#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 252 of 1
Wait is it true for any vector space that a LI set can be extended to a basis?
Okay pls continue
You’ve seen diagonalization yeah?
consider I as the basis of (+)_I K
And let’s look at f: I -> B
Now that you've asked me again I only know the part where they get a decimal number in [0,1] not previously in the list
Oh aight
Well, you can do this more generally to show that |X| < |P(X)|
Which is the size of the indicator functions
You get the idea though, take a “diagonal,” get an element you missed
Ye?
I see the set {x : x \not \in p(x)} was basically selecting things different in diagonals
Ye!
That just blew my mind
So, you believe when I say $\bigoplus_{i\in I} K = K^{\oplus I}$ has its dual space as $K^I$ yeah?
Sharp-Malliaris regularity lemma
Oh, the K vector space with a basis I
Okay
Basically, functions with only finitely many nonzero values
Right, this is using the suggestion in the problem that this shows we don’t have isomorphism with the duals
This is believe is just (isomorphic copy of the vector space with a basis of cardinality I)?
Let’s suppose we have a bijection $g:I\to \mathscr B$, then since $g(i)$ is an element of the dual of $K^{\oplus I}$, we can evaluate it at $i\in I$ right?
Sharp-Malliaris regularity lemma
So what do you suggest we do, in the spirit of diagonalization
So h(i) = g(i)(i) ?
Yep
Okay
Let me sink that in
Can you give me a moment
I'll be back in like 2 mins
I think this should work anyway
Been a while since I’ve done this I just know a diagonalization trick should work 
Ok back
So sps a bijection from I to B exists we construct a function that is not in the dual list
Right?
Wait ,g(i) is an element of the dual because?
I'm confused again 
(Or maybe we wanna do like, g(i)(i) + smth)
Hmmm
g(i) is now a function I -> K, which we can extend linearly to a vector space w/ basis I
Alright so it's extension is a dual
ye, and every dual element arises in this way because linearity
so we can evaluation g(i) at i
Let’s do +1 too
How do you do a +1 o_0
And, h(i) \neq g(i)(i) for any i
So it’s certainly not in B
So the trick is doing something to exclude it from being the span
(So instead of +1 we’d wanna do something that isn’t in B at all, so might as well be g(i)(i) ig)
If you consider mapping I to the singletons in the obvious way, g(i)(i) gives you the indicator for the whole set, for example
So let’s take B as being a basis from the indicator functions so that we get indicator functions out, and we basically get the original cantor diagonal
(Up to doing 1-whatever instead ig?)

If I am getting this correctly
We are taking all the functions with all but finite many non zero from I to K
Then we FTSOC assume that there is a bijection from I To B where B is basis of functions from I to K
Now we use this bijection to construct a new element in the dual
This new element is having the property that ......uhhh
It's not in the span of ...(I think I need clarity here)
I am very scattered in an impromptu explanation 
That's fine
- let’s take a basis for the subspace of K^I spanned by the indicator functions
Call it B’
@topaz solar they have given this hint
So the size is bounded by basis sizes for K^I
(Bad service)
There’s an extension of B’ to a basis B of K^I
So, if we show we can’t map to it, we’re done
This is where we use the diagonalization trick
Cantor says use {x | x not in p(x)}, so let’s biject p:I -> B’, and let’s look at the indicator function we get from 1-p(i)(i)
Clearly that’s not in B’
However, we’re dealing with a basis, so we have to show there’s no finite linear combination which hits it
But uhh, since the only coefficients to consider are 1 and -1, and some cardinal arithmetic, there’s only |I| many sums
But we have 2^|I| > |I| many indicators
So it can’t possibly span the subset of indicators, much less the space they span
So we can’t surject I into B’ < B, so we can’t surject it into B
Oh ok that hint is basically what I did with the counting those sums
Cardinal arithmetic
(I’m a logician or analyst moreso usually)
@marsh scaffold this make sense?
I am reading it
That said, this might not be the intended way
Same so understandable
Okay so you've proved sth stronger than we can't surject I into an even smaller B'
But one thing why is B' < B
Interms of cardinalities
@topaz solar
Uh?
Subsets can have same cardinalities?
Like uh R-{1} and R?
Or maybe I am not understanding what you mean
Cardinality is \leq
But B’ < B is a literal subset
And anyhow, we show |I| < |B’| \leq |B|
So |I| < |B|
Oh okay
Ye
Cardinalities do be nice under ordering
assuming choice 
But doing things without it is not your problem for now
They might’ve wanted a cardinal arithmetic argument that’s a bit nicer, but we can do this anyway
Alright then thanks a lot ...
I may return incase I get any doubts popping up
Just some after comments:
Isn't the dual vector space of a vector space V with basis of size B is just of the size |K|^|B|
And our indicator vector space is of size |big O thing|
And there was 2.30
Which gives us the size of V which is the size of our big O thing
Well 2.30 solves 2.31 when |B| = max(K, B) things, so you could use 2.30 + that 2.31 hint about countable fields
Oh hmmmm?
Well, it’s what I was meaning by here
But that solves it in a base case then reduces
Whereas we do everything at once
So it’s basically the same
Wait...what's the problem with saying that the size of the dual space is K^|B| (K is field) which is greater than equal to as a field has atleast 2 elements 2^|B|
Just remember things like |R| = |R^n| = |R^N|
So
If K is big, we can’t just look at the cardinality of the vector spaces
Where R is reals, N is naturals
Isn't|2^B| strictly bigger than B?
It's just the power set?
