#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 279 of 1
What are the orbits of Stab(S) in S?
Different action
But yeah
There we go
Well, I think some of those will end up being equal.
Stab(S) acts on S by sending elements of S to elements of S
It doesn’t fix every element of S
Yeah I meant that like
So Stab(S) acts on S
What are the orbits?
Elements of S of some kind ?
Describe them explicitly
Uhhh
Don’t think too hard
Idk
Oh u mean i will be able to create x^n-1(y+1) with x^n(y+1) qnd the other members ?
Aren't they called orbits of x
Oh okay
What can you conclude about S itself
Wouldn't surprise me at least
It's a disjoint union of cosets of stab(S)?
And we stated |S| is coprime to |G|
👍
But even then, (x^3+3x^2 +2xy y^2 -1, ) will Never be simple in ( x^3 +3x^2 +2xy , y^2 -1 , x^n(y+1)) will it ?
Right cool
Okay it wasn't that hard lol
I'll take a look 
Tldr:
if we have a finite group G, every subset S is a disjoint union of cosets of its left-multiplication stabilizer Stab(S), so |Stab(S)| | |S|
That is the fundamental lemma for Sylow’s theorems
I might have actually forgotten sylow's proof
Which basically partitions the set of subsets of order p^n based off the power of p for the orders of their stabilizers
Right
I wonder if you can use the same bs to do solvability arguments
nobody remembers that sylow theorems are FAKE i HATE them
They’re not too bad :c
Group theory goated

I might consider going into geometric group theory which is not group theory entirely but yeah
I have been trying to do some silly bs where I identify subsets of cardinalities dividing the order of the group by the prime decomposition of their stabilizer’s order lmao
And doing arguments based off of that to try and find normal subgroups
Like how if there is one Sylow subgroup then it’s normal
I think group theory atleast for finite groups is essentially combinatorics
Basically yes
Which is based
be warned if you talk about finite groups too much you'll summon demons who will use words like "fusion systems" to confuse you
@delicate orchid
goated
Poisson?
wait what
this isn't evne right
dawg I was so confused
Think they meant no group of order 36 is simple
Yeah I meant that I didn't remember the exact statement anymore lol
Me when cyclic group
I just pulled something out of my ass
36 = 6^2
dawg
small prime divisors
how am I even supposed to use Sylow
y'ain't even throw a bone
My favorite way to show wild isomorphisms is to use Sylow group actions
Groups act on their own Sylow groups lmao
Guys if y'all could check #advanced-algebra message 🙌
You can show there is no simple group of order 24 using a psychotic Sylow action argument
I need to remember it
Oh I know lmao
If |G| = 24 and G is simple, then every group action by G is faithful.
G has either 1 or 3 Sylow 2-groups, and there must be 3 due to simplicity. That means G acts by conjugation on the 3 Sylow subgroups faithfully, meaning G embeds into S_3, a contradiction as |G| > |S_3| = 6 lmao
Speaking of which, is there a name for the kernel of a group action?
For modules it’s the annihilator
What’s up
Fusion systems are easy it’s centric linking systems which are fucked
And this implies that every action from a simple group is faithful implying that it acts faithfully by conjugation on all it’s Sylow group collections
Idk what the implications of that is
every action of a simple group is faithful
The trivial action:
Well beyond the trivial one obv
A less boring answer, action on the cosets of a proper subgroup
Since that’s the only nonfaithful one
But there’s a kernel for the action no? So it has to be faithful as there can’t be a non proper/trivial kernel
Stabilisers need not be normal
These aren’t representations they’re G-sets
Stabilizing the whole set
Yeah… a subgroup fixes all of its cosets…
I’m super confused
Well it fixes one anyway
The other ones you have to do transfer nonsense to figure out where they go
Eh fuck group theory
tru
Groups are fun
Do you like groups or rings more
Well
Eh weird to compare them lol
But I don't do group theory and am more interested in AG so in that sense rings
Hbu
the heck is a g-set
set with g action
I mean
representations are in bijections with group actions (?)
they're not?
Every representation consists of a group acting on a set, but not every group action on a set is a representation?
Given a group acting on a set there is an associated permutation representation, but not every representation arises this way
so no
Sure
You can always linearize a group action into a linear representation.
And every linear representation has a group action associated with it.
surely this now follows from like Schröder–Bernstein
I wasn't saying it was a Functorial relation 
lol
I'm too sleepy for this
But I thought statements in group actions usually had broader representation theoretic generalizations
Like burnside's lemma
I think Burnside's lemma is just an example of something which can be proved as a statement both about permutation representations and about group actions.
fair, burnsides lemma is essentially just interpreting an inner product
Based on my experience so far, I like learning about rings more
Im excited to learn algebraic geometry
Consider a polynomial $x^3+ax^2+bx+c$ with rational coefficients with roots $\alpha_1,\alpha_2,\alpha_3$ and Galois group $\Z/3\Z$. Can you calculate $\alpha_1^2\alpha_2+\alpha_2^2\alpha_3+\alpha_3^2\alpha_1$ and $\alpha_1^2\alpha_3+\alpha_2^2\alpha_1+\alpha_3^2\alpha_2$ in terms of $a,b,c$?
croqueta3385
I mean you can given that you can write the roots in terms of radicals, but I would like a simpler expression
yes
by Newton's theorem every symmetric polynomial can be expressed in terms of the elementary ones
yes, but these polynomials are not symmetric
What is Q[x, y, z]^{Z/3}?
A^2+B^2 and A+B are symmetric
yep
wher A=alpha_1^2 · alpha_2+..., B=alpha_1^2 · alpha_3+...
Anyway the way I would go about this is that you want to understand some polynomials which are in K = Q[a_1, a_2, a_3]^{Z/3Z}
in terms of the symmetric polynomials L = Q[e_1, e_2, e_3]
K/L is a quadratic extension so there is a quadratic formula for the elements you want in terms of the coefficients
right
here it's easy to work out by hand: Tr(A) = A + B and Nm(A) = AB I assume
yeah
so that's your expression then
right. (T-A)(T-B) is a polynomial in T with symmetric coefficients. One can then use the quadratic formula
A^2 - Tr(A)A + AB = 0 then you are left with expressing the coefficients in terms of the coefficients of the polynomial you started with
More generally, I am interested in calculating norm forms given roots alpha_1,...,alpha_n of some polynomial of degree n. Like prod_sigma ((sigma alpha_1 )x_1+...+(sigma alpha_n) x_n) where sigma runs through all elements of the Galois group. Are there reasonable algorithms?
