
If $f\in k[X_1, \dots, X_{n-1},X_n]$ has a root $\vec x = (x_1, \dots, x_n)$, then $f(x_1, \dots, x_{n-1}, X_n)\in k[X_n]$ has a root $x_n$ which we can find with our algorithm. But do we have a way of finding $x_1, \dots, x_{n-1}$?
EdgarAlnGrow
That doesn’t look right. At the very least any matrix in N can’t be in U/N, but there isn’t anything stopping from x=c=v=1 and u=v=0 in your U/N
Oh so there's a \mathbb{R} in the (1,3) position of that definition of U/N
this was my scratch work
Oh right i was confused with a weak order smh
This is the second time I've confused them 😭
Also incomparability is reflexive in any strict order
It's true that each coset of N is of the form [x, y, w, etc...]N, but just multiplying them together doesn't really give the quotient group. For comparison, think about the quotient Z/2Z; any element is of the form x + 2n, but the quotient group is not literally the set { x + 2n, | x, n \in Z }. Maybe someone else can explain better why this doesn't work, but I think the point is that each coset is a set, but in your scratch work you're looking at each element inside N, so you just end up with U/N being equal to U
To see what U/N looks like, it's usually better to find a surjective homomorphism from U with kernel N, then use the first isomorphism theorem
You're right and I agree that {2n+z} is wrong. It is supposed to be {z+2\mathbb{Z}} which gives the quotient group as z varies over integers, as per the definition of quotient group
In the same fashion I continued this problem-
As for using a homomorphism to understand U/N, I had it pinned down the other way when I learned the theorem, in the sense that, if I'm asked to find any homomorphism \phi G->G' with a given kernel N, I can reduce it to the easier problem of finding any homomorphism \psi on G/N->G' (no restrictions, any kernel) and just report \psi composition \pi (projection map G->G/N)
So what I'm trying to say is that I'm finding the quotient group U/N for the sake of ease in finding a homomorphism U->U with kernel N, and thus trying to find a homomorphism to understand the quotient group is a catch 22!
If i have finite fields extensions L/K and F/K such that L = K(a_1, ... a_n) and F = K(b_1, ... b_m) then how is defined the field LF? Is is the smallest field containing both L and F ? If so, we can see it as K(a_1... a_n, b_1 ... b_m) no ?
Yeah, you can use the first isomorphism theorem in both directions; the projection G -> G/N has kernel N. Note that \psi comp \pi may have kernel bigger than N if \psi has non-trivial kernel. But I'm not sure how often you need to find a homomorphism with a specific kernel, usually you're given G/N and you want to find out if it's isomorphic to some group you're more familiar with
Ah my bad - nontrivial kernel indeed. Okay, thanks!
for the second sentence does the image of $\phi$ have to be contained in R''?
If this is true then there are subrings of R' that cannot be subalgebras right?
are we thinking of the subalgebra R'' as a R-submodule where scalar multiplication $rx = \phi(r)x$?
the subgroup part is trivial but im stuck on which subgroup it would be a centralizer of
(herstein 2.5)
would it not just be G?
not the centralizer, the center. the centralizer is a different (but related) thing
but I'm not sure what exactly you mean by your question
oh here's the previous question that introduced the C(H) notation
it's asking for what subgroup T is Z the centralizer of T
yeh then i think it just G
not necessarily (?) let me check
oh lmao aight
they want the centralizer of a subgroup here rather than the centralizer of an element
so ye
mmmh, I'm not sure. inclusion is certainly true, but how are you sure that there's nothing else in the centralizer? oh lmao you said G I'm dumb
one note I want to make is that the centraliser of any subgroup / element / subset always contains the center, but it doesn't have to be just the center
for example, if x is not in Z(G), C(x) still contains at least Z(G) AND all the powers of x, because x certainly commutes with itself. but the powers of x may or may not actually commute with everything else in the group
oh icic
Assuming that L and F are both subfields of a larger field extension (say) E/K, yes.
Without that, LF is not well-defined.
i don't even know what a R-subalgebra is
Just saying but subalgebra is defined here.
definition (xhy^{-1})*h
i dont understand the definition, that's why i asked
Do you understand the definition of an R-algebra?
yeh ring R' equipped with ring map R-> R'
So a subalgebra is a subset which can be made into an algebra with the same operations.
That means it (call it R'') has to contain identities and be closed under addition, negation and multiplication - so a subring - and that the ring map phi: R → R' can also be treated as a ring map from R to R''. This is possible if and only if phi(R) is a subset of R''.
So a subalgebra is a subring containing the image of the ring map, phi(R).
this is from the sc above, so then does this sub algebra use a ring map different from $\phi$ because $x_{\lambda}$ may not even be in the image of $\phi$
thebirdsandbees
There's nothing requiring it to be in the image of phi.
so then here we can define a different ring map?
Nope, it's the same map.
The codomain R'' is bigger because of containing the x_\lambda's, but the domain and the map are the same.
If it helps, imagine R is a subset of R' and phi is the inclusion. Then a subalgebra is a subring containing R as a subset. This clearly does not prevent it from containing more elements.
but then your extending the map because your extending the codomain. Isn't what they're doing something like defining the sub algebra as the resulting image subring from the map R-> R[X_1, X_2, ..., X_n] -> R'' Where the first map is inclusion, second map sends X_\lambda to x_\lambda
then the resulting sub algebra wouldn't be a subset of the image of the inclusion map
The image needs to be a subset of the subalgebra, but not the other way round.
that makes sense
tahnks
thanks
idempotents in Z_n
what should be the approach
to count or find them
holy shit, aint reading all that
i also got this, but i'm really confused and don't have the patience to go through it now
Does the proof of the forward of this statement seem fine?
Let n ∈ Z where n > 1, and let G = {[a] : a ∈ Z, 1 ≤ a ≤ n-1}. Then G is a group under multiplication mod n ([a][b] = [ab]) if and only if n is prime.
Proof of forward:
Suppose G is a group under multiplication mod n, and assume for a contradiction n is not prime. Then there exist a,b ∈ Z such that 1 < a < n, 1 < b < n, and n = ab. Thus [a],[b] ∈ G. Since G is a group, we have that [a][b] ∈ G. Observe that [a][b] = [ab] = [n] = [0], so [0] ∈ G. Thus [0] = [k] for some k ∈ Z, 1 ≤ k ≤ n-1. Then k ≡ 0 (mod n), so n | k. Since k is positive integer, it follows that n ≤ k, which contradicts 1 ≤ k ≤ n-1. Therefore n is prime.
Yes, this is fine
any small hints to prove 4 implies 1 ? i have 1 -> 2 -> 3 -> 4. just need 4 -> 1
Try contrapositive, if you have a submodule which is not finitely generated you should be able to pick elements that then create a sequence which does not satisfy the rule in 4
Chinese remainder theorem should take you most of the way
alr, i shall try
thank you ! i have it now, thanks
We can always see L and F as subfields of the algebraic closure of K no?
They can always be embedded in an algebraic closure, but not necessarily in a unique way.
You can for example think of something like L = Q(cuberoot(2)) and F = Q[x]/(x^3 - 2)
What should LF be in this case?
Hello, Is it possible to determine all the representations of the dihedral group $D_{2n}$ of order $2n$ as a semidirect prpduct for any $n$? I think so, since such a construction depends on the choice of a non-trivial normal subgroup. If I start with even $n$, I know that the normal subgroups of $D_{2n}$ are the subgroups of $\langle r \rangle$, $H = \langle r^2, s \rangle$, and $H = \langle r^2, sr \rangle$. Should I try, for each of these subgroups, to find if there exists another subgroup of order equal to the index of $N$ (the normal subgroup) in $D_{2n}$, and verify that its intersection with $N$ is trivial? Or is there a less linear method?
UGOBEL
Oh OK i see the problem ! Thanks 🙂
Suppose this is well defined, then if L is generated by a_1, a_n and F by b_1 , b_m, then LF is just K(a_1, a_n b_1, b_m)?
Every countable group has only countably many subgroups.
can I get a counter with Z?
if not what are some other ways to not only porduce this sort of thing but to generalise the pheonomenon if that makes sense
i can kinda smell free group, but no idea how to really go ahead
Well you still need them to live in some common extension.
Like in the example I mentioned above you wouldn't say LF = K(cuberoot(2), x) probably.
