#groups-rings-fields
1 messages Ā· Page 262 of 1
Oh I thought you were talking about linear independence of characters.
Chinese Remainder Theorem is my favorite proof of that
I'm fond of any wacky way to use chinese remainder theorem to prove stuff
I used to like that, but now my favourite proof is to interpret it as linear independence of eigenvectors with different eigenvalues.
(e.g. commutative artinian rings are a product of finitely many local rings)
huh
You have an object X "over" an object Y. You have something over X, and a way to "lift" it to something over Y. Given something over X, when does it come from something over X via lifting, and what data do you need to find the thing over X it came from
As an example, suppose I have a galois extension of fields E/F and I have an algebra over F. I can lift it to an algebra over E via the tensor product, i.e. A(x)_F E. given an algebra A over E, is there an algebra A' over F such that
A'(x)E \cong A
The information we need to find A' in this case is related to the galois group. It turns out that if you have a semilinear G-action on A (whatever that means), then
A^G (x) E \cong A
As algebras via a natural isomorphism. There's actually a lot of structure this isomorphism preserves
I am now rabbit-holed into double centralizer theorems
The idea of Ʃtale descent generalises this
@chilly radish there seems to be a fuckton of different cases of double-centralizer theorems, is there any particular motivation why this property is saught after?
also is this not false
Right modules mean it's an anti-homomorphism from R to E no?
I don't have a good answer for this
They're only looking at end of the underlying group
Oh wait
Yea you're right
This is an anti-homomorphism
I was looking at the highlighted passage
I was confused about this for like 20 minutes lol
I'm looking for a minimal primary decomposition of (6) in R = Z[ā-5].
I thought (6) = (1 + ā-5) ā© (1 - ā-5) would work: both (1 + ā-5) and (1 - ā-5) are prime, and hence primary. It's clear that 6 belongs to the ideal on the RHS, while any element that is a multiple of both (1 + ā-5) and (1 - ā-5) is also a multiple of 6. Minimality also seems to be OK.
Does this seem reasonable? I'm pretty sure I've missed something. In https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/3953873/find-minimal-primary-decompositions-of-ideals, they end up with a different decomposition...
if f is an onto ring homomorphism from R to S, and we have f(J)=S for J an ideal of R, then under what assumptions can we conclude that J=R?
This happens iff J + ker f = R
It's hard to really unpick this condition. There is likely to be a difficult interplay between J and ker f that you can't really say very much about for a general ring R.
But this is at least a common enough condition that it has a name: J and ker f are coprime ideals.
So you need the only ideal coprime to ker f to be R.
Sorry, to be clear: you have f(J) = S iff J + ker f = R
I is a maximal ideal of S, and I'm trying to prove finv(I) is maximal. I supposed the preimage of I was strictly contained in an ideal J. I was able to show f(J)=S since I is strictly contained in f(J).
I proved this with FHT years ago but I'm trying to do a direct proof. can we perhaps conclude it's coprime to ker f somehow or is there an easier way?
So it suffices to show that f^-1(I) is a maximal ideal of R/ker f, right? Indeed there is an isomorphism R/ker f ā S so it should be immediate
would you mind explaining why it's sufficient to show it's a maximal ideal of R/ker f? that's not obvious to me atm. I'm pretty rusty on my algebra
For any ideal J of R, the ideals of R/J are in bijection with the ideals of R containing J
Moreover this bijection preserves the order
(This is sometimes known as the correspondence theorem)
Ergo, if you wish to show that J (an ideal containing ker f) is a maximal ideal of R, it suffices to show that J/ker f is a maximal ideal of R/ker f
This is an important picture you should have in mind when considering quotient rings
In the end the proof of this correspondence theorem will really be the same thing, but this just elucidates it more I think.
You actually left out this assumption in your first question up here.
Since J = f^-1(I), it contains ker f (= f^-1(0))
So J + ker f = J
:)
oh that's super interesting. yeah I remember my prof mentioning that. that's really cool.
sjshajdhdjjfnfjd
yep there we go
thank you @coral spindle ! (:
No worries taylor
It is a great result and it's super useful 
If you want it this to hold for all J, then it's equivalent to the kernel of f being in the radical of R.
Oh ofc, nice
This is very clear with examples but idk how to make sense of it in general
gcd(m/d,m) = m/d
I think this is just because $m/d$ divides $m$, no?
Pseudonium
Any common divisor of $m/d$ and $m$ must be $\leq m$ and $\leq m/d$
Pseudonium
But $m/d$ itself is a common divisor - and that means it must automatically be the greatest one
Pseudonium
Ohh yeah nice
I don't know if this is the place for this but I'm looking to get into research on Lattices and order theory, Boolean rings and whatnot to understand the attached paper. Can someone please help me build an intuition for this?
The most I've understood is the powerset example, from which I could understand inclusion. Then I was looking at given an ordered lists of elements, a radon arragement of n elements assuming elements form every single list falls into a new list- would that technically classify as partially ordered? I felt that this was a very primitive intuition though, and i really was not able to make head or tail of the rest.
Excuse my english, I had a hard time translating this stuff into words.
So using the paragraph under the Definition, we can write $x^2-2$ as $(x-\sqrt(2))(x+\sqrt(2))$ so then it would be considered irreducible over Q. But if you use the definition, then neither $(x-\sqrt(2))$ nor $(x+\sqrt(2))$ is a unit in Q so based on the definition (not the paragraph under the definition, why is $x^2-2$ irreducible over Q?
Soap_Opera
I'm confused
Spamakinš·
Wait wait I see your confusion
Spamakinš·
Ah
Ok
Thank you for making me read it more closely haha
Neither of those are polynomials in Q[x]
bingo
i assume you already figured it out @barren sierra but for my own sake of understanding, can you not argue that a root r of p(x) with multiplicity m is a root of pā(x) with multiplicity m-1, so you can divide it out and remove the singularity
Which question is this lol
I'll message back and repost the question I deleted once I get back to my laptop
Ah ok
Have you seen the nice Conway (?) proof that sqrt(2) is irrational
Works to show N^1/m is only rational if N is an mth power of an integer lol
There is no attached paper BTW.
Yes, Szamuely's "Fundamental groups as Galois groups", for example. Volklein's "Groups as Galois groups" is also nice, and more concrete.
Oh i didn't know that was meant to motivate AG lol
amazing, thank you very much
adding this to my pile of to-read things currently at 297 items

The point is that by Hilbert's irreducibility theorem if you can construct a finite Galois extension with Galois group G of Q(X1,...,Xn) then you will also be able to construct such an extension for Q. It is not clear how to construct Galois extensions with prescribed Galois groups of Q(X1,...,Xn) but the situation for C(X1,...,Xn) is nicer, and you can try to pass from C(X1,...,Xn) to Q(X1,...,Xn). But idk much more
But the Galois theory of the extensions of C(X) is basically the theory of Riemann surfaces, and so on.
You can also consider Qp(X1,...,Xn), etc, and this will lead to p-adic kind of AG stuff
This lecture is also nice https://youtu.be/ImLmr1YHn24?si=lcClIiYd_frU-QCU
VaNTAGe Seminar, October 3, 2023
License: CC-BY-NC-SA
iām pretty sure this is related to the topics of my bachelor thesis mwahaha
What is the topic? I hear you sometimes talk about hyperbolic space and stuff
which was a hodge-podge of too many things so that really i did not get any understanding of most of them ehehe, but it set a landscape i am excited to get a better sense of 
the starting point was the klein quartic, but i spent most of my time trying to get a sense of the history rather than the mathematics that lead up to that⦠which i realize was probably a rather bad move as history is such a mess but we rollin, albeit slowly
mmmh maybe there are interesting connections
kleinās work certainly is important in the theory of riemann surfaces
Iirc one of the main features of the Klein quartic is that it had large automorphism group, I think it achieves Hurwitz bound of 168 elements? Maybe that was PSL2(F7)? but not sure
yep
Maybe there is some way to use that to construct PSL(2,7) Galois extensions of Q. But I have no idea
he also wrote a whole book on the quintic and the icosahedron
well, a small book tbh
he wrote a lot of books with fricke⦠many of them behemoths that iāve been told foresaw many later developmenrs
but the icosahedron and its relation to the galois theory of the quintic (their symmetry groups are isomorphic) is clearly the main inspiration for much of it
The integers Z is a ring. In fact for any integer k the multiplication by k:Z->Z is an injective endomorphism. In particular image(k)=kZ. The inverse k^{-1}:kZ->Z is basically division by k.
