#groups-rings-fields
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Ask away
For example, using G/H, where H is a subgroup of G, I am trying to figure out what groups are allowed to be quotient groups in general. I am assuming it must be a finite group like Z_5 and D3
But i was also having trouble how to visualize what G does after applying /H to it.
any group can be a quotient group, just take G = H x Z_2, then G / Z_2 is isomorphic to H
my groups supervisor explained it like this: G/H is "G with H killed"
oh, fair
you're probably much more familiar with this concept than u might realise
like u've done modular arithmetic right?
like there, "mod p" is really just the group Z/pZ
Not quite, but modular arithmetic serves as a kind of "easy case" where you can get intuition.
I can easily figure it out then
but you don't think of doing modular arithmetic as
"if i take the coset {..., -6, -1, 4, 9, ...} and add the coset {..., -7, -2, 3, 8, ...}, then i get the coset {..., -8, -3, 2, 7, ...}"
Depends on what "that easy" means I suppose
Figure what out?
instead u'd think of it as "4 + 3 = 7, but i consider 7 and 2 to be the same number bcus they differ by 5"
All i needed to understand

The little engine driving it all is the first isomorphism theorem, once you get there.
false, $\dim (\mathbb{R})=1$ and $\dim(\mathbb{C})=2$, therefore $\mathbb{R}\ncong \mathbb{C}$
Homology
The additive group of the reals and the additive group of the complex numbers are isomorphic in ZFC.
Assuming vector spaces over reals, yes. You can define them as vector spaces over some other field, like rationals.
What would be the simplest construction of such isomorphism between R and C?
There's no "construction" in the strictest sense. (ℝ,+) ≅ (ℂ,+) implies the existence of a non-measurable set of real numbers, so something close to the axiom of choice is required.
On that topic: I should show that $KN/N \cong K/(K\cap N)$, where $N$ is normal in $G$ and $K$ is just a subgroup. Naturally, I chose the homomorphism $h: K \rightarrow KN \rightarrow KN/N$. Clearly $\ker(h) = K \cap N$. By the first ismorphism theorem I now know that $ K/(K\cap N) \cong \mathrm{Im}(h)$. To show this is onto I took an element $(kn) N \in KN/N$ and then have $(kn) N = kN = h(k)$ and I'm done. Now is this correct? I didn't use that $N$ is normal at all so I'm unsure if I missed something.
dellinger
Oh and $KN = {kn : k \in K, n\in N}$.
dellinger
Image of R in C under the Q-module isomorphism in the C->R direction?
This then would be one way to show it. Another way would be to use that $ N \trianglelefteq KN$ and $K \cap N \trianglelefteq K$ and then use some epimorphism $h: KN \rightarrow K$, but I couldn't find one that gives me $h(N) = K \cap N$ and $\ker(h) \subset N$.
dellinger
The obvious one first is just $h(kn)= k$ but then $\ker(h) = N$ which is not what I want.
dellinger
By the fourth theorem of correspondence isomorphism
Ah nevermind, I need $N \trianglelefteq KN$ to get the canonical epimorphism.
dellinger
In case it is of interest, I have proved that this is true for row matrices: the null space of the 1⨯n matrix (a_1 ... a_n) is spanned by (0 ... 0 a_j 0 ... 0 -a_i 0 ... 0) for 1 ≤ i < j ≤ n.
Also for "almost square" matrices, meaning n⨯(n-1) matrices, provided I can show that the n possible minors obtained by deleting single columns are coprime.
pretty sure you can also pass through the exterior alg in a fucky way
might be doing the same thing actually
Oh, that's probably a good way to think about working with all of the minors (of a given size) of a matrix. I'll keep it in mind. Thanks!
Why is that a generic element of image(1 tensor phi)? I'm a little confused on what 1 tensor phi is exactly?
Why are we only arranging the e_i vectors in chains?
Are we completely ignoring e.g. f_i?
Yeah the minors are the components of the induced map on the exterior powers lmao, that's how I use it
biggest PITA is showing the exterior algebra is free
and I wonder how you can extend that to show other quotient algebras of the tensor algebra are free
1 (⨯) psi is by definition the unique linear map that maps d (⨯) l to 1(d) (⨯) psi(l) = d (⨯) psi(l). By linearity, it must map any tensor ∑_i d_i (⨯) l_i to ∑_i d_i (⨯) psi(l_i). Since any tensor can be written in the form ∑_i d_i (⨯) l_i, that means any element in the range of 1 (⨯) psi can be written in the form ∑_i d_i (⨯) psi(l_i).
Yo Raghuram
Thank you sir, this makes sense
do you think T(V) / (v (x) v (x) v) would be free?
I'm not 100% sure about the context, but I think you make a chain for each e_i and each f_i and each g_i and ...
Is (v (⨯) v (⨯) v) the ideal or vector space generated by {v (⨯) v (⨯) v : v in V}? And what kind of "free"? (It's always free as a vector space if we're working over a field for example.)
the ideal generated, and free as in each of its powers (or images of the tensor powers) are free as a module over the ring of the base module V
A restricts to a linear transformation on the subspace, and you can pick a basis so the corresponding matrix is a Jordan block
How do we know we can pick such a basis?
That's what the page you first posted was about: finding a basis of each direct summand ker(A - l Id)^n with respect to which the matrix of A is a direct sum of Jordan blocks.
You can do it by induction, or through the structure theorem for PIDs, probably in other ways as well
Ok, so we constructed a basis with (A - lambda id)(v_1) = 0 and (A - lambda id)(v_i) = v_(i - 1) for each of the direct summands
How do we know that this property means it will look like a Jordan block?
A(v_i) = (1) v_{i-1} + (lambda) v_i, so the i^th column consists of a 1 in the (i-1)st row and a lambda in the i^th row - which is exactly how a Jordan block looks.
(And A(v_1) = lambda v_1, so the 1st column is just a lambda in the 1st row.)
So each of these chains is one Jordan block?
But to the same eigenvalue
s is the amount of blocks of size k?
t is the amount of blocks of size k - 1
Etc.?
Exactly.
Thanks!!
Hi I am stuck proving this, i have that both g1,3 and g5,0 have order 2. but that these 2 composed give order 2 when they need to be order 6 to prove that G is isomorphic to D6
If ℚ embeds in the base ring (i.e., all positive integers are invertible), I believe it ought to be free if V is free. But I don't have a proof yet.
am using this theorem
Can someone give me a hand please?
While it is true that D_n has two elements of order 2 with composition of order n, that is not true for any two elements of order 2. You probably need to try some other 2 elements.
Ok thank you
Drawing ℤ_6 as the vertices of a regular hexagon going (say) clockwise and visualising how g_{1,b} and g_{5,b} act would probably also help understand what is going on.
For polynomials f and g of degree at most m, n respectively, let Res(f, g) denote their resultant (where they are treated as having degree m and n regardless of whether they actually do). Is it true for any scalars a, b, c, d that Res(f((aX+b)/(cX+d)) (cX+d)^m, g((aX+b)/(cX+d)) (cX+d)^n) = (ad-bc)^{mn} Res(f, g)?
Note: for a = d = 1, c = 0 (strictly upper-triangular matrices); b = c = 0, d = 1 (diag(a, 1)); and a = d = 0, b = c = 1 (reflection), it's true according to Wikipedia.
I see how that works but am not sure how to get s1 and s0 both order 2 and r order 6
Compute dim ker(A - lambda)^i for A a Jordan block of size n (answer: 1 for i ≤ n, 0 for i > n) and add up across Jordan blocks.
ah
I dont see how i can pick another coefficient for x as only 1 and 5 are coprime to 6 in z6
Take the reflections that you know work in the visual version and figure out the g_{a,b} that correspond to them. (You can also use the visual to directly guess the isomorphism of groups.)
That's true, but you can vary the b's. The pair might be of the form g_1b and g_1b', or g_1b and g_5b', or g_5b and g_5b'.
in question 9, how can the kernel have order p^2?
im guessing when H = Z_p^2 x Z_p or the semidirect prod Z_p^2 x Z_p, the complement Z_p is already in the kernel and the if Z_p^2 = <a>, then <a^p> is also in the kernel and that gives another Z_p to the kernel.
is this the correct way to think about this?
this is a dumb question but does the normal subgroup test apply for all subgroups infinite/finite
idrk whats referred as the "normal subgroup test" but if its one of these definition, then it works for both
https://proofwiki.org/wiki/Equivalence_of_Definitions_of_Normal_Subgroup
its where a subgroup H of G is normal in G if and only if xHx^-1 is a subgroup of H for all x in G
then yeah definition 3 on the website. works infinite or finite
since H is assumed as a subgroup this can apply for both finite/infinite
using either the finite subgroup test or otherwise one of two subgroups tests that are infinite
Proper? I think you just mean subgroup. If it were proper, then no finite normal subgroups exist.
fixed
what are nilpotent elements of a commutative ring
there arent listed examples in my book
Guys, this is correct(?)
