#groups-rings-fields
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ty
still no. S_5 is generated by (1 2 3 4 5) and (1 2 3 4) with orders 5 and 5-1 resp. S_5 has order 120 and p(p-1) is 20
Nice
Guys can someone explain to me what group action is like I am 5 years old. I have read the book and watched YT and gone thru the slides and I still don't grasp anything.
if this is for a class you should check out some examples of group actions
are you familiar with the usual ones
like left translations
conjugation
integers acting on R
S_n acting in {1,...,n}
you can sort of think of it as the following
if G acts on S, each element of g defines a permutation on S
for example say with S_n
every element of it is actually already just a permutation of {1,...,n}
A group action associates a group with bijections on a set X, in such a way that if we have a product $gh$ in the group it doesn't matter if we first calculate $g'=gh$ and then find the map associated to $g'$, or if we first find the maps associated to $g$ and $h$ and then compose them.
Edward II
With D_n every element in there can be thought of as a rigid motion on a regular n-gon
It's a way of associating (by homomorphism) a group G with a sugroup of the group of bijections on X (compositions are associative, bijective functions have inverses, and the identity map f(x)=x is a bijection)
rigorously what I mean here is that there is a homomorphism of G into Sym(S), Sym(S) is the permutations of S
Groups are supposed to be symmetries. But the data of a group doesn't see any symmetries. Group actions are giving a group an interpretation as a collection of symmetries.
what does it mean that G acts on S_n?
No they didn't say that
S_n is the symmetric group but S here is just some set.
The example was not S = S_n but G = S_n
So given like a triangle with the corners A, B and C. We can rotate or flip them, given that my actions are r, r^2, f, rf then these functions or elements form my group? Am I correct so far?
No this isn't what a group action is
Imagine we already have a group
A group in itself does not describe symmetries of a thing
It is just a collection of objects
We have forgotten entirely what it means in terms of symmetries
this is what is confusing me
A group action is reinterpreting a group as a collection of symmetries of a thing.
A group action is not elements of a group. It is something defined on the whole group.
Now back to your example of a triangle
We can take the group of symmetries of a triangle
And this has a natural action on, as you say, the set of corners of the triangle.
That's a perfectly good example of a group action.
Where are you seeing the definition of a group action that is confusing you? It surprises me because the definition is quite straightforward and imo intuitive. What text are you working from?
What does natural action man exactly?
I am saying that it has an action, and it was a very natural thing to define.
It was not a strange thing, it was quite natural.
Natural here is an informal word.
What is perfectly good example? Where is the group action in the case of the triangle (I feel so stupid lol)?
Again this is just an English phrase
it's a fine example
it's perfectly good
just means it's fine
But didn't you tell me that the actions of rotation and flips were not group action just now?
The group action is permuting the vertices in the way dictated by the symmetries of the triangle
so you look at the triangle, look where the symmetry you chose sends the vertices, and permute the elements accordingly.
The symmetries and flips are the elements of the group in this case, because you defined it as such. The group action is information that tells us how to get an element of the group and interpret it as a permutation on {A, B, C}.
What definition of a group action have you seen.
It bothers me that you're asking this question because group actions have a very precise definition so there shouldn't be confusion regarding this
OK great there you go
I am a special breed. Seriously tho I just wanna grasp it, I feel like my brain doesn't understand it fully. 2 days ago it felt striaghtforward on the lecture but today while going thru notes I have no clue WTF it is or what I thought it was 2 days ago.
I even wrote a note to myself saying: "Intution: process by which group elements move or transform elements in the set it acts on."
I personally dislike the G x X —> X definition, i feel it is confusing
I think it’s much easier to understand as a homomorphism G —> Perm(X)
That is, every group element g is associated to a permutation of X
Though it is certainly worth being familiar with both, in particular since the G x X -> X will be what you usually use
Sure
Usually actions are defined like “the group G acts on X via the rule gx = some stuff…”
which is intrinsically a map G x X —> X
But yeah the form you did is more elegant and generalisable ofc
Its what a group "does". For example, the group D3 is just the set {e,r,r^2,f,rf,r^2f} with the rules that r^3 = e, f^2 = e, and fr = r^2f.
The group action is what the group D3 actually does to the vertices of a triangle
could we just say that a group homomorphism preserves identity since f(e)f(a) = f(a) = e'f(a) implies f(e) = e' by cancellation
yes
Note that you assumed f(e) = e' out of nowhere and then used it to substitute going from lhs to rhs, so this is sort of a circular argument
sorry where did i do that?
I don't think preservation of identity can be derived from other axioms like additivity; you should include it in the definition
actually lemme think, i might have made a mistake
I think you're right
ye
f(e) = f(e)e' = f(e)f(e)f(e)^-1 = f(ee)f(e)^-1 = f(e)f(e)^-1 = e'
yep, they’re essentially related by currying/uncurrying
@mental venture can you send the rest of excersizes?
i tried it for a good while and im stuck
I think I have solved it
But I wrote my answer in Chinese
If you want to have a look, I can translate it into English
@limber sequoia
As we have already known how “3/4” works, the second question is easier.

super neat!
are all intermidiate fields Fix fields?
If the extension is Galois, then yes. That's the Galois correspondence.
ah okk yes right ty!!
Hello guys 🤠 I often see people here reading atiyah macdonald book. What if we start a group chat for reading this book? 🤔
Id be generally interested. Im taking a commutative algebra class next semester. One way could be just to open a thread in this channel

Let k be a generator of (Z/pZ)^* \cong Z/(p-1)Z for a prime p. Let w be a p'th root of unity, how is w^k = (w^k)^(p-1)=w^(-k) ?
So
(w^k)^(p-1) = (w^k)^p * (w^k)^(-1) = (w^p)^k * w^(-k) = 1*w^(-k) = w^(-k)
indeed
I am currently working through that book. I just started
i am starting this book in the spring
same
So that's why (w^k)^(p-1) = w^(-k), and the other equality just isn't true
ok
The order of a group is equivalent to the cardinality of the underlying set right? Is there a reason why we have diffferent notations for both of them?
well both Z and R have infinite order but Z has a different cardinality
Oh yeah right eh
we just call them both infinite groups
as a more annoying example take any set X, and consider P(X). make this into a group by defining a+b to be the symmetric difference of a and b
so you can make loads of infinite groups that have different cardinalities
i guess order is more interesting if its finite
Oh so order isn't defined as the cardinality of the set of cosets of the trivial subgroup of a group?
oh i haven't seen this one
like
with the cardinal stuff
that's because I completely misunderstood what I was doing, what I should have been asking was how come k^(p-1) = 1 when k was a generator for the multiplcative group Z_{p-1} and that is obvious (even to me :P)
Why is it that if you have a maximal ideal m, and x not in m, then m+(x) generate the whole ring?