So yeah it’s gotta beat out that 2^|B|, but for very large K we won’t see differences over K
Also:
We can have countable vector spaces over Q with countable dimension
So this is wrong actually
I see
Remember, basis B makes a vector space by functions which are 0 except on a finite set
Not all functions
so, countable dim vector space over R vs R^N might be hard to look at cardinality-wise
So you have to actively look at basis trickery
I am walking on a sidewalk and misread this for a sec oop
Isn't this fine
Oh lol
Tbf idk what you wanted to prove
I am actually loosing my mind
I made an argument about looking a basis for the subspace of simple function inside the spanning set of indicator functions, extending it to K^I basis, then by sum counting on indicators + Cantor + cardinalities ordering we win
Yeah sure
The funny thing is: this is a textbook in topology and I haven't done any topology so far(maybe)
(maybe) 
I have no clue how to start with the blue part of this question. (I have attempted the rest)
Any help? Thanks.
Suppose g and h are two elements of G\A, and a is an element of A that is not its own inverse.
Then, because of (i), agh = ga^-1h = gha.
But if gh is in G\A too, then agh = a(gh) would also be (gh)a^-1.
OK, got it, thx. (The red part below is my own work)
Suppose that a, b, and c are elements of a dihedral group. Is a^2b^4ac^5a^3c a rotation or reflection?
The answer says that even powers are rotations, but why is that? Why can't it be an even power of a reflection and that just returns it back to the identity?
I think the identity is technically a rotation
So what are some interesting properties about cyclotomic fields?
Correct?
Assume $R$ is commutative. Prove that $R$ is a field if and only if 0 is a maximal ideal.
\begin{proof}
Suppose $R$ is a field. Then $R \cong R/0$, hence 0 is a maximal ideal.
\
Suppose 0 is a maximal ideal. Then there does not exist an ideal $I$ such that $0 \subset I \subset R$. Hence the only ideals of $R$ are 0 and $R$. Thus $R$ is a field.
\end{proof}
clubsoda14
i dont really know if this is valid
I think it is valid.
The first part depends on "If R/I is a field, then I is a maximal ideal."
The second part depends on "If the only ideals in a commutative ring R are 0 and R, then R is a field."
The second statement I wasn't immediately sure if it was true, but then I found this page which shows how to prove it https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/101157/a-commutative-ring-is-a-field-iff-the-only-ideals-are-0-and-1
Lol I mean you have a characterisation of fields which is basically the same as what you have to prove
You can do it much more directly though
Suppose 0 is maximal and x is a nonzero element of R. What can you say about the ideal generated by x?
It’s an ideal
what do I do now?
Sylow theorems
What are those again?
Sylow theorems state that every ring has a maximal ideal except for the empty ring
I should say that the last couple messages have been joke responses to tteg
empty ring 
I found a paper on the topic that characterizes the cases when a geodesic exists for GL(R,n), when it is unique, and how to compute it if it exists and is unique:
https://arxiv.org/abs/1412.4565
In this note we consider some properties of $GL_n(\mathbb{R})$ with the Semi-Riemannian structure induced by the trace metric $g$. In particular we study geodesics and curvature tensors. Moreover we prove that $GL_n$ has a suitable foliation, whose leaves are isometric to $(SL_n(\mathbb{R}), g)$, while its component of matrices with positive det...
I know it was forever ago when we discussed this, but I thought you might find it interesting also
So if R[X] is a UFD. And f is an irreducible monic polynomial in R[X]. Then is R[X]/(f) a field?
No, but it's true if R[x] is a PID
Which I believe is true iff R is a field
Thanks!
Yes, the hammer being that dim R[x] >= dim R + 1 lol
Or I guess, since x is prime, (x) is maximal, so R = R[x]/(x) is a field
Consider me amused 🐼
Although I am disappointed in myself for using R
This is supposed to prove that for an a in some group (G, *), (a^-1)^-1 = a… is this just saying “if you look at it hard enough, you can see it’s true!”, or is it actually saying something??
there is a unique b such that ba^-1=e (and by definition this b is (a^-1)^-1), and also aa^-1=e
so b=a
by uniqueness (i find the paragraph to be a bit wordy, and that might serve to obfuscate what’s actually being said here)
It's probably a typo that the proof says "(since by part (2) a has a unique inverse)" instead of "since by part (2) a^-1 has a unique inverse".
Oh, I see what they mean now
Thanks for that 🙏🏿
Can someone explain why this is true?
p is prime and M is an integer not divisible by p
The polynomial on the right is the pth cyclotomic polynomial which is the minimal polynomial for the pth roots of unity. So Z[T]/P(T) is isomorphic to Z[zeta_p]. Notice that zeta_pM generates both zeta_p and zeta_M. Since p and M are coprime, then zeta_p\cdot zeta_M is a primite pM root of unity.
Hey, I am trying to teach myself some group theory over the summer and I wanted to know if anyone has textbook recommendations? I am reading “An introduction to the Theory of Groups” by Joseph Rotman right now since it was free on springer, but I am curious to hear other suggestions.
Artin's algebra is good for a first viewing though it sometimes goes on tangents
Aluffi is good for a second read on abstract algebra
I do not know your prior knowledge, Lang is maybe a bit too encyclopedic-styled and brutal
Rotman covers some interesting topics but idk how “important” they are these days
Could someone explain why the image of the map is closed?
Notice that if s: Omega -> Omega is an automorphism, then for each finite Galois subextensions M we get an automorphism s_M on M.
Now if you have a family of automorphisms, such that s_N is the restriction of s_M whenever N is in M, then you can define s by s(x) = s_M(x) for M containing x.
Hence the