I can also consider multiplication by k^2 that is k^2:Z->k^2Z.
Is it obvious that multiplication by k^2 and division by k commute?
That is
k^2 k^{-1}=k^{-1} k^2?
Well, both map k x to k^2 x for any x in Z, so yes?
Oh okay so it's obvious just by checking each element on kZ. Thanks! I forgot the domain had to be kZ
If you want to soup it up abstractly, you could say that since k is cancellative, we can embed Z in Z[k^{-1}] where the equality is obvious.
I'm not sure if this has any advantage over just comparing the two though.
It's not a ring endomorphism though, right? Since k * a * b != k * a * k * b
ok finally back from errands
part (b)
this is the solution for the bound:
relevant exercise which defines that value B
I guess I need to normalize by the leading coefficient of p(z)
Alright, we have F(2), which is the Algebreic Closure of GF(2)
We have Addition and multiplication defined on this field
Are you talking to me or the other person?
No just talking to myself
Guys is there a nice possible way to view R^2-0 as a coset space of SL_2(R)
I'm taking like the coset space of this being G-isomorphic to R^2-0 as G-sets
G being GL_2(R)
Yeah, SL_2(R) acts on R^2 - 0 just by usual matrix multiplication acting on vectors. Since elements of SL(2, R) are invertible, it has trivial kernel (hence sends non-zero things to non-zero things). The stabilizer of (1, 0) is the subgroup of strictly upper triangular matrices (with 1s on the diagonal) so G/N = R^2 - 0
Wait i didn't quite get that
I meant I want to identify action of GL_2(R) on GL_2(R)/SL_2(R) the same as action of GL_2(R) on R^2-{0}
Oh
I don't think that quite works, GL_2(R) / SL_2(R) is isomorphic to R - 0 via the determinant map
No like I don't mean they're isomorphic as groups
More like as G-sets
Wait let me get you a reference
Right but even as coset spaces, I don't think you can identify GL_2(R) / SL_2(R) with R^2 - 0
Yeah, he's saying that R^2 - {0} is a coset space of SL_2(R), meaning it's identified with SL_2(R) / N where N is some subgroup of SL_2(R)
And then the description I gave above is the relevant one here. I can elaborate on the details of that if you'd like since I skipped a couple of steps
Yeah I think I understand this ( you were basically saying the sl_2(R) action is transitive and then took the stab of (0,1)
This is like how we prove stuff for transitive actions
So yeah
Itās quite useful, yeah
I love proving the binomial and multinomial theorems with it
Also gets used in quantum field theory
This is going to seem extremely dumb
Actually I answered it in my head lol
I was going to ask if the centralizer of a ring R embedded by left multiplication into End_grp(R) is iso to itās opposite ring
But I realized itās just the map from R^op via right multiplication lmao
how do you actually prove this? Idk anything about Clifford theory
Where's the highlighted bit coming from? We know $|P|=p^k: \big| : |N(P)|=i: \big| : |G|=p^ml$, but how do we know we dont just have $|N(P)|=p^kj$ with $\gcd(p, j)=1$? Like how do we know the quotient still has order a multiple of $p$?
Sara
P acts on G/P by left multiplication. The size of an orbit divides |P|, so is either 1 or a multiple of p.
Counting modulo p we can ignore those that are multiples of p, so only count those in orbits of size 1. I.e. those in N(P)
I think they're asking why it's = 0 (mod p)
which isn't immediate to me either hm
not familiar with the proof of this generalized statement
yes
I haven't seen the action on the cosets themselves before
i've usually seen it on subsets of a given size
*unfathomable sad trumbone noise*
VERY much using the fact that k < m
I guess the more general thing is just that if a p-group acts on a finite set X, then |X| is congruent to the number of fixed points mod p
b-b-b-buh?!?!
Itās easier to just, partition the sets of cardinality p^k by the p-adic valuation of their left-stabilizers and do it from there
Show the equivalence classes are congruent to eachother mod mp^(differences)
Ahh ty
hey guys whats the best book to self learn algebra? I wanna be prepared before i have to take the first abstract algebra class
I like Artin's Algebra
what do you think about foote and hungerford if you have gone of them before?
In Z define aā¢b = a+b-ab, then there is a isomorphism between monoid ( Z,Ć,1) and (Z,ā¢,0) such that a-> 1-a.
Now for injectivity I want to show that 1-a = 1 -b => a = b.
Now I don't see that it is valid to do 1-a = 1-b => a = b because how can I cancel 1, is it because now we are working on Z so we can use its property? But on Z there is a different operation, right?
Z has a ton of operations.
When you have any equation x = y, and you do the same thing on both sides you get
f(x) = f(y)
This is completely independent of what kind of operation f is. Be it one you've used up until know, one that's familiar from before, or something completely arbitrary.
So if I take f:(Z,Ć,1)->(Z,ā¢,0) such that x->1-x.
Then if 1-x = 1-y then f(1-x)=f(1-y) => x = y
But to show f is a well defined function if I take x = y I need to show 1-x = 1-y
So here in (Z,ā¢,0) can I use if x = y then 1-x = 1-y?
Well, I think it's well established that subtraction is well defined
Yes but I want to define subtraction in (Z,ā¢,0)
If you want to prove that, I guess it depends on your fundations and how you define Z
No, you don't want/need to do that
I'm not even really sure what that would mean
So when I take set Z, can I assume addition and subtraction properties here ?
I mean there is a different operation on Z ⢠so if I have a=b can I say 1-a = 1-b
Yes, you can use addition and subtraction. Or the absolute value function. Or cook up you're own function out of the blue
Okay thank you ā¤ļø
The operation doesn't dictate what integers are equal
It doesn't really address it really
So here I can use the addition property of Z
And in the definition of ⢠they used addition also
Z^2 as a Z-module doesnāt have invariant basis number right?
Or well IBN is a property of the ring, I mean to say rank is not well defined right
Oh wait nvm
The rank is 2
Commutative rings have IBN. So IBN doesnāt imply that for an R-module of rank n, a linearly independent subset of n elements is a basis, what do we need for that? My understanding is that if this is not true then thereās some element not in the span, and thus giving us a basis of size n + 1 which is a contradiction
Iām doing something very wrong lol
Iām looking at $\langle (3, 4), (-4, 3)\rangle \subseteq \Z^2$
Sara
Is this not lin indep?
Sorry lemme do this on paper again I probably messed up checking independence šš
Pretty sure this is linearly independent
A linear relation needs integers a and b such that 3 a - 4 b = 0, and 4a + 3b = 0
If you can divide, obviously itās true, but divisibility failures are wacky
View this as a matrix system, and then the matrix has nonzero determinant
Is it linearly independent over Q? Over R?
I mean itās not exactly the same, but if thereās no rational way to scale to add to zero, then as for integersā¦
Yeah
They can be linearly independent of size 2 without being a basis for that rank 2 module though
Ah
You have proper submodules of Z iso to Z
Namely
2Z
What about (2Z)^2 < Z^2
Good luck getting (1,1) when every entry has even coordinates
But thatās isomorphic
I think this might be true if R is artinian.
But you're reasoning that you can find a basis of size n+1 is wrong. Just because the n elements doesn't span the module doesn't mean you can find another linearly independent element.
2Z < Z being a very easy example.
Mega sniped on why itās wrong, but I didnāt think of the artinian
I'm thinking maybe it's an iff also...
If R is artinian, stack those n-independent vectors, iso submodule, iterate
And uhhh, principal ideals should be reachable reasonably? I dunno about, like, n-generated? But some silly R^n quotient things maybe?
Yeah, you just set up the matrix mapping standard basis to the new one.
Then it's injective iff the determinant is non-zero divisor. Hence a unit
nice
Not an iff though. Since same argument works in any ring without non-unit non-zerodivisors
So I guess that's the condition
I see I see, unfortunate but understandable
The tyranny of only having weird equivalent formulations
There are two main results being used: Clifford's correspondence theorem and Gallagher's theorem. I'll explain each one.