An element r is nilpotent if there exists some natural n such that r^n = 0.
No
C is not isomorphic to R^2 as a ring which is kind what you’re trying to do
But I think the easiest way to see they aren’t the same is to count prime ideals
The left has 3, 0 x R x R, R x 0 x R, and R x R x 0
And the right has 2, 0 x C and R x 0
To see that, prove that prime ideals of S x T are of the form p x T or S x q where p is a prime of S, or q is a prime of T
How do I show that in a dedekind ring, every ideal has a factorization into prime ideals?
I know that this is often the definition. Definition my textbook is using: a dedekind ring is a ring in which its set of fractional ideals forms a group.
I've already proven that in such a ring, every ideal is finitely generated
so I'm thinking it's probably induction on the number of generators
however I'm struggling to even do the base case (that is, show a principal ideal is prime)
so for X subset a group G. <X> is all finite words in X. but then isn't that just F(X) but with G's group structure? I heard that <X> is a quotient of F(X) can someone explain that
By definition, F(X) has no relations
but G may have relations
for example, let G = Z_8 and X = {2}
<X> is just {2, 4, 6, 8}
but F(X) is the set of all ways to write 2 + 2 + ... + 2
importantly, this addition is formal
it's not the same as the additiion in G
it's just some formal thing (you should think of it like concatenation)
so F(X) in this case is isomorphic to Z even though <X> is isomorphic to Z_4 (it's order 4 and cyclic)
in order to make F(X) into <X>, I need to quotient out by the normal subgroup generated by the word "2 + 2 + 2 + 2"
this sets 2 + 2 + 2 + 2 = 0, like you want in Z_8
yeah i know this. but then where is the "quotient" here?
here
oh udgiasdusad sorry
np
If you have different relations that make 0 do u just quotient by subgroup generated by all the different ones? How do decide if two expressions that make 0 are different
so i see this, but like... why specifically 2+2+2+2. i'm guessing because it's equivalent to 0 in the original group, but like what would it be in the general case?
in the general case, you can prove any group has a presentation in terms of generators and relations
then take the free group on the generators and quotient by the relations
the proof of this is highly nonconstructive
so there isn't really a good way to just say like "given a group what do I quotient by"
i see. so just saying <X> is some quotient on F(X) (which kind of "forces" the structure of G into it?) is like the nicest way to say it?
but in this case it's basically just that the relation on Z_8 is the relation generated by the word 8 dot 1. So you can look at the intersection of the (normal subgroup generated by 8 dot 1) in Z (Free group on 1 generator) and look at how this normal subgroup intersects 2Z
What do u mean “the relation”, an equation that equal 0?
I guess a better way to say it, a free group of a subgroup is a subgroup of a free group
a word in the free group
so formally just some list of things, but you should think of it like an equation you're setting equal 0
because you quotient by the normal subgroup it generates, which is just basically quotienting by the least amount of structure to kill exactly that word
elaborating on this: if you have a presentation of your bigger group, this induces a presentation on your smaller group
so then another way to say it is if $\gen{X}\leq G$, and there is some normal subgroup $N$ in $F(X)$ such that
$F(X)/N\cong \gen{X}$?
eigentaylor(got that eigenvalor)
yeah
okay thats really cool
yeye
unfortunately a shit ton of stuff about free groups is just straight up independent of ZFC though lol
which is kinda a funny fact
ok I still have this question though for anyone who knows anything abt dedekind rings
oh i guess maybe N is the kernel of the homomorphism from F(X) to G where we map a word w in F(X) to just w (in G) and "compute it" with the group operation. and then N would just be all words in X which reduce down to the identity when computed in G? that would make sense for it being like 2+2+2+2 for <2> in Z8.
can someone help me find the isomorphisms from S to Aut(Sylow-7 subgroup) for these three cases?
pink_panther
not one
Can I get a hint for this, to get me started? I don't immediately see how the existence of a chain of subgroups showing that a group is solvable imposes constraints on an arbitrary subgroup.
There is a characterization that makes this trivial. ||G is solvable iff G^(n)=1 for some n, where G^(1)=[G, G], G^(n+1)=[G^(n), G^(n)]||
given an abelian tower of G
think of how to construct an abelian tower of a subgroup
and a quotient group
i wann amke sure i understand what this question is asking
are they asking me to prove
actually yeah
i have no idea what the bottom part is asking me to show
is it asking me to show that its the union of left cosets of the form xHx^-1 cap H?
for quotient groups, remember you have a map f: G -> G/H, moreover this map is surjective
if you have a chain in G
what does this look like in G/H?
for subgroups, try intersecting the chain with your subgroup, what do you get?
no it's asking you to show that double cosets are a union of left cosets (which is obvious) and that you need exactly [H:xHx^{-1} \cap H] many representatives
so any double coset HxH is a disjoint union of y_iH where y_i ranges over a set of size [H:xHx^{-1} \cap H]
for instance if x normalizes H then HxH = xH, but if x does not then you have to work out this decomposition
ah ok, thanks!
What does it mean for a homomorphism $\varphi \text{ to factor through a subgroup H? just that } \varphi(h) = 0 \forall h \in H?$
Dompa
Yeah, and this implies that G/H is iso to im \varphi
assuming that H is the entire kernel
phi(x) = 0 implies x \in H
Subgroup of the domain? Or codomain
Oh its already been answered lol
My wifi is ass
I'm thinking about doing a small little write up about galois theory and a mildly different way of approaching it maybe as practice for my proof writing skills. Do you think the following would be good, the idea is to keep building up to the fundamental theorem using stronger and stronger conditions.
- If we have a domain R and a ring K containing R such that K is a finite rank left R-module with a basis of left-units k_i, then End_R(K) is a rank N right K-module with the diagonal basis chi_i(b_j) = \delta_{i,j} b_i.
- If we impose the condition that both rings are division rings, then the double centralizer of the image of R in End_Z(K) is itself. This gives a correspondence between subdivision rings P of K such that K is a finite-rank P module and finite rank right-K modules of End_Z(K)
- When we assume K is commutative and thus a field, we have that characters from a monoid are linearly independent.
- A result of this is that field extensions under this correspondence take the form of the crossed product of the base field and the automorphic stabilizer (the galois group)
- If F is a field, and we have a finite group of automorphisms, then the fixed field extension has the same degree as the group due to the correspondence.
- The induced correspondence gives the fundamental theorem of galois theory
Of course with some details filled in
okay, thank you
what is the motivation for studying structure preserving maps between groups, rings, vector spaces, etc?
and what exactly is meant by preserve here?
The motivation is that we can learn things about one group by studying another. What it means to preserve structure is to preserve the operation, let phi :G -> G' be a group hom. then the multiplication should be preserved, phi(g1 * g2) = phi(g1) * phi(g2). Notice that the second multiplication is occuing in G'.
The best motivation that I can think of is that maps that don't respect the algebraic structure are just bullshit. I can define some random function between groups, but it won't tell me anything about their relationship without some condition on how it interacts with the operations.
so ig in a loose sense, it tends to reflect how similar say a vector space is to another distinct vector space?
There are many ways that a function might have some algebraic meaning, but this is a strong and common way
"structure preserving maps" allow us to classify all finite-dimnesional vector spaces, for example
All finite-dim F-vector spaces are just F^n for some n
This must be some big shot result in Linear Algebra
Similar to Cayley's Theorem in some sense
okay I need to clarify smth
This is a fundamental result, it is the result that all vector spaces have a basis. It is considerably less trivial than Cayley's theorem.
It’s partly why linear algebra is so nice, vector spaces are just well behaved and easy to classify
We have no similar result in group theory
The condition that $\forall a_1, a_2 \in G \phi(a_1 . a_2) = \phi(a_1).\phi(a_2)$ is a sufficient condition for for $\phi$ to be a Group Homomorphism.
James
Yes it is, that's right
There is a general result called the irredundant basis theorem, which says that the "distance" between irredundant bases must be at most one element
(An irredundant basis is a smallest set of elements which generate the group)
I am referring to the fact that there is no classification of groups.