I don't know of any reasonable algorithms for this which are particularly fast
Are there formulas in general?
like you are only allowed to take radicals and stuff
the corresponding extension K/L need not be solvable
for the norm? not just in terms of the roots, you have to know how galois acts on them.
what if I tell you it's cyclic and the degree is prime?
i guess it depends on what exactly you want to know
if you only care about some power of the norm you can pretend its S_n
hmm interesting
yeah, I did realize that
but then, I suppose you can have different forms f,g with f(x)^n=g(x)^n, right?
yes definitely
well actually
not over Q
like if you are looking at norm forms over Q then they have unique Q-valued nth roots
if n is odd
I don't think this is true actually
unless I'm being stupid
why's that?
Say for the case cubic cyclic. You are taking a product of $\prod_{cyc}(\alpha_1 x+\alpha_2 y+\alpha_3 z)$ (cyc is meant to permute cyclically the $\alpha_i$). This is not symmetric in $x,y,z$, and there is no reason why powers of this should be symmetric
croqueta3385
the product will be symmetric though because it will lie in Q
yes, but you are not allowed to permute the alpha_i freely
In particular, if A!=B (A, B as above) then it's not symmetric
uhhh
So my logic was
we want to compute Nm^{H}_{S_n}
ah I see
yeah I was being foolish
btw, if f(x)^n is symmetric, then f(x) is symmetric, right?
I don't exactly understand the question
like f(x) is a standin for a polynomial in many variables
okay
I would guess that is true for n \geq 5 anyway if youre looking at f(x)^m and m > 2
otherwise x_1 - x_2 isn't symmetric but its square is
in general this would work for \prod_{i < j} (x_i - x_j)
the point is by galois theory if f(x)^n is symmetric but f(x) is not then that tells you that there is a Kummer subextension of Q(x_1, \dots, x_n)/Q(e_1, \dots, e_n)
but then there would be a normal subgroup of S_n, yada yada
yeah I was writing that. But like, you might as well just prove it for C(x_1,...,x_n), no? This way when you adjoin f to the symmetric polynomials, your extension is Galois (because you have roots of unity)
and so it's a quotient of S_n
it doesn't matter either way because Q(x_1, \dots, x_n) is normal
so allegedly if one root of a polynomial is in it, so are all of them
yes but you want Q^sym(x_1,...,x_n) < Q^sym(x_1,...,x_n)(f) to be normal
no I just want to know that SymPoly(f) generates a subextension of Poly_n which is normal and whose galois group is solvable
like the point is the normal closure of X^n - p(x) is always solvable
anyway
yeah but can't you just use that there are no nth roots of unity in Q then?
I suppose
I was wondering if you can classify the cubic forms in three variables that occur as norm forms of cubic cyclic fields
up to what?
idk what's the standard thing. I suppose one should ignore change of basis for example. I think that amounts to acting by GL_3 or something?
yeah
such fields are given by cubic (irreducible) polynomials with square discriminant if I'm not mistaken
Okay i think for the case you gave of cyclic degree p there is some hope for this problem
yeah
$\raisebox{.2em}{SO(n+1)} \big/ \raisebox{-.2em}{SO(n)} \cong S^n$
yeshua
any hint of the proof ?
action is matrix multiplication right ?
alr, imma try that
on a short note
$\mathbb{R} / \mathbb{Z} \cong S^1$
yeshua
what about this one ?
See if you can find a homomorphism from R to S1.
It might help to think of S1 as a subset of the complex numbers
yeah i have a intuitive geometry going on my head for this one
$\varphi : \mathbb{R} \to \mathbb{C}, \ \
x \mapsto e^{2\pi ix}), \
kernel(\varphi) = \mathbb{Z}$
yeshua
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guys
im having a stupid moment here
K is the spltiting field of an irred poly f of deg n
irred seperable polyu
or whatever
now for my argument i have that Gal(K/F) is abelian
so by the fundamental theorem i now have that all interemediate extensions are normal
why is it that these extensions are F(a_i) where a_i is a root of f
this is probably easy but im just being tupid
You should need more hypotheses on your extension I think, since all the extensions F(a_i)/F are of degree n
whilst K/F could be of much higher degree
I mean for example consider the splitting field of the cyclotomic polynomial phi_n over Q - this is always going to be an abelian Galois extension of Q and not every subfield is generated by a root of phi_n (e.g. almost all roots of unity are not real but there are non-trivial real subextensions)
... yeah
ur right
but wait
can i say that K is F(a_i) for some root ?
K is the splitting field itself
and now by the fundamental theorem ik it's normal so can i just say it's simple ?
adjoining any root of f
Yeah, since the Galois group is abelian, every intermediate extension is normal, so F(ai) is normal
thank you king
Being normal is equivalent to being closed under the galois action, thus F(a_i) being normal implies that g(a_i)\in F(a_i) for every g\in G, but since f is irred G acts transitively on the roots, so F(a_i)=K
oh wow yeah
ur smart
ty
Being normal is equivalent to being closed under the galois action
so cool
(In general you can phrase it as every map K->\bar F actually maps into K)
If you don't wanna do it relative to some galois extension
How do I grasp the concepts of fields, Integral domains and division rings more intuitively? It’s a bit hard to keep track of the definitions and I’m unable to devise proofs for why a certain thing like C (complex numbers) would be a field or ID or division ring
Shaloming Home
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phi(r) = (r, x) seems like a good idea, so just continue with that
I just checked it now, I get 12 unique elements with that, and they obey homomorphism properties and is bijective so I constructed an isomorphism
Maybe the stack exchange post mistyped something
I think you do just need to memorize the definitions and their implications at the start, and then have a few good concrete examples of each at hand
An integral domain that is not a field is Z for example
Also like, how can I prove that an n x n matrix over real numbers is a field or integral domain only if n = 1? Like I can provide a counterexample that for n = 2 there are matrices that don’t allow it to be a field/integral domain but isn’t there a formal proof that everything n > 1 is not a field or integral domain when it comes to n x n matrices?
I'd suggest playing with some matrices that have 0s on the diagonal
or mostly 0 entries for that matter
True that’s a way of showing a counterexample that I was thinking of, but I thought formally since I can’t write down counterexample for n = 2, n = 3, n = 4 etc etc I should use something like induction?
well I think we can make a simple example of some various form and formalize that
what examples have you found let's see if we can shape them up a bit?