\bigskip
Suppose $N \unlhd G$ and let $\vartheta$ be an irreducible character of $N$. Noting that $G$ acts (by conjugation) on the irreducible characters of $N$, consider the fixed point subgroup $G_\vartheta$. Then the induction of characters forms a bijection $\operatorname{Irr}(G_\vartheta \mid \vartheta) \to \operatorname{Irr}(G \mid \vartheta)$, where by this notation I mean characters whose restriction contains a copy of $\vartheta$. So if I can understand the characters of $G_\vartheta$, I understand the characters of $G$. This is the Clifford correspondence.
\bigskip
Suppose that there exists some $\vartheta'$ an (irreducible, necessarily) character of $G_\vartheta$ which restricts to $\vartheta$ on $N$. Then every character of $G_\vartheta$ above $\vartheta$ is of the form $\vartheta'\kappa$ where $\kappa$ is an inflated character of $G/N$. This is Gallagher's theorem, which allows us to understand the characters $\operatorname{Irr}(G_\vartheta \mid \vartheta)$.
\bigskip
In my situation we have a normal subgroup $G^p$ and quotient $C_p$. The characters of $G^p$ look like $p$-tuples of characters of $G$ and $C_p$ cyclically permutes them. The stabiliser is just $G^p$ iff some characters differ, and we can use Burnside to count them, and then just use Clifford's correspondence. On the other hand the stabiliser is the whole wreath product iff they're all the same, in which case we extend and use Gallagher.
"Let O_P be the localization of K[x, y] at a point P. Let F and G be coprime polynomials in K[x, y]. Then O_P/(F, G) is zero-dimensional and local, and hence Artinian." Now I don't quite see why O_P/(F, G) is zero-dimensional...
We know an ideal I in O_P/(F, G) corresponds to an ideal I + (F, G) in O_P. But (F, G) = (1) = O_P, so I would be the entire thing. But this makes no sense.
Boytjie
OP/(F, G) is the localization of K[x, y]/(F, G) so it's enough to see that this is 0-dimensional.
F is nonzero, so K[x, y]/(F) is 1-dimensional. F and G are coprime, so G is not contained in any height 1 prime that contains F. Hence G is not contained in any minimal prime in K[x, y]/(F). So K[x, y]/(F, G) has smaller dimension, i.e. dimension 0.
(height 1 primes of K[x, y] is just of the form (f) with f irreducible, because K[x, y] is a UFD)
probably a really stupid question but what is a ring homomorphism on Z[x] with kernel (x^2)?
in general, how can I construct a homomorphism with kernel (p(x)) or (p1(x),...,pk(x))?
Are you requiring it to be an endomorphism�
Cause if you are, no such endomorphism exists
And if you arenāt, then hereās a stupid answer - take the quotient map Z[x] -> Z[x]/(x^2)
just needs the domain to be Z[x]. and yeah I mean something nontrivial :p
like for (x) or (x-a) there's the map to p(a). or to (2,x) there's p(0) mod 2, etc.
I mean, by the first iso theorem, this is essentially the only example up to isomorphism
And combined with inclusion into a larger ring, I suppose
Since the first iso theorem tells you that every homomorphism takes the form of a quotient map, followed by an isomorphism, followed by an inclusion map
I'm sort of going the reverse direction. like rather than saying I have f:R->S is onto, then S is iso to R/ker f, I'm trying to find a ring S that R/I is iso (but not equal) to by constructing f such that ker f=I.
so I guess the question is if a generic ideal (p(x)) has something like an evaluation map to get it as the kernel
The universal property of Z[x] tells you that ring homomorphisms Z[x] -> R naturally correspond to a choice of element of R - namely, where to send x
So just - pick a ring R with an element r such that r^2 = 0, and where thatās the minimal polynomial
Thatāll give you a ring hom whose kernel is (x^2)
And all such ring homs arise this way
interesting. I was representing the elements of $\bZ[x]/(x^2)$ as matrices
$$a+bx\sim \m{a&0\b&a}$$
so maybe that's just it haha
inconspicuous old man & mime
the [0,0;1,0] matrix works as something that squares to zero
Mhm
L
This works pretty nicely with the universal property of quotient too
I wonder if we can always represent polynomial quotient rings as matrix rings
Itās like
Ring homs Z[x]/(p(x)) -> R
Naturally correspond to ring homs Z[x] -> R which send p(x) to 0, by the universal property of quotient
Which naturally correspond to a choice of element r in R such that p(r) = 0, by the universal property of Z[x]
So you need only pick a matrix whose minimal polynomial is p, for example
And this should always be possible (companion matrix works, I believe)
This will get you an isomorphism, not just a homomorphism
so what about ideals that need more than one generator? like (2,x) is one example, but idk of any others
So we can use universal properties again
Ring homs Z[x]/(2, x) -> R
Naturally correspond to ring homs Z[x] -> R such that 2 and x get sent to 0
So really you just need a ring of characteristic 2
Like e.g. Z/2Z
For it to be an isomorphism youād have to choose something like Z/2Z
But if you just want a homomorphism, any ring of characteristic 2 works
yeah. I'm not sure of any other examples of nontrivial ideals of Z[x] that require two or more generators which might lead to something more interesting.
like what about Z[x]/(x^2,x^3-1) or something idk. nvm that doesn't work
Well, ring homs out of that naturally correspond to
Choice of an element r in R such that r^2 = 0 and r^3 = 1
yeah that was a bad choice because it means 0=1.
These only exist if R is the zero ring, yeah
but so basically in general you're saying if you want Z[x]/(p1,...,pk) then we need to send x somewhere where there's an r such that pi(r)=0 for i=1,...,k?
Yes! Thatās exactly the universal property of the quotient (combined with that of Z[x])
That gives you ring homs out of Z[x]/(p1, ā¦, pk) - for ring isomorphisms, you have to check there are no āextraā polynomials which send x to 0 other than those you can deduce solely from looking at p1, ā¦, pk
E.g. you can define a ring hom out of Z[x]/(x^2) by sending x to 0, since 0 satisfies 0^2 = 0, but this isnāt a ring isomorphism
Any hint to show any finitely generated subgroup of the additive group of the rationals (Q,+,0) is cyclic.
Now let H is a subgroup generated by {x_1,...,x_n } now I don't understand what I can choose such that H is cyclic.
First I thought about taking the gcd of x_i but it seems it is not the correct choice.
Wait what if I take x_1...x_n ?
No
All your objects are general but Q is a specific object
What are the elements of Q and what properties do they have
Try to do it for two rationals first
Let H be generated by p/q and r/s then it can be generated by 1/(qs) because we can generate p/q and r/s in < 1/(qs)>, right?
Not really
can you write 1/pq as a integer combination of p/q and r/s
Okay so first things first do u understand what we mean by a group generated by {p/q, r/s}
I see my mistake
Linear combination of p/q and r/s
Integer linear combination
*Integers
Okay
Just apply the definitions and use the property of intergers
You should be okay
I don't get it
What about integers, is every finitely generated group cyclic?
step 1: notice every finitely generated group in Q is isomorphic to some finitely generated group in Z.
step 2: apply bezouts identity
step 3: apply the reverse isomorphism
@rotund aurora did you have any questions about this btw?
This is like, my bread and butter
thank you so much!
what
look for a āshareā button on your end, instead of just pasting the url you are at
lovely, that link works
thanks
what is Irr(G_theta | theta)? I assume G_theta is the stabilizer of theta under the G action, which forms a group. So then you can look at the irreducible characters Irr(G_theta). If I interpreted it correctly, Irr(G|theta) are those irreducible characters of G that, when restricted to N, equal theta.
Let $H \leq G$ and let $\vartheta \in \operatorname{Irr}(H)$. A character $\chi$ of $G$ ``lies above'' $\vartheta$ if $\langle\operatorname{Res}^G_H \chi, \vartheta\rangle \neq 0$.
\bigskip
The set $\operatorname{Irr}(G \mid \vartheta)$ is the set of irreducible characters of $G$ lying above $\vartheta$.