Yeah assuming they live in a common extension 🙂
So I guess the way to think about it is that a countable generated group is countable, but the amount of subsets of the generators will be uncountable.
So in situations where you have few relations between generators this should give you an uncountable amount of subgroups.
For example the free group would work, or the free abelian group, but also things with more relations like Q would work.
for this proof can someone explain to me why $\Lambda_1$ is finite?
thebirdsandbees
By definition of free module, every element is a finite linear combination of basis vectors
Like finite linear combinations are the only things that make sense
yeh i guess that makes sense, but i was thinking something like converging sequence in the rational numbers and such
Well then you're imposing a lot of structure that is not stated in the theorem
then doesn't that mean that every module should be a finite linear combination of its generators (if it has one)
I don't what you mean by a module being a finite linear combination.
But a set generates a module if every element is a finite linear combination of those generators yes
cuz i thought that free module just means that it has a free basis. These are the definitions im refering to
Indeed, and there is no notion of infinite sum here.
The notation isn't super clear, but the sum means finite linear combination, because infinite linear combinations is not a thing that is defined for modules
ok gotcha. i guess, also, cause there's nothing that tells us if infinite linear combinations are even closed under modules right?
3 is always false by considering the empty set (jk)
Exactly
(tell that to eisenbud)
Well there's nothing telling us it even makes sense
there needn't be any topology/metric etc
no but even if there was the axioms of a module doesn't even guarantee that a module is closed under infinite linear combinations, i think
Well that is hypothetical, like to he closed under an operation the operation should make sense first
Infinite linear combinations do not make sense, they are not defined
The only reason we can define them in the real numbers, is because of the fact that the real numbers are a complete metric space, and we consider the limit of finite partial sums
Dealing with that fact is basically the core idea of analysis, among infinitesimal things
ok i can comprehend the Q coz of its Z \oplus Z like structure, but i will try to look at other two too
So the other two should be the more obvious ones.
If you take the subgroup generated by any subset of generators in the free group, it won't contain any of the other generators.
For Q it's a little more subtle, but has to do with unique prime factorization. If you look at the subgroups generated by things of the form 1/p for p a prime, then every subset of primes gives you a different subgroup.
oh ok thanks
Yw!
oh right!
got it now
its so trivial after i see it, does a demon open up some door in other dimension or what
Yes. In functional analysis it is common to consider vector subspaces V of a vector space W where there are infinite series which are well-defined in W but whose sums don't lie in V even though all the terms do (e.g. V could be any dense subspace of a normed space W other than W itself).
nooooo clutches my Hilbert space
Dense subspaces of Hilbert spaces matter too.
Can someone confirm this ?
I tried to find all the semidirect product représentation of D12
Holy Guacamole!
🤣
Looks right to me
Damnn thats a long time
I mean, i suppose you just gotta go along every normal subgroup right?
Yeah 👍
(Assuming every quotient has a natural embedding)
(Aka assuming every induced exact sequence splits)
I spend one hour on two sentences sometimes -_-
Let’s try D44 now !!
What really?
…
Oh and
D_12 \rtimes 1
Too!!
You right haha
Felt
🙏
The splitting field of x^3-2 over Q is not just Q(sqrt3(2)), because there are also complex roots, but, if you adjoin a complex root w instead and consider Q(w), Q(w) should be isomorphic as fields to Q(sqrt3(2)), right?
are you sure?
Okay wait lol I have to think about this
yeah that's true
I had a moment there for a sec lol
I'm reading about the exact same thing right now 
Its also true about the field isomorphism i said?
Oh wow nice description. What text?
Dummit and foote didnt make it as clear as that
Aluffi's Notes from the Underground. It's so fun to read 
yeah that's what I meant
The idea is that if you adjoin any roots it's just Q[t]/(t^3-2)
Indeed for any two roots of an irreducible polynomial there's a homomorphism taking the extensions by adding one element to the other since you can do this ting
yeah, what I'm guessing happens is that x^3 - 2 isn't irreducible anymore in Q(sqrt3(2)), so that's where these two new roots "pop up" out of nowhere
you don't get any more roots, just one
Writing omega like this had me very confused tho lol
Cause often omega denotes a third root of unity and sqrt3(2)w is a cubic root of 2 lol
yeah, well, I've seen zeta used
Both are often used
Ohhh yeah cool good point
I was trying to think about what makes them different if the field adjoin “”root”” are all isomorphic
Wdym by this?
I guess im still trying to figure out what this all means
Well this makes it sound like x^3 -2 splits after you add one root
And I don't really understand what is meant by it if that isn't what is meant
One way to think about it is that (call the roots x, y, z) the roots x and y are indistinguishable, but the pairs of roots (x, x) and (x, y) are not.
Actually that doesn't really capture it.
The splitting field is larger because the pairs of roots (x, y) and (x, z) are also not distinguishable.
I think i got a bit lost
(Thinking too hard about this probably leads to reinventing Galois theory.)
Lolll
@tardy hedge have you learned about splitting fields yet?
Thats the section im on in dummit and foote
13.4
Just started reading about it
I was reading thru example of splitting field for x^3-2 over Q
I guess the “over Q” part is not necessary to say
I see. Just learning this myself, but I think the idea is that the "nicest" extensions, in particular the Galois extensions, are algebraic extensions where if you add one root of the minimal polynomial you simultaneously get all roots
It sounds like if i learn more things will make more sense in general
I havent gotten to anything “galois” yet
Oh cool
Me neither, but Aluffi keeps teasing about "coming attractions" (ie Galois extensions) 
Notes from the Underground
Oh yea
I heard algebra chapter 0 is also good
Presents algebra with category theory from the start
Is it okay if I post another screenshot? He writes about the difference between Q(\sqrt(2)) and Q(\cbrt(2)) and why the latter isn't Galois
Why wouldnt it be okay?
Just in case it felt spammy
We are indeed discussing groups-rings-fields in the channel groups-rings-fields
Lol
Fair
for a general hermitian inner product and the norm induced, is it true that norm(v+w) = norm(v) + norm(w) iff v is a scalar multiple of w?
I would like to see this
This exposition sounds so nice
I feel like there really is a benefit from swapping and learning from different texts
A non-negative real scalar multiple, yes.
Yeah, I'm swapping between Aluffi, Fraleigh and a little bit of Field Theory by Steven Roman 
Fraleigh like the intro book? “A first course in abstract algebra”?
Yeah, there's a little bit of Galois theory at the end
aluffi is chapter 0 right?
In this case it's Notes from the Underground
by Fyodor dostoevsky
thx
Lol yeah this is what I think every time
hey potato would you look at my recent modmail?
for some thread related concern
I have a quick question relating to the above discussion: so a1 = \cbrt(2) is a root of x^3 - 2, and let a2 and a3 be the other complex roots. The difference between Q(a1) and Q(a2) only comes from the way it is embedded in C, right? Because the construction of the extension field Q[x]/<x^3 - 2> is unique, but it can be embedded in C three different ways, correct?
it means that, while two roots may be indistinguishable (same minimal polynomial), the relationship between these roots may not be
they differ by an automorphism of their algebraic completion, so to speak, if you take the conjugate of every element in Q(a1) you get Q(a2)
oh wait I misread
well, yeah you're correct
it's just that the embeddings of Q(a2) and Q(a3) "differ" by an automorphism of C
while the embedding of Q(a1) is wholly different
I see, thanks
crazy that it's so asymmetrical
I'm so used to thinking of isomorphic objects as "the same", I feel like this is the first time I'm forced to think about how things are isomorphic (or embedded in this case)
Ah well it's the same with groups/modules
I mean thats what the Ext functor is all about
You quotient a group/module by another group/module, but if N and M are isomorphic, then G/N and G/M need not be
Yeah, I just realized, I have seen that before
Z/2Z vs Z/3Z for example
Ongg
For modules it's already bad, but for groups it's hopeless
Considering how many different products exist
I mean, of course you can work with isomorphic objects, but then you've gotta consider the different embeddings
Which is arguably more of a pain
Bro said he wasnt well versed in field theory
No, it also differs from the other two by an automorphism.
It's not asymmetrical at all.
Bro came to shake shit up^
I meant of the field Q[i]
how to find the number of 5-sylow subgroup in S_6 ?
I would find the 5-Sylow of S_5 at first
why?
I don’t know if it’ sa french notation, but v_5(5!) = v_5(6!)
what is v_5(5!) ?