Lol wait i might have gotten something wrong'
im tired and shii
@tardy hedge because all the non-units will be in m
yea i gotta review that fac
fact
Bu
But
wait
It's "every non-unit is in some maximal ideal"
yea
i think maybe this isnt true in general, it was part of a bigger proof so lemme check it
about jacobson radical
its because m+(x) is an ideal. by maximality, m+(x) is either m or the ring itself. since x is not in m, m+(x) must be the ring
Ohhhhh
cause it contains m
and m maximal
Thanks a lot
I like how atiyah macdonald doesnt give every detail like that
how does the jacobson radical relate to nilpotent elemetns
nilradical was all nilpotent elements, and it can also be viewed as intersection of all prime ideals
jacobson radical was just intersection of all maximal ideals
Havent done the exercises yet but i got them assigned
Nice
And thank you for your reply
Ok yes so Jacobson radical contains nilradical
you know, a lot of set inclusion stuff still gives me trouble
i’ve been stuck on finding a proof for the very first proposition in a&m for a bit too long now

Which one was it?
it looks really easy and probably is so i’m very stressed out by not having managed to set it up yet
Ur working thru that text rn too?
mhm

…will have a look at it tmrw
What was the statement
there is a one-to-one order-preserving correspondence between ideals of R containing some ideal I, and ideals of R/I
iirc
very possibly i don’t
Well it is an analogue of the same theorem for groups
And the correspondence is basically just the canonical homomorphism I think
yeah it’s just some work checking every detail… i’ve been on a drought for the past month barely done any problems at all
just gotta get back into the flow somehow
have some bad habits i have to get rid of
Atiyah-Macdonald book discussion club
what part are you stuck on
it’s really just sitting down and doing it that i struggle with 
but i will try tmrw
and ask here if i get stuck
A finite group G acts on a set X and two of the orbits of G have 5 and 21 elements, respectively. What can be said about the order of G, ∣G∣?
Is the only thing we can say that |G| = 5x21xk where k is an integer>0 ?
Or can we say something else?
That’s the only thing we can say generically, yes
that's essentially all you can say
I don't think you can say anything else, that's not immediate from the group having order multiple of 5*21
Yeah e.g. note you can take the group G = Z/5 x Z/21 x H for any finite group H and let this act on the set {1,...5} disjoint union {1,...,21} in the obvious way to ensure you have one orbit of size 5 and one of size 21
So you can get any multiple of 5 * 21
So this is the converse
Sure I guess. I'm just saying this shows you cannot sharpen the statement at all beyond "it must be divisible by 5*21" yeah
wordslinger
I've been thinking about this for a while; in my mind it seems like its not true but I cant come up with a counter. any hints are appreciated!
phew finally managed to check all the details (which i severely needed, seems i am not quite sufficiently used to working with either cosets or ring/group homomorphisms) for the bijection between the two sets of ideals, but fsr brain noped out at checking the order-preserving, though i'd expect this to be the easiest part... (the direction via the inverse mapping is clear)
took me a bit almost an hour writing everything out, but at least now i am officially out of the problem drought (which has lasted a full month now), just have to keep the ball rolling somehow
Shouldn't be true no.
Take ||L = N = Z/2||, and have M = ||L(+)N||. Then take M1 ||spanned by (1, 1)|| and M2 ||spanned by (0, 1).||
||Then neither intersects L and both map onto N.||
The main issue is that alpha^-1 measures whether M1 / M2 intersects L, but it don't really say much about whether they intersect each other
Ah yeah ty
Any recommendations for reading on graded and filtered rings? Didn’t seem like Artin or D&F had anything on them and the notes from my lecturer are kinda lost on me
I think seeing some examples would be nice, preferably non commutative, thanks!
Are you specifically working with just rings and not algebras?
For algebras Schedler's notes on deformation theory have a good introduction in the first section
Not sure about just rings though
probably read a book on commutative algebra
stuff like matsumura or eisenbud talk about this stuff in detail
That section of the notes specifically deals with rings, but we’re working with plenty of algebras in the class so I’ll take a look there, thanks for the recommendations I’ll come back if I’m still a bit lost
I do enjoy that from my first look at these notes, he mentions the stared exercises are quite difficult and can be skipped, but the first stared exercise is question 1 of 8 on my homework lol, guess these will be good to look at though
I am not too sure how to approach this in general. I think i can find a few examples. Namely, for the injective maps, we can have perhaps a "swap" in which f(x) = -x. Since 0 is the identity it would stay at 0 and the kernel would be trivial. I think we can extend that to be f(x)=-ax for any a. Similarly, I think we can have a surjective map that 'shifts' f(x) = x+a, but im still not sure how to generalize any of this. I know the homomorphism is determined by its kernel, but I'm not sure how it pertains to isomorphic or surjective homomorphisms, only that its kernel is trivial iff injective
for part b. Let $a, g_1 \cdot a, \dots, g_{r-1} \cdot a$ be representatives of left cosets of $HG_a$. Consider the map $$ g_i HG_a \mapsto { k \cdot (g_i \cdot a) : ~ k \in H } = O_i $$
pink_panther
is this the right isomorphism that proves $r = |G : HG_a|$
pink_panther
Kind of silly question incoming:
A free R-module with basis A means every m in M can be written uniquely as R linear combo of elements in A. What about 0? I am just trying to remember the relevance of 0 to uniqueness and all this
Basically im trying to remember linear algebra stuff
Its been a while. I was just confused cause like also 0 = 0a_1 so 0 cant be written uniquely ok ok silly
But i noticed now in df they specify nonzero elements for the uniqueness thing
Since only finitely many entries are nonzero you can see it as an infinite sum
There's no problem there
Finitey many are nonzero?
Yes, only finitely many coefficients of a linear combination are nonzero
This is why I was saying you can treat it as an infinite sum
Then you don't have to worry about this nonzero business
You can really truly just see it as an infinite sum as I did here.
Ok
Also, Ra1 is not isomorphic to R as R-modules in general right. If a1 has uhh … zero torsion or something? Then its isomorphic ?
Like are you saying that if we have some R-module M and element m of M then Rm is not typically going to be iso to R?
Yes. Find an example.
Yeah i was just going to clarify
Idk what you mean by zero torsion
It can have torsion, yes, but R can also have torsion
Try R = Z.
Ok yes i will need to think through it, i was asking because in the free module context Ra1 iso to R for each a1 in the free generating set
And i saw its injective because (r1-r2)a1 = 0 implies r1=r2
Yes that's right
Since its a free module every element is written uniquely so you cant have nonzero thing times a1 = 0 cause also 0a1+… = 0
Uh-huh
R can also have torsion as an R-module? Like if R has zero divisors
Why try R = Z?
Oh like a Z-module
Yeah it a group has element with finite order
If
Or?
Yeah for a Z-module then the submodule Za for some a in module wont be iso to Z yes
If a has finite order in the group
Makes sense
Depends what M_\infty means. If you just naively consider a matrix as an infinite grid of elements of R, then this won't have a well defined matrix multiplication.
If however you require that for each column only finitely many elements are non-zero you get the endomorphism ring of R^(N) (free module on N)
:((
do u know a infinite non communative ring with char p>0?
hö
but isnt it finite?
I wanne cry
What about 2x2 matrices over an infinite
Fuck you tteppa
Smd
Okay how about the endomorphism ring of an infinite dimensional F_p vector space
Chmowned
I went infinite on yo ass in a different way
Yeah but you need to be careful about what an infinite matrix is
Take F the algebraic closure of Fp, G the absolute Galois group and R = F#G the skew group algebra.
For example
The skew group algebra
The skew group algebra
another example? because we havent that lol
and its well defined?