Boytjie
In other words, these note the representations of G that, upon restriction to H, have a constituent with character theta.
and just to be clear, Res_H^G chi is given by composing the inclusion H-->G with chi, right
ok but how can an irreducible character of G_theta lie above theta? Does G_theta contain N?
G_theta must contain N, yes
Since theta by definition is a character of N, it is invariant on conjugacy classes of N
Ergo the action of N on theta stabilises theta
ah, right
To be totally crystal clear, the action of $G$ on characters $\vartheta$ of $N$ is defined by $g \cdot \vartheta \colon n \mapsto \vartheta(g^{-1}ng)$ which is well-defined only due to normality of $N$.
Boytjie
On the level of representations, it looks entirely similar.
yeah
But yeah this works out as a very nice case, because my stabiliser here is either the normal subgroup or the whole group, and we have a canonical way to extend in the latter case.
The rest is counting.
but when chi is itself irreducible this can only happen if the restriction of chi to H is theta?
I suppose what you did is sum |Irr(G wr C_p | theta)| where theta runs through the irreducible characters of G^p. I think I could get the right number, but it is not so clear why you are not overcounting
mmh but you had to divide by p
I believe the np comes from multiplying the number of irreducible characters of G (so the characters of G^p that have all "coordinates" equal) with the number of characters of C_p, which I assume is p. (By Gallagher.)
There are n^p-n characters of G^p whose coordinates are not all equal, in that case the stabilizer is G^p itself and Irr(G_p | theta)=theta, for theta irreducible character of G^p, no? But why did you have to divide by p?
No this isn't true
Let's take a simple example
The dihedral group with 8 elements has a normal Abelian subgroup of order 4
If what you claim were the case, then the restriction of every character of Dih(8) would be irreducible on this subgroup, hence would be degree 1. But in fact Dih(8) has a character of degree 2!
In the case of normal subgroups, we can describe the situation a bit. Clifford's theorem comes in and tells us that the restriction of an irreducible character is some multiple of a sum of a G-orbit of a character of the normal subgroup
That's a mouthful, so let me write it in symbols.
If $\chi \in \operatorname{Irr}(G)$ and $N \unlhd G$, then there exists some $\vartheta \in \operatorname{Irr}(N)$ and integer $m > 0$ such that $\operatorname{Res}^G_N \chi = m\sum_{\mathclap{gG_\vartheta \in G/G_\vartheta}} {}^g\vartheta$
Boytjie
Clifford's theorem is more general, but no matter.
The point is that reps may split up, but they split up into G-conjugate reps at the very least.
So, when the stabilizer is G^p, the irreducible characters above theta are conjugates of G^p wr C_p and hence conjugates of C_p? So there are p many of them?
oh this is an interesting way of doing it
wait
I suppose it's the other way, an irreducible character of G^p wr C_p has p constituents?
lol
When the stabiliser of theta is G^p, we have the Clifford correspondence, which in particular means that the only character of the whole group lying above theta is exactly Ind theta, which looks exactly like conjugates of theta, yes
But there is only one
However, we can simply count how many characters theta are stabilised, and note that they never produce the same representation of the whole group. There are exactly n of these characters, corresponding to each of the representations of G. got this the wrong way round lol
but there are n^p-n irreducible characters of G^p whose stabilizer is G^p, no?
Oh whoops I got it the wrong way round!
Yes sorry
Indeed. So we get a unique induced character for every G-orbit of these characters
So there are n^p - n such characters, but they come in orbits of size p. So in the end we get (n^p - n)/p irreducible characters of the wreath product produced in this way.
The ones that are stabilised by the whole group look different, sorry
N.b. this you can use Burnside to count
wait to count what? When you know that there are n^p-n such characters and that they come in orbits of size p you are done, because of the sum |orbit|=|X| thingy (which is not called Burnside)
Yes we take gcd of generators
Step 1: let H be generated by finite set S, such that S = { p_1/q_1,...,p_n/q_n } where gcd(p_i,q_i) = 1 for all i = 1,2,...,n.
So if I take S' = {p_1,...,p_n} then we can map H to <S'> such that
a_1p_1/q_1 +...+a_np_n/q_n -> a_1p_1 +...+ a_np_n, a_i are integers
Then my guess is it is isomorphic mapping.
Is it correct?
set all a_i to be equal and be equal to the product of all the q_i then the multiplication map is an isomorphism
Sorry, I don't get it
the map f(x) = q_1...q_nx is an isomorphism from S to a subgroup of Z
Yes to show it is one-one if q_1...q_nx = q_1q_2...q_ny => x = y, can I use here q_i's multiplicative inverse ?
sure
And in Z every subgroup is cyclic. And H is isomorphic to the subgroup of Z so it is cyclic.
Thank you ā¤ļø
To show if nā„4, A_n is generated by 3-cycles (abc).
So there atleast 4 elements and if I showed we can generate (ab)(cd) then it is enough, right?
So we can generate (ab)(cd) = (abc)(bcd).
Is it correct?
yeah this works
In question they ask for nā„3 but in n=3 I think I don't know how to show without computations so I tried for n=4
And in A_3 there are only 3 elements
And they are 3-cycles (123), (132)
Identity by (123)^3
idk what you mean "I don't know how to show without computations". Computing things in proofs is fine
Okay thank you
what is the lie algebra here
In a group G, ord(a) = m and ord(b) = n. If ab = ba show that ord(ab) divides lcm(m,n).
So using what I learned last time I did: $(ab)^{mn} = 1 \iff ord(ab) | mn$
OHHELLNAH
Hint: what is the defining property of lcm(m,n)? It's in the name.
it is divisible by gcd(m,n)?
What does LCM stand for?
least common multiple
Great.
So it is a multiple of m and n, and it is the smallest such thing.
Pseud don't
Now you need to spot one more thing
Is it always the case that (ab)^x = a^x . b^x? No, but in this case it is. You should use this special property.
You do want to use this additional property of order, but in a different way
Whatās an equivalent way to say ord(ab) divides lcm(m, n)?
ok ty for hints ill try to figure it out for a minute and msg again if i figure out smth
Cool
I still donāt understand why you said this
I don't want you distracting people by going on about how this is a universal property again, it feels like it is in every other thing you say and it gets old fast.
I mean, i actually helped this person solve the last problem
Great
OK
Hey its ok you are both very helpful and i thank you for helping me with this :))
I want to point out that everyone uses them because they're useful, and in fact considering this example is a definition, you can't really avoid it! But not everyone is mentioning it at every opportunity.
Has there been any research into the matrix representation of elements of the algebraic closure of GF(2)
(Yes, I know the matricies would be infinitely large)
I'm not sure what you mean by this, can you clarify?
At least i'm pretty sure they would be.
The Algebraic closure of GF(2) is a countably infinite field consisting of well... the algebraic closure of GF(2)
I mean, I mentioned it here cause itās useful for this problem
Yes I'm aware of this, but what more specifically are you looking for?
The definition is indeed helpful.
A way to represent elements of the field reasonably so I can work with it a bit.
OK I see what you mean
The usual approach to this is actually by bounding the field you need.
Hmm, I donāt think the universal property is usually the definition of order, though.
I want to see if I can derive a nice distance function for the field. So I can define some equivalent of the real numbers for it.
it's repackaging the data of the definition into an abstract mess
why do it
Since the algebraic closure of GF(2) is 'filtered' as you like by smaller fields (that is, GF(4), GF(8) etc) you can usually restrict just to the smaller fields
So maybe you could be more specific about what you're looking for Colo?
Like what kind of calculations do you want to do
I want to see if I can define calculus for fields very different than the real numbers.
tangent vectors are linear derivations
for v,w tangent vectors, let [v,w] = vw - wv, where vw is the pointwise product of derivations v and w
you can prove that this is still a derivation
oh so it is exactly like the matrix lie group case
To eventually derive some equivalent of the real numbers using this algebraic closure.
While calculus per se is a little tricky, this has actually been done! In the field of algebraic geometry, there's a sensible notion of a tangent space of a variety, so you can define the derivative in that case. I believe that Gathmann's notes on algebraic geometry (you can google that and a pdf will come up) covers this.
Oh wow
I wanted to say that ally but I couldnāt think of a good way of formalising multiplication
I didnāt know AG did calculus
It doesn't do 'calculus' so much as its own version of differential geometry.