The 5-Sylow of S_5 embed into the 5-Sylow of S_6
5! = 2^3 • 3 • 5
6! = 2^4 • 3^2 • 5
So v_2(5!) = 3, and v_2(6!) = 4 for exemple
It is called the p-addique valuation i think
i don't know about it
UGOBEL
For S_6, the anser is n5 = 36
It's a little asymmetrical: Q(a1) is a subset of R, but Q(a2) and Q(a3) are both dense in C
UGOBEL
In fact, it's possible to find the p-Sylow of any Sn by using wreath product if I remember
UGOBEL
where i can learn these all ?
only seen some wreath in 2^n order
try rotman's book(the group theory one)
idk if he covers this
but a good text i believe
i'm still trying to understand the definition lmao
$\wr$
UGOBEL
That is magic !!
☠️
there is a many book by Rotman, which one? and i did one of that but i didn't found this type of question
Try to find the p-Sylow of S4 and S5, i got the correction if you need (in french but I can translate with GPT)
I was wrong mb
i would dm you, let me reach home
i would give you my group theory directory
25 doesnt divide 6!, so you're just counting the number of subgroups of order 5.
So that's the number of 5-cycles divide by 4 (each subgroup consider of the identity and four 5-cycles)
why i have to divide it by 4?
4 = phi(5)
The number of distincts 5-cycles in a 5-Sylow subgroup is the generators of the 5-Sylow
I wrote it
is p-2 always a generator of zpx?
i see
thank you
i know the ideals of the quotient correspond to an ideal in F[x] containing (p(x)) by the isomorphism theorems for rings. but can i also describe the ideals as follows:
Let $\deg F = q, \deg p = n$ Then the quotient space is a vector space with basis $\overline{1}, \overline{x}, \dots, \overline{x^{n-1}}$ Any ideal of the quotient space is spanned by a set of the form ${ \overline{x^k}, \overline{x^{k+1}}, \dots, \overline{x^{n-1}} }$ for some $0 \leq k \leq n-1$.
pink_panther
I have a ring $R$ and ideals $I,J\leq R$. Intuitively, I want to compute $R/(I+J)$ by ``first modding out by $I$ and then modding out by $J$". Formally, I imagine this is done roughly as follows:
$$\frac{R}{I+J}\cong \frac{R/I}{(I+J)/I}\cong \frac{R/I}{J/I\cap J}$$
where the first relation comes from the third isomorphism theorem and the second relation comes from applying the second isomorphism theorem to $(I+J)/I$. Of course, this doesn't make sense because $J/I\cap J$ is not even an ideal of $R/I$. But is there a simple tweak I can make to the numerator $R/I$ to get this to work?
EdgarAlnGrow
You can take the quotient of two ideals where one is contained in the other, just like how you'd quotient modules
So, if I is contained in J, then
J/I := { j + I | j in J }
Which is an ideal of R/I
but im not assuming I is contained in J
no
u had ur chance
u are now discredited as a mathematician and banned from the server
So then you have the third isomorphism theorem, saying
R/(I + J) = (R/I) / ((I + J) / I)
Then you can compute that
(I + J) / I = { j + I | j in J }
Which is still an ideal, but not called J/I, this has to with some preimage stuff
NOOO
I mean what you're essentially doing is working with the ideals and R as R-modules
are there rings where one of the operations is function composition? or just groups
Yes, for example the set of endomorphisms of an abelian group is a ring under composition and pointwise addition
even better, any ring has a canonical embedding h : R -> End_Z(R), as it is a left-module over itself, making every ring isomorphic to some ring of functions under pointwise addition and composition
I don't think you can get what you want by changing the numerator R/I. Personally, I think of the second form (R/I)/((I + J)/I) as expressing the intuition you stated; note that (I + J)/I = {j + I : j in J} is the image of J under the quotient map R → R/I, so quotienting by it can be reasonably considered "further quotienting by J". (Applying this image under a canonical homomorphism is something that also comes up when you try to show that quotients and localisations commute and it can be justified as the correct interpretation based on universal properties if necessary.)
Are there no non-injective homomorphisms from Z to Z (apart from the 0 map)
What do you think? Remember that a homomorphism out of Z is just a choice of where to send 1
No there aren't
Why?
There is only one homomorphism from Z -> Z, namely the identity
||if you mean rings, since you didn't state the category. Jk trolling over||
||because Z has no torsion elements which aren't 0? h(n) = 0 => n h(1) = 0 => h(1) = 0 => h = 0||
Yup
||In general there is a bijection {non-injective group homs Z -> G} <-> {torsion elements of G including the identity}, which you have figured out here||
Woah
In fact ||the order of an element g in G is n, where nZ is the kernel of the group hom from Z to G sending 1 to g||
hmhmm that makes sense!
Hence the order of 1 in Z should be 0 
right
C.f. the characteristic of a ring and the unique map Z -> R for any ring R
mfw the characteristic of a field creates a division between which fields homomorphisms can exist hence is racist characteristicist
For discussing groupoids, would this or #advanced-algebra be the correct channel?
Probably #category-theory lol
however your category my honour
Ic
Calculate $\frac{2X^2}{2X^2 +1}$ in $\mathbb{F}_7/(X^3+X+1)$
So I know how to do polynomial division in Rings like $\mathbb{Z}/n\mathbb{Z}$, but for this one i have no idea how to even start.
mathrie
this is a hard question i think
Well firstly it's easy to see that $\frac{2X^2}{2X^2+1}=\frac{2X^2+1-1}{2X^2+1}=1-\frac{1}{2X^2+1}$.
joel
let's try adding $2X^3+2X+2$ to the top part of the fraction (this is allowed, because it's equal to zero in this ring)
joel
So $\frac{1}{2X^2+1}=\frac{2X^3+2X+3}{2X^2+1}$
joel
Notice that $X=1$ is a root of $2X^3+2X+3$, so we may factor as follows: $2X^3+2X+3=(X-1)(aX^2+bX+c)$. Now we just need to find the coefficients of a,b,c and hope it cancels nicely
joel
$2X^3+2X+3=(X-1)(aX^2+bX+c)=aX^3+bX^2+cX-aX^2-bX-c=aX^3+(b-a)X^2+(c-b)X-c$. Comparing coefficients yields the following: $\begin{cases} a=2 \ b-a=0 \ c-b = 2 \ -c =3 \end{cases}$
joel
Therefore $a=b=2$ and $c=4$. Thus $2X^3+2X+3=(X-1)(2X^2+2X+4)$.
joel
$=(2X-2)(X^2+X+2)$. Notice that $X=3$ is a root of $X^2+X+2$. It holds that $X^2+X+2=(X-3)(X+4)$. In the end, we have:
$\frac{(2X-2)(X-3)(X+4)}{2X^2+1}$. Now try to work this out for yourself.
joel
@dull tiger
So essentially now we want $(2X-2)(X-3)(X+4)=1$
mathrie
Well this is always true in this ring
yes
Maybe doing a smart trick where you have a common factor of 2X^2+1 inside of the numerator would help...
Like, $2(X-3)(X+4) = 2X^2+2X+4=2X^2+1 + 2X+3$. So
$\frac{(2X-2)(X-3)(X+4)}{2X^2+1}=X-1+\frac{(2X+3)(X-1)}{2X^2+1}...$
joel
it's kind of just trying stuff and hoping it works...
i'm so not used to this stuff haha
ah wait i think i see now where its going
okay so i got now $X-1 + \frac{(2x+3)(X-1)}{2X^2+1} = X-1 + \frac{2X^2+1+X-4}{2X^2+1} = X-1 +1 + \frac{X-4}{2X^2+1}$
mathrie
what do i do with the last part?
Okay, perhaps i have taken the wrong path, i apologise.
Let's calculate the inverse $(2X^2+1)^{-1}=\frac{1}{2X^2+1}$. So we want to find a polynomial $aX^2+bX+c$ such that:
$(aX^2+bX+c)(2X^2+1)=1$. \ Re-write:
$2aX^4+aX^2+2bX^3+bX+2cX^2+c=1$. \
Note that $X^3=-X-1$, so $X^4=-X^2-X$. \
Thus
$2a(-X^2-X)+aX^2+2b(-X-1)+bX+2cX^2+c=1$. \
Now:
$(-2a+a+2c)X^2+(-2a-2b+b)X+(-2b+c)=1$. \
By comparing coefficients, we have:
$\begin{cases} 2c-a = 0 \ -b-2a = 0 \ c-2b=1 \end{cases}$ \
So $a=2c$, and $b=-2a=-4c$. \
We have $c-2b=c+8c=9c=2c=1 \Longrightarrow c = 4$. \
Now directly we have $a = 2(4)=1$ and $b=-4(4)=-16=5$. \
So $\frac{1}{2X^2+1}=(2X^2+1)^{-1}=X^2+5X+4$. \
Now, $\frac{2X^2}{2X^2+1}=1-(X^2+5X+4)=-X^2-5X-3=-X^2+2X+4$.