Oh okay, apologies
I thought you were referring to the basis thing in particular
It follows from this that $\phi(e) = e'$ and $\phi(g^{-1}) = \phi(g)^{-1}$
James
Yes, that's right
Now, this is what led me to infer this statement
I referred to Vector Spaces here but the idea is the same, I suppose
Seems like a big jump to me, but if that helps you conceptualise things, more power to you.
It’s not necessarily similarity, but it does tell you that your map sends a vector space to a vector space. It’s entirely possibly to just map out of a vector space in such a way that you lose, say, the abelian group structure on the image, but you’re not entirely wrong
If that map happens to be a bijection then it’s what we call an isomorphism and that is pretty much the idea of equality in algebraic settings
I see
Like it’s not entirely wrong to say the image of the map is similar, it is in some sense, but I don’t think it’s quite the correct takeaway
It just tells you that the map preserves the algebraic structure on the set, that’s it
Is there further classification of these maps based on what kind of map (injective, surjective, bijective) it is?
Smallest as in minimal under inclusion or smallest as in achieves the minimum cardinality among all generating sets?
They all have names, a surjective homomorphism is called and epimorphism for example, and different properties but by and large homomorphisms and isomorphisms are the interesting ones
What do you mean by that exactly, are you just asking for special names or are you expecting a genuine classification of homomorphisms?
I suppose the latter
There is no such thing in general
You can do it for vector spaces though, which is why LA is so nice
(If you’re working with rings then not all epimorphisms are surjections)
For example, vector space homomorphism R^2->R^2 are just 2x2 matrices, but you can’t classify all group homomorphisms R^2->R^2
I mean, you sort of can if you take for granted a Q-basis of R...
But you certainly can't write these things down
In the categorical setting no, but I was meaning in just the algebraic sense
I can't quite conceptualize this. Can you expand on the reasons as to why we can't do so?
granted I am not as seasoned in Linear Algebra
The long and short of it is that R is too big.
I thought so
Smallest under inclusion. As in a subset B of G is an irredundant basis if every subset B' of B doesn't generate G but B does
Then I don’t understand this theorem
For example
Sn has irredundent basis given by the n-1 adjacent transpositions
And another basis given by a transposition and an n cycle
How are these “distance 1”?
It just means that there are also minimal generating sets of cardinality n-2, n-3, ..., 2
Thats what i meant
Sorry
Let $n=p_1^{a_1}p_2^{a_2}$ then there integers $u,v$ such that $u p_1^{a_1}+vp_2^{a_2}=1$ how does deviding by $n$ show that a $n$'th root of unity $\zeta_n$ is the product of powers of $\zeta_{p_1^{a_1}}$ and $\zeta_{p_2^{a_2}}$?
mh_le
I see, okay. That makes a lot more sense than what I had in mind
The idea is that you raise zeta_n to each side
Or, if you want to divide by n first, raise 1 to each side
Raise?
:3 still a really cool theorem imo
What is the group theory that i need to know for this assignment
2,3,4 specifically
in class we're proving all finite groups are iso to a subgroup of Sn. we're using that Aut (G) is iso to Sn if G has n elements. I get that all possible bijections from G to G would be Sn, but aren't automorphisms homomorphisms? is it true that a bijection on a group is necessarily a homomorphism?
automorphisms are homomorphisms
is it true that a bijection on a group is necessarily a homomorphism?
No.
Exercise: show that the bijections used in the theorem your proved are not homomorphisms (except for the identity map)
okay turns out AutG was referring to G as the set in the group action
and Aut of any finite set X is definitely just S|X|
Understandable that this confused you btw, I think this is poor choice of notation. People more often write Sym(G)
@hot wadi I don't understand what you mean by "raise".
@wild jasper I mean, if I have two numbers a and b, I can “raise a to the b power” to get a^b
So what I was saying earlier is to raise zeta_n to the [blah] power where [blah] is each side of the equation given
And then use that those two powers of zeta_n are equal to get what you want
2 and 4 require very little - lagrange’s theorem and knowing the definitions should be enough. 3 I don’t immediately see how to do, so I’m not sure what is or isn’t needed for it
The fact that 3 is specifically for finitely generated abelian groups seems to imply they would want you to use the structure theorem for finitely generated abelian groups
Which would of course make 3 fairly easy
There could very well be a less machinery-heavy proof though that the prof is hoping you come up with instead
@hot wadi thanks 🙂
book wants me to show that $xy=x+y+xy,\bR\setminus {-1}$ is abelian group. i did fine for showing associativity and identity, but im struggling with inverse:
\begin{align}
&xx'=e \implies xx'=0\
&\implies x+x'+xx'=0\
&\implies x'+xx'=-x\
&\implies x'(1+x)=-x\
&\implies x'=-x\
\end{align*}
(i got 0 for the identity)
but this doesn't work for x = 1 since we don't have -1
Can anyone give me a hint?
Tristian
Your last step is wrong (you should have divided by 1+x)
Hello, I am camping here until I get my active role back, feel free to ask me questions in group or field theory to help me achieve my goal!
i am struggling to get the meaning of the "=" in
x*y = x+y+xy
It is defining the operation *.
oh yea I though * is mutiplication and that's some kind of a homomorphism
Even correcting for the mistake in the last line, this doesn't quite prove what you want.
It proves that if x has an inverse x' under this operation then x' = -x/(1 + x). It doesn't prove that -x/(1 + x) is the inverse of x.
You can either make all those implications bidirectional (and justify that), or you can say: "If x != -1 then -x/(1 + x) is defined and x * -x/(1 + x) = ...", simplifying until you show their "product" (under this operation) is 0.
Thanks, I think I get the idea but I was struggling for a while to get the intuition behind what happens if the intersections are empty (except with the entire group). In that case, the subgroup is forced to be abelian somehow (edit: by 2nd iso I think?). I guess i need to work thru some examples.
Do you know all the isomorphism theorems?
yep
I see, I should just apply the 2nd iso I guess
well it doesn't really matter whether there's only one intersection
They always get numbered differently, but there's one that says if $H,N$ are normal subgroups of $G$ and $N \subseteq H$ then $H/N$ is a normal subgroup of $G/N$ and $$\frac{G/N}{H/N} \cong \frac{G}{H}$$
Cufflink
yeah, i did, thank you though
But I was thinking using the $AB/B \cong A/(A \cap B)$ is more relevant for showing subgroup is solvable (for the part to show that the quotients of the intersections are abelian). I think I'll need the one you mention for quotient groups?
tubelight
If I take the quotient of a group G twice, so let’s say (G/H)/F, is there a normal subgroup N s.t. (G/H)/F = G/N ?
When I write =, i mean isomorphic ofc
Yes
I’m asking this because this would show that the quotient group of a finitely generated group is finitely generated
Hint for finding this normal subgroup: there is a map G -> G/H and G/H -> (G/H)/F, so compose the two and calculate the kernel
Ohh right yeah that makes sense
This will allow you to characterise all normal subgroups of G/H
All roads lead to Rome
Thanks for the reply man.
not sure where to ask this but i am reading this article an I am a bit confused about the wording here: https://www.jstor.org/stable/3072368
what does "restricts to the identity map" mean?
$[a][b]$ denotes an element of $E$ where $a \in \mathcal{T}$ and $b \in \mathcal{O}$ are two group elements
artemetra
So I am recently studying about prime decomposition in number rings.
How should I compute the prime P in Z[ζ_8] such that P^4=(2)?
(My convention is to use ζ_n to represent e^(2πi/n). )
It means that if you restrict the map to T it becomes the identity map on T.
In other words, for t in T we have phi(t) = t.
why does it say phi([a][b]) = [a_0][b] for some a_0 then? i'm just confused what exactly is different from what they are talking about T and O, for which they just say that it's an identity map
My guess is, T is embedded in E as those elements in the shape of [a][0]
So I guess the elements of E are identified with these pairs [a][b] and the operation is described in terms of some cocycle?
Either way [a][b] is not necessarily in T, so all you're guaranteed is that b is unchanged as that's what it would mean to induce the identity on the quotient.
So I guess you want start with finding the primes that contain 2.
A clever shift in perspective could be to consider the primes in Z[zeta8]/(2) = (Z/2)[X]/(X^4 + 1)
φ([a][0])={a}{0} (Using different brackets for E and E')
I'm listening
Alright, so you're following? Or no?