Like say “I claim n = 1 holds for all real numbers” then separately say like “for every n >= 2 it does not hold, then for the k + 1 part show that n = 3 doesn’t work”
that's not what I think of as an example, I'm thinking of writing down a specific 2x2 matrix
Like a two by two matrix that doesn’t work?
right, has some property that violates being in a field
I think [1 , 0 // 0 , 1] And [0 , 1 // 1 , 0] would violate its properties
Because this would give zero divisors
And we’re not allowed zero divisors in fields
yeah sounds good, so specifically how do you make zero divisors from this and then next can we generalize this to nxn matrices?
if that feels too rough we can always go back to the drawing board and find some other 2x2 matrices that are easier to work with too
Hmm well if the first matrix is a and the second is b then this makes zero divisors because every non zero element in the matrix is multiplying by a zero and cancelling out to 0
Not sure how we could generalize it
this is not true
the first matrix is the identity matrix so when you multiply it with the second, you get the second matrix as the result
Don’t you just get the zero matrix if you multiply them?
no because matrix multiplication is typically not defined to be entrywise like that
what you're doing is something called the Hadamard product, not really what people mean when they talk about matrix multiplication
I'd say go back and review linear algebra, for instance, how do you multiply a 2x2 matrix by a 2x1 vector?
clearly you can't just pair up entries right
Ohhh damn yeah I’m stupid
all good haha
I was doing it in my head completely forgot
Alright yeah so I see how anything multiplied by the identity matrix gives the second matrix
So like how can we generalize that into something we need for all matrices
well there are a bunch of ways we could do this I think, but I guess since your original 2x2 example is sorta invalid let's go back to the drawing board and find an example again
I think the strategy of finding zero divisors is a good one
And wait in the first place, the fact that it doesn’t give us the zero matrix kind of makes the example useless to us right? Cuz we’re trying to prove that fields can’t have zero divisors
True
yeah we're on the same page now I think, so see what you can cook up, brb making some tea
So something, that when multiplied by the identity matrix gives us a 0 for all n > 1
well the identity matrix might be best to avoid in this regard
since identity matrix will just multiply by anything to return that anything, so it'll only output 0 if you input 0
Ah yea that’s true
Would that be invalid to use tho 🤔 because the fact that it only gives you zero if one of the matrices you input is 0, aka if b = 0 for example, then it proves the fact true that fields have no zero divisors (because no zero divisors means that a = 0 or b = 0 always)
I feel like I’m creeping up on a proof by contradiction solution 🤔
well there are zero divisors for sure
to expand a bit on my hint earlier, try to find a 2x2 matrix with mostly 0s in it that squares to the zero matrix maybe
I mean I guess you could do [0,0 // 1,0]
And then square it to get 0
Yup! Same thing with a 1 on the bottom left of the matrix always gives a 0 matrix
No matter the dimensions
cool, ok so now we just need to make that a little bit more rigorous I think, and we're home free
I just have no clue how I could show that for every n x n without brute forcing and writing it for everything tho lol
do you know the summation definition for multiplying matrices?
I don’t think so
so like AB=C you have $$\sum_{j=1}^n a_{ij}b_{jk} = c_{ik}$$ for the entries
Merosity
Yeah no no idea what that does
that's literally the same thing as matrix multiplication for how you get the entries, like $$A=\begin{pmatrix}a_{11}&a_{12}\a_{21}&a_{22}\end{pmatrix}$$
Merosity
I admit it's a bit complicated looking but your example is perfect for this
since it means most of those entries are 0 except for 1
So in that 2x2 A matrix I wrote there, what would be i and j for a_{ij} = 1 for your matrix with the 1 in the lower left corner?
Not sure 🤔
a_{ij} is the entry in the ith row and jth column, so what row and column is your 1 in here?
Ohh 21?
exactly
so our goal is to show that this formula here always gives 0 when you use it to compute A^2
Uh huh
precisely, we're looking at showing this is 0 $$\sum_{j=1}^n a_{ij}a_{jk}$$
Merosity
Right
we know the only term that we can possibly have in there that would be nonzero is if we have a_{21}a_{21} otherwise you're multiplying by 0 right
does this term ever occur?
You may have to spend some time working through this on your own to see that this definition lines up with how you compute matrix multiplication.
Yeah
for instance what will be the entry in the first row and column of the product? It'll be this:
$$a_{11}a_{11} + a_{12}a_{21}$$
You can see the "inner" indices matching as j=1 and j=2 there.
Merosity
in our case, a_{11}=0 and a_{12}=0 so the whole sum is 0 for that case, if that makes sense
Maybe this is a bit much so I'll cut to the chase and not drag it out, and then you can work through the details and ask more later.
In general your example becomes a_{n1}=1 with all other entries being 0. This means in the matrix product you have a sum of terms of the form a_{ij}a_{jk} and the only way to make this nonzero is if both are a_{n1}a_{n1}=1*1=1 which is impossible unless n=1 since the "inner" j index has to be equal.
so it gives us a legitimate counterexample for n>1 of a matrix that squares to 0
I see
Let me try and work that formula into my proof and try and make sense of it
Thanks for the help
yeah you're welcome
How do I find the solutions to roots of unity. By this I mean, what is the solution to (x^n-1)=0 in radicals of degree less then n (or "principle radical values"). (This means e^2pi*i/n or cos(x)+isin(x) wouldn't be answers, or nth root of 1).
https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/92587/cyclotomic-polynomials-explicitly-solvable
https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/92870/non-trivial-solutions-for-cyclotomic-polynomials
According to those posts should be solvable "in radicals" because of galois theory and that doesn't just mean 1^(1/n) and they can be solved using langrange stuff.
I was reading through them I didn't quite get it.
Using some method how would I get the 1000nd root of unity (or something) with my previous conditions?
This is one of the solution to 7th roots and judging by it's complexity and length, it probably means that for larger n, I will need a program to solve it.
Wolfram alpha gives up on solving them when n=11
I originally posted this to a help channel, but was told to post it here instead
You are meant to find a normal series for (Z/nZ)^x with cyclic factors
Do you know Galois theory? If not, you should study it, this is not trivial
For example, if p is of the form 2^n+1, like when p=17, then it is possible to choose the "cyclic factors" to be Z/2Z. This means that you can write a pth primitive root by only using square roots and the other usual arithmetic operations
ok
I don't know any Galois theory
That being said, one of those answers apparently outlines a method to achieve it
I found an answer that does what I want I think
nvm
All maximal left ideals are left primitive right?
nvm sorry im sleep deprived, u can just take R/M and that's a simple left mod with annihilator M, whoops
Like TTeppa implies, left primitive ideals are always two-sided ideals, where's maximal left ideals need not be.
Yes my bad, thank you
But a maximal left ideal that is two-sided would be
Mhm
LOL
Nah I got an extension from him, I just submitted it like 30 mins ago
Q3 was cool asf
Fwiw Bergman could sue me for my solution
I got so many hints from friends, this assgn was brutal
So true
I did everything except 1b
My 2b is super scuffed tho
Mhm one of my friends did stuff with ore extensions but Ik nothing abt them
Yes
I'm struggling to get the details clear on this example, what is phi and how is it surjective?
It says here what it is but I'm still struggling to "map it onto" the example
Say H = Z(D_8), then phi(r) = rH. How do i relate this to the klein 4-group?