Isnāt that like
Diff geo is calculus
Coordinate-free calculus
You can see it like that, but my point is that you're not gonna start with limits.
I'll look into that sometime, might not understand it though.
you can given an absolute value. Fields of finite characteristic over a prime field only have trivial absolute values tho
Limits are tricky in varieties.
Hm, right, no limits
Derivation on a field š
Yes, unfortunately it is much harder than in the real case :)
Like dual numbers?
You can indeed use the dual numbers to obtain tangents of varieties
There are other ways
Oh neat!
Many.... many........... mannynnyytyy other ways
I kinda use those in physics anyway
This is the one case where I think your obsession with categorical aspects will be very useful pseudo
I want to comment that there's a second way to define the Lie algebra structure and it's not immediately equivalent to the first but it's a useful perspective. G acts on itself by conjugation, and this action fixes the identity e. So given an element g in G, by differentiating the action of conjugation by g, I obtain a map G -> Aut(T_e G). One can check that this action is smooth, hence by again differentiating at the identity, I obtain a map T_e G -> End(T_e G). By currying, I can view this as a bilinear map T_e G x T_e G -> T_e G. This precisely recovers the Lie bracket as Ally defined it, but it's not at all obvious why this is the same, or why it's even a Lie algebra structure (I don't know of a direct way to see that this satisfies the Jacobi identity)
But can we define some equivalent of the reals for this field? Like how R is the continuous version of N, and shares some of the same properties?
I know this isn't very rigorous haha.
If ur worried about limits in varieties it's a good sign you should move onto schemes
No
Yeahhh this is how I remember it being done in my Lie algebra course
There is no sensible ordering in a field of positive characteristic
You may be interested, though, in looking at the p-adic numbers
Is this ok:
If x = ord(ab) then because 1 = (ab)^x = a^x . b^x so a^x = 1 and b^x = 1, now applying that a^x = 1 \iff m | x and same for b it means that x is a multiple of m and n. And because x is the smallest such number that is a multiple of both m and n it is by definition lcm(m,n).
But im not sure about the part where i say a^x = 1 and b^x = 1 cause they could be inverses no?
Who says the field has to be ordered?
Interesting. Almost like youāre using the adjoint rep to get a Lie algebra structure. Does this work with other reps?
These are 'cousins' of R which have interesting properties, and people indeed do analysis on the p-adics. But they are characterstic 0 fields.
but that makes sense. I wouldn't expect it to have an ordering per-se.
Hmm, Iām not sure how you conclude that a^x = 1 from a^x b^x = 1
In general this is not true
So I presume that means no nice equivalent of calculus or continuity.
And yeah, they could totally be inverses
But, I do have an idea for a natural extention of this field.
No there is a topology on the algebraic closure of GF(2), but no good notion of distance.
Topologies define what it means to be continuous
Oh huh there are topologies on algebraic closures
Yes of course, they are profinite.
This is exactly what's happening. I don't know if something happens if you instead consider other representations because we're distinctly using the fact that the adjoint action of G on itself preserves the identity in order to obtain a characterization of group representations purely in terms of the Lie algebra. This is essentially the basis for the key principle relating group representations to Lie algebra representations
I could metricise it. I'm just built different
what does pointwise product mean here? why isn't vw=wv?
Ah
Uhhh what does that mean
Again, forgive my lack of knowledge here, i've mostly been looking into stuff like this on my own out of curiosity.
shit, there are like 3 convos going on
i think i might be incorrect on the internet
I have no formal education on this topic
inverse limit of a nice enough sequence of gadgets
But one case is if a^k = b and then it should be easy, the other case is if a^k != b, but then they can't be inverses to they must be 1
all reps preserve the identity tho š¹ Maybe we need a rep arising from a semidirect product action for it to work
Oh, and each of these has a topology? Thatās cool
yeah the profinite topology
the inverse limit of a bunch of discrete topologies essentially
Well, I know that a^x = b^(-x), but Iām not sure you can conclude much further from there
But, I do have an idea in my mind for how to extend this field.
Though hmm, I suppose your argument amounts to checking the intersection of the subgroups generated by a and b
ok no it's literally just composition @rotund aurora
Maybe that could actually work
compose the derivations
Basically, think of elements of this field as elements of the vector space {0, 1}^N
Doing this is hard.
but only the ones with a finite number of nonzero elements
Itās not how I would approach it but that doesnāt make it wrong per se
Addition would just be normal vector addition over GF(2)
and multiplication would be some sort of convolution i think
Ok I think I can believe a version of this
it's how I think about all profinite things 
how does composition make sense? Isn't a derivation some function from the germs at the point to k?
I don't think it's that bad
Nah I mean finding a basis
Of the algebraic closure of GF(2)
That's really frikkin hard
2nd root of unity... uhhh cube root of uh... 1+x...
Oh
[1, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0.....], [0, 1, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0...]. [0, 0, 1, 0, 0, 0...]....
I've been reading GF(2) as GL_2(F)
cooked
This happens every time
1, x, x^2, x^3....
Who writes GF(2)
You're not seeing what I mean. Let x = [0, 1, ....]. What's x^15 - x^2 + 2?
undergrads
Do you see what I'm saying?
Tbf never seen it in my ug
this is GF(2)
2 = 1+1
1+1 = 0 mod 2?
ok so you don't see what he's saying
Good point yes lol but you're not seeing my point still
the multiplication in that basis is not the natural multiplication you'd assume
I might be totally wrong, again.
it's incredibly difficult to figure out what the product of those two mfs should be
Sorry if I am.
A basis of the closure of GF(2) gives us an identification with these lists
BUT WHAT IDENTIFICATION???????
Maybe to add one step that's missing from ally's explanation: to each vector field at the identity, you obtain a left invariant vector field on G by pushing it around by left-multiplication. Given two vector fields X and Y on your manifold, the bracket XY - YX is another derivation on smooth functions, where (XY)(f) = X(Y(f)) (here Y(f) is another smooth function on the manifold). If X and Y are left invariant, then the bracket [X, Y] is again left-invariant (exercise). Take the value of the bracket at the identity, and you recover a Lie algebra structure on the tangent space at the identity.
You have to choose what the identification is first
and that's fucking hard!
It's really really hard!
I have seen it. It might be slightly common in more combinatorial contexts. GF probably stands for "Galois field"
What do you mean by this?
It does
You can do this for GF(2) and GF(4) easily I think
it's what's used for finite fields in GAP
I have seen it just only on this server lol
Thatās a nice coordinate-free way to do it
they're finitely generated, of COURSE you can
Or progrms
Our course just did matrix commutator
now do it for all of them at once
Yes, for tiny fields it's easy. But as the fields get bigger, computing them gets much harder. Can you compute GF(128)?
Sorry if i'm making you angry, like i'm really really sorry. Thanks for putting up with my math knowledge.
For the infinite case, it's very very hard.
Yeah, there are kind of slick ways to do this for general Lie groups which is nice if you don't want to restrict to linear ones
Why can't you just represent it with the basis [1, 0, 0, 0, 0...], [0, 1, 0, 0, 0...].... (128 vectors later) [0, 0, 0, 0, 0.... 1]
Right, for us we were mostly concerned with applications of Lie groups to physics
Yes, multiplication would NOT be pointwise.
ok, then what's the first basis multiplied by the second
So standard model stuff
This does nothing! This tells us only the addition!
It would be a convolution
yeah exactly
So you still need to work out what the multiplication is
And this
again
is really hard!
also not 128 vectors, just 7
Fair enough, most Lie groups I've thought about are linear anyway. Maybe the one exception that's cropped up frequently enough in my life is the universal cover of SL(2, R)
Ooh, where does this crop up?
Mostly when I think about hyperbolic geometry and braid groups. It's one of the eight model Thurston geometries for three dimensional manifolds
Ooh, I think Iāve heard that braid groups get used in condensed matter
For anyons and stuff, youāve gotta look at representations of braid groups
Could you explain how are you composing X and Y? Isn't the tangent space the set of derivations (germs at the origin)-->k?