Indeed
Ah I understand now
What is the induced group homomorphism? I tried writing it out following the proof, and like, I just don't understand what they're getting at
we want a homomorphism from ker(dn+1)/Im(dn) to ker(d'n+1)/Im(d'n)
I wonder if this helps
Chain complex or cochain complex doesn't matter much here
Or you may try to use the functoriality of Ker and Im and use category theoretical languages to prove the result
We have not done category theory unfortunately
If i consider the following extension Q in Q(a+ib) then is it always true that a-ib is in Q(a+ib)? 
Choose one complex cube root of 2, name it as α
Then α's conjugate is not in Q(α)
a - ib = (a^2 + b^2) / (a + ib)
So if a^2 + b^2 is rational that works
yeah and unfortunately in my example it isn't rational
I think the induced homomorphism G_n is just defined by G_n([a]) = [ alpha_n(a)].
Using commutativity of the diagram, it should be easy to check that alpha_n sends ker(dn+1) in ker(d'n+1) and im(dn) to im(d'n)
Yes, thank u so much 
Maybe this is what you are looking for @golden turtle
Yes, thank you!
Np good luck , not an easy topic
I was wondering if there was a term for the following properties :
S is a subset of G, for all subset K of S we have that <K> and <K^c> have trivial intersection.
S is a subset of G, for all s in S we have that s is not in <S-{s}>.
Note that the first property is stronger than the second one
When I write K^c, I mean the complement of K in S if that wasn’t clear
I haven't seen them, honestly.
Hi, could someone recommend me a complimentary book? I'm using the dummit, I know it's good to have a complementary book.
I learned and TAed abstract algebra with Silverman’s An integrated approach and I thought it was good
I know there are other good ones out there too, but I don’t know what they are
You write <K> for the subgroup of G generated by K right?
yeah i think thats standard notation
i just came across these properties when looking at generating sets of groups so i was wondering if there was any work done with these things
its quite tricky, because if <S> is a proper subgroup, adding an element not in <S> to S will not always keep the properties above
I will use "S is a minimal generating set of <S>"
im not a big fan of calling it minimal, maybe independant is a better word for it
because it is not always minimal in term of the size of S
for example if you take S_n, {(12), (23), ..., (n-1 n)} and {(12), (23...n)} both generate S_n and satisfy the properties
but one has 2 elements and the other has n-1 elements
anyway, both of these properties are strong but they are not well behaved at all from what i can tell
hmm
minimal as in "minimal under the usual "subset" partial order relation" i think
not the least
right

how does perfect groups work
isnt a field called perfect if field F has a charcteristic of 0
A field is perfect is every polynomial is separable
A polynomial is separable if each of its irreducible factors is squarefree (meaning all roots over the algebraic closure are distinct)
All char 0 fields are perfect (exercise), but so are many others, including all finite fields (exercise)
every irreducible poly is separable*
My Galois theory textbook might’ve had a weird/nonstandard definition of separable
But the pair of defs I gave above correctly characterizes perfection
oh okay
i thought perfect groups have similar properties to those of perfect fields
but all i know is that perfect groups have commutator subgroups of this and that
i dont really understand much about these (they were not mentioned in my book)
my point is how would i find the smallest possible finite perfect group
Well, the smallest perfect group is the trivial group.
The smallest non-trivial perfect group is A_5, but there aren't any short proofs I know that don't involve non-trivial theorems like Burnside's theorem.
how does one prove that this is a subgroup?
1 \in H' is clear
if a, b \in H' then abH = aHbH = HaHbH = HabH
if a \in H' then a^{-1}H = what?
I dont see this implication at all.
H' is the normalizer of H
That is, H' = {x : xHx^-1 = H}
ur done already no? if b is an inverse of some other element then its closed under inversion
no because you can't conclude that b^{-1}H = Hb^{-1}H
but HcHc^{-1} = Hcc^{-1} right
by definition
if so, then I am done.
I think not though
coset multiplication is defined by this, but im not sure if I am supposed to use coset multiplication here.
why not?
H' is nonempty, just suppose you have a elements a,b^-1 in H' and then show with that argument ab^-1 is in H'
well b^{-1} is not always in X this is what I am trying to prove
then it passes the subgroup test and ur done
....
but b^{-1} doesn't nessecarily have this property in the proof above.
this is what I am trying to prove.
Define Torsion submodule M_tor to be the subset of elements x in M such that there exists a in A, a≠0 such that ax = 0.
Does I need ring A to be commutative?
Hb^{-1}H = (HbH)^{-1} = (bH)^{-1} = Hb^{-1}
One can do this, but again now im stuck on b^{-1}H
but it's in H'
but its not
thats what im trying to prove
b is in H'
I am trying to prove that H' is a subgroup.
Actually arki point is good here, you can try that one
Is H subgroup or any subset?
H is a subgroup
So you have a problem to show that if a in H' then a^-1 also in H'
yes.
Go by definition
This for some reason I can't figure out for the life of me
what do you write a^{-1}H as?
like this right here works
but H is not normal always.
aH = HaH.
Now you have to show a^-1H = Ha^-1H
Let x in a^-1H so x = a^-1h => a = hx^-1.
Now aH = HaH so for h^-1ah_2 = ah_3
Now it gives you x^-1h_2 = ah_3 => x = h_2h_3^-1a^-1.
Now h_2h_3^-1a^-1 is in Ha^-1H, so x in Ha^-1H
It shows that a^-1H\subset Ha^-1H
Okay ill figure out the reverse inclusion
Is there not a simple way to write this with equality of sets?
HaH = {h_1ah_2 | h_1,h_2 in H }, so I took h_1 is h^-1 and h_2 is h_2 so there exists h_3 such that h^-1ah_2 = ah_3
Maybe the normializer idea works here
"Now h_2h_3^-1a^-1 is in Ha^-1H, so x in Ha^-1H" why?
this is an element of Ha^{-1}
oh yeah
nvm thats a subset of Ha^{-1}H
okay
Yes
And A has to be an integral domain
I don't get the exact meaning of R-algebra, here internal law of composition refers to bilinear form ?
no it just gives your vectors in A a multiplication
Like for example C(K) for K compact is a ring of continuous functions and becomes a C(K)-algebra with multiplcation (fg)(x) = f(x)g(x).
Why do I need K to be compact ?
So it just gives the new operation on A?
No K being compact is just a nice space
Take more generally the set of functions from A to B and add a ring structure to it in the natural way.
Okay
So here is a multiplication defined on Mat(R) as ordinary matrix multiplication?
Yeah exactly
If I remove the condition that f(s) = 0 for all but finitely many, still Map(S,R) is an R-module ?
I think yes
Yes
When I can say A is associative R-algebra?
so that this is a nicer structer analytically
for non-compact K, you can't get the topology induced by the sup norm
When it's an R-algebra such that
(ab)c = a(bc)
a,b,c from A, right?
Are non-associative algebras ever used?
does cross product count
I guess, but the contexts in which cross product is used, nobody knows what an algebra over a field is
yeah I wouldn't count it personally either lol
hopefully someone comes up with a better example than that 🤣
Lie algebras come up a lot.
Other than that, people do study other types of non associative algebras and just study them in general. But it's much more niche
actually i don't think that's a bad example, isn't it the bracket of the Lie algebra of SO(3)?
It's isomorphic at least
Oh, true. You can think of the Jacobi identity as a generalized associativity though.
Yeah, and there are a few other weak forms of associativity, like Jordan algebras or alternative algebras.
And then you have higher algebra stuff, where things are only associative up to homotopy
Isn't the Jacobi identity like "infinitesimalized" associativity 
Higher! 
Maybe. I really haven’t done lie algebras yet (just no courses on it here I think) so I don’t have a lot of intuition. I just know the def.
I don't think so. Like it's not connecting to associativity in the lie group in a similar way to how the bracket is connected to commutators.
For me the main take way is that [[X, Y], -] is the commutator of [X, -] and [Y, -]
oh interesting
then is it like the induced maps in homology are "truly" associative or something
i guess there's a pretty standard way to force associativity for all these examples
Yeah
Or more strongly in the homotopy category stuff is truly associative
Ah nice
Tbh I wanna learn more about this after going through the standard homological algebra stuff
Unrelated to what you replied to but I remember seeing that there’s an associator bracket idk how commonly that shows up
Like [x,y,z] = x(yz) - (xy)z
In Q/Z, for any positive integer n there are exactly phi(n) element of order n, correct?
Thats often though, its a coping method because complete nonassociativity makes you cry.