@dull tiger
joel
I leave the verification for you to do yourself 😄
So computing the inverse of polynomials in a quotient ring works the same as finding inverses in Z/n with Euclid's algorithm. So here it would be
x^3 + x + 1 = 4x(2x^2 + 1) - (3x - 1)
2x^2 + 1 = (3x + 1)(3x - 1) - 5
So 4x(3x + 1) multiplied by (2x^2 + 1) is 5 modulo x^3 + x + 1. So you're fraction simplifies to
2x^2(4x)(3x+1)/5
and 5*3 = 1, so it's
6x^2(4x)(3x+1)
Which can then be simplified further if you expand and so on
ah okay, thanks. so in the end i am supposed to get something that is not a fraction?
ouh thats cool! Thank you 🙂
Yes that's what "work it out" means. And since X^3+X+1 is irreducible in F_7[X], we have that F_7[X]/(X^3+X+1) is a field so it is definitely possible.
great, thanks for all the help!
Hey folks, just a quick reminder that the Abstract Algebra Lecture series is meeting regularly again ^_^
We will meet to discuss Cycles and Presentations in about 45 minutes over in the #1055201711679082516. More information can be found in our thread: #1317307081535000606
if a polynomial is not symmetric, it cannot be written as a polynomial in terms of elementary symmetric polynomials right?
because a polynomial f(s1, s2, .. sn) where the s's are the elementary symmetric polynomials over n variables is always symmetric
This was introduced in my number theory class but i have no idea what its useful for
The fact that if a polynomial is not symmetric it's also not a polynomial of elementary symmetric polynomials is not particularly significant. And should be fairly immediate, just following from the argument you gave.
What is much more interesting is that if a polynomial is symmetric, then it will be a polynomial of elementary symmetric polynomials in a unique way!
yea i see, my prof wrote that theorem but skipped the proof
I was trying to figure out if Z_2 x Z_12 is isomorphic to Z_4 x Z_6. They both have the same number of elements, and the max order of an element from each seems to be 12. I painstakingly wrote out the the order of all the elements of each group to see if there orders match up between these 2. It ALMOST seemed like they matched up, but I got that the order of elements with 12 and 6 didnt quite match up (I want to believe I made a mistake, but couldnt actually find one.)
Is there an easier way to see if said groups are isomorphic? I have a similar set of problems where the number of elements is WAY more than 24 so this process I tried wouldnt really be feasible.
Yes, there is a much easier way
You need the Chinese remainder theorem
Z_a x Z_b is isomorphic to Z_ab iff gcd(a, b) = 1.
Now factorise 12 and 6 and see what you get out of the isomorphisms you obtain
I should add that if you're being asked these questions, then chances are you've either seen the Chinese remainder theorem or the classification of finite Abelian groups and you're being asked to use them here. You should probably go back and check your notes.
Yeah, I am familiar with: Z_a x Z_b is isomorphic to Z_ab iff gcd(a, b) = 1
But since 2 and 12 have a gcd greater than 1, then this tells me that Z_2 x Z_12 is not isomorphic to Z_24
Maybe Im just not being clever here 🙃
It tells you that Z_2 x Z_4 x Z_3 is the unique maximal decomposition of that group
For Z_4 x Z_6 you can do something similar
Isomorphisms work both ways. So Z_ab is isomorphic to Z_a x Z_b. Maybe you can notice that 12 = 3 * 4
And if it's not clear, if A is isomorphic to A' then A x B is isomorphic to A' x B.
Gotcha. Ill stew on this a bit. Thanks for giving me some direction!
Ok so just to be clear, I worked through the example I mentioned above, and it does seem that these are isomorphic, correct?
Additionally, another problem asks if: Z8 x Z10 x Z24 is isomorphic to Z4 x Z12 x Z40... and these DONT seem isomorphic, right?
Yes, the groups you listed before are isomorphic.
Why do you think these new groups are not isomorphic?
Z8 x Z10 x Z24 is isomorphic to Z8 x Z2 x Z5 x Z8 x Z3
and
Z4 x Z12 x Z40 is isomorphic to Z4 x Z3 x Z4 x Z8 x Z5
Yes this is correct. In general finite abelian groups can be factored as a product of cyclic groups whose order is a prime power in a unique way.
Alternatively it's also possible to calculate that the former has 96 elements of order 8 while the latter has 64.
Or perhaps easier to calculate, the former has 32 elements whose order divides 4, while the latter has 64
any update?
if a finite group's elements are all order 2, it's isomorphic to (Z/2Z)^n for some n (I think this is the case). Can we say anything about an infinite group whose elements are all order 2, aside from the fact that it must be abelian?
Sure. It's an F_2-vector space. So in some sense we know the structure entirely.
As Boytjie is saying it's the same as the finite case.
It's isomorphic to some direct sum of copies of Z/2
What can we say about a finite group whose elements (besides the identity) are all order 3?
Neat! That's very clean
Hm ok so I don't know
But
I know about the Heisenberg group
Now
I'm not sure you can say much more than you can about p-groups in general
Question: are there indecomposable, non-Abelian groups of arbitrary size whose elements are all of order 3?
Surely yes
Interesting, the group with three elements and the groups with 9 are all abelian
So this is kinda like the smallest possible non abelian such group
Indeed
Does every Tarski monster group have exactly 2 conjugacy classes of elements?
You can generalize the Heisenberg group to get larger groups. I would assume these are still indecomposable.
(These are the extraspecial groups of plus type)
Okay I guess not
It appears none of them do
Seems plausibel, but I don't know much about them
how to show that to get a presentation on factor group G/N from G you just need to add the relations for N?
Since conjugation preserves the order of a subgroup, the subgroups of a group with exactly 3 conjugacy classes of subgroups can have at most 3 distinct cardinalities, and since we need to include the trivial subgroup and the whole group, there can only be one more subgroup cardinality. This implies that the cardinality of the group can have at most one prime factor, and must in fact be the square of a prime.
How do i know if there is a non-abelian group of order n?
Let's say i have a group of order 15. This can be C_15 which is isomorphic to C_3 x C_5. But how can i make sure that there are no more non-abelian groups of order 15?
Is it because there is only one sylow-subgroup of order 3 and order 5 respectively?
When you've got any non-prime greater than 4 you can take a nontrivial semidirect product C_n \rtimes C_m where n ≠ 2, n >= m and n * m is your order i think
So that guarantees at least one non-abelian group
but groups of order 15 are always abelian
Ah, nevermind then
Groups are weird
The cardinality if Tarskis monster is countably infinite
In general it can be hard, but for 15 or more generally for order pq a product of two primes p>q, then
The number of p-sylow subgroups must divide q, but also be 1 modulo p. Then it has to be 1.
So Cp is a normal subgroup. That means your group is a semidirect product of Cp and Cq.
The semidirect products are classified by maps Cq -> Aut(Cp) = C[p-1].
So a non-abelian group exists if and only if q divides p-1
Similar arguments can work in general, if you can argue enough sylow subgroups are normal, then the group must be a product of its sylow subgroups.
And groups of order p or p^2 are always abelian
Let's say I have the canonical projection of a commutative unital ring R to R/I for an ideal I of R.
Let's assume we have an arbitrary collection of ideals in R/I. If we take the sum, is the preimage of the sum wrt the canonical map is equal to the sum of the ideals of R we get via preimage?
Yes, you get a complete lattice embedding of the lattice of ideals of R/I into the lattice of ideals of R
Riku
So this is fine right?
Should be
I was trying to show the topological properties of zero sets of these ideals in the affine coordinate rings
Thanks, this makes showing the results easier
this is just axiom of distribution isnt it?
:3
Lattice theory ftw, take that Bourbaki
Oh I'm not familiar with the term, what are you referring to?
i dont know the proper english term for it, but i was referring to this. is it called law of distribution? let me know @boreal inlet
(a+b)c=ac+bc
Do all of its elements have infinite order?