Youāre composing the vector fields I think
Which work as endomorphisms of C^infty(G)
I've extended X and Y to be vector fields on the manifold, so now given a smooth function f on G, Xf is a smooth function on G where at each point p, (Xf)(p) is defined by applying the the vector X_p to the germ of f at p. In particular, I can apply Y to Xf (and in a parallel way I can apply X to Yf). The bracket [X, Y] applied to f is by definition X(Yf) - Y(Xf)
I'm not exactly sure what's going on here, but it doesn't really look like the kind of introductory algebra #groups-rings-fields was created for. Are you sure it shouldn't be happening in a more advanced channel?
Yeah you're right, sorry I should've moved this to something like #diff-geo-diff-top
alright messing around with this whole multiplication thing a bunch, i don't see what the issue would be extending it.
We only need to define multiplication between our basis elements here I believe.
Yeah, that's not super hard. Define the basis as 1, x, x^2, x^3....
from there you should be able to represent every element of the closure of GF(2) right?
Is the issue here only to find an explicit way to calculate in the algebraic closure of F2, or is there something further after that point?
ok and it's representable as a quotient of a polynomial ring because...?
we want a basis for F_2 bar basically
just so we can do multiplication
and if so, we need the exact quotient to define the multiplication
these are the steps which must be completed in our quest
In an algebraically closed field, your "x" basis element should have a square root -- what is that?
x+1
this is gf(2)
or the extension of it.
meaning it contains GF(4) as a subfield.
ohhhh wait
yeah yeah, i see the problem
but, this is the closure of GF(2), so it has to exist.
I mean, this representation I think would contain a sqaure root of x
but the vector would have an infinite number of nonzero elements which... complicates things.
ok so apparently, the smooth action of G on itself induces an action on the space of vector fields, which means there's only one vector field associated to each tangent vector at 1
and a whole vector field treated as directional derivatives takes a smooth function M ā R to another smooth function M ā R
which means you can just compose the associated vector fields and then project back down to the tangent at the identity
By definition, if you have a basis for a vector space, each element is a combination of finitely many basis vectors.
This is an infinite dimensional vector space.
Yes. That doesn't change the fact that only finitely many basis elements can be used in a linear combination.
Isn't R a vector space over Q
Yes.
yet the sum of any finite number of rational numbers will be rational.
yeah
In a basis for R over Q, there will be at most one rational element.
which is why R isn't finite dimensional over Q
also Q[i] is a vector space over Q and your statement still holds so actually your point is just inconsequential
I think you're thinking that basis vectors have to be in the underlying field for some reason
Alright, according to wikipedia that definition holds, but why?
Why can't we have an infinite linear combination?
Because making infinite sums mean something would require us to have a concept of limits, and we don't have that for a general vector space.
it's also like... by definition of a basis?
but then you'd be right to ask why we define a basis like that ig
I have a hard time making sense of this still.
For finite dimensional vector spaces, that makes perfect sense.
For for say, the vector space of all functions.
If we do happen to have a topology on our vector space, we can speak about "Schauder bases" which must generate each element uniquely as a possible-infinite linear combination. But that is not the kind of basis we're talking about here.
Yes it is unintuitive.
How the heck would you define a basis for that, where each element could be written as a finite linear combination
You cannot write down a basis for this space.
It is impossible.
But it exists due to the axiom of choice.
I'm not just saying it's impossible because it's infinite. It's impossible in a much more mathematical way: without the axiom of choice, we cannot guarantee its existence, and the axiom of choice doesn't tell us how to construct something.
What if we do generalize the notion to allow for infinite linear combinations?
In that case, writting out a basis for the space of all functions becomes trivial actually.
It is a bit more complicated than it might at first seem
I'm hoping Tropo can comment on this
(By the way, I think one can show that the algebraic closure of F2 at least does have a basis where multiplication is computable. But implementing that proof straightforwardly would lead to absurdly inefficient multiplication algorithms).
According to wikipedia there is a viable algorithm for it.https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/GF(2)#Algebraic_closure
This is the method I pointed out to you first!
This is just saying you can compute in the algebraic closure by computing in the finite fields.
But fwiw, this says nothing about finding a basis, which is harder.
thank the heavens I never need to worry about anything other than adjoining roots of unity
In which situations is it useful to do these explicit multjplications/ find bases
You can take a countably infinite set X and consider the vector space of functions X -> F2 with pointwise addition just fine. However that certainly cannot be the algebraic closure of F2, because the algebraic closure is countable and F2^X is uncountable!
Potat are you asking where finite fields are useful 
do you mean over the algebraic closure?
No
yes.
š
But if one were to allow for infinite linear combinations, you could just define the basis for the space of all functions with the set of functions f(x) = 0 unless x = some number in the reals, in which case it would be 1.
I mean I do stuff w finite fields but haven't had to like write out a basis for F_q ig or pick some explicit model
the union of all of those functions in 1 set.
Maybe this is more a computational math thing idk
it is
OK so let f be the function with f(0) = 1 and f(x) = 0 otherwise. What's the infinite linear combination f + f + f + f + f + ... evaluated at 0?
How would you calculate the number of solutions of an elliptic curve over F_q?
but it's still nice to have a concrete picture of the elements of these things
Idk it's hard
Weil conjectures
Fair
Yeah it is actually hard.
But yeah true in that case you should do this and it'll be a pain sure
You could just say that's the driac delta function.
But that would mean we're now suddenly working with distributions not functions.
That would be an ad-hoc solution to a problem that remains.
Well, not even a real solution.
Which I have no idea about other than the fact that they are not functions.
can you calculate the zeta function without counting solutions? Idk but I would have thought that the other direction is more common
Owo
Anyway, it's useful now at least to keep in mind that vector spaces only support finite linear combinations.
Mhm mhm, thatās all you can really get algebraically
Still, I have a feeling that a basis might be possible to construct.
But uh.. not gonna try with my current level of math experience :P
but in practice, would the faster method be to restrict the finitely many elements that you are dealing with to a finite field and use the computational methods available there? I think for finite fields there are efficient algorithms, but idk how they relate to one another when you change fields (of the same char) or pass to extensions/subextensions
thinking about it a bit more, the set of algebreic numbers is countable.
but uh.. that's not doing us much good.
the vector space would also have to contain the solution to x^5+x+1, which isn't solvable yay.
F2^X was definitely not something I was suggesting as a solution to this problem; my aim was to explain to C48 why his idea of just allowing arbitrary formal linear combinations (with possibly infinite support) wouldn't lead to one.
I overdosed on abstract nonsense and I need a break
You're confusing C and the closure of GF(2)
i met the solution in the vector space.
The closure of GF(2) is not contained in C in any meaningful way
Like how sqrt(x) would be in GF(2)
where x is one of our basis elements.
and sqrt(s) is the solution to s^2-s = 0
Sorry, I meant to answer to this message. @tribal moss
That doesn't matter, because that's not how we work out the values of the Galois fields
In fact, every finite extension of a finite field is solvable.
So this is simply false.
my head hurts
Oh, right then. The part that I can't immediately see a way do do efficiently is if we want to add or multiply two elements from different fields GF(2^a) and GF(2^b), well need to promote them both to live in a larger field such as GF(2^lcm(a,b)). That means we have to remember how each of the fields sit inside the others, but there are infinitely many such inclusions to deal with, so we can't just have a table of them.
Of course, as long as you're only working with {+,-,Ć,Ć·} you can choose a large enough field once and for all.
But given that we want to have the algebraic closure in the first place, I suspect we'll want to at least take roots too, which can take us higher in the hierarchy.
if a group homorphism is bijective it's an isomorphism; if injectiive it's a monomorphism; if surjective it's a epimorpism; is there a name for a homomorphism that is neither surjective nor injective?
Probably just āhomomorphismā
Not that I immediately recall.
yeah but that is less specific :S
The first isomorphism theorem does tell you that every group homomorphism takes the form of
A quotient map, followed by an isomorphism, followed by an inclusion
"inferiomorphism"? 
"A homomorphism, that is neither surjective nor injective"
If A and B are rings, and B has finite rank N as a left-A module, then End_B(B) = B_r (right translations, isomorphic to B^op) embedding into End_A(B) ~= M_n(End_A(A)) ~= M_n(A_r).