When working with loops/quasigroups people often just consider special associativity conditions like alternativity or something
Indeed, since the set of elements whose order divides n is iso to Z/nZ
(and is a subgroup, ofc)
If $G$ is the quotient group of $\operatorname{PSL}(2, \mathbf Z)$, find the number of supgroups of $G$ of index $m$ for $m \in {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6}$
imo2025
FEIN FEIN FEIN FEIN
let M be R-module and M is simple then i have to prove that M is generated by every non-zero element of M.
But if R is not unitary, then there is a possibility that there exist non-zero m such that rm = 0 for all r in R.
does i need to assume R is unitary ring?
maybe i am wrong here, submodule generated by m is {nm + rm | n in Z and r in R}
Well no this is incorrect if R is not unital
Remember the definition of a submodule generated by some set is the smallest submodule containing those elements
So by definition <m> must contain m
I can't think of a correct characterisation of this off the top of my head right now
so what is the structure of <m> ?
yes then i can conclude given statement, thank you
Yeah I think it's something like this
Should be there in dummit rings chapter
isn't?
Of course, you can canonically make R into a unital ring and be sane like the rest of the algebraic world
Nah
Oh..................................................................................................... lmao I misread
Guys if a ring R is commutative and semisimple then it's automatically artin right
Ofc my ring is unital 😛
Every semisimple ring is Artinian I thought
Unless you mean something else by Artin
Oh I need it to be an artin ring cause an artin ring is the product of artin local rings?
I think we might be talking past each other
Not sure what you mean by Artin if not Artinian
I do mean artinian
Probably
Yeah
So a product of fields is always artinian right
Yeah, the ideal structure is very easy to describe in that case
Right
There are only finitely many ideals
Sweet
4 in fact
I fear your textbook may have a special definition of semisimplicity
Like
By semisimplicity i mean it's like internal direct sum of ideals
Simple
Ideals
Uhh
Yeah I don't get it either. Hopefully someone who is more fluent in this stuff can comment
If I speak the name of jagr he shall appear
Dumb question but like if a ring is commutative and is also left artinian then that makes it artinian right?
Or probably not
Which would be weird
But it would be artinian
I believe that in some sources semisimple is defined as Jacobson radical = 0, and it's a theorem that for a (unital) ring, "regular module is direct sum of simple modules" is equivalent to "Jacobson radical 0 + Artinian".
then show commutative artinian rings are products of local rings
Not 100% sure about that though.
Wait what
Yeah pretty much “artinian” as a term means no infinite descending chains. You can slap it on left ideals, right ideals, two sided, subrings, what have you. Just depends on what the chains are and when the property occurs
So yeah left artinian implies artinian for commutative rings
This definition definitely satisfies left semisimple ⇔ right semisimple (non-obviously) and (left) semisimple ⇒ (left) Artinian (somewhat more obviously - R is fg, so R is a finite direct sum of simple modules which are Artinian, so R is Artinian).
We also have an equivalence iR is semisimple iff R is left artinian and rad(R)=0
i already have the result with me
My very tentative guess is the author originally learnt this with the Artinian hypothesis and didn't want to check all the proofs to see if it was needed anywhere.
Oh now I get it
Perhaps
Theorem (1)A: (i) ⇔ (ii). Theorem (1)B: if R is Artinian, (i) ⇔ (ii) ⇔ (iii).
Read it like this.
Chinese remainder theorem moment
Also I wish they said finite product of fields.
But if R is semisimple that automatically makes it artinian
Oh
Wait
I get it
Okay
Okay
@tough raven hey so what do you think of this?
Sorry for the ping
I feel like it would have been clearer to have point (iii) be "R is artinian and has no nilpotent elements"
So in (iii) we can't remove the R is artinian hypothesis can we
My goal was to kind of break down Galois theory to it’s bare bones and see how the conditions of a Field build up to the correspondence
No you can't remove it, but it's automatic in (i) and (ii) (assuming product means finite product), so kind of a weird way to phrase it
Okay thanks evrynyan (everyone) 
Re 2., you need to show that the double centraliser of a finite-K-rank subring of End_Z(K) is itself (i.e., that all of them are matched to a P by the correspondence). Re 3., I think you mean that the corresponding ring End_K(L) is a crossed product of L with the Galois group for L/K?
Yeah sorry, I pretty informally just typed that out in one of my classes
Otherwise, this looks good mathematically IG?
Pedagogically I would combine 1. and 2., because I think for anyone who hasn't seen any of this it's an unnecessary level of generality (since one doesn't go on to say much about the general setting, just immediately specialises to division rings). But tha depends on your reasons for writing this.
Fair enough
In retrospect I don’t think the double centralizer part actually depends on the subring being a division ring but eh
Another thing I wanted to try and find is a left artinian ring R, and a left semisimple module M such that the double centralizer of R’s image in end_Z(M) is NOT the image
It is in fact true for any free module over any ring, IIRC.
The simple case does satisfy double centralizer as a very simple corollary of Jacobson density
I’m not sure for every ring
Maybe division / left-simple rings?
End(M) = \Prod_V End_{D_V}(Hom(V, M))
The problem is those maps
The ones sending a basis to another
*basis vector/element
I don’t think they commute, is what I tried showing
Those maps do generate End_R(M) as a right-R module
End_{End(M)}(M) = ∏_{V appears in M} End_{D_V}(V)
Which IG is equal to the image of R if M is a finite direct sum of simple modules V, each of which is finite-dimensional over the division ring D_V := End(V)
So for example this should be true for M and R finite-dimensional over a field.
Is this true?
Yep.
hmmm
are we talking about division rings here
Because otherwise it doesn’t seem right to me
Consider M = R^N. Then End_R(M) ~= M_N(R^op)
Which isn’t iso to (R^op)^N
Oh hom(V,M)
Any semisimple module over any ring.
up to thi
Since the Jacobson radical annihilates all semi-simple modules you can wlog assume R is semi-simple here.
Ahh, thanks
I didn’t think about quotienting out the radical
I’ll come back to this after I finish my analysis work
Thank you, all
I don't get what is meant by the diagram of Z-module and Z-morphism here ?
ℤ is a ℤ-module
Yes then?
There's no ℤ-morphism which makes that diagram commute.
Or are you asking what a diagram is?
Suppose I have an ideal $(ab,f_1, \dots,f_l)$ of $k[x_1,\dots,x_n]$ where $k$ is some field. I believe there is some sort of condition under which you can say that $(ab,f_1, \dots,f_l) = (a,f_1, \dots,f_l) \cap (b,f_1, \dots,f_l)$. Does anyone remeber what it is? I can't find it.
stable compass needle
No but I don't understand why they take Z-morphism and Z-module ? I don't get the point here
Is there any chance this is wrong?
And it should be N_k relative to N_(k - 2)
The idea should be that we first find a basis of N_k relative to N_(k - 1), then of N_k relative to N_(k - 2) etc. until we are at a basis of N_k
Actually, I guess it is right like this, but what I said is correct too, so f_1, ..., f_t together with B(e_1), ..., B(e_s) form a basis of N_(k - 1) relative to N_(k - 2) but together with e_1, ..., e_s a basis of N_k relative to N_(k - 2)
I don't think it is wrong. B(e_i) and f_j form a basis of N_{k-1}/N_{k-2} and e_i form a basis of N_k/N_{k-1}; so e_i, B(e_i), f_j form a basis of N_k / N_{k-2}.
Yep.
And we end this process when we arrive at N_0 = Ker(A - lambda id)^0, right?
I mean my way of thinking about it, finding a basis of N_k relative to N_k - 1, then of N_k relative to N_k - 2 etc.
When we are at N_k relative to {0} we are done
And we get that when we are at relative to N_0, right?
N_0 = ker(A - l Id)^0 = ker(Id) = 0, in fact, so yes.
Thanks
Anyone?
Why are they taking two different structures of morphism at one time ?
Are they taking identity morphism as Z-morphism?
Got it
i cant see the 6 homomorphisms from Z_4 to Aut(Z_15) = Z_8 in part c
can someone help
Aut(ℤ_15) = (ℤ/15ℤ)^⨯ = (ℤ/3ℤ⨯ℤ/5ℤ)^⨯ = (ℤ/3ℤ)^⨯ ⨯ (ℤ/5ℤ)^⨯ = ℤ_2 ⨯ ℤ_4, not ℤ_8.
ah
In fact, there are only four homomorphisms (3 up to isomorphism) from ℤ_4 to ℤ_8.
I want to prove this one by myself, if there is a way to go step by step then please let me know
it's a diagram chase
for (a) you pick an element b of B' and chase around the diagram to find an element of B mapping to b and you have the case when b is in ker(g') and when b isn't in there
for (b) you have to show that any element in ker(gamma) is 0
also by chasing around the diagram
Let first case, b in ker(g') implies b in Im f' implies f'(a') = b, since \alpha is epimorphism thus \alpha(a ) = a', then...
g(f(a)) = 0
Do I need to construct a new morphism?