In a general case, I think an extension is:
$1 \rightarrow H \rightarrow G \rightarrow G/H \rightarrow 1$, so when they present something like (in your first picture) it is implied that the quotient group $D_8/Z_2$ is isomorphic to $Z_2 \times Z_2$
Ran
ok so if i wanted to be very formal about it i would have to consider their images under the evaluation hom ?
images of elements of the ideals that is
yes
ok so to see what phi means find a subgroup of D_8 isomorphic to the klein 4group, once you will find it you'll likely realise what's the projection from D8 from that subgroup and and it will be Phi
Usual candidates for such a subgroup appearing in an exact sequences like this is G/H, so in this case $D_8 / Z_2$, it might help to view $D_8$ as $Z_4 \rtimes Z_2$
(sry I myself have not been able to find such a subgroup, nor to show that $D_8/Z_2$ is isomorphic to the klein group)
Yeah I agree. I'm pretty sure that the subgroup is generated by r^2, sr, sr^2 and sr^3. Need to work on the details still, but thanks (;
I need help with this one:
Let $S_7$ be a sylow 7 subgroup of $\mathfrak{A}_8$, Show that its normalizer is isomorphic to $C_7 \rtimes C_3$
Ran
I've observed that there are in total 8 sylow 7 subgroups in Alt(8)
but I can't understand the result because the orders doesn't seem to be coherent (the order of the normalizer would be that of Alt(8) divided by the cardinal of the orbit of S7 (which is 8) [orbit-stabilizer theorem] and the order of C_7 (semi-direct-product) C3 is 21 ???
also $C_n$ refers to the cyclic group of order $n$ ($\cong Z/nZ$)
Ran
I don’t think there are just 8 sylow 7 groups
A 7 cycle is uniquely determined by a choice of number to omit (8 choices), and an ordering of the 6 numbers in the cycle that aren’t the smallest (6!)
Each sylow 7 subgroup has 6 7-cycles in it, and they intersect trivially
So there are 8*5! sylow 7 subgroups
Notably, this gives the right order for the normaliser
Thank you!! I found where I did a mistake: I thought A8 acted faithfully on the set of sylow 7 groups meaning A8 is "injected" in Sym(number of sylow 7 groups)
if a is not contained in pi for 1<= i <= n, just pick something in a and that necessarily will not be in any of the pi’s so then x^n will be in a but not be in any of the pi’s , so a cant be contained in the union of pis
Doesnt that do it?
Ohh wait
I see where i messed up
If a is not a subset of b it does not mean that every element of a is not in b
Just that at least one element of a is not in b …
the latter
What the hell even is this sum supposed to mean
Ive been stuck on this proof for days. So confusing
Ok ...
At this point I just need to go line by line here and catch where I am getting confused
The result is true for n-1. Then for each i there exists xi in a such that xi not in pj whenever j not i. Is this using induction hypothesis ?
"for each i" meaning i from 1 to n-1?
The result is true for n-1 ideals. We apply it to the n-1 ideals given by forgetting about p_i, yielding an element xi
so e.g. if n=4, we find x1 that isn't in p2, p3, p4 (n-1 = 3 ideals), and also an element x2 not in p1, p3, p4, and an element x3 not in p1, p2, p4, and x4 not in p1, p2, p3
Oh. So x2x3x4+x1x3x4+x1x2x4+x1x2x3 is in a but not in p1 or p2 or p3 or p4.
and for example since x2x3x4 is not in p1, x2x3x4+x1x3x4+x1x2x4+x1x2x3 cant be in p1 cause then that would imply x2x3x4 is in p1
so in this proof we are not only using the fact that its a prime ideal, the fact that its an ideal in general is also relevant ?
and in the case where we have like x1 not in p2,p3,p4 but it also happens to not be in p1 then we are already done in that case
If everything up there in my understanding is correct^ then i think i understand this now. And thank you so much edward
If A and B are groups, for Hom(A, B) to be a group under pointwise addition, we only need B to be abelian, right?
That's sufficient, yeah
If the right component is a group, you get a group. It also inherits being abelian
I frankly don't know if there is a subtler necessary-and-sufficient condition for this
(actually, cant we just repeat the formal mumbo jumbo thats used for group schemes as representable functors to conclude that B must be a group object?)
For proof of 2), why are we supposing p not a subset of ai for all i?
Shouldnt it be ai is not a subset of p for all i?
the claim we want to show is p is a superset
Negation of that is p not a subset of ai for all i?
Ive been studying math all day i need a break
get some rest
I am confused now too. Note that the inclusion is both negated and flipped as written here
Like, that is both not a proof by contradiction and the bit right after the first sentence doesnt follow from it
oh yeah you’re right and the next sentence seems to be describing the negation of the opposite inclusion
Wake up!
pff no don’t
Okay now that you are informed that you were right, go rest
Yea it was homecoming for my school on saturday so i was out all day
Had to grind like hell today and yesterday loo
Lol
damn
Do yk any prof Alex brandt
If you want Hom(A, B) to be a group for all A, then that would work.
Otherwise you could pick A such that the only maps have image in the center / some fixed abelian subgroup.
Like A = C3, B = S3
Really easy questio: how does one prove that Z is commtuative?
What is the difference between a function f(x) and f(x) ∈ F [x] (polynomial ring?) I understand the definition of rings and sort f understand why a polynomial can be a ring but what I don't understand is what difference does it make, so far in my book everything that holds for f(x) holds for when f (x) ∈ F [x] and vice versa??? I don't get the difference at all.
How do you define ×
Different polynomials can be the same function
I do not know, I was asked this question in the lesson, but they didn't introduce Z as a ring (first course linear algebra)
That's why I am asking
I think it should be obvious once you define ×
What do you mean? I am not following?
Are you asking me the properties of it?
Sorry that was replying to the other person
What do you mean by this, anyways?
Is x defined as the sum? Inductively?