Does that mean End_A(B) has finite rank?
Oh HELLL nah heās back at it again
What?
dont we need banach spaces for infinite linear combinations to be behave nicely?
So i was thinking a bit and now I think this is not even true:
so ord$(a) = m$ and ord$(b) = n$
but if $b = a^k$ then ord$(b) = $ord$(a^k)$ = $\frac{m}{\text{gcd}(k,m)}$
ord$(ab)$ = ord$(a^{k+1}) $= $\frac{m}{\text{gcd}(k+1,m)}$
But for example if $m = 6$ and $k = 3$ then lcm$(m,n) = m$ but ord$(ab) = \frac{6}{\text{gcd}(4,6)} = 3$
and then lcm$(m,n) \neq $ord$(ab)$
OHHELLNAH
Would you like a suggestion?
Also, you only need to show the order divides the lcm, not that itās equal
Ohhhh
Yeah, at least for some values of "nicely". But I think the raw definition at least makes sense without completeness.
Omg
are there any other topology that can be defined on vector spaces that make them behave that well?
Sure if you already thought of one, but I think i got it now
I was going to suggest using the āuniversal propertyā of ord(ab)
If youāve got it then thatās fine, though
wait what is ord(a)? the only place ive seen ord is in set theory for ordinal
Oh here itās just the order of a group element
The definition is $\text{ord}(g) = \min_{\leq} { n > 0 \text{ such that } g^n = e }$
Pseudonium
The universal property is $\text{ord}(g) | n \iff g^n = e$
Pseudonium
isnt it also defined as |<g>|?
Yes, thatās equivalent to the definition I presented
Mhm no problem
ā¦perhaps with a caveat about elements of infinite order
wait what happens with infinite order elements?
oh wait your definition would lean towards ordinals
Well then in the definition I presented, youāre taking $\min \emptyset$
whereas mine would spit out cardinals
Pseudonium
right?
And thatās not really a nice thing to do
Your definition would give $\infty$
oh let me reread this
Pseudonium
speaking of abstract algebra. are there any elementary implications of the abelian ring axioms involving multiplication. Im working within a system of axioms and just managed to prove that the structure this induces would be a ring but i dont know what implications it would have that i havent proven already (ive already proven that 0 * n=0; -(n) * m=n * -(m)=-(n * m) )
i wanted to see if i could prove the cancellation rule for multiplication (which is true for the structure i want to be able to induce but i dont know if its true just based on this theory and) it certainly doesnt follow from the ring axioms
Guys so I've been reading on doubly transitive actions of G on a set X and I was introduced to a nice characterisation that G acts doubly transitive on X iff it acts transitive on X and the stab_x_o acts transitively on X-{x_0}
Now I ve been looking for an example where we have stab_x_o acting on X-{x_0} transitively
But the action on X is not transitive
Like I would want to know why the G acting transitively on X condition is necessary
Is this ok?
I think i went the longest path possible
But like also idk about (2) cause my result is that in (2) lcm(m,n) = ord(ab)
problem: In a group G, ord(a) = m and ord(b) = n. If ab = ba show that ord(ab) divides lcm(m,n).
I think this works, but you can considerably shorten the proof
How would you do it?
So Iād start with the universal property of $\text{ord}(ab)$
Pseudonium
Pseudonium
yeah
Pseudonium
By the universal property, this is equivalent to showing $(ab)^{\text{lcm}(m, n)} = 1$, right?
Pseudonium
yeah
Now, since $a$ and $b$ commute, $(ab)^{\text{lcm}(m, n)} = a^{\text{lcm}(m, n)} b^{\text{lcm}(m, n)}$
Pseudonium
But both factors there are 1 - the lcm is a multiple of ord(a) and of ord(b)
So their product is 1
And youāre done
yep at least something haha
Adding this to the bank of problems where the universal property of ord(g) is useful
Oh so like I've got down that if stab_x_0 is a proper subgroup of G the we don't need G is transitive on X cause its implied
And like S_{n-1} acting on {1,2,...,n} works imo
As a counter to the problem not being true when the stab_n =S_n-1 then it wouldn't be doubly transitive
I mean, I think any problem where the definition of order is useful would be a problem where the universal property of order is useful, no? They are basically the same
Since the definition of order is the least number such that...
Different sense of least
Yeah I guess so
.
.
These are not exactly the same
Yeah they're not exactly the same, it's nice that orders play nicely with the divisibility structure. The two ways of thinking about it are so equivalent to me though that I struggle to think of a situation where one would be useful and the other wouldn't haha.
Mhm I get what you mean
Cat theory helps make differences like this visible to me
Also there was a problem a while back where the universal property + yoneda was helpful
Well yeah I mean I think it's obvious there is a difference, hence why I said "basically the same" and not "the same", I just found your statement funny because to me it more or less reads like "Adding this to the bank of problems where the definition of ord(g) is useful"
(modulo a small lemma about how the ⤠structure and | structure of N relate)
Yes I know
So I think itās useful to have a name for it
Makes it more concrete/explicit in studentsā minds
I didn't say anything about that, I just said that it'd be funny to have a bank of problems specifically where the universal property of ord is useful, just like it'd be funny to have a bank of problems specifically where the definition of ord is useful
.
Forgive me, what is the universal property of order?
This
I see.
Usually one proves this soon after you state the definition of order
Which is either the one I gave, or sometimes āsize of subgroup generated by gā
At least, I donāt think itās common to define order by the universal property
Yeah, it's not
Ok so a similar problem but still idk how to finish this:
$a \in G, \text{ord}(a) = m$ and $b \in h, \text{ord}(b) = n$.
Show that for $(a,b) \in G \times H$ $\text{ord}((a,b)) = \text{lcm}(m,n)$
OHHELLNAH
With universal proprety i get "one side" ord((a,b)) | lcm(m,n)
im trying to get lcm(m,n) | ord((a,b)) now but no luck
a very direct way to solve this is argue that (a, b)^lcm(m,n) = (1, 1), and that for any value less than lcm(m, n), that isn't true
It suffices to prove that ord((a,b)) is a common multiple of m and n
It might be needed to use the other definition of order for this, yeah
I suppose there is a universal property for lcm which helps
But that may be, uh, too many universal properties at once
This is likely a better approach
Itās like - you donāt have to choose between the universal property or the usual def, youāre allowed to use whichever is more convenient
Like in my case Iād solve this entire problem with just universal properties, but thatās just cause Iām very familiar with them
Showing R[X] is a graded ring using universal property alone (without knowing itās a polynomial ring a prioriā) is kinda a pain
Yeah I donāt think universal properties should be presented as the One True Perspective
Sometimes you really want to work with the actual construction
You have to show R[X]/(X) via equating it with the extension of the zero map, matching the kernels, then show the maps (X)^n/(X)^(n + 1) are module-isomorphic to R via factoring out the x due to it being principal
The way I usually phrase it is
A universal property tells you what something ādoesā, but you often also want to focus on what something āisā
Itās a good exercise with universal properties imo, but it sucks
Both are important
āconstructingā the tensor algebra off of itās universal property in a similar vain can be done but is it worth it? No :3
Mhm sure
Just nice to use the tensor product construction that already exists
Yep yep
For me, whatās nice is that youāre allowed to freely move between looking at what something āisā and what something ādoesā
Thatās the essence of the yoneda lemma
Which in its own right, can also be constructed instantly off itās universal property much like abelianization, quotienting out by a kernel that represent the relations of bilinear maps
Yep yep
Doesn't this just show it's a common multiple of m, n
Not necessarily least?
Itās to do with the universal property of lcm
Lcm(m, n) | k iff m | k and n | k
I want to learn some deeper category theory to understand natural maps and adjoints / derived functors better
i.e. you may have that 2lcm(m, n) is the order
or idk how far you're stretching the word "suffices" lol
Iāve found it very fun, certainly!