The elements are (formal) F-linear combinations of elements in G, and the multiplication is
(a g)(b h) = (a b^g) (gh)
Where b^g means g acting on b. (a, b in F, g, h in G)
Yeah
Multiplication is composition and addition is just addition
mmh but Mn(R) isomorph to End(R^n)
Now ain’t that just a semi direct product

so M_infinite(R) isomorph to End(Rînfinite)
Horrors beyond human comprehension
so how can be multiplication well defined in End when its not well defined in M_infinite(R)
Cuz what you said isn’t true
Yes, the group algebra of the semidirect product
F(G rtimes H)
equals the skew group algebra
FG # H
Not every matrix corresponds to a linear map
I mean this is really coming down to what an infinite matrix is
Anyway take what I said or leave it
See this answer @cloud lynx
If you define M_\infty so that each column has finitely many nonzero entries, then it equals End(R^(N)) and matrix multiplication = composition
what is column
A column is something stacked vertically
A matrix is a grid of elements, so has columns and rows
For example in the matrix
a b
c d
The first column is
a
c


AHHH
Okk
Tyy
English is not my native language unfortunatly lol
Unfortunately
How do I go about showing that “If R[x] is an integral domain then R is an integral domain”. If we take any a,b from R then since R[x] is a subset of R we can just represent a,b as polynomials i.e., f(x)=a and g(x)=b. We also know that f(x)g(x) is not equal to 0 or cannot be a zero divisor since R[x] is an integral domain. Now ab=f(x)g(x) right and ab is in R so ab also cannot be a zero divisor. Will this be the correct idea?
yes. any subring of an integral domain is an integral domain. u can embed R in R[x] through sending a to itself as a constant polynomial so R can be viewed as a subring of R[x]
Great! Thank you.
What about a non-split extension
What about them?
What is the group algebra of a non-split extension?
Well FG certainly maps onto F(G/N). And the ideal is generated by (1 - n) for n in N.
Not sure what more you can say, like the extension is not particularly nice, so the resulting algebra will also be not very nice I guess
Hi All. Is there a name for a monoid that's basically isomorphic to (-inf, 1] and equipped with a single binary operator? I'm writing a (physics related) paper where the fundamental objects turned out to essentially be three of those…
Well without specifying what operation that is, it doesn't mean very much to say that it's isomorphic to that monoid
Any monoid with a continuum number of elements satisfies those requirements.
(if by 'isomorphic to (-inf, 1]' you mean in bijection with that set)
And what's the deal with (-inf, 1]? Such a weirdly specific set
The binary operation isn't too crucial, tbh, it just happens to make sense. For context: it's essentially encoding the inverse of distance, but with a zero point. A good analogy would be accuracy on a dart board: missing the board maps to (-inf, 0), the rim maps to 0 and the bullseye maps to 1.
The binary operation is entirely crucial if you're talking about a monoid being isomorphic to something!
I just used "isomorphic" so I wouldn't waste everyone's time explaining the thing if it's a well known thing… 😅
might have miscalculated xD
You know how physicists get upset when laypeople use the word "quantum" willy-nilly? I imagine I know how that feels right about now
Hahaha
Without further details you are just talking about any monoid with continuum many elements.
How icky would it feel if I were to describe something like that and call it "closeness"?
Closeness seems fine, but maybe "signed distance" would be better
Not sure where the monoid structure is fitting into this though
It's a monoid because the set of physical distances isn't closed under multiplication, so I just dropped the operation…
(I also dropped addition and division, hence downgrading from a field to a monoid? I'm demonstrably still bad at this xD)
There's no use in us guessing and heming and hawing about what this could be
Okay, but like a monoid is a set with an operation. So far you haven't said anything about an operation
Ok, let me go and collect my thoughts a bit more. Thanks for indulging my ramblings for a bit! 😅
Random, but are you interested at all in physics?
I’m not interested in physics
I thought I was way back when but then I realized I just liked the math
No physics doesn’t interest me personally
It was programming that made me realise the same thing
We are given that $R$ is a domain and we need to show that the units of $R[x]$ are exactly the units of $R$.
My attempt: Let $f$ and $g \in R[x]$ where g is the multiplicative inverse of $f$. Then since $R[x]$ is also an integral domain $fg=1$. This implies that $deg(f)+deg(g)=deg(f+g)=0$. So f is indeed a constant polynomial. Now how do I connect this with the second part of the statement? Can I say that since all the coefficients of the polynomial come from $R$, then $f$ is also in $R$ and is a unit? Idk, this last statement kind of does not really conclude the proof.
mss
Wdym since R[x] is also an integral domain then fg = 1
Yes you basically showed that if f in R[x] is a unit then it must be constant, so its in R
So whatever the units of R[x] are, are the units of R
Ohhhh ok ok I get it now.
Saying this isnt relevant
At least i dont think it is
I think I can just say let $f$ be a unit with inverse $g$ where $f,g \in R[x]$. Then $fg=1$ and move on to the degree stuff etc instead of all that.
mss
Yea
Oh yea cause that degree sum formula only works for R an integral domain ?
I didnt think about that before
So there could be more units
Than just constant term being unit
Is there a faster way of finding all the solutions instead of checking every single element for $\bar{5}x^2=\bar{3} \text{ in } \mathbb{Z}/7\mathbb{Z}$? Like its fine because there are only 7 elements in $\mathbb{Z}/7\mathbb{Z}$ but what if $m$ is like 400?
mss
there are tricks for larger numbers. for specifically 400, u note that 400 = 2^4 * 5^2
u solve the equation mod 2. lift a solution mod 2^4 using hensels lemma. then do mod 5. lift a solution to mod 5^2 the same way. then u use the CRT to find a solution mod 400
^ thats one way, im sure theres others aswell
So this will be (x-3)(x+3)=0 mod 7? and the solutions are 3 and 4.
Notice that b(M1) = b(M2) iff M1 + L = M2 + N, and a^{-1}(Mi) = Mi intersect L.
So for this to be true for all short exact sequences involving M is equivalent to the lattice of submodules of M being a distributive lattice, according to https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Distributive_lattice#Characteristic_properties (see the second displayed equation).
The lattice of submodules of a module is a modular lattice but not a distributive lattice, so it probably isn't in general, which should imply that there's a counterexample.
In mathematics, a distributive lattice is a lattice in which the operations of join and meet distribute over each other. The prototypical examples of such structures are collections of sets for which the lattice operations can be given by set union and intersection. Indeed, these lattices of sets describe the scenery completely: every distribut...
In fact, the prototypical modular non-distributive lattice is 0 <= a, b, c <= 1 (see the link above again), in which b, c have the same meet and join with a but are non-equal, and this can be realised e.g. by three distinct 1-dimensional subspaces of a 2-dimensional vector space.
So M any 2-dimensional vector space over a field and L, M1, M2 three different lines in it should be a counterexample.
Oh, oops.
Oh lol more generally all complements of L in M have the same a^{-1}() (namely 0) and b() (namely all of N).
Damn, Auslander-Reiten theory is wild
Never thought morphism versions of e.g. radical would be so frustrating..
In the class, its definition was rather glossed over. How do I understand the radical of morphisms, rad(X, Y)?
when taking inverse limit of an inverse directed family of groups, why does it matter if its directed
directed poset means for every i and j there exists k such that i<=k and j<=k
I need to correct part d here, the binary operation is (a,b)(c,d) = (ac, ad+b) for a,b,c,d in R. a^n implying a = 1 or -1 is obvious, but I don't see how in the a = 1 case my conclusion changes from what he said. I still have to say bn = 0 and n can't be 0, so b must be shouldn't it?
So you can define rad(X, Y) very similar to how you would for rings.
Namely f: X -> Y is radical iff for any map g: Y -> X, 1 - gf is an automorphism.
If you're in a finite length category then it becomes easier to describe. If X and Y are indecomposable then rad(X, Y) is the set of non-isomorphisms. And rad is additive so you can just distribute it over direct sums.
See https://wiki.math.ntnu.no/ma3203/2024v/course_schedule sheet 14 exercise 3c, 3f. Also exercise 4 relates it to AR-theory
Thanks! Looking into it rn
You may have to use ||fittings lemma||, I don't know if you're familiar with it or not.