If you take a random magma its commutator bracket won't satisfy the Jacobi identity
But conversely if you take any Lie algebra the bracket is the commutator in its universal enveloping algebra
(wait what did I mean by infinitesimalized)
I got this case
Now for the case, y not in ker(g')
g'(y) ≠ 0 and h'(g'(y)) = 0 and gamma is epimorphism therefore \gamma(c) = g'(y)
So it implies that \delta (h(c)) = 0
But delta is monomorphism
h(c) = 0
g(b) = c for some b in B
g'(\beta(b) ) = \gamma(g(b)) = g'(y)
Got it thank you @wraith cargo
@serene dune @cloud walrus is here too
friendly reminder that not every matrix in O(n) has finite order
yeah that's crazy
$\begin{pmatrix} \cos1 & -\sin1 \ \sin1 & \cos1\end{pmatrix}^n=\begin{pmatrix} \cos n & -\sin n \ \sin n & \cos n\end{pmatrix}$
kitty queen
At least SO(2) is just Q/Z x Q^N
For bigger ns I guess the noncommutativity makes it more complicated
eigenvalues of O(2)\SO(2) is only +1 ?
The eigenvalues of matricies in O(2) \ SO(2) are ±1, if that's what you're asking
oh i was realy trying to classify the unipotent maps
$G=\left{e^{i\theta},\middle|,\theta\in\Bbb Q\right}$. Then $G$ is not a closed subset of $S^1$, and therefore it is not compact.
yeshua
idk if its valueable but a tangent
You mean the torsion elements of O(2)?
haha, i was trying to reach these sort of statement but i had no information
i have to learn about torsion, is that finite order related ?
Yeah, it just means to have finite order
right!
also i was trying to classify the elements outside of O(n) which was looking scary
I think it's probably easier if you don't restrict yourself to O(n)
wiki says from the characteristics polynomial we can see all the eignevalues should be +1
that was sort of my naive conclusion
Then I think your looking at the wikipage for unipotent matrices
In mathematics, a unipotent element r of a ring R is one such that r − 1 is a nilpotent element; in other words, (r − 1)n is zero for some n.
In particular, a square matrix M is a unipotent matrix if and only if its characteristic polynomial P(t) is a power of t − 1. Thus all the eigenvalues of a unipotent matrix are 1.
The term quasi-unipoten...
Right, but is that what you wanted to classify?
i started from there
Okay, I guess I was just confused by the context
well i wasnt super precise either, i just saw some properties related to it and wanted to classify if thats possible
i once posted this but i thought maybe i was being super dumb
why isn't the finite order subgroup of SO(2) just Q/Z?
It is
oh nice pfp by the way
ohh but why then Q^N?
is there an easy to see that it needs to be Q^N?
Don't know if you'd call it easy, but
exp(2pi x): R -> SO(2)
shows SO(2) = R/Z.
R is a vector space over Q, and you can argue by cardinality reasons that R and Q^N have the same dimension. Hence R = Q^N = Q x Q^N
Then R/Z = Q/Z x Q^N
= means "is isomorphic to" everywhere here
oh that is actually really easy
is it lie related stuff ?
not being in school is taking a toll on me rn
if i understand correctly in R = Q^N = Q x Q^N the first Q is generated by the basis vector "1"?
sumptuous observation 🪷
Yeah that's right
thx
This is part of an obscenely long problem so I can provide more context if needed but anyway,
\\
Let $R = \frac{k\langle x,y\rangle}{(xy-qyx)}$ for $q \in k^\times$ and $q$ not a root of unity. Let $P$ be a prime ideal of $R$. Ive shown that $y^mx^n \in P$ for some $n,m$ and im now trying to show that one of $x$ or $y$ is in $P$. We have that $y^mx^nR \subseteq P$ since $P$ is an ideal and then i think that we can just pull $x^n$ through $R$ as we can just commute it past any element of $R$ and pick up some like power of $q$ which will still just multiply to be in $R$ so we have that $y^mx^nR = y^mRx^n \subseteq P$
\\
Then since $P$ is prime we know one of $x^n$ and $y^m$ are in $P$ but im not seeing how to get from there to $x$ or $y$ is in $P$. Im guessing its just decomposing it in someway thats probably quite obvious but im not quite seeing it
Nope
well u can take out countable copies of Q, no ?
but i didnt get the basis argument
why we take 1 as a basis vector?
or what exactly
or jagr mentioned vector space, i missed that point
yeshua
Well, by the same argument you did, if x^n is in P, then
xRx^n-1 is in P. Then just induction your way
Oh yeah jesus thats obvious thanks jagr
I will actually ask an intelligent question here at some point, i promise I can actually do algebra 
Better than my babble
With that ive finally finished a page long lemma I need for the actual problem im trying to do, ive got plenty of babble
hi, would anyone be kinda willing to tutor me through group theory using this example question ...? 
do vii first after i
Is anyone able to help at all with Weyl algebra problems? I genuinely just dont know how to work with any higher terms than the first, like ive got the problem,
Let $n$ be a positive integer and consider the $n^{\text{th}}$ Weyl algebra $A_n(k)$. Recall that $x^\alpha y^\beta$ with $\alpha,\beta \in \mathbb{N}^n$ is the standard basis for $A_n(k)$. Give formulae in terms of the basis for,
[x_ix^\alpha y^\beta - x^\alpha y^\beta x_i \text{ and } y_i x^\alpha y^\beta - x^\alpha y^\beta y_i.]
Nope
and i just legitimately dont know how to work with this, its just kinda too big, I really cant wrap my head around it.
The end goal is to show that A_n(k) is simple, and this is like easy enough for A_1(k) because you just consider a submodule, take an element of degree n g, then do like 1/(lamba n!) y^n \cdot g = 1 so you generate all of A_1(k), and obviously I get that the idea will be the same for A_n(k) but i just cant wrap my head around the computations in there
try asking in #advanced-algebra
what progress have you made/what part are you on
stuck on the first proof for i) 😢
just closure, associativity, identity and iunverse?
first 3 are simple and can be shown in general for every element in mod n
for inverse, try to find out for each element, hopefully u will see a pattern, generalise it for arbitrary element in the group
for part a, i think a=x, b=x^4y works and in part b if we square these we get a^2 = x^2 which generates Z_4 and b^2 = y^2 which generates Z_2. can someone point out the problem here
does <x> x <x^4y> generate G? im very confused
well i thought u need to figure out order 8, and 4 elements and take their intersection
I'm trying to find the inverse for (i) in sasha's problems, I'm reviewing group theory
oh what have you thought?
try to word it
order 8 elements: x, xy, xy^2, xy^3.
order 4 elements: y, x^2y, x^4y
Sorry i dont understand what you mean by intersection
like pairing them?
i mean i dont see why we need to take intersection
oh for some reason i thought u need to express a in terms of x and b in terms of y
ah ic yeah no i need to find the couples a,b which generate G. and from this i see that there are 12 couples but for part b many couples a^2,b^2 also generate H. take for example a=x^2 (generates Z_4) and b = x^4y^2 (generates Z_2)
I think you have to prove the first procedure, the $\vdots$ part is iffy, I think it only works in $\mathbb{Z}_n$ with prime $n$, which is true for $13$
Rain King
oh yeah u are right, 13 is prime, and if u know some rings that's trivial to figure out
ao u have inverse for all non zero elements, which ticks the final box for group
I'm stumped with 15 here. it's in the first groups chapter of the book so it supposes you don't know many of the strong theorems in group theory, any ideas?
An idea I got: I reformulated the problem to finding a surjective function $f:A^2\rightarrow G$ where without loss of generality $G={e,x_1,x_2,\ldots,x_5}$ with identity $e$ and $x_i$ all different (including different from $e$). $f$ is defined by $f(i,j)=x_i x_j$ and must have the properties
- $f(i,j)\neq x_i$ and $f(i,j)\neq x_j$. (Otherwise, $x_i x_j = x_i$ then $x_j=e$.)
- There exists $m$ and $n$ such that $f(m,n)\neq f(n,m)$. (So that $G$ isn't commutative.)
If such a function exists, then not all groups of six elements are commutative.
This reformulation however, doesn't seem to make the problem any less complicated. I guess there must be a counter-example? I think I might not have given it a serious try to prove it must be commutative.