If you look back at the message
I still think there's a little to write after you show common multiple
This is what theyāre trying to show
Theyāve already shown the other direction
The only derived functors i know off the top of my head are the two for the adjoint endofunctors Hom and Tensor product with their Ext and Tor ones
Yeah I havenāt actually done much homological algebra
I wonder if there is some connection between derived functors of adjoints
Thereās a pretty short proof if you use the universal property of lcm, but I wonder if that may be too much at this stage
Iāll get there at some point
Another thing i want to learn is Morita Connections / Dualities
I already have enough shit i want to learn but I have no time constraint really so i can just cram what i want into my noggin
They just asked how to prove that lcm | ord
They already proved the other direction
So the viewpoint here is that when something is a supremum (or infimum) in a poset, it makes sense to call this fact "the universal property of such-and-such"?
Well, a universal property for an object x in a poset under some relation <= is merely an alternative description for when x <= y or y <= x
Suprema and infima are examples of such universal properties
In general, a universal property is an alternative description for arrows into or out of your object
Itās just useful to have a common name to refer to this phenomenon, is all
Like, itās a new set of words yes, but you only need to learn them once in a sense - then, you just see lots and lots of specific examples of them
Show that a nonconstant polynomial in Z[x] that is irreducible over Z is primitive.
Just looking for a hint. I know that the only units in Z are 1 and -1 and for a polynomial to be primitive means that the gcd of the coefficients of the polynomial is 1.
For the polynomial (call it f(x)) in Z[x] to be irreducible means that it can be written as the product of g(x) and h(x) where g(x) or h(x) are units of Z[x] and g(x) and h(x) are also elements of Z[x].
Do universal properties always uniquely identify objects?
Indeed, up to unique isomorphism! So long as you state them correctly
Of course, they donāt tell you such an object actually exists
Thatās what you need constructions for
They tell you what an object ādoesā, how it relates to other objects, how to use it, but not what it āisā
Still, a universal property can give you hints for how to construct an object
And the universal property for ord(a) mentioned above says exactly which arrows go into and out of ord(a) in the poset of divisibility, right? It makes sense that's enough to show it is unique in that particular poset, but what would unique isomorphism mean in this case?
So, it tells you the arrows that go out of ord(a), not the ones that come in
It tells you $\text{ord}(a) | n \iff a^n = e$
Pseudonium
Up to unique isomorphism here just means that - if $k$ and $kā$ both satisfy the universal property, then you always have $k | kā$ and $kā | k$
Pseudonium
$G,H$ finite cyclic groups. Show: $G \times H$ cyclic $\iff |G|$ and $|H|$ coprime
This is the proof I wrote so far but im not sure how to argue the last part... The last part i wrote because i think its right but idk how to prove it yet
This is cause $k | n \iff a^n = e \iff kā | n$, then substitute $n = k$ and $n = kā$ respectively.
No other elements g', h' ...
Pseudonium
This is essentially applying the yoneda lemma
OHHELLNAH
Which is a very general result from category theory - no need to look it up or anything, just a fun aside
For the last part, you can actually just compute ord((gā, hā)) for arbitrary gā, hā
And show itās always strictly smaller than the group size
Itāll help to use your ord(g^k) result
Aha, and since divisibility is antisymmetric, the unique isomorphism just turns into equality. So in this case there is just one object satisfying the universal property
Yep! Unless you allow for negative integers
Then -ord(g) works too
But you said the universal property. How can you be sure there isn't another universal property of ord(a) in another poset, or a completely different category?
I mean idk, this just seems to be a pretty obvious one for a group
wdym compute?
Like thereās a formula for it
Like, if you find one, you can state it sure
I just havenāt found one lol
Yeah, seems unlikely there's two completely different universal properties for the same object š Anyways, thanks for the info š
I mean
Itās not uncommon to have multiple
The more the merrier I say
In this case technically $\min$ has a universal property, so you could say
Pseudonium
$x \leq \text{ord}(g) \iff \forall n > 0 \text{ such that } g^n = e, x \leq n$
Pseudonium
Thatās a universal property in a different poset
It just aināt as useful as the divisibility one
E.g. biproducts in abelian categories
I see. In that case though you would need to downgrade to the indefinite article, which is very sad 
I mean I donāt mind
Iām happy to call it āaā universal property
After all Iām the only one who seems to call it this lol
Double checking an exercise, $\Z[i]/\langle(3+4i)\rangle\cong\Z_{25}$ right
Sara
yes, (\mathbb{Z}[i]/(a+bi)) is isomorphic to (\mathbb{Z}/a^2+b^2\mathbb{Z}) for coprime (a) and (b).
Millie
(and if a and b are not coprime, CRT applies)
Wait could you expound more on this
(\mathbb{Z}[i]) is has unique factorisation (and in fact is a PID), so you have [\mathbb{Z}[i]/(z) \cong \prod \mathbb{Z}[i]/(\pi_{k}^{r_{k}})] where (z = \prod \pi_{k}^{r_{k}})
Millie
so then all you need to know are the primes of Z[i] and what happens for prime powers
What do composition series/simple factors of a group tell us that (not necessarily maximal) normal series donāt?
I see but given arbitrary a,b we have to first find the irreducibles correct?
yeah you have to be able to factor into gaussian primes
this can be done algorithmically though
yeah Z[i] is a euclidean domain with the norm a^2+b^2, so factorising is easy
Okay, thanks ā¤ļø
can you explain how to do this sorry, i dont immediately see where norms come in
also what is norm in this context
I did this using the classification of free abelian groups
the norm of a + bi is a^2 + b^2 (and also (a+bi)(a-bi), which is a very useful fact)
ye
and it has the exceedingly useful number theoretic property that for y, z in Z[i] we have N(yz) = N(y)N(z)
Also a norm(in context of EDs) satisfies some properties i believe
which means for factoring you only have to look at gaussian integers of smaller norm
I read this as norms being a property of EDs
I mean it is, it's just in this case we're lucky that that coincides with the field norm
Oh ok, what is a norm for EDs?
Ty again
so a norm for a euclidean domain is a function f: R\{0} -> N such that a and b in R, b != 0, you have q, r in R st a = bq + r and r=0 or f(r) < f(b) -- ie just enough to be able to the same style of divison arguments as we have for natural numbers
the field norm however, for an algebraic number field, is the product of all the conjugates of an element (like with Z[i], you have (a+bi)(a-bi), and you can do similar things in other algebraic number fields and their rings of integers)
but this isn't always a norm in the sense of euclidean division
Ah ok, thank you :)
So we'd have $\Z[i]/(3+3i)\cong\Z[i]/(3)\times\Z[i]/(1+i)$
Sara
Ik $\Z[i]/(1+i)\cong \Z_2$, would I just use classification of free abelian groups for the former
Sara
you can also do these by drawing out the lattice -- though i don't have time to actually draw an example of this by hand
Is $\Z[i]/(3)\cong \Z_3\times\Z_3$?
Sara
it does indeed have 9 elements, but it's not quite that. An easy way to do it is with the isomorphism theorems for rings: [\mathbb{Z}[i]/(3) \cong \left[\mathbb{Z}[x]/(x^2 + 1) \right] / (3) \cong \mathbb{Z}[x]/(3, x^2+1) \cong \mathbb{Z}/3\mathbb{Z}[i]]Another way to see this is that since ((3)) is maximal in (\mathbb{Z}[i]), (\mathbb{Z}[i]/(3)) is a field, and it has 9 elements (write them down) so it must be the field with 9 elements.
Millie
Ah ok. Is it true they're isomorphic as additive groups?
yes
tyty
Sorry, just confirming, the last one is (Z/3Z)[i] and not Z/(3Z[i]) right
yeah
cool ty
been a while btw, how r u. U should apply to my WIM DRP project next term :3
im doing a lot next term so idk if im gonna do drp, still on the fence, which is urs again?
the one that mentioned boone novikov?
Does look interesting
lol no pressure to apply to it ofc
hrmm I really wanna, need to decide if its a good idea by sunday
No I do wanna do drp again, just unsure if its a good idea
im taking
GER 101 - Elementary German 1
MATH 249 - Intro to Combinatorics (Advanced)
PMATH 367 - Topology
PMATH 446 - Intro to Commutative Algebra
PMATH 945 - Topics in Algebra (Rings and their Applications)
So my friends are telling me drp again is prolly a bad idea and im also on the fence hrmm, can you tell me what u think the time commitment might be š
hmm yeah i mean ur friend is probably right this seems like hard coursework
945 is with bell at least, its just biweekly assgns + take home final