Sadly, I am not familiar with it
In short the endomorphism ring of an indecomposable finite length module is a local ring
In long: if X is a finite length module and f is an endomorphism, then there exists an n such that X is the direct sum of Im f^n and Ker f^n
I learned about this, but did not learn about the "in long:" version
Not exactly learned about the proof tho
Well, it's a nice exercise. Remember that finite length modules are both artinian and Noetherian
Hmm actually, it seems like I did not learn this.. sorry
There was a similar lemma about endomorphism being a local ring, but likely was more restricted case.
I mean you can replace finite length with finite dimensional I guess. Otherwise I'm not sure of any similar lemma.
There is the Krull-Remack-Schmidt theorem, that says that if a module is a finite direct sum of modules with local endomorphism rings, then it can be written as a direct sum of indecomposables in a unique way.
Ah, yep, it was proved for finite dimension case
So it does not use artinian/noetherian machinery.
Well, I mean the proof is the same. Whether you use the word "artinian" or not. Your just saying that a decreasing sequence of subspaces eventually stabilizes.
Anyway, thanks a lot!! The exercises would hopefully help me with understanding.
Would appreciate if anyone could give me a pointer of where to start with this problem, not quite sure how to actually approach it (not looking for a full solution or anything, genuinely just an idea to get going)
Let $k$ be a field and $q\in k^\times$. Let $\tau_q$ be the unique automorphism of $k[y]$ such that $\tau_q=qy$. Show that $k[y][x;\tau_q]\cong k\langle x,y\rangle/(xy-qxy)$
Nope
I’m guessing it’s some application of the universal property, and unpacking the notation for the ore extension it does certainly look like this should be true, but I’m not quite sure what the details are
We obviously have xy-\tau(y)x in the kernel of the left, but then I’m guessing we use the fact that the image of tau is qy and that’ll somehow give us what we need to use the universal property, but I’m struggling to work out what any of the actual details are here
Recall that given an endomorphism (\sigma:R\to R) the Ore extension of (R) is just [R[x,\sigma]=R[x]/\langle xr-\sigma(r)x\rangle]
vir783
how do i show that f in Z[X] is irreducible?
because reduction criteria and eisenstein is only that f is then over Quot(R)
X^3+10x-5
in Z[X]
Well if it were reducible in Z[X] then certainly it would be reducible in Q[X] -- can you see why?
yes
OK then you're done
Think about this again.
its reducible in Z[X] but irreducible in Q[X]
Yes because there is something about 2X that makes this untrue that your other polynomial does not share
Hint: leading coefficient
leading coefficient is a unit
I forget the name of the type of ring
Where everything has a (not unique) prime decomposition
I have seen factorisation domain I think
That’s it
Yeah it’s a statement for the field of fractions and their polynomial rings of a factorization domain
ah ok thank you!!
do u know a way how to determine how many possible homomorphism there exists for a homomorphism
?
There's no single way to do this, but a good method is to choose a nice generating set of whatever object you're looking at, since any homomorphism will be entirely determined by where it sends those elements.
ah ok ty!
when taking inverse limit of an inverse directed family of groups, why does it matter if its directed
directed poset means for every i and j there exists k such that i<=k and j<=k
Well I mean you can still take the inverse limit anyway, but it behaves particularly nicely when you have directed things
Very often one losens this to being "cofiltered" which is essentially the same but slightly more flexible
bumping this pls
I think you'll have more responses if you write it up in latex. I can't even tell what the original problem is
It is the signum
I went to my tutoring center before class and ended up answering the question myself, I don't know why I was struggling with it
but thank you
I'll be more clear next time
Every element in the limit is "represented" by an element coming from one of the groups
And if you are doing some computation involving finitely many elements you can always find one of the groups containing all those elements
Which means that a bunch of the properties that are true for each of the groups are also true for the limit
has anyone an Idea how to solve there exists a bijection between {U<G with Index 2} and {G->Z/2Z Epimorphism}?
Hint: all subgroups of index two are normal.
Yes I know so doing something 1.isosomorohism theorom?
Try it and see
But I dont know how to construct it
Construct what
Do they mean U->Z/2Z?
Because i dont even understand how it look like
ok
G->G/U
but we know that for every U there exists a Epi G-> Z/2Z
so also G->Z/2Z
so U isomorphic to Z/2Z
and how does it show that set is bijective?
to the set of epis

This is direct limits, not inverse limits though.
Direct limits are very nice, much nicer than general colimits.
You're right, i read "directed set" and forgot to read "inverse"
I'm not sure there is a big advantage.
For direct limits vs colimits, direct limits are exact and commute with the forgetful functor. And the latter allows a nice construction of them.
But for inverse limits vs limits, the forgetful functor already commutes with limits, and inverse limits are not exact. So I'm not sure what the gain is.
But inverse limits of a system of surjective maps is exact though, so that's a slight advantage.
I'm confused what you mean by colimits "allowing a nice construction of them"
Commuting with the forgetful functor allows a nice construction
Sorry if that was unclear
I.e. you just take the direct limit of the underlying set, and then equip operations in a nice way
Oh sorry I see what you mean, misread your post
Lol
Thought "the latter" was referring to general colimits and was like huh
atiyah-macdonald
I have a stupid question regarding quotient group with AoC
Say we have a function from G to G/N defined by
$\phi:G\rightarrow G/N$ where $\phi(g):=gN$.
AlexATG
and now i want to show \phi is surjective, so for each C\in G/N, i want to find a g such that \phi(g)=C
oh
i guess i havent seen anything nontrivial with this
this can be done trivially by choosing some representative g\in C, and thus \phi(g)=gN=C
but i think the action of choosing g\in C involves using the Axiom of Choice, or does it not. And if yes, is there a way to bypass using AoC
i tried to explain by for each C\in G/N, C is non empty and there exists a g\in C, for the same g, we have \phi(g)=C, but im not sure if this is rigorous enough
It's rigorous enough.
I think it does require AoC but you'd have to ask someone who actually knows about foundational stuff. I would say don't waste your time on it if you just wanna learn group theory. AoC is very necessary for algebra.
You don't need AoC, since there is no reason to make all the choices simultaneously.
The statement for each coset X in G/N there is a g such that X = gN is true without needing to define a function G/N -> G making such a universal choice.
Thanks a lot! So when I do it "one by one" for each X\in G/N I don't need AoC, but when i do it "at the same time", say writing out a set of representative S, or repeating the process of picking each one by one indefinitely, this is when i need AoC
Any hints on how to get started for this question?
bijective means surjective and injective. So by surjectivity, for any y in B, y=f(x) for some x in A. Using injectivity, what can be told about such x?
So $\forall x \in A \exists y \in B | f(x)=y$ ? So $y=f(x)=y$? So $y$ has the same image as itself?
mss
think about what injectivity means, would there be two different a,b \in A such that f(a)=y and f(b)=y
Yes
In another manner of speaking, you can uniformly pick representatives
Since choice guarantees a function which picks them out
Whereas without choice, you can’t necessarily pick out a rule describing how to pick a representative
Thanks!
this is not the channel for this problem. Use #proofs-and-logic or #discrete-math
Can somebody help me with this.