People would usually call this the distributivity of multiplication
oh alright thanks
But the screenshot you are replying to is not the same thing, it should be added
Nono, it's not the case here
is pi^(-1) an inverse function?
Here the map pi is surjective, and it's required
pi^-1(X) is notation for the preimage of X under pi
It is denoting the preimage of some set. What elements of R when mapped through via pi gives the set
oooh i see, i thought this was just 1/pi lol
i should stfu when i have no clue xd
thanks tho
Yeah you won't be able to define that when you don't have the map to be bijective
No all elements have order p.
A Tarski monster is a group where every proper subgroup has order p.
Ah ok
Tarskis monster only exist for sufficiently big primes, so by pigeonhole x would have to be conjugate to x^a for some a.
If you take y such that yxy^- = x^a then x and y generated a non-abelian group of order p^2, which can't exist.
In other words Tarskis monster must have at least p conjugacy classes
What part of the notation do you find bad? It's all pretty standard
From my understanding nx here refers to x+x+x+x... (n summands of x)
but couldnt you easily misinterpret this as the multiplicative operation of the ring
Yes, it's common to write
2x = x + x
3x = x + x + x
etc
If your ring contains the positive integers and the multiplication doesn't satisfies 2x = x+x, then there's something weird with your ring not your notation
Notice a ring satisfies
(1+1)x = 1*x + 1*x = x+x
So this will only be a problem if 1+1 doesn't equal 2
I suppose that makes sense
then why is it earlier in the book they say
in what situation would there then be potential for confusion
I guess if you don't specify that n is an integer.
Or if you're in some funky situation where the additive operation of your ring is multiplication or something
ah okay then lol thanks for clarifying
Hello, i need to compute the length of A = Z[x] / ( 6, x^2 ).
I found a short exact sequence :
0 -> (x) -> A -> (x) -> 0.
Now, (x) is isomorphic to Z/6Z and thus has length 2 , so the length should be 4, is that correct ?
Let X be a set, $Y \subset X$, G a group, and $G^X$ the group of G-valued functions on X.
Ante0417
Then how can we say that $G^X$ forms a group? How is composition defined when domain and range are different sets?
Ante0417
You just use the group structure of G, and do operations pointwise
Should we understand it as X is G but without its added group structure?
So for two functions f,g:X -> G you define
(f*g)(x) = f(x) * g(x)
Can I form/get a ring with addition and multiplication operation being same??
Which axiom will be invalid in this condition??
How??I didnt get it..Could you please explain it.
1 = 1 + 0 = 1x0 = 0
I guess one funny thing here is that the zero ring has characteristic 1
cute
Z/1 is indeed the 0-ring
We can say like this :Char R is 1 iff R={0}..is it true ??
It's true.
Proof:
For all x, x = 1*x = 0*x = 0
Yeahh
Is any finite extension of Q a subfield of C?
I guess it depends how literal you interpret the word "is", but they're definitely isomorphic to a subfield of C
Yeah i guess thats what i meant. Why is that exactly? I feel like i “almost” know the answer but not quite lol
Every element of the extension is algebraic over the base field
right
so where can you say any finite extension of Q lies in
put another way, whats the "largest" algebraic extension of Q? (in a way which makes sense for this question)
I mean, im guessing its C (its the algebraic closure of Q?) but i dont really know why
Largest alg extension in what sense?
well C isn't the algebraic closure of Q (how can you get, say, pi + 4i)
how do you expect any arbitrary algebraic extension of Q to compare to the algebraic closure of Q?
Always a subfield
right
so you have that any finite extension of Q is a subfield of the algebraic closure of Q
you are one step away
Every finite extension is algebraic hence
Q < E < Q[i] < C
The alg closure of Q is subfield of alg closure of R which is C?
And that last statement is fundamental thm of algebra that can be proven with other methods
It is assumed as a general factoid :3333
what da flip
doesn't the algebraic closure of Q consist of {a + bi | a, b are real and algebraic} ?
No
The algebraic closure of Q contains only algebraic numbers
There are many transcendental numbers amongst the reals.
Oh. fuck. I'm sorry
I misread that so badly
Hm. I am not sure it is sufficient, what you've written
haha, I once asked this to a professor during class, and she said something like "Hm, interesting idea. Why don't you try to prove it?" and refused to confirm or deny it on the spot
I thought maybe it was false
"Let I be an ideal which is maximal with respect to being non-principal"
this means that I it not a proper subset of any non-principal ideal?
It's not immediately clear if it's true or false to me
but I think it's actually true
semidirect product knowledge check: if I have a group N and a group H and action ϕ: H -> Aut(N) of H on N; let G = H⋉_ϕN, will it always be the case that
- H is a subgroup of G
- N is a normal subgroup of G
- H∩N = {e} and HN = G
- the action of H on N is given by hnh^-1 for h \in H and n \in N
I am pretty sure of 1, 2, and 3; is 4 also true?
Yes
thank you!
All are true.
It is important to note that it is required that hnh^-1 = phi(h)(n)
If indeed you write phi
so then if we have $I_a=\gen{I,a}$ (for $a\notin I$) then that means $I_a$ has to be principal right? since $I$ is a proper subset?
eigentaylor (STfFGMOaPID)
when you say "required" you mean that is part of the definition of the semidirect product?
If you write phi there, you are saying that hnh^-1 = phi(h)(n)
That's what the phi in the definition means
OK, let me actually say this
OK, you're definitely aware of the difference between an internal and external direct product, right?
If you like, 1), 2), 3) are sufficient to describe the internal semidirect product. If you want to make an external one, you need the map phi so you can figure out what the conjugation action is.
So if you're writing phi, you're prescribing what the action is -- phi of course
Could anyone explain where the 1/p in A assumption might be used here?
If z = a+bi is algebraic over Q, then so is \bar{z} = a-bi. And we have a = (z + \bar{z})/2, b = (z - \bar{z})/(2i). So then a and b are also algebraic over Q
And if given a,b are algebraic over Q, so is a+bi
Nice
Is the group of symmetries of the letter “Z” trivial or isomorphic to C_2
what do you think?
and why?
If I have the identity and a 180 degree clockwise rotation that should form a group
But I was trying to make sure that made sense, because it might just be trivial
Ok so I agree that a 180 degree clockwise rotation of "Z" gives back "Z"
and what is the inverse of that rotation?
It should be involutory
cause groups need inverses
yea
so do you agree that this group, whatever it is, isn't trivial?
because you found a non-identity element
Right. So it’s just two elements I see, each involutions
The identity and that single rotation
so is it isomorphic to C2?
Yea
Is C2 the cylic group of order 2
Yea
yes
Thanks
Thanks for the help guys
errr sometimes Z_p, for a prime p, is the multiplicative group of units modulo p
so Z_2 would be the trivial group
whereas Z/pZ would be the group with addition modulo p
and so Z/2Z would be the 2 element group
Ic
but this is only notation of course
if this ever comes up in context, doesn't hurt to clarify with others
just the 16cos 2pi/7 or all the roots of unity from z1 to z16?
The sum with a circle symbol is direct sum
what im confused about is that when they say
$M=M' \oplus M''$
thebirdsandbees
thebirdsandbees
so how can $M', M''$ be a submodules of $M$ while $M=M' \oplus M''$ at the same time
thebirdsandbees
Z_2 is bad notation for this
Z/2 or Z/2Z are standard, C_2 is also fine
Some people write Z_2 but this is bad and conflicts with standard notation for something entirely different
Ic
I don't know anything about axiom of choice but it was asked in lecture about if every ring has a maximum ideal. How do I know if I am using axiom of choice.
The axiom of choice is always assumed, unless you're specifically investigating nonstandard axiomatic systems.
Well all math is rooted in some fundamental assumptions.
Yeah but I'm not going that far down 😔
like when it's saying dually isn't it talking about the same sequence
You don't have to go down to the fundations, but if you find some scaffolding that says "depends on AC" you can still safely step on it
Yes
holy shit it's everywhere
Yes when they say dually they just mean a dual definition. A different way to phrase the same thing. But both of these are not the best formalism for exact sequences. A sequence of algebraic structures is called exact if and only if the image of a map is exactly the kernel of the next. A short exact sequence is an exact sequence of 5 structures with the 0 group at both ends.