One can define × on the naturals via cardinality of cartesian product
And then extend to Z
(if your definition of naturals is "something that satisfies the peano axioms" then you define it recursively)
I don't have a definition of Z, I only have this
Say x² and x⁴, as polynomials in F3[Z] vs as function F3 → F3
They're different elements of the polynomial ring but the same function
Does it make sense to first inductively show that the addition in N is commutative, then that addition in -N is commutative and the use above definition
If you already have N then you can construct Z as the set of pairs (x,y) of naturals quotiented out by the equivalence relation given by (x1,y1)~(x2,y2) iff x1+y2=x2+y1 (where the pair (x,y) basically represents the integer x-y, except you don't really have subtraction because you are using naturals)
Yes that's how it is done
Usually an algebra book would just assume everything learnt in hs
I know, but I was asked this question during the lesson and I was like: jeez did this like 4 years ago and never seen it again
Idk how you can give an answer which is both an actual explanation and avoids actually doing all the constructions
"See page randint(30,100) of [proofs and logic book]."
leave before they open the book
"commutativity in Z follows from commutativity in N which in turn follows from a bunch of induction arguments"
I mean there's also the option of not explaining by instead teaching them that sometimes you can (and should) black box things
Why do it here when you can do it with something like jordan's curve theorem
They'll learn these constructions later but for now its a waste of time
HAHAAHAHAHAHAHAH
yes you are right, I will mention that next week
It really disturbed me yesterday because they kept bombing me with questions and didn't let me really do what I planned to
It wasn't even the first time of me teaching
Learning that lesson earlier rather than later is better imo. I've seen people not learn it at all during undergrad which is kinda scary - once you reach a certain level you inevitably have to do it
Yeah it was mostly a joke
Haha there's such a thing as too eager I suppose
Ah my bad
except black boxing jordan's is done in every complex analysis course ever
I completely agree hahaha
Yeah JCT in complex analysis is a good example lol
Other than that i'm totally in favour of avoiding "foundational" issues (in the wider sense) when they are not really issues
I will mention this next time
You knwo they didn't even introduce rings and groups (which we did in our first course)
How are they suppose to work with matrix groups and stuff like that
I actually have an other question regarding $\mathbb{Q}(i)$
damn_guuurl
I know that it is a field since it is a field extension and blabla
but if onw want's to prove it with axioms, how does one show that the addition is commutative? More specifically, why does this hold? $(a + ib) + (c + id) = (a+c) + (ib+id)$
damn_guuurl
You define addition this way
"complex numbers are pairs of reals where you define addition as (a,b)+(c,d)=(a+c,b+d) and multiplication as (a,b)*(c,d)=(ac-bd,ad+bc), have fun proving they are a field"
(replace complex with Q(i) and reals with rationals if you wish)
This is much easier, why did I complicate my life
do you guys maybe know a book where all this stuff is listed?
I would like to send it to my students so that they don't ask questions 😄
Iirc the first chapter of baby rudin constructs R and C but starting from Q
And it might not be that easy of a read
tao's analysis i & ii cover the constructions quite thoroughly
(complex # in tao ii section 4.6, and N/Z/Q/R in book i)
but its quite long
however should be easier read
in a polynomial ring, we consider f(x) as just a string of meaningless symbols
i.e. X, 2X^2 + 3X^3 + 1, X^p + 2X etc.
obviously we can easily induce a function based on these symbols
but a big difference to look out for is that 2 polynomials could represent the same fnction
i.e. take F = Z/pZ
then X^p - X and 0 are 2 different polynomials
but by FLT, X^p - X = 0 for all n in Z/pZ
so X^p - X and 0 are equal for all elements of Z/pZ even though they represent 2 different polynomials
FlT perhaps
FLT?
fermat's little theorem
Damn bc it was wrong?
I searched up errata for atiyah macdonald and this didnt even come up
Yeah this seems to be a mistake lol but it is rectified by just swapping the not subset for a not supset
If ring R is commutative can a free module over R have bases of different size?
Ok. But, in this case you may have a maximally linearly independent set that is NOT a basis
For maximally lin ind sets to always be basis, u need R to be a division ring
If R is commutative a free module can have a set that is maximally linearly independent but cannot be extended to a basis
This is not true for vector spaces
Maximal lin ind sets in vector spaces are bases
Does there exist a non-abelian group $G$ such that we have $a^3 = e$ for all $a \in G$ ?
Saïd
Can you please give me a hint or an exemple to direct my intuition, I personally looked at the structure of the permutation groups and my claim was that (after testing with some constructions with 3-cycles in S_7) either the cycles were disjoint and thus giving a group with all its elements having order 3 but it is abelian due to the "disjointness" or the cycles are not disjoint but then their composition is decomposable into a product of transpositions thus making that element of order 2
and thus my intuition is somewhat telling me that the assertions (being non abelian and having all elements of order 3) are not compatible yet I do not know how to prove it and while trying my hardest I kind of have a change of heart and think that it maybe possible for it to exist xD and so I am stuck and in need of either a hint of a class of exemples (like the group of matrices or else) which could give me more intuition on the internal structure
thank you for your time and attention
idk all i can say is
if |G| is finite then ig u would have |G| to be some power of 3
lmlao
but then are theses groups intrinsicaly non abelian ?
I do not know much about finite groups and this exercise was layed down right after the most basic definitions of groups
and so I guess that it should be solvable with some basic notions ?
i can probalby
think of a counterexample
to that
Every abelian example is (Z/3)^X for a set X
yeah exactly
They were looking for non-abelian
Yes
yeah i was just answering this
With choice 
Pretty sure it must be abelian but the proof is annoying
why can't u like
take some matrix group over Z/3
do you mean that the group must be the set of the morphisms from Z3 to X ?
Isn’t there an annoying way thing where a ring with x^3 = x being commutative
Because the Z/3 structure shows everything has 3x = 0
but the noncommutative multiplication is, well, multiplication
However yes I think this does give an example
1 sec
GL(Z_3) or something
or like
something upper trinagular
or something of that sorts
but i can't like think of it straight
XD did u delete my msg hahaha
hahah yeha it was so funny
whatever
but yeah ig in my mind i would try to like
see how the matirx looks like so that if the entries has order 3 the matrix has order 3
with multtiplication
like it wouldn't be any general matrix it would have to be like
some upper triangular or like
I seeeeeeeeeeeeeeee
diagonals dont work right
yes maybe could work
ig diagonals do work ?
i'll try with 2 dimentional matrices over Z_3
diagonals over Z/3?
that sounds like a good lead in fact
yeah im going to grab something to drink
yeah try it out king
the non comutativeness of matrices and mix that with some mod 3 arithmetics (which I do not master well xD)
but yea that is exactly the type of hints i looked for
thank you so much
BRUH
what's that some kind of entangled group which we can't deduce the elements bafore making their experience ?
Lol
and you take the elements over Z_3 ?
aaah so it is just as @void cosmos first proposed right ?
since taking H_3(F3) would give a finite group of p^3 elements right ?
Yes but 3x3
yes yes
3^3 yes
yeah i was like in the kitchen and then i thought about diagonals over 2x2
i am now trying to find some subgroup which will satisfy both
Wdym satisfy both
or else imma have to try with all 27 matrices xP
H_3(F_3) works
this has the misfortune of including a lot of order 2 elements
lmfao yeah heisneberg group
non abelian and all elements of order 3
well it's not so obvious that it ain't abelian or am I lacking some godly intuitioin here ?
well I understand that thanks to Lagrange the order of the elements must divide 27 and so we'd have order 3 and 9 right ?
and so shouldn't we only take the elements of order 3 ?
and see if they constitute a subgroup in the first place
9 divides 27 so it’s possible, but do any elements of that order actually occur in this group
i don't know xP
i am trying with order 3 for now and they are commuting god damn it xD
https://www.weddslist.com/groups/misc/pcubed.html
what is the up arrow mean on the website?