If g is a Lie algebra, is End(g) also a Lie algebra? What is the Lie bracket on End(g)?
it's just [f,g] = fg - gf I believe
yes
Alright, thanks 🙏
Well really I suppose this is a property of the underlying vector space
But a map g -> End(V) of Lie algs for a vector space V is equivalent to a rep of g on V, so this is saying ad is a representation on (the underyling vector space of) itself
(well change vector space for module as appropriate :))
For 33, do you see why these operators are GF(2)-linear? Then you just have to show that the zero function is represented iff all the coefficients are zero (Euler would have had problems proving this, btw, but I think you shouldn't have problems if you know a little bit), and then use a dimension argument.
For 36, try factoring x^(3^(k+1))-1. It factors as f_k(x)...f_0(x)(x-1) where f_k(x)=1+x^(3^k)+x^(2*3^k). f_k(x) is the minimal polynomial of the primitive 3^(k+1)th roots of unity
Also btw in general feel free to post Lie algebra stuff in #advanced-algebra
Makes sensefor that as thank you for the help with 33
But if we’re already on Lie things, what’s a good reference for Lie groups/algebras, particularly including tori and parabolic-y kinds of subgroups? :3
lol it says right there that the Lie bracket is ad_x ad_y - ad_y ad_x, should just learn to read 😅
will do 👍
Have you considered Knapp?
Haven’t even heard of it so no
Hm I should learn about lie groups properly at some point
A usual reference is Bump I think lol
Nice book
The only thing I know of offhand is uhhh Prosecci, whatever is in Fulton-Harris and Isaac or wtv, and whatever little Lang includes
As in, references I know of, not that I know the content
Buddy is bumping Bump
Lol
On an Artinian ring, is nil ideal nilpotent?
If so, I struggle with how to easily prove this.
By Nil ideal do you mean Nilradical?
Yeah, or any ideal that is made of nilpotent elements.
Nilradical is the ideal containing all nilpotent elements, right?
Yes, in commutative unital rings
I am not sure if that's true for Noncommutative rings in general
Indeed, nilpotent elements do not necessarily form an ideal in a non-commutative ring (hint for a counterexample: ||matrix ring||).
I think that's why the terminology of "nil ideal" instead of just saying "ideal contained in the nilradical" originated.
Also, is Jacobson Radical equal to the Nilradical in case of Artinian rings?
Yes for commutative Artinian rings (AFAIK nilradical is not defined for non-commutative ones).
Oh right yeah, all non-zero prime ideals are maximal, yeah
Even for a non-commutative Artinian ring, the Jacobson radical is nilpotent, which is if anything stronger than "being the nilradical" would be.
In commutative settings
Okay, from this, if we can show all nil ideals are contained in the Jacobson radical, aren't we done?
I'm not assuming commutativity here
Are nil ideals contained in Jacobson radical?
Done with?
Oh, this.
This is true for any (unital) ring.
This is true for Artinian rings.
Why though?
By nil ideals, I mean ideals which is made of nilpotent elements.
Putting them together, you can show that the Jacobson radical is the unique largest nil ideal, and it is nilpotent, so that all nil ideals are nilpotent, as @boreal inlet said.
I think it could be bigger, but I cannot pinpoint an example.
Right, so that depends on your definition of the Jacobson radical.
I would define it as intersection of right (or left) maximal ideals.
Then for Artinian rings, I think it is maximal 2-sided nilpotent ideal.
Then you need to show that if I is an ideal all of whose elements are nilpotent, then every x in I lies in every maximal left ideal M.
Suppose for some x in I and maximal left ideal M that x does not lie in M. Then ...
I GTG so posting the answer:
... then ||M + Rx = R because M is maximal||, so ||1 in M + Rx <=> 1 + rx in M for some r in R||, so ||1 + rx is not (left) invertible||, but ||rx is nilpotent as it lies in I||. This is a contradiction because ||if (rx)^n = 0, then 1 + rx has (two-sided, in fact) inverse 1 - rx + (rx)^2 - ... + (-rx)^{n-1}||.
(The alternative definition of the Jacobson radical as {x | 1 + rx is (left) invertible for all r in R} is more natural for this.)
Damn, how I never think of this line of thought
Thanks!
So it doesn't even make use of Artinian condition?
Yes, this doesn't require Artinian.
I forget ring theory so easily.. I must have forgotten this
Usually you'd define nilradical as the sum of all nilpotent ideals. In which case nilradical equals Jacobson radical for artinian rings
There is a prof here who is selling his humongous textbook collection
Serge Lang’s Algebra hardcover only $10!!!!!!
JACKPOT!!!!
Oh wow that's pretty good
is ur prof okay ??
i have a certain attachment to the math books that i have, especially in paper/hardback
They're probably retiring, if I were to guess
Typically professors have a whole office full of books, that won't do much good in their basement when they retire.
Lets say I have a group presentation with generators {a_i, b_j}, with relations that set all the {a_i} equal to all the {b_j} for any i and j, and no other relations. I know that then I will have a group presentation with all the generators equal. But I'm a bit confused because to me it seems like I should therefore have Z as my group. But I know the answer is supposed to be that this is the trivial group
so why isn't it Z?
(I know it's supposed to be the trivial group bc this comes from a van kampen calculation on a space we are told is simply connected)
You sure you're not just missing a relation?
maybe I am. I suppose I should ask in #alg-top-geo-top about that though
Yeah, his collection is insane
Me too
after an entire lifetime of research, what do you do after?
I dunno. One emeritus at my institute runs an antique store.
Otherwise I guess you do what retired people usually do, play bridge with friends, travel to warmer places
Show up to seminars and complain about the youth corrupting math
Lol
not sure i see why this is true
was taken in class and did not elaborate further on why the preimage should be a Sylow 2-subgroup
oh V is the klein four-group for reference
Well what is the size of phi^-1(A)? Every element of A will have |V| preimages, so in total we get 2*4 = 8 elements. And you can simply check that 8 is the largest power of two dividing 4!.
Oh right cause the kernal has to lie in the preimage
is the preimage always a group?
Try proving it!
ye good idea
More to-the-point, the preimage of a point is just a coset of the kernel.
this is known as the first isomorphism theorem
right, i know the theorem im mostly not used to using preimage instead
I was making a bit of a joke. But it does follow
Hello im not really sure if somoen is awake
i have small question regarding order of an element inside the group
Feel free to ask
the first question lets say i know that a^20 = identity element why this means not yet that its the order of element a and we should look to its divisor so in this case it might be 1 or 5 or 4 and why when a = - a then the order is 2 i mean well it makes sense for example that a + (-a) = 0 which makes its order 2 indeed but -a = a and thus a + a = 2a as well right
thx
I just think it's funny
did u have a brat summer boytjie
I must confess I'm not really a fan of the album, I think it's just OK
Hahaha fair enough. I thought it was quite fun
The order of a is the smallest positive n such that a^n = identity, so if a^20 = e then the order needn't be 20
If 2a = 0, then the order of a is either 1 or 2 yes
but do we know that that 2a = 0 this is my question
why is that the case this does not make sense to me
Well this is mostly a definition of order
np
Kein Problem
How can I show that (1,2) and (1,2,...n) generate Sn?
been a while since ive looked at this stuff
do i have to decompose stuff into 2-cycles or something
shuffl-uffl-ing
Idk
yea i had a feeling it was that thing
you're good
It’s clear how to get (1k) for all k
And from that u get all the transpositions
And from that you get all cycles
Okay? Very good

This is a mouse with a thumbs up
A rat
No way
Whitney and induct
You have a circular conveyer belt and a machine on the belt that can flip two adjacent objects on the belt
Just keep moving stuff under the machine whenever they are in the wrong order
😌
thx i dont like this swapping permuting stuf
@coral spindle your research field is representation theory right? Why did you choose to go deeper into that?