Rain King
have you seen cayley's theorem and group actions?
no, this is on the first groups chapter. maybe it's one of those problems you just can't solve with the available tools
i see then there should be a solution from a simple counting approach i think
yeah but I tried to give a counter example with a cayley table and it just made my brain hurt. maybe you can prove it's commutative
take possible subgroups (1,x,x^2); (1,y)
but H has to also satisfy the given constrain, no ?
@gusty tangle u figured it right ?
no, I started some latex notes on the groups chapter, and after that I will give it another try, or maybe tomorrow (I already spent 3+ hours on this exercise)
oh i was asking coz i dont know if u can use that tool or not, it seemed to be the primitive tool tho
well just write down the possible gorup elements from that, and hopefully u will see the thing
What is the given constraint on H? I thought it is enough to find generators that give Z_4 times Z_2. Since H is isomorphic to that group
well tbh the problem is a bit dizzing, but i meant this to be the constrain
So a,b should also satisfy a^2b = b^2?
Hmm I see yeah I did not pay any attention to that detail
try to take the elements u have generated and plug in
oh u got it, nonetheless the calculation is a bit dizzy
I don't get how to use this. If I say (1,x,x^2) is a group, then it only has 2 or 1 element depending on whether x^2 is x or 1. If I take x from the original 6 elements group, then (1,x,x^2) might not be a subgroup, if it is, and it's not trivial, then it is (1,x) with x as its own inverse. I get that you can take all five such subgroups, but I don't get what to do with them, it just makes the original group have the elements be all its own inverse, but I still have the problem of proving whether or not there is a counter-example for commutativity or a proof of commutativity. Sorry if I don't get it
at first prove the existence of such subgroup
then generate all the element of the group
by right and left multiplication
try to compare
This is literally all I get from the first chapter of the book I'm using before it throws to you 14 exercises and then 15 I showed you. Also all example previous to this exercise are commutative.
right
but u have to consider two ways of multiplication right
to even begin the conversation of non abelian
I will try this. Don't you happen to know a better undergrad abstract algebra book? One that doesn't use categories
oh boi, books are personal choice imo
i didnt use any book for group theory reading, but dummit foote is a classic
I literally skipped all my group theory classes and somehow passed ring theory kek
KEK
awesome
PINTER
ALGEBRA
i never did math in uni
but i know a friend who had rings with linear algebra II in their school
HUFFMAN KUNZE XXD
I have never been convinced by any group theory book, I think they explain it in an overwhelming way, things are smoothed out when you get to the rings.
well understanding happens not in pages
i understood group to somehow degree in order to abstractly classify them
and i mostly used groupwiki and personal scribbles
i believe ud get two differnt tables, sorry i missed that point
oof, I remember reading this one on my kindle. I think I never found a good pdf scan, I'm looking into one. I loved chapter 1, puts things into context
We can conclude that, g is epimorphism and ker g \subset ker v.
So what the next step? Any idea
I came across this equation $E^m / \alpha \times E^n / \beta = E^{m+n}$ on a window, but I can’t figure out what it means. The notation leads me to think it’s abstract algebra. Any pointers?
rocketll
hmmmm
Why would it be abstract algebra 
Quotient/extension notation, and otherwise wouldn’t make much sense? Shot in the dark tbh
Maybe alpha bet = 1 🤷
In an application, if one quickly wants to find these vectors, one needs to find $v \in \langle e_1, \dots, e_s \rangle \setminus \l \langle \ker(\dots) \cup {v_1, \dots, v_l} \r \rangle$. Is there any general procedure for this?
Without guessing?
I proved all parts but I am stuck at showing f is surjective.
Do I need to use isomorphism theorem?
Take an element x in A2', you know π1(i2(x))=0, what can you say about i2(x)?
\pie_1 is surjective and i2(x) is injective
oh wait
It should follow from the existence of g.
how g helps me here?
g gives that
pi1 = g pi2
yes commutative
So
pi1 i2 = g pi2 i2 = 0
yes
why is the highlighted statement true?
So therefore the image of i2 is inside the image of i1
IDK. Maybe compute ker(A) by Gaussian elimination, then change to a basis where it has basis the first k vectors (so A has k columns 0 followed by linearly independent vectors). Then you solve for A^2 x = 0 i.e. Ax has all but first k columns 0 (equivalently, ker(B) where B is the last n-k rows and columns of A) and change to a basis where a basis of ker(B) is the next k' columns, etc.
At the end this should leave you with a block-upper triangular matrix with 0 diagonal blocks with the basis being the g_k, ..., f_j, e_i you need to continue
yeah got it, thank you
Thanks! How does one interpret $\langle \langle w_1, \dots, w_n \rangle \cup {v_1, \dots, v_s}\rangle$? It's not the same as $\langle w_1, \dots, w_n, v_1, \dots, v_s \rangle$, right?
Kepe
that’s an oddly niche thing to put up on a wall like that
Over a perfect field $F$, the splitting field $E$ is Galois over $F$, and since $K\supseteq E$ is radical extension we have that $\textrm{Gal}(E/F)\leq \textrm{Gal}(K/F)$ and since a subgroup of a solvable group is solvable, we are done
mh_le
Not quite.
Gal(K/E) is a subgroup of Gal(K/F), but since E is normal, it's a normal subgroup with quotient group Gal(E/F)
Why can we say that the subgroup fixed by E is normal?
It is.
Oh
Because E is normal.
E being normal implies any automorphism of K leaves E invariant.
@rocky cloak what does it mean that a subfield is "normal"?
An extension E/F is normal if any irreducible polynomial over F that has a root in E splits in E.
When I say E is normal, I mean that the extension E/F is normal
And automorphism means F-automorphism
These are all statements about extensions
and if E/F is Galois to begin with, why need an extension K?
Is every splitting field over a field of char = 0 Galois?
Well you wanted to prove that Gal(E/F) was solvable
Yes, every extension in characteristic 0 is seperable
I guess 12 is about products while 29 is about biproducts.
They are the same for R-mod though, except for the extra data of the inclusion maps
But if E/F is Galois, why do we need the Galois extension K containing E?, wait is it because Gal(K/F) <= Gal(E/F) ?
Wdym extra data of the inclusion maps ?
... because you wanted to prove that Gal(E/F) was solvable.
Like you know that Gal(K/F) is solvable, and that Gal(E/F) is a quotient group, hence it is solvable.
I don't know that Gal(E/F) is a quotient group
Okay, well it is. So now you know I guess
can you tell me why?
So say s is an automorphism of K, and let e be in E. Then we know that s must map e to a root of its minimal polynomial. Since E is normal the minimal polynomial has all roots in E, so s(e) is in E.
That means that restricting s to E gives an automorphism of E. So there is a homomorphism Gal(K/F) -> Gal(E/F) given by restriction.
Then you just need to verify that this is surjective. Consider t in Gal(E/F), and consider k in K. We want to extend t to E(k).
Consider t as an automorphism of the polynomial ring E[x]. And let p be the minimal polynomial of k over E, and let q be the minimal polynomial over F. Then p divides q, so t(p) divides t(q) = q.
Since q has a root (namely k) and K is normal, it splits in K. Hence t(p) splits. Let k' be a root of t(p). Then you can extend t to E(k) by maping k to k'. Continuing this with Zorn's lemma you can extend t to all of K, hence the mapping is surjective.
The last part can also be seen as the combined statements of if K/E is algebraic, then any homomorphism from E to an algebraically closed field extends to a homomorphism from K.
And if K/F is normal then any homomorphism from K to its algebraic closure has image K
Well, maybe they're using the notation a little different here. But usually I'd say the biproduct L(+)N consists of projection piL and piN together with inclusions iL and iN such that piL iL is the identity on L, piN iN is the identity on N and iL piL + iN piN is the identity in L(+)N
In practice the proof should be identical either way
I have a question that I want to solve.
Factor $x^4 + x + 1 \in \mathbb{F}_2[x]$ into product of irreducibles over $\mathbb{F}_4$.
The facts I understand is $\mathbb{F}_2(\alpha) = \mathbb{F}_4$ where $\alpha$ is the root of $x^2 + x + 1$. But how can I proceed further from here ?
mycroftholmes1703
First step might be to check if it has a root in F4.
And if not you could try to factor it into a product of quadratics
For the first part, we can choose E = A × B such that f(a) = (a,0) and g(a,b) = b
The second part comes from Five Lemma, because we can map A to A by Identity, B to B by identity.
Correct?