For the problem 5, does sigma really has to be of infinite order or different from identity is enough ? 
I think if sigma has finite order it's much easier to prove.
... Actually proof is kinda the same I guess
Could i show you what i did?
Thanks !
Take c in L\K. Then c is algebraic over K, then let f be the minimal polynomial of c over K. We remark that sigma(c) is also a root of f. thus let's consider the set { c , sigma(c), sigma^2(c) ........ sigma^i(c) } where i is the Last index such that all these elements are different. Let g = (x-c).....(x-sigma^i(c)). Then if E denotes the map induced by sigma : L[x] -> L[x], we can check that E(g) = g and thus g is in K[x]. Which concludes because g = f and thus f splits over L.
Yes i also think so, that's why the infinite order thing was triggering me
Yep, perfect.
Notice also that the same argument can be used to show that L/K is seperable.
Hence the characterization of Galois extensions as normal, seperable, (algebraic)
Yes that's true, it also Proves L/K is separable, thank u so much !
1.8 was stating that the nilradical of A is the intersection of all prime ideals of A. A comment before this said that the radical of a is the inverse image of the nilradical of A/a.
So, nilradical of A/a = intersection of prime ideals of A/a
so phi^-1(intersection of prime ideals of A/a) = intersection of phi^-1(pi) (by just properties of inverse image?)
The inverse image of a prime ideal is prime and the lattice theorem says this is an ideal containing a
So thats how we get that result ?
yeah basically
Does this sound good? Sorry if messy
Thanks
I need to review how ideals get transferred by homomorphisms
For an ideal (m) in Z and a prime divisor p of m, (p) is a prime ideal containing (m) right?
Yup
Could anyone walk me through whats going on in the proof here? I really cant make sense of it
I have a linear algebra problem but no one knew to solve it or give an idea on #linear-algebra so i hope no one gets mad if i leave it here hoping for a hint. Find all matrices A with integer entries such that rank(A^k)>=Tr(A^k) for every k>=1.
well if you know trace is the sum of eigenvalues, and you know how eigenvalues scale with taking powers, what can you say about the eigenvalues
All real eigen values have abs<1
Pretty sure you can do some sort of bullshit here with a semidirect here of Z/n with Z/n^2 for any n > 1 to have a nonabelian G satisfying x^n = e for each n
I am wrongo
I am stuck trying to prove that if H has finite index in a f.g. group G, then H is f.g. How do you relate the cosets of H with a generating set for G?
any subgroup of a finitely generated group is finitely generated?
or
only for abelian
Not my G sadly
Does the proof of 2=>3 not rely on 1 when we take theta inverse?
nvm a friend pointed out it should be g and im just blind 
no, look at this example: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Generating_set_of_a_group#Finitely_generated_group
This is probably nontrivial to prove algebraically, but there is a nice topological proof
First, notice that your G is a quotient of a f.g. free group F, and H corresponds to a finite index subgroup of F if you do the inverse projection
So it suffices to show that a finite index subgroup of a fg free group is fg
https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Nielsen–Schreier_theorem the arguments here should prove that
(it's a corollary of the second part of the theorem)
I forget why every non-unit is contained in a maximal ideal?
Can you just create the ideal generated by this non unit and then use result that every ideal is contained in a maximal ideal
Is there another way
Yes
borcherds mentioned something along the liens of "k[x]-modules are just linear transformations" as an "obvious example" and frankly i've no idea what he means

what does this mean
A k[x]-module M is an abelian group with an action of k[x].
Since k is a subring of k[x] this means in particular that M is a k-vector space.
Now x commutes with k, so the action of x on M is a map that commutes with the action of k. Aka a linear transformation.
whoa
And that completely describes the action, so a k[x] module is exactly the information of a k-vector space and a linear transformation on that space
thank you i will have to spell out the details of this for myself
Dummit and foote talks about this in section 10.1
In great detail
As usual for dummit and foote lol
I always liked this example
tfw my uni library doesn't have dummit & foote ????
Thats a bruh moment
There’s a different way to think of this
Start with an abelian group M, and then End(M) is a ring, the product is composition and the addition is just adding functions
An R-module structure on M is just a ring map R -> End(M), the way it works is that given such a map f, you define the action
a•m as f(a)(m) [recall that f(a) is in End(M), so it’s a map M -> M]
The fact that distributivity, associativity, etc holds is the fact that f is a ring homomorphism
Conversely given an R-module structure on M, you can define a map f:R -> End(M) as follows
For ever r in R, let f(r) be the map that takes m to r•m
The fact that M is an R-module implies that f will be a ring homomorphism

So now assume that you have an R-module M, this is equivalent to a ring map R -> End(M) by the above
To extend this to an R[x]-module on M (which just means that r•m is the same in R[x] as it is in R) is to ask that you have a map R[x]-> End(M) such that the triangle formed with R -> R[x] and R -> End(M) commutes
The map R[x] -> End(M) is the R[x]-module structure
And to ask the triangle commutes is just saying that r•m is the same when considered over R[x] or over R
Now finally, we come to the universal property of R[x]. Such a commutative diagram is a map of R-algebras, and R[x] is the free R-algebra on one generator
Said another way, to make the triangle I described, all you have to do is say what x goes to, and you can pick literally anything
Because the fact that the diagram commutes means that for f:R[x] -> End(M), you already know what f(r) is
And now f(rnx^n + … + r1x + r0) = f(rn)f(x)^n + … + f(r1)f(x) + f(r0)
You know what f(rn) is because it’s forced, and once you know f(x) you know f(x)^n
So putting this all together, an R[x]-module structure extending the R-module structure is just a ring map R[x]-> End(M) making a triangle commute
But that’s the same thing as picking where x goes to in End(M), aka picking an endomorphism of M
I’m looking here and i’m studying cosets and subgroups. If H is a subgroup of G and aH=bH, i know the orders of the two cosets are the same, but the orders of a and b don’t necessarily have to be the same order do they
consider the example H = {e}
probably a more illustrative example is A_n in S_n, two permutations can have wildly different orders while still having the same parity
I just realized H = {e} is a horrible example
I meant the other trivial case, H = G
So in group theory is my best bet finding counterexamples?
i just can’t get a good grip on this area of math to save my life.
well only if ur dealing with a statement that u don't think is true lol
i just can’t seem to prove anything without an example or counterexample
like for this particular one u gave, if u've done some group theory questions u might lean towards this fact being false
but even if u weren't too sure u'd probably try it out for certain groups
right.
like obviously the trivial group won't help here
what about the next simplest group, C_2?
it has 2 subgroups {e} and C_2
clearly, rG = eG here but r and e have different orders
then we'd be done
u might then wonder 'are there any non-stupid examples'
and S_n is another good place where u can find counterexamples
also what exactly did u mean by the order of the coset?
are u taking H to be a normal subgroup and considering the cosets as elements of G/H?
but yeah if u do a lot of groups questions, eventually u'll have a grasp of what u think should be true and what u think shouldn't be true
It is hard
this unironically made me feel better about my struggles
Idk all maths is kinda easy
Lol
true
For Potatoes math is easy
if a set equipped with some binary operation is isomorphic to a known group, does this automatically make the set a group?