I have not learned anything about that yet
so for a group homomorphism f:G->H, it is called an embedding if the image of f is isomorphic to G
does that mean f is injective
i cant find any counterexamples but i also don't know how to prove it
Technically this isn't correct
The following are equivalent:
- f:G -> H is injective
- The "corestriction" f;G -> im(f) [literally the same function but make the codomain smaller] is an isomorphism
That 2) implies 1) is clear, since they are the same function (up to changing codomain).
And 1) => 2) is also clear because after corestricting it is now surjective (as well as injective)
The reason I say this is that it could happen that the image "just so happens" to be isomorphic to G
hi all, I am working on homework for a graduate course in group theory and am struggling to recall definitions of bounded and unbounded sets. We are being asked to prove that SO(2,R) is bounded but SO(2,C) is not. I was under the impression that for a set to be bounded it needed to also be well-ordered, and I am struggling to recall what that entails. Any help would be greatly appreciated!
bounded in metric space sense I assume
there being a point x and a finite M>0 s.t. all points are within M of x
thats what I was thinking, but I am unsure, given that we don't have explicit ordering in SO(2,F or C). I know that any set can be well ordered under axiom of choice, but I am not sure how to go about solving this in that regard. Plus, technically this class has not discussed boundedness or ordering at all smh
SO(2, C) is a subset of M_2(C) which is isomorphic to C^4 as a vector space (in general M_n(K) is isomorphic to K^(n^2)). So you can use the vector space norm on C^4
There's also a notion of an operator norm on M_n(K). But every norm on a finite dimensional vector space is equivalent, so I think you can choose any norm you want and get the same result
Am I correct the answers here are, respectively, (2 4 8)(3 5 6), (2 1 6 7), and (3 9 7)(5 4 1 2) ?
o i see
thanks
np
In the mult. group (Z/p^kZ)^x, where p is an odd prime and k>=2, I want to show that p+1 has order p^{k-1}.
Through some binomial theorem stuff, I was able to deduce that ord(p+1) divides p^{k-1}...but I'm having a bit of trouble showing it actually is p^{k-1}.
Any help would be greatly appreciated
Okay, so i've been able to reduce it down to trying to show $(p+1)^p-1$ is not congruent to $0 \mod p^k$, and I was able to show that
$c_1p^2+c_2p^3+\dots+c_pp^{p+1}$ where each $c_i$ is not divisible by $p$.
Though I'm not sure if this is useful in showing that this is not divisible by $p^k$ 🤔
dackid
Unsure if the specifics matter, but just in case,
$c_i=\frac{(p-1)!}{(p-i)!i!}.$
dackid
Got it! k=2 this actually isn't true, but that's fine, because p is the order of p+1 in mod p^k.
But if it's not true for k=3, then it can't possibly be true in k>3
maybe proving this separately will help you clean it up a little.
If q >= p is a power of an odd prime p and you have a number g = 1 + qx with x not divisible by p. then g^p = 1 + pqy with y not divisible by p.
(if p is 2, we would actually need q >= p^2 to do this.)
and a simple induction on this statement gives that for any q which is a power of an odd prime p, and g = 1+px with x not divisible by p. we have g^q = 1+pqy with y not divisible by p.
There are 2 lemmas that make it super easy to prove.
-
If $a \equiv b \pmod{p^k}$ then $a^p \equiv b^p \pmod{p^{k+1}}$
-
If $k \geq 2$ and $p \geq 3$ then $(p+1)^{p^{k-2}} \equiv 1 + p^{k-1} \pmod{p^k}$
🤗🤗
i want to show that if k is a field, then (x,y) in k[x,y] is not principal, but i’m a bit lost on how to do that :S
like, intuitively it’s plenty clear, but i’m not sure what to use to set up a formal argument for this
Whatever it is generated by can’t have degree > 1, and then we clearly couldn’t get x
So it’s generated by something of the form ax + by + c
But then that vanishes on a line, so everything in its ideal does, but x, y don’t vanish simultaneously on any line
Hehe, I think I actually did this induction proof for p+1.
Also, although the things y'all are mentioning are helpful to show it's congruent mod 1, I'm a bit unsure it addresses the core issue of order I was dealing with at the time
No worries though, I was able to figure it out
polynomials are my frens, though they have often confused me
A maximally linearly independent subset of a vector space must be a basis. But can I see an example of a maximally linearly independent subset of a module that does not generate it?
2 \in \bZ
Simply put if the order is less than p^{k-1}, then (p+1)^{p^{k-2}}=1modp^k, so
(p+1)^{p^{k-1}}-(p+1)^{p^{k-2}}=0modp^k, and for k>=2, but we can actually show this is not true. For k=2, p^{k-2} is just 1...so this is a non-issue in that case
2 in Z?
Ok yea. I forget that for example for modules just always first start by looking at groups …
Thx
Ive noticed every time i want an example of somethint, its always a way simpler example than i thought was gonna happen lol
Despite the Dostoevskian title, this is nothing more sinister than a rigorous undergraduate textbook whose subversiveness consists in presenting rings before groups.
pff
from a review of aluffi's notes from the underground
I'm not a big fan of that title, for a long time I thought it was literally just a collection of notes
i haven’t had a look at the book, but i’m a big fan of the subversive act of presenting rings before groups
Can somebody help me understand why the multiplication of two ideals is always contained in their intersection?
Just check by definition, basically
Cuz if a in I and b in R, ab in I
Big hug

it's not so bad, c'mon hahah
I’m talking about the user above’s name
They’re @ big_hug
I'm just brushing up ideals, and I'm just confused
If I take $z \in IJ$ does it mean that $z = \sum_{i=1}^n a_ib_i$ for $a_i \in I, b_i\ in J$ or can it also be an infinite sum?
Finite
damn_guuurl
You can’t make sense of an infinite sum unless you have a notion of convergence
is this the only reason why we only look st finte sums?
I guess
The sum is a binary operation and there’s no free way to lift that to an infinite input operation
well they don't make sense
can you elaborate or is it really only because the notion of convergence
Well like yeah infinite sums are defined in terms of limits which only makes sense when you have a topological space (or smth similar)
I feel so stupid right now, I have never really noticed that and I do algebra since like 3 years
thanks for helping me though

I think it's a valid observation
np
is GL(n,R) a metric space? If so, how would one show this?
Its standard topology can be induced from a metric yes.
How to show that I guess would depend on what definition you use for its topology.
Thank you guys for helping me in the past months!!! Today I wrote algebra and it was ok!
I mean, equip R^n^2 with the product topology I guess
Lmao true I guess
There's multiple norms you can assign to GL(n, R), and each norm induces a metric
Use the standard norm of R^(n^2) for example, as I mentioned here
if you think of a matrix as a set of n column vectors with n components you can think of the n x n matrices as R^n x R^n x ... x R^n (n terms).
This naturally gives you a norm ||(v1,...,vn)||^2 = || v1||^2 + ... + ||vn||^2
which for me makes the topology on GL(n,R) as being the same as R^n^2 more intuitive for me
I FRIKEN HATE NUMBERS!!
The amount of times id have to review “the smallest positive linear combo of a,b is the gcd” is absurd
I just never undertsand it intuitively
I don't think it's intuitive. You just learn it and move on ig
That you can write the gcd as a linear combination of a and b follows from the extended euclidean algorithm (which I think it's pretty intuitive). I can't think of an intuitive reason that it's the smallest linear combination though, but I'm sure there is one
here's one I think: let g = gcd(x, y). Then ax + by = agk + bgm = g(ak + bm) for some k and m, so a linear combination of x and y is always a multiple of their GCD
Have I started this correctly? I'm stuck on how to "deduce that this stabilizer has order p^r for some r<=l"
If you find that unintuitive, there's a neat thing
Z is a gcd domain
so Z is principal
so aZ + bZ = cZ for some c. It is obvious that gcd(a,b) divides c.