This formalism allows us to generalize the idea of a short exact sequence to more interesting things that have major implications in homology theory.
Ill leave you as an exercise to prove that a short exact sequence is exactly the same as these two dual definitions already given.
ok ill keep this in my mind when i get there, but i just started learning about exact sequences
algebra with that handwriting is a crime
Ici est ne evariste galois illustre mathematicien francais
Fym \hookrightarrow \cong
People writing \mathbb{Z}_4 : 🤡
People writing \mathbb Z_4 : 
$\mbb Z_4$
UGOBEL
🥱
Potentially silly question, but is an ideal radical if and only if its equal to its radical
Yeah
thx
I’ve usually seen it presented the other way around, defining the radical of an ideal then saying an ideal is radical if it is equal to its radical, but you should be able to check quite easily that your definitions agree with that
hey can anyone explain me what exactly exp G means? the author havent used this notation yet so im kinda lost
what kind of background is needed for the Nielsen–Schreier theorem?
In the definition of the radical presented there, do you know what n is? Is it an integer, natural number or positive integer?
Oh looks like positive integer
Why is $\sqrt{(x^2)} \subseteq (x)$? If $f^n = x^2 p(x)$ for some $p$, I'm not sure how to see why $f \in (x)$
okeyokay
It's probably the exponent of a group. That is, the lowest integer $n$ such that $g^n = e_G$ for every $g \in G$. The exponent is the lowest common multiple of the orders of the elements of the group.
$\mathbf{Boytjie}$
If x^2 divides f^n, then x divides f^n which means x divides f since x is prime
I think the usual proof uses algebraic topology.
So you would need to know about the fundamental group, and the relationship between covering spaces and subgroups of the fundamental group.
oh that makes sense, thank you!
Can someone give me a hint on showing that the maximal ideal $\mathfrak m = (X^2-Y,Y^2-2)\subseteq \mathbb Q[X,Y]$ cannot be expressed in the form $(f(X), g(Y))$?
EdgarAlnGrow
Q[x, y]/m is a field. Which field is it? What does x and y correspond to in the field? What are their minimal polynomials? What does that say about what f and g could be? Can that give a maximal ideal?
- Q[x, y]/m is Q[2^{1/4}]
- x corresponds to +/- 2^{1/4} and y corresponds to +/- 2^{1/2}
- the minimal polynomials over Q are x^4-2 and y^2-2 respectively
But I am dumb so I dont see how that says anything about what f and g can be. presumably they have to be those minimal polynomials, but i dont see why
If f(x) is in m, that means f(x) is 0 in Q[x, y]/m.
But what is f(x) in Q(2^1/4)?
Maybe it helps to write
f(x) = a0 + a1x + a2x^2 + ...
and think of this as a homomorphism Q[x, y] -> Q(2^1/4)
why do you think this requires background? idk the proof but you can find it in Robinson's book, for example
Every hom from that quotient to some field K is in bijection with the solutions to q(x) in K. Can someone help me with this oke
One
How is this a homomorphism Q[x, y] -> Q(2^1/4)? Such a homomorphism consists of an image for X in Q(2^1/4), an image for Y in Q(2^1/4), and a homomorphism from Q to Q(2^1/4). I don't see how f contains any of that information
What do you mean f containing the information?
Let's just step back for a second. Say f(x) = x + 1. Do you know what element f represents in Q(2^1/4)?
2^(1/4) + 1?
2^(1/2)
What if
f(x) = ax^2 + bx + c?
a2^(1/2) + b2^(1/4) + c
Indeed, so in general. What would be a reasonable way to describe the element f(x) represents?
evaluating at 2^(1/4)
That's right. It's just
f(2^1/4)
So then, for which f is f(2^1/4) = 0?
x^4-2
it could be a constant multiple of this
but nothing else
oh wait
ignore that
Yes, so any polynomial with f(2^1/4) is a multiple of the minimal polynomial
oh sure polynomial multiple
In particular
(f(x), g(y)) < (x^4 - 2, y^2 - 2)
Whenever f and g are taken from m
Rip
Im looking at the field homs from F[x]/(q(x)) to any field K is in bijection with solutions to q(x)=0 in K
I think also i was unsure about the greater context of why we are looking at this
ok i got it, thanks for the patient explanation!
Maybe start with what are the homomorphisms F[x] -> K? When does such a homomorphism map q(x) to 0
As for greater context, we are kinda interested in roots of polynomials. So it's nice to have something that corresponds to that
You can do this sort of thing for any map out of a quotient right? I think i start getting nervous any time someone says something like “so this must be in the kernel so the map “”””factors””” through” sort of things
I usually get a bit lost at that point
Well, that is the main idea behind quotients. So if it makes you nervous you may want to befriend quotients a little bit
Yeah
thebirdsandbees
i thought factor through means $\alpha '=\phi ' * f$
thebirdsandbees
but it seems like you can get $\phi '$ by the map
thebirdsandbees
say $I\subseteq I_a=(\alpha)$ and $J$ is an ideal such that $I\subseteq J$. if i want to prove
$x\in I\implies x=s\alpha$ where $s\in J$
is the contrapositive that if $x=s\alpha$ where $s\notin J$ then $x\notin I$ (i.e. $x\in I_a\setminus I$)?
eigentaylor (STfFGMOaPID)
not sure if im logicing properly
so are you just trying to prove that all elements in <alpha> are of the form s*alpha?
no, that elements in I are of the form s alpha with s in J. i.e. I subet Ia J
still working on that so i don't want hints but i just wanna know if my contrapositive is right or wrong/flawed
i think it's wrong
because there could exist multiple $s$ where $x=sa$
thebirdsandbees
and one of them could lie outside of J
what if it's an integral domain? then wouldn't that be unique?
yeh it would be unique then
cuz you can cancel out $\alpha$
thebirdsandbees
and your contrapositive would make sense
snake lemma is neat
yeh it is but i don't even understand the application
i mean i don't know its application
honestly me neither in its full generality
https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/2508678/proving-the-strong-four-lemma-using-the-snake-lemma
i find it through this, tho it was introduced in the book in the later chapter
maybe you would find something interesting here
the moreover part is presented in this book as a separate lemma
I would say the main use of the snake lemma I've seen is for creating other various "long exact sequences" such as the standard ones on (co)homology
one tangent question, i kinda got the 'motivation' for homological algebra, is there any specific prerequisite i need to be aware about ?
lmao
Mfw functors dont preserve exactness
this is not something i can read with only 3 hrs of sleep lmao
alr sleep more and take a look thereafter
nastasya
$\{ x \in \mathbb{R}^n \mid p(x) = 0 \}$
is this the zero set of polynomial ?
and p is fixed right ?
i mean for a given p the say V_p = { x \in \mathbb{R}^n \mid p(x) = 0 }
Yep
alr
Like before you learn homological algebra you mean?
Not really. You just need the basics of rings and modules, and then you should pick up some category theory on the way.
And I guess it may or may not be useful to have some reason to care about it. Like knowing some algtop/alggeo/reptheory or something
Rawdogging homological algebra
Going in without any reason to care abt it
It is interesting in it's own, so you could totally rawdog it
Definitely!
Another valid reason is because you get cool diagrams
Mathematicians hate this one little trick
gatdamn, alr coach o7
demoted in priority list
Is the motivation for commutative algebra also algebraic geometry/topology? Do commalg and homological algebra overlap in some way?
given a subgroup H of G, we can talk about the 'kth-root" of H as being the subgroup K of H generated by the set {h: h^k in H}.
Does this have a common name?
why should it be motivated by something else? And yes, see Hilbert's syzygy theorem for example
Are you saying people study algebra just for its own sake?
jk, but it seems like all the subjects come together at higher levels, like algebraic geometry for example uses topology, commalg, homological algebra, etc.
subjects intersecting doesn't mean one is motivated by another
Case and point: logic and geometry in topos theory
Wait thats not how the saying goes
Obviously not, but often when you study something, it's because you want to use it for something else. I don't care about point-set topology by itself for example, I want to use it for other things
I guess it's a bit inaccurate to ask for "the" motivation for commutative algebra though, a more appropriate question would be "where is commutative algebra used"
that's fine. But that's a very personal experience. Some topologist will tell you that they don't care about algebra, but they have to learn some to study the homotopy of spheres or whatever. jagr2808 will tell you that homological algebra is cool.
Perhaps you could have mentioned what you are interested in and asked what possible connections are there with commutative algebra
Croquet do u think hom algebra is cool?