Yes
yes because the structure is the same
thanks
are algebras just vector spaces with multiplication
i'm not tryna think about algebra rn since i'm doing analysis so a yes or no would suffice
thank u
yes, but the multiplication must be bilinear
ok so just basically distributive property w vectors and associative with scalars
People use it to mean different things. One meaning which is relatively common is indeed a v.s. with a bilinear operator on it -- no more assumptions. Another one is a ring with a central embedding of a field, which in particular makes it an algebra in the previous sense, just with a bit more structure.
Generally I would say that, at least in what I tend to see, the second meaning is more common.
I think it depends on exactly what you mean by isomorphism. If you mean just a bijection phi such that phi(a + b) = phi(a) + phi(b) then that's not enough to conclude that the set has an identity. I think you also need phi(e) = e and phi(a^{-1}) = phi(a)^{-1}
As a rep theorist ig.
Rep theory
Rep theory
As someone more in geometry/homotopy theory like commutative algebras over R are usually just rings S with a map R -> S
Yeah
Kinda funny how the perspective differs
Well ig it's the same?
Like you just need to add the centrality condition for the noncommutative case
Oh yeah sorry I didn't even read to the end of yours lol
yes a map A -> B landing in Z(B)
I did specify field tbh
in checking if something is a subalgebra does it only suffice to check 0, linear combinations and multiplication
ie 0 in A, af + bg in A for all a, b in the field k it's over and vectors f and g
and fg in A for all vectors f and g in A
Yes
would it be good enough to show associativity at least?
N.b. af+bg encompasses 0 in A
i'm just working with cayley tables here
I don't believe that's correct. Let's say (X, .) is some magma isomorphic to a group G via f : G -> X. Then let b in X have preimage a, so f(a) = b. Then f(e)b = f(e)f(a) = f(ea) = f(a) = b, and evidently the other side holds. So I'm not sure what you mean by this.
Clearly f(e) is an identity in X.
Apologies for the bad typo
Aha, you're right. I remember looking at group actions of G on A a while back, and how you can either define them as homomorphisms from G to Aut(A) (with only the homomorphism property phi(a + b) = phi(a) + phi(b)), or as a map from G to A -> A, but then you need the additional axiom phi(e_G) = Id_A. So that's the source of my confusion, but I see that this case is a bit different, since we're talking about a bijection
I think the axiom phi(e_G) = Id_A for group actions just asserts that the image is in Aut(A), it doesn't ensure any additional isomorphism between G and A -> A
"additional isomorphism" doesn't make sense, but I mean, any shared structure that is not ensured by the homomorphism property
Well this is still not right, because phi(e) will be idempotent, and it's plain to see that any idempotent is the identity in any group.
Oh no I was misreading
yeah
Indeed there are other subgroups (in the semigroup theory sense) in End(A) which don't share the identity
Over what type of sets would convolution be a group?
I suppose it depends on what you want to mean when you say convolution. I'd suggest working out as many of the axioms of a group as possible to as far as you can before getting stuck - then seeing what restrictions that gets you.
Subsemigroups that happen to be groups :3
semigroup mfers frothing at the MOUTH for a chance to matter at all
hello, i wanna ask something i have not met before
Can we define a polynomial function over a cyclic group?
This definition is weird.
I mean we can only define one operation in a group, multiplication or addition, right? But polynomials seem to involve both addition and multiplication
So what does it mean to be a polynomial over a cyclic group
they would be the same
like x^2+y for example would probably be x+x+y
if ur group is additive
or x^2+y would be x^2y
that's the only way i can think about this
imo
Thanks,i will buy it
Wait. Confused
The how do example 2 be explained?
I think they're just considering polynomial expressions in the elements of G, so formal sums of products
ah so maps from the free group ring
That would be Noncommutative polynomials
It's not clear to me if that's what's being considered
oh ok there's no extra context
This paper is from an ePrint of Cryptograhpy if you're interested
But, i think the definition is confused
this is demented
do they refer to other papers on the subject that maybe have better overviews/direct to literature?
I think that's your best bet
So, i think it is not good
They don't even mention exponents in the description ye
Yeah
This has no references?????
Am I tripping
in that case you might have to reach otu to the authors or do some independent googling about the subject of these polynomial functions
The only infor they give is:
Seems like they wanna introduce a new definition
But the writing of definition is horrible
I originally planned to incorporate some tools from this article into my scheme design to address some issues I'm currently facing. However, I eventually found that the quality of this article may not be as high as I thought. Therefore, I decided to abandon this article and look for new solutions.
Thank you for you help and suggestion.
Any help with this?
g^5, g^20 are elements of order 6
g^6, g^12, g^18, g^24 are elements of order 5
- order of the cyclic group is 30, means g^30 = 1
- To find elements of order 6, you need to find elements in the form of " a^6 =1"
So, it is easy to find a = g^5 is a solution, a^2 = g^10, however, (g^10)^3 = 1, which means the order of g^10 is 3..
a^3 = g^15, the order is 2...
a^4 = g^20, (g^20)^6 = g^120 = (g^30)^4 = 1, is a solution
a^5 = g^30 =1, so, we can stop retrieving. - The same method for the elemets of order 6....
thank you
this makes sense
Would anyone take a look at this solution? It would be most appreciated! https://cloud.eccentric.dk/index.php/s/NArD5tqf86j4zpF
If A a ring then A_red=A/nil(A) where nil(A) is the ideal of nilpotent rings. Suppose A is a local ring so it has a maximal ideal m_A. Does it follow that A_red is also local?
The ideals of A/I are in 1-1 correspondence to ideals of R containing I.
what does this question MEAN is not that first part literally the definition of “Zn is a principal ideal domain”
ohhh right of course
you just saved me (probably) from great embarassment, thanks

Okay, so I am trying to prove this claim.
A couple things: since f o s= id_Q, this tells us f is onto. Using the first isomorphism theorem, we have that Q is iso. to G/N.