However if c = gcd(a,b)k for k != +-1 then c doesn't divide a or it doesn't divide b. But clearly cZ must contain both aZ and bZ, so cZ = gcd(a,b)Z
in particular this implies that the least positive linear combination is gcd(a,b)
Very good explanation but to someone just starting out abstract algebra trying to get their head around gcds and bezouts that would be very confusing
fair 
smallest because factoring out gcd
If that's intuitive to you, great but like
That doesn't mean that everyone is going to feel the same
yep, every linear combination is a multiple of the GCD, I realized after I wrote it
A few years ago I made an animation to try to visualize the euclidean algorithm. It's more crappy than I remember, but I think it captures kind of how I think about it
The only thing more embarrassing than the animation itself is how much time I spent making it
Z6 as a Z6-module has torsion elements {0,2,3,4} right? And we can see this cant be a submodule since its not a subgroup
This is just for a question about giving example of a module so that Tor(M) is not a submodule
Sure
The torsion elements of R as an R module are just the zero divisors (and 0 if you don't count that as a zero divisor lol), and the zero divisors of Z/nZ are the things which share a factor with n
If you want to generalise the calculation
Yea ok cool sounds good thx
I guess then that the Torsion elements of any local ring (as a module over itself) form an associative algebra
I assume, not sure
nevermind, we need the condition non unit => zero divisor which errr
maybe like a ring with a finite grading (i.e. R_n = 0 for n > N, for some fixed N)
so the maximal ideal is nilpotent
now I'm just rambling, so i guess I'll go to bed
I like that manimation, it's pretty well done
Thanks
I remember struggling a lot with the euclidean algorithm, but once I got this image in my head it suddenly made sense
What does it mean "Deduce that the congruence class mod p of the number n_p,l of subgroups of G of order p^l depends only on the order of G,not on its structure"
I'm not sure what it is asking me to prove
I would guess it wants you to prove that $n_{p,l}\pmod p$ is the same for all groups of order $|G|=p^km$
Edward II
I see
is the product of two objects in a category unique
up to isomorphism
is this right channel actually
Yes, up to unique isomorphism
o ok
You can write it in #category-theory ig but this is fine
ty
The product of two objects has a "universal property" which distinguishes it up to unique isomorphism
it is because there is 1 endomorphism that is id
those are key words to google aha
Yes
Exactly
thanks
Note that like
o ye
these A -> B and B -> A are unique too
So there is a unique isomorphism [subject to the fact that they are compatible with projections]
Note yeah I should underline that this is one endomorphism which is compatible with the projections
There may be tons of other endomorphisms which don't have this property
ye
Nice
hey everyone
Hey 🙂
This “induced map” is just phi’(m+IM) = phi(m)+IN?
How can I be sure that things are well defined and still a homomorphism?
I guess i could manually check but i am wondering if there is a higher level observation i can make
Composing phi with the projection you get a map from M to N/IN, it's easy to see IM is contained in the kernel of this map so you get a map from M/IM to N/IN
Oh ok cool so this was showing to me how we can see that this map is all well defined and still a hom
Because we can make it by just composing other homomorphisms
I suppose when things are saying “induced” maps its referring to some compositions
I see IM is contained in kernel of pi o phi, but how does this induce a map
From M/IM to N/IN
which book is this?
I could still use help with this
I’m struggling a lot with deducing n_pl is 1 mod p.
Im confused on this still
this is essentially a weaker version of the first isomorphism theorem
Basically the idea is that if I is a subset of the kernel then the original morphism factors through this induced morphism
the morphism is induced how you think it is
phi-bar(a + IM) = phi(a) + IN
it's sort of just a sit down and check it's well defined sort of calculation
Yea i thought this was the “induced” map but it made me uncomfortable cause i actually dont even “really” know whats happening yk
I just automatically thought ok its probably this
I is a subset of kernel?
It's not
I was using a different I
my mistake sorry
I meant that IM is a subset of the kernel
IM subset of kernel?
Yes this is wherr i got stuck
In terms of understanding what is happening
I have this map now M -> N/IN I got from composing projection with phi
Ok that makes sense sure
The kernel of this guy contains IM, ok sure
Now i got stuck wasnt sure what to even think of really

Think of a diagram
here phi is your original map
phi-bar is the induced map
and pi is the projection
this is how phi-bar fits into the picture
the original morphism factors through it essentially
Ok this is quite helpful because i am not yet thinking in terms of diagrams and factoring through and stuff
Phi is from M to N tho?
here I already composed it with the projection N -> IN
Hey, anyone able to explain how to do this to me clearly?
Have no idea how to understand why it works the way it works
Does this picture tell us how phi bar is defined?
nope
But I already gave you the definition earlier
Right, so this picture just illustrates how its being “induced” i suppose
yeah basically
Ok thanks. So now i actually have to try the question lol
I really appreciate the help btw
the idea is to to show whether or not an input can spit out two different results
so take two classes in your group or whatever
choose some representatives for each class
and see whether or not you always just get one answer out of the function
or you're able to get two different ones
So, i still need to justify that phi bar is 1) well defined and 2) a mod hom still right?
Ig they sorta assume it already but if you want you can go and check yourself
Ok so for example, if I chose these two to prove that one holds in Z4 but doesn’t hold in Z5, then it would be a correct way to prove by counterexample right:
idk what you wrote there lol
anyways idk I'm gonna show you how to do it for Z_4 to get the idea
Take [0] * [0] in Z_4
If we choose a = 0 and b = 0 as representatives we get that they're clearly congruent mod 5 so we have that [0] * [0] = 1
But if we choose a = 0 and b = 4, we have that they aren't congruent to each other mod 5, so we also get that [0] * [0] = 0
Hence * isn't well defined on Z_4
So we chose a = 0 and b = 0 as representatives to show that they’re congruent in Z5? Because 5 x 0 = 0 remainder 0?
I mean wouldn’t that work for Z4 as well because 4 x 0 = 0 remainder 0 as well?
Ok so like you said [0] * [0] = 1 for Z5 right
No for Z_4
I see
But wouldn’t it also work for Z5 is what I mean
Therefore they both give us 1 according to the question
yeah in Z_5 we'd have that [0] * [0] = 1 always
But you should argue yourself why this is true
I mean it wouldn’t really give us a counterexample then tho right
Because they’re both the same
As you said I think [0] and [4] would work
I got that phi(a^(n-1) m) = a^(n-1)n
But then my question is, why are allowed to use [4] even though it’s not in Z4? Z4 only has [0], [1], [2], [3] right
Can I show phi is surjective somehow from this?
For any n in N, i know this
[4] is in Z4, its the same as [0]
Thats kinda the point of the question, since we can represent elements of Zn with different numbers, we need to verify that functions are well-defined
Sorry could you kind of elaborate on well defined a bit more because I’m really confused about that
Because why should we be allowed to use [4] for that even tho Z4 specifically doesn’t have it
Z4 does have [4]
Elements of Zn are like equivalence classes
I mean like shouldn’t we be only allowed to work with
[0], [1], [2], [3]
Well idk cause we tend to define functions by using representatives of the equivalence class
Ok yeah then I’ll just work with that
So if we define functions by using representatives of [0] (like 0, 4, 8, etc) then we need to be sure that all of this maps to the same element
Or else it wouldnt be a function
So I can provide a counterexample to prove that [0] and [4] don’t work in Z4 and Z5 by counterexample but how can I prove that Z5 is a well defined operation in the general case then?