I thought E was an extension of B by A
Not an extension of A by B
why? f is injective and g is surjective, yes i wrote g(a,b) = (0,b) it is b
@rocky cloak thanks!
Both terminologies are used.
Extension of A by B makes sense, because E contains A, so is an extended version of A (see field extension / extension of rings)
Whereas extension of B by A just comes from matching the order of things in Ext(B, A) (whose notation comes from Hom(B, A))
Gotcha
Question is: What is the number of different colourings of the sides of a rectangle with k different colours mod $D_4$ (as in the dihedral group). And the solution is $ 1/8(k^4+2k^3+3k^2+2k) $. This is solvable by the non-Burnside Theorem. And i did understand, that the $k^4$ corresponds to all sides have different colouring, $3k^3$ corresponds to 3 sides have different colouring and the remaining one has a different colour and $2k^2$ is for 2 sides share one colour and the other 2 have different colouring. But why 2k?? Following the logic, shouldn't it be just k, cause now all sides have the same colour? And then, those values correspond to the order of the following set: ( {x \in M: ax = x }) for M a set and $a$ in the group that is acting on M. And i get that a is the identity in the first case $(k^4)$ but what happens for the other cases?
Marieeee
hey, I solved it. It was my fault for not reading the examples. In particular there is this one example of a group of 6 elements which is not commutative:
not commutative
oh yeah that's perfect, now u know dihedral group basically
I got the idea yesterday, that there were some examples of symetry groups which were not commutative. But I went to sleep before looking for an order 6 example
notice there are 2 subgroups
(1, x, x^2), (1,y)
well this way of generating groups will help u down the way
now the task is can you claasify all the groups of order 6
you don't have to produce table for all
doesn't the fact that all elements of a p group have order p^k follow pretty directly from Lagrange?
okay yeah pretty sure it does
whaaa the center of a p group is nontrivial? yo that's sick
they dont have to have order p
this is a pretty important fact especially if you have not seen class equations
yeah it can have all sort of center, for example look p,p^,p^3
The set $U = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10}$ forms a group under multiplication modulo 11.
Show that $U$ is cyclic and write down its generators.
Bitwise
I got the answers 2,6,7,8 by trial, however the textbook answer just calculates 2 then uses gcd(2^m, 10) = 1 and gets 6,7,8 from there. It never mentioned this before so I don't really understand how that works, could anyone explain?
did you show its cyclic?
then is that not a generator
Yes
it is
I may have phrased it badly, I don't understand this "gcd(2^m, 10) = 1" and how that leads to the other generators
not how they got 2
oh i see what youre asking. could you send the excerpt? because that statement is not true
oh
the same question was posted in the North but with 13
what do u need help with in particular
I don't understand where gcd(2^n, 10) = 1 comes from
like how does that give the other generators
what is your meta goal
Sorry?
Ideally an intuitive reason for why that's the case and a proof, if Im interpreting your question right
yep
well many ways to reach there
True, I originally just tried all of them, but I want to understand why this alternative also works
the point is that all elements are expressible as 2^n. you want another generator (which we write as the form 2^n) such that the subgroup it generates also has order 10
observe the order of elements. or take gcd
I think there's a typo here. It should be 2^n where n is such that gcd(n, 10) = 1.
Generally for an element g in a group G, the order of g^n is o(g)/gcd(n, o(g)) where o(g) is the order of g.
So n such that gcd(n, 10) = 1 gives you the other elements of order 10 in the group
Hey how do I prove this statement on the left ideals of M_n(C)
I mean i don't see how this intersection is not the trivial subspace
Remember this is the intersection of null spaces in one ideal
Yeah
So let's choose an ideal
Okay
Let's say n = 2
and let's choose the ideal generated by $\begin{bmatrix} 1 & 0 \ 0 & 0 \end{bmatrix}$
$\mathbf{Boytjie}$
Yeah I was thinking about that too because if it's 2^n then can't n be 0 to get gcd(1,10) which satisfies their condition but 1 obviously can't be a generator. Is my reasoning correct?
OK so we know for sure that the intersection of the null spaces of all the elements of the ideal must, in particular, be a subspace of the null space of this matrix, yes?
Now I claim that in fact this is exactly the intersection
Yes, so it should be gcd(n, 10)
Why? Because let's say this matrix I chose is called M. Then everything in the ideal is of the form AM for some matrix A. So in fact if Mv = 0 then also AMv = 0. The null space can only grow.
So we know that it is at most null(M) and at least null(M), so it is null(M).
Clear?
Yes, my ideal is indeed nice.
What about non nice things
The ideal may or may not have trivial intersection, but this was not the question.
Uh
The great thing is that all the ideals are nice 😉
The statement asserts that in fact this is a bijection
Alright thanks a lot, this clears it up a little more but I still need to try understand on how gcd(n,10)=1 gives the other elements of order 10
Indeed it does not provide a proof, but perhaps you should try showing this
Yes, so I would recommend trying prove that the order of g^n is o(g)/gcd(n, o(g))
Okay but still I am uh kind of not uh
Uh
Okay for a proper left ideal of M_n(C) why is this intersection non trivial
Think about the converse. Say the intersection is trivial, why is the ideal everything?
Well if v1 is a basis vector it contains a matrix with Av1 nonzero.
Then there is a matrix B that maps Av1 to v1. Composing this with the projecttion onto v1 you get that this projecttion is in your ideal. Same true for all the other basis vectors, then just adding them gives the identity
No like that converse is clear
Sorry, I meant contrapositive
Okay
Okay that clears it
One more question
If i replace C by a division ring
Then would it still be true
Thanks somuch
But before I go does this mean anything deep
You just meant that ideals are precisely the anhilators of subspaces?
Or was it sth else
$G$ is cyclic of order $|G|$ with generator $g$. Then $g^n$ is a generator if its order is $|G|$.
The order of $g^n$ is the smallest $m$ such that $(g^n)^m = e$, meaning $g^{nm} = e$. Since $g$ has order $|G|$, $|G|$ divides $nm$. Given $\gcd(n, |G|) = 1$, $m = |G|$ as n and $|G|$ share no factors, so $g^n$ has order $|G|$ and is a generator.
Bitwise
Don't know if it's super deep, but in general for a ring R an ideal is a direct summand of R iff it's equal to Re for an idempotent e.
These matrix rings are semisimple meaning every ideal is a direct summand. So every ideal is Re, and in this case e is a projection onto a subspace (of C^n)
I tried doing it this way, is this right?
Thanks alot for the help, I had been stuck on this for a bit and the book being incorrect had just confused me even more
I dont understand how the elements in a polynomial ring gets constructed. i dont understand polynomial rings at all in fact. can someone help me understand?
they are polynomials with coefficients in some base ring
you can add, subtract, and multiply polynomials but you generally can't divide them - hence a ring of polynomials
define polynomial please
for simplicity lets fix one variable X, and call the base ring k. a polynomial is a finite linear combination of k_mX^m + \dots + k_1x^1 + k_0
as polynomials are from grade school math
i find all constructions ive found to be rather disgusting
?
yea? im just saying what ive experience
are you familiar with polynomials from middle school algebra
OK
y = x^2 + 2x + 1
A polynomial in R is a function $f \colon \mathbb N \to R$ such that, for all but finitely many values $n \in \mathbb N$, we have $f(n) = 0$.
The ring $R[X]$ is then the set of these polynomials. Addition is $$f + g \colon n \mapsto f(n) + g(n)$$, and multiplication is $$fg \colon n \mapsto \sum_{a \in \mathbb N} f(a)\cdot g(n-a).$$
did you set your tex bot font
$\mathbf{Boytjie}$
how to
OK Jonas, is this what you're looking for?
i mean i can accept that but my prof told me the elements in a polynomial ring werent functions
Ah I think you need the command ,preamble, that way you can import font packages
bleh
Right! This is the real question at hand
Indeed
What your prof wants to distinguish is polynomials vs polynomial functions
Let me put it this way
When you write out a polynomial as e.g. 1 + x^2 + 5x^6 or whatever, this looks like it's a function from R to R
But in fact, we don't want to consider polynomials as functions from R to R
That loses a LOT of information
For example, are you aware of the field with two elements, F_2? F_2[x] is an infinite ring, as you can probably see. However there are only finitely many functions F_2 -> F_2
So clearly we are not considering polynomials as functions on F_2 here.
Does this clear things up?
i mean it clears up why she would say that. but doesnt this mean we have to go back and revise the definition? or do we just live with two different?
I feel like I just explained why she would say that. The ring of polynomials and the ring of polynomial functions on R are typically not the same