So I think that G is going to be isomorphic to the direct product N x G/N (I don't know how to do semiproduct notation, but I am not entirely sure of what the action is
I guess the action would be conjugation of q. Namely, (n_1, q_1)(n_2, q_2)=(n_1 s(q_1)n_1s(q_1)^-1,q_1q_1)
Ah wait, the coset thing is a bit unnecessary
although there is no information about Q to be normal in G
$1 \to N \hookrightarrow G \twoheadrightarrow Q \to 1$
yeshua
Yeah, up to minor typos and maybe the direction of conjugation since I always mix up the left/right
Thanks. I was able to get it. It wasn't too bad
Can someone explain this to me like I'm a 5 years old?
How many different generators does the multiplicative group in the field Z2[x] / (x^3 + x + 1) have?
A: 1 B: 4 C: 6
?
Still kinda getting nowhere with this problem,
Let $k$ be a field and $q\in k^\times$. Let $\tau_q$ be the unique automorphism of $k[y]$ such that $\tau_q=qy$. Show that $k[y][x;\tau_q]\cong k\langle x,y\rangle/(xy-qxy)$
Nope
We have a canonical map K[y]<x> ->K[y][x;tau] and under tau this has the same kernel as K_q<x,y> so it’s going to be some universal property type argument, but I’m really not seeing how to go about it
This is essentially all I’ve done (which is nothing) im just really unsure of how to proceed
This was a rough idea I had, just sorta extending the diagram, I’ll give it a try and see if I get anywhere! Thanks
Yeah I mean in some sense it is obvious, we’re quotienting out the same ideal and as you said we can really just map x to x and y to y but that just doesn’t feel right to do
Hello! When doing a subring test, do I need to show that the zero identity of the ring is also the zero identity of the subring? Also, in verifying if the subtraction is closed in a subring, are the elements must be nonzero?
a subring is a subset of your ring, so 0 is still just 0. If 0 isnt in your subset, it couldnt possibly be a subring
As for the subtraction, no you dont need that, the set {0} is a subring of every ring (its the trivial (sub)ring)
$R[x;\tau] = \frac{R\langle x\rangle}{(xr-\tau(r)x |r \in R)}$ (parenthesis for ideals and angled for free algebra)
Nope
Yeah im currently trying to see if I can do anything with the fact we have a canonical map R[x] -> R[x;tau] and the evaluation homomorphism R[x] to R, difficulty is showing that (xr-tau(r)x) is in the kernal of the evaluation
So maybe I need to find a map from R[x] to the quantum plane instead as thse certainly have the same kernel
but actually this is just what I already had and couldnt work out lol
Just going to continue to think out loud here I think, I should probably be using the fact that tau is an automorphism somewhere. In $K_q[x,y]$ we have that $x\left(\sum q_i y^i\right) = \tau_q(\sum q_i y^i) x$ so does this give us an injective homomorphism $K[y]\langle x\rangle \to K_q[x,y]$? I think it possibly does, which means the problem reduces to finding a homomorphsim in the other direction and showing theyre inverse
Nope
If this does work, I think i can get the reverse homomorphism via tau in the same way, so I guess the difficulty is just in showing theyre inverse? (and in working out the exact details of what im kinda hand waving right now I guess)
Hey guys
I have small question
i proved them all
hoevere i need to know the relation between this part and the rest of the exercises
but i do not see to be fair
You may want to think about exercise 3 as comparing
Z[X]/((X+1)(X-1))
and
ZxZ = Z[X]/(X+1) x Z[X]/(X-1)
Then ask yourself what the image of f looks like in the latter
let me think about it
well i tried to see what the difference will be
the only difference that i can see that stll Z * Z is not isomorph and that
i guess because the idem potent elementen are (1,0) and (0,1) and (1,1) not for example
what about zero divisors
The difference between what? I thought you had solved the exercises?
I mean the relation with the rest of the excersice
over the last question
i see no relation
except that the idempotent will be diffrent
Well, what is the image of f in Z[X]/(X-1)?
well this is a bit difficult
i mean
because the only thing that i know that if Z[X] / (x-1) = (x-1)g(x) and that g(x) is a polynoom and thus the zero points is 1 where it equals to zero but the whole image is difficult
right
or did i say something wrong
Yes, but there is a somewhat canonical isomorphism between Z and Z[X]/(X-1)
Do you see what that is?
Well, do you know the first isomorphism theorem?
yes offcourse
... And you see how it applies
it says that f / ker (f) isomorph and im(f)
but how this can be applied to prove that it will take long
because first need to find a function
and then the ker of function equals to (x-1 )
and then its surjuctive
to apply isomorph theorem
Yeah, so do you know any maps from Z[X] to Z?
Okay, well let's just take it one step at a time.
Let's call the map p. What do we think p(1) should be?
Well, for homomorphism of rings, where do we usually map 1?
Which polynomial is that?
that is this polynomial p(x) (x-1)
1
right
iddentiy to identity
sorry for late reaction i was preparing something to eat
p(1) = 1 like we said
So what do you want p(x-1) to equal?
p(x-1) should equal to 2 right
Why do you say that?
We wanted a map with kernel (x-1)
that is true
I have a question. Would it be sufficient enough to just show that the function that I constructed from Z -> R preserves addition and multiplication or do I also need to explicitly check that this function does send 0 to 0 and 1 to 1? I am a bit confused. My function is $\gamma(n) -> (n \cdot 1_{R})$. I have checked all the properties and it satisfies.
mss
so we can choose actually the following map f: p(x) \maps to
to be fair i do not see it
So if x-1 is to be in the kernel that means
p(x-1) = 0
Makes sense?
So p(x) = p(1) = 1
Then similarly p(x^n) = 1, and in general you'll get p(f) = f(1)
Okay, so then we can get back to the problem.
You have this map Z[X] -> Z,
f |-> f(1)
And similarly you have f |-> f(-1)
So together you can make a map Z[X] -> ZxZ
f |-> (f(1), f(-1))
What is the kernel and image of this map?
Hint: ||it's highly related to your exercise||
Ok so ive typed up what im thinking so far so that its hopefully more clear, I think im on the right lines but im kinda stumped as far as showing these homomorphisms are inverse
I could very well be way off as well though, still not convinced that im constructing varphi correctly, but I think its at least something similar to that
let me think about and write it correctly
and i will send it
thanks alot
yo guys having trouble finding the non abelian groups of order 28
so on wikipedia reads em as
but im not sure how to interepet Z7 demidirect Z4
like take (a,b) (a1,b1)
then that would be
a + phi_b ( a1 ), b + b1
right? but what automorphism do is being implied here that gets me that structure?
so like (a,b)(a1,b1) = (a + b + a1 mod 7 , b + b1 mod 4 ) would work?
can you write some example computations?
for some $h \in \mathbb{Z}_4, x \in \mathbb{Z}_7
\
h \cdot x = -x \mod 7$
yeshua