Trying to show phi is surjective. I took something in N/IN , n+IN and we know there is a phi(m)+IN = n+IN so phi(m)-n is in IN, so phi(m)-n = a1n1 then since I is nilpotent say for k then if u multiply by a^(k-1) you get phi(a^(k-1) m) = a^(k-1)n
Im now stuck
You need to show that if a and a' is in the same equivalence class, and b and b' is in the same equivalence class, then [a]*[b] = [a']*[b']
I still could use help with this
Makes sense: so if I proved that 0 ≡ 0 mod 4 and 0 ≡ 4 mod 4 are both in Z4, And therefore [0] * [0] = [0] * [4] in Z4 but not in mod 5, would that suffice as a proof by counterexample?
Waterloo pmath student 😥
Yup!
I don't know what you mean by [0]*[0] = [0]*[4] in Z4 but not in mod 5. In Z4 we have [0] = [4] so we would expect [0]*[0] = [0]*[4], but [0]*[0] = [1] while [0]*[4] = [0] (since 0 != 4 mod 5)
Yippee ty
A hint in right direction would be cool
Yes 👀 u here too?
Makes sense, thank you!
Nah uwo
A surprising amount of Canadians in this server
Also canadian here
Ooh in uni?
Yea
Which
Ah W
Its a smaller school so
Nice
u go to CUMC this year?
Nah I didn’t even hear about it 😵💫
If it was truly at ubc there would be no way I would be allowed loll
Does western not fund some students?
some of my friends here didnt get funding and bought their own tickets 😭 wild to me
No idea but I didn’t even hear about the opportunity this year
ah rip sorry
Yeah but if it’s cool and close to Ontario next time I’ll defo try and snag a way to attend
I remember western held it online two times during Covid lmao
2021 comes up online
UW put in a bid for 2025 so it might be near 👀 (tho tbh waterloo's a kinda lame place to host it 😭)
😯
Waterloo is kind of close to my place I’d love to attend
Plus I’ll get to tour the cheriton library thing 👀
oh DC is neat. Imo DP is more impressive as a library but ye
👀
Its true that IN contained in I^2N contained in … etc right?
Since phi bar is surjective, take something in N/IN (n+IN) and you have for some m, phi(m)+IN = n+IN
Then phi(m) - n is in IN so its also in I^nN = 0 (I is nilpotent)
So then phi(m) = n and phi is surjective ?
Uhh nevermind its the other way round lol
Nevermind !
Ok so phi(M)+IN = N
IN is a subset of I^2N+phi(M)
So then I can say I^2N+phi(M) = N?
Then repeat until ideal gets killed off then phi(M)=N?
This part was only possible because phi bar is surjective
Im now just trying to take a step back and think about what was needed where
I could still use help on this
ok,
if H and K are normal in G
and K contains H
is the map G/H -> G/K
gH -> gK well defined?
i just wrote a proof and realize
i never verified well definedness of maps
and im not sure if it true now that i think about it
wait no im silly it should be, because aH = bH implies a - b in H which implies a - b in K which implies aK = bK
nvm 😄
what are some general techniques for determining the lattice of subgroups of a finite group? More concretely, how would you approach the problem of drawing a Hasse diagram for the subgroup lattice of S_5?
I guess one idea could be to find what the maximal proper subgroups are
Because if you know the subgroup lattice of the maximal subgroups then you can construct the one for the whole group
Well unfortunately doing so is still very hard. As my friend who studies maximal proper subgroups of E8 says in his talks, the general problem is "hopeless." You will probably simply need to use ad-hoc methods to determine the lattice of subgroups of any group.
Is C[x,y,z]/(z^2024) of finite length as a C[x,y,z] module ? 
nope it's not artinian
since it has dimension greater than 0
oh wait
as a C[x,y,z] module
fml lol
I thought as a C module
Would u have any idea about how to compute it's length?
Since C[x,y,z]/(z^2024) is a cyclic module and C[x,y,z] is commutative, C[x,y,z]/(z^2024) is Artinian as a C[x,y,z]-module iff it's Artinian as a C[x,y,z]/(z^2024)-module, so your argument is valid.
maybe there's some calculation using like grobner bases?
In general just cooking up a composition series will do
Yes but it seems impossible to do so it this case 
I mean you just start with some submodule, then see if you can find one that contains or is contained in it.
Like okay you got (x) for example, and it contains (x^2) which contains (x^3), ... yup that's infinite
I got to compute the length of C[x,y,z] / ( x^3 +3x^2 + 2xy, y^2 -1, z ^2024)
So far, i tried to consider some short exact sequence to decompose the problem but i got stuck
Hum it seems complicated in this case no?
It's a little more complicated I guess.
You can start by taking out (z) at least, that's not gonna do a difference.
After that I'd probably look at (y+1) or (y-1)
And just chip away one element at a time
Okay i will try that, what do u mean by taking out z?
0 -> (z) -> M -> M/(z) -> 0
is a short exact sequence
And (z^n)/(z^n+1) = M/(z), so the length of M will just be 2024 times the length of M/(z)
And M/(z) you can just consider as a C[x, y] module, so that cuts down on the variables
I Will take a look and Come back to u thank u very much
E8 as in the compact Lie group?
The finite group of lie type, really
If anyone is bored and likes basic group theory: let G be a finite group, and let S be a subset of G with cardinality coprime to G’s order. Show the only element of G that sends elements of S to S under left/right multiplication is the identity
Doesn't this just follow from orbit stabilizer?
Yeah lol
Okay but what is the action here tho
Left g multiplication on S?
And orbits are gS kind of stuff?
Hi guys! I have no idea how to proceed on this exercise. It says "Proof that if V is a commutative K-algebra without 0 divisors, where each element is algebraic over K, then V is a field" I used the property that every element is algebraic, but then I don't know how to proceed in order to conclude that there exists inverses. Any help would be appreciated
Hello, i'm sorry but i really struggle with length computation, i have to compute the length of A = C[x,y] / ( x^3 + 3x^2 + 2yx , y^2 -1)
So i consider the following short exact sequence :
0 -> ([y+1]) -> A -> A/([y+1]) where [y+1] is the class of y+1 in the quotient.
to get length (A) = length ( A/([y+1]) + length ( [y+1]) , i managed to compute length ( A/([y+1]) but i can't manage to compute length ([y+1]) , i can't see how to do it 
Think about the map C[x, y] ->> ([y+1]). Are you able to describe the kernel?
An element is algebraic means that it's the root of a polynomial, see if you can use this polynomial to construct the inverse
I'm sorry but which map are u talking about ?
The one sending 1 to y+1
What i tried is to find the submodules of C[x,y] I such that (x^3+3x^2+2xy, y^2-1) is included in I which is included in Q^-1( ( [y+1]) ) where Q is the quotient map
I found Q^-1( ([y+1] ) ) = ( x^3 + 3x^2 + 2xy , y+1)
But the problem is that i found an infinite number of such I , for n , take : I =
(X^3 + 3X^2 + 2XY, Y^2+1, X^n(Y+1) )
And it does not make sense , i shouldn't be able to find an infinite number right @rocky cloak ?
I Will try to think about it
Yeah. The natural action on the power set
Okay still unclear on how it follows from orbit stabilizer.....
What are the orbits :3
Uh idk |S| size subsets?