Yes I do, specially group cohomology as used for class field theory/number theory
I'd say the motivations for commutative algebra are alggeo and algebraic number theory. And maybe to a lesser extend algebraic topology.
And yes it overlaps a lot with homological algebra. Or perhaps it's better to say that homological algebra is a critical tool to doing commutative algebra
go learn about obstruction theory for non-commutative extenstions and tell me that shit ain't cool
I feel like it's still a bit early to say what I'm truly interested in, but algebra by itself is fun
and I think I've fallen victim to Aluffi's algebraic geometry-propaganda, so maybe I'll try studying that eventually
I can suggest chapter 1 of Eisenbud's book on commutative algebra to learn a little bit about the context of commutative algebra. Although I guess his view might be slighly biased towards AG, not sure. But it's still a nice read
hey if you think algebra is cool, try universal algebra, it's totally worth it i swear!!!
this user is attempting to lead you astray do NOT fall for their tricks
Cool, I happen to have that book, so I'll check it out 
this sounds like a trick, I'm not falling for it 
haha
Honestly being genuine here it's definitely not for everyone, and sometimes rather hard to work cuz sometimes proofs really just come out of left field, but i still think that malcev conditions are some of the coolest things
isn't model theory just universal algebra but good
False, it's universal algebra but diluted with logic taking away from the goodness of working with solely equational identities and equational quantifiers
ok so it's unviersal algebra but more general
Why use existential quantifier when universal quantifier does trick?
In a way, but most things or constructions one uses in UA aren't possible in model theory
It's also what gives UA it's algebra flavour, instead of literally being logic
(Namely, the congruence/subalgebra lattices, free algebras, quotients, the like)
I see
Free algebras / term algebras are especially important because the free algebra generated by n variables basically tells you exactly which equational identities hold:
every K-free algebra is a quotient of algebra of terms over a type (or signature, depending on literature), and
p/~ = q/~ <=> every algebra in K satisfies the identity p ≈ q
Anyhow, i should stop talking, UA triggers some neuron activation in me or smt
if i am talking about say the quotient ring z_2[x] / <x^2 + 1>
is it okay to say x^2 = -1 mod (x^2+1)
or should i say x^2 + <x^2+1> = -1 + <x^2+1>
the problem i see with the first one is im also working with integers from z_2 ie z/2z
Saying the first is better honestly
More readable lol
I'd write like F_2[eps], eps^2 = 0
You can even just say "x^2 = -1 in [ring name]"
your quotient is just adding a commutative nilpotent element
x^2 +1 = (x+1)^2
The most based option, and the [ring name] can often be dropped in the next couple lines as it is implicit you're working in that quotient ring

they have a lot of overlap not least because the best behaved categories to do homological algebra in are categories of modules over rings
and loads of applications in geometry/topology make use of techniques from commutative/non-commutative/homological algebra
algebraic geometry especially, the entire foundations of that field is commutative algebra
Is there an analog for the classification of finite abelian groups to the classification of say finite rings or fields. Have not gotten far into my studies but surely it must build off finite abelian groups given finite rings and fields have an additive abelian group in it.
There is indeed a classification of finite fields. There is a unique field (up to isomorphism) of order p^n for a given prime p and natural n>0.
there's also the classification of finitely generated modules over a PID
can't think of anything else
I think there is a classification of finite rings. I cannot quite remember how it works, I apologise.
(its finitely generated abelian groups, not finite abelian groups but close enough)
Ah, yes, here it is: https://mathoverflow.net/questions/7133/classification-of-finite-commutative-rings
only commutative rings unfortunately
Well, any finite abelian group is trivially finitely generated
It's not completely related, as it's not necessarily a classification (general algebraic structures are far too complicated for that), but I have a book by Ralph McKenzie and David Hobby about the structure of finite algebras, most of which is going over my head sadly, but i dont think there's in general a classification for finite algebras
Fields are sufficiently restrictive, that I wouldn't say the classification of finite abelian groups really comes up. There are just very few abelian groups it would even seem likely could be fields.
As for rings, every abelian group can become a ring (possibly in several different ways), so there it might be useful.
A hard one (to me) : classify the groups of order p^2q with p and q primes
Hmmm, if you have square free characteristic you can split it into a product of finite dimensional algebras over Fp. And all of them appear as endomorphism rings of projective generators over a species with admissible relations.
Not sure if that counts as a classification...
It’s a start at least!
It's almost unique. In that the species is uniquely determined, but the relations are not, and I think it's tricky to determine when different relations give isomorphic algebras
Relevant:Non-commutative(higher dimensional) algebra is also useful for AT. If you want more info about that, Ronald Brown wrote quite a bit about it
I see
Nonabelian Algebraic Topology? Or Topology and Groupoids?
The former, for the most part
I wouldn’t recommend starting out with that though tbf, unless you already know some alg top
Yeah, probably a year or two in the future
Where people found joy and happiness in commutative algebra, mathematicians sought to uncommutatify the nation, bringing chaos upon everyone.
Now my question is when are we getting noncommutative algebraic topology for arbitrary algebraic structures
Lmao
If you really wanna maximize your Groupoid knowledge, I recommend reading T&G then NAT(as opposed to reading some other alg top textbook then NAT)
Yep, T&G looks nice, I think I'll read it next year
(probably alongside Rotman)
W
Commalg and Homological algebra overlap a lot, combinatorial commalg uses a fun mix of the two
Miller and Strumfels book is great, as is Hertzogs and Hibis
can someone explain to me why isomorphisms between exact sequences are defined this way?
like why take the direct sums
I think they're defining "essentially isomorphic" rather than isomorphic
but I couldn't tell you why it's done that way
Can someone help me with 4?
Since F(x) is a field of quotients of F[x]
Then an element of F(x) lets call it a can be written as a quotient of elements of F[x] lets say g(x) and h(x).
So a = g(x)/h(x)
Wts we cannot have a = x s.t a = (g(x)/h(x))^2
I selected module theory as my Bachelor's thesis, it can be a reading project but can anyone give some directions what can I do with module theory?
so let n = deg f and m = deg g
what can you say about the degree of f^2 and g^2?
Module theory is mainly used to study the ring it's a module over, as properties of a ring translate to properties of it's category of modules.
Furthermore it's the nicest example of smt called an abelian category, which captures the "abelianness", for example the fact that the set of homomorphisms between two modules naturally forms an abelian group, or the fact that every submodule is a "normal subgroup", so to speak.
Because of that they form the natural environment for commutative and homological algebra. They're also used in rep theory because linear representations of a group G in a field K correspond to modules over the group ring K[G]
thebirdsandbees
You get an exact sequence
... -> ker 1_N -> coker \lambda -> coker \mu -> ...
ker 1_N = 0 and coker \mu = 0, so by exactness the desired thing follows
Okay
The idea is that a short exact sequence like
0 -> P -> P -> 0 -> 0
is kinda "trivial". So adding this gives "essentially the same" sequence.
The bigger picture here comes when you look at longer sequences. Two projective resolutions of M are always homotopy equivalent. And two complexes of projectives are homotopy equivalent if and only if they differ by these trivial complexes
0 -> P = P -> 0
thank you i ended up figuring out exactly what you explained
can someone clarify prime ideals for me though real quick
this only works because F is a field (or integral domain, mainly)
because of cancellation?
Is the "or" for prime ideals a and not b?
or b and not a
or can it be a and b also
no reason why not
just at least one of a or b is in P
that's it
okk cause im trying to prove 2Z[x] is a prime ideal of Z[x]
and my argument is that 2Z[x] is a strict ideal since any product of an element of Z[x] with that of 2Z[x] is an element of 2Z[x] (proving its an ideal)
Then for a,b in Z[x] if ab is in 2Z[x],
Then it is clear ab has even coefficients, if both a and b are not in 2Z[x]
then both a and b have at least one odd coefficient then so must its product, i.e ab cant be in 2Z[x] unless either a or b is in 2Z[x]
@velvet hull
that looks like it works
Yeah thats a valid argument, 2Z[x] is the set of polynomials with even coefficients
but the main point of a prime ideal, is that the quotient ring is an integral domain
so an alternative argument would be that Z[x]/2Z[x] is the ring {0,1} which is indeed an integral domain
and you're done
Hmm that may be a better way to go about it
Hell, it's a field, so it's even maximal
can you explain the part that Z[x]/2Z[x] is the ring {0,1}
actually proving it is kind of a pain in the ass
It's actually (Z/2)[x], not a field
so should I just stick to my original proof?
Seeing why is not too hard. It's just that two polynomials become equal iff all their coefficients are equal modulo 2
Your proof is correct
Okay thank you
It's prime but not maximal
Rings and modules
Let a be a nilpotent element
is there some prime ideal P such that for the localization R_(P), a/1 is not equivalent to 0?
how did you get the sequence ker 1_N -> coker \lambda? I thought snake lemma only gives you coker \lambda -> coker \mu
shoot this is too advanced for me i don't even know what homotopy equivalence means yet
but ill look into it when i learn thanks
ill just save it in my read later list lmao
Alright, well just think about it like the fact that L(+)P' = P(+)L' says that the sequences are pretty similar right. You kinda have "all the same pieces" just distributed a little differently.
yeh i guess in a way because i think it's kinda saying that if you combine L and P' you get that they are equivalent if you combine P and L'
so kinda if you ignore order than they can be similar to each other idk
wait does the snake lemma also have a loop
actually nvm
Another thing this means, you have what is called the stable category. Which is just where you "ignore" projective modules.
Then this lemma is saying that taking syzygy (M |-> L) is a well defined functor in the stable category.
Or said another way, if we treat all projective as 0, then L and L' are equal.
im going to learn about functor soon
like tomorrow probs
so maybe ill be more well equiped tomorrow lmao
This is very useful when working with things like Ext(-, N) which doesn't see projectives. So behaves the same on things that are isomorphic in the stable category
ok thanks ill look into it tomorrow, i'll prbably know more by then
how did you get the sequence ker 1_N ->
can i conclude that in direct sum we have x_i = 0 for all but finitely many whereas in direct product it is not necessay to be?
yup
I'm doing an exercise that wants me to prove that a field automorphism $\sigma$ on $\mathbb{R}$ satisfies $\sigma(y) = y$ for all $y \in \mathbb{Q}$.
This is the first proof I was able to come up with, but this holds for all real $y$ and not just rational, right?
Kroros
Oh nvm I see the mistake
So a few things going on here
Number 1: you have a mistake by your second equal sign you've just gone
sigma(x) z = sigma(x z)
which usually isn't true.
Number 2: it actually is true that the only automorphism of R is the identity, but the proof would have to use properties of R.
Number 3: the statement that any automorphism fixes Q is true for any field that contains Q. But you will have to use some properties of Q to prove this.
Yeah the next part of the exercise wants me to prove that the only automorphism on the reals is the identity. I assumed it wants me to use that it fixes Q and that it preserves positiveness.
My plan was to use that a real number is a limit of a Cauchy sequence in Q, along with the fact that the identity is continuous, is that the correct approach?
i proved that if ring R is Noetherian ring then every ideal is finitely generated, but any hint how can i prove converse part?
You're onto something at least. But you want to prove that any automorphism is the identity, so the fact that the identity is continuous doesn't really help, since you don't yet know your automorphism is the identity.
I do know that it is the identity on Q, no?
Ideals correspond exactly to submodules of R over itself
Sure, but you can cook up discontinuous functions that are the identity on Q. Like f(x) = x for x rational and 0 for x irrational is not continuous.
So you have to use something more
Use contrapositive maybe
No modules required
ie. Using a non-stabilizing chain of ideals you can get a module which isnt fg
You could take the union of an infinite chain I think, since it will also be a finitely generated ideal
Uh yeah for the converse that may be the way to go
One direction is messy to prove directly and I forget whoch
yes but i don't know for modules too
got it, thank you
how is A \oplus B defined for groups
i was always under the impression its same as \times which is a isomorphism for abelian groups
but how is \oplus defined
this is the drawback of never opening a book, need to follow a book for algebra now
Its called the free product of groups
alr
Basically you take the every word consisting of elements in G and H, but you reduce them using the structure of G and H
So in
Z_4 \oplus C_2 = { 0, 1, 2, 3 } \oplus { e, g }
the words
10g0g and 1 would be the same
For rings the coproduct is the Z-tensor product when the rings are seen as Z-algebras
yeah the ring makes much more sense to me for whatever reason
also the free group is defined at the 11th chaper in rotman's so everything is blurry to me
Right
should i try to follow that book from from front to end ?
You can try sure, but i havent done that with many books tbh
For ppl who were curious about my galois theory class… my notes are very messy so im not sure if its useful for me to show them
which book is it following if it is following anything
Dummit and foote but not really because my prof is speaking mainly in category theory
Or at least he’s teaching it from that framework / pov
Like today he was talking about how we want to study the category of field extensions over F by studying functors to Set , i guess the functor being Hom(-,E)
But then apparently if u consider the category of Ring over F then there some adjunction you can use. Idrk honestly
The pic here was something like the functor factors through a functor to category of G-sets (thats where automorphism group of field extension comes up)
Galois group
Based
It kind of is tbh
Im locked in sooo hard during lectures to try and follow but its been fun
Thats so cool though tff
Dummit and foote’s chapter on commutative algebra actually looks kinda nice
I feel like literally no one learns commutative algebra from dummit and foote lol
They do cover a lot of the essentials at least
I think from this POV the relationship between usual Galois theory and Galois coverings becomes clearer? Then there's Grothendieck's Galois theory, which iirc is like coverings but for schemes, etc. Maybe if you ask your prof he tells you something about it
Which book is good for learning all the stuff which is necessary to understand The Quillen Suslin theorem? If this message is not to belong here I will delete it?
that's tragic. any book that the prof is going off of, or any notes I can look at on his personal website?
$r$
uginp
Given a representation $\rho: G\rightarrow GL(V)$ we get the dual representation $\rho^:G\rightarrow GL(V)$ by $\rho(g)^=\rho(g^{-1})^T$. This must satisify $<\rho^(g)\phi,\rho(g)v>=<\phi,v>
uginp
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on wikipedia they define $<\phi,v>=\phi^Tv=\phi(v)$. Where $\phi$ is an element of the dual space, now how does $\phi^T v$ make sense? If we consider the elements of V as columns vectors, aren't the elements of $V^*$ row vectors?
You forgot to close the first mathmode
uginp
Also, $\langle$ and $\rangle$ look nicer than $<$ and $>$ imo
.enpeace_music
But idk how angled you usually write em
sometimes as (,)
🙂
This makes sense if we just write down the definitions, but idk what to make of $\phi^T$
uginp
I guess it makes sense to consider the elements of the dual space as column vectors since we want to act on them on the left, but I'm used to elements $V^*$ being row vectors if the elements of $V$ are column vector.
uginp
Honestly i think < \phi, v > just interprets them both as column vectors
As it's the standard inner product notation
A little notational annoyance
that might be it. On the wiki page they have written this, I'm not sure what to make of the equality with an extra row in this context.
Is defined as? Taken as? Idk
I’ve been working through this interesting problem. I’ve been trying to solve part 3, where they ask us to prove that G has n elements.
I know that the identity mapping on K is in G
is there anything like calay’s theorem for other algebraic structures?
Think about the possible values alpha(k1) can take. Use assumption (vii) and (viii).
There’s already a good answer, but for example, every ring is a subring of a ring of endomorphisms of an Abelian group (namely its own underlying Additive group).
Sharing here an interesting, reportedly yet unproven, but very elementary conjecture in finite groups
Very nice
nice
Let n < 2000 odd, then if G isn't cyclic, he is not simple 🙂
Has this actually been checked for a reasonable number of groups, say for |A|, |G| < 10 (or <100 with a computer)?
It seems kind of unlikely to me, because it's like the formula was derived by just assuming all homomorphisms factor through the abelianisation.
Lol yeah I wonder if it can just be bashed
Time to bash it and speedrun a publication lol
Although I get the feeling this has probably been verified by computer for small orders
There seem to be a lot of partial results that maybe indicate it should be true
https://repository.kulib.kyoto-u.ac.jp/dspace/bitstream/2433/84161/1/0877-01.pdf
Ah
Are any two fields of the same characteristic contained in some common field extension? I'm 90% sure it's true, but I don't see how to prove it
Yes (but the proof I have is mind is silly)
r u just gonna ||take the algebraic closures lol||
Well that needn't work
does in positive characteristic
But yeah I had smth sillier
none of this Q bar bullshit
Fp and some massive extension of Fp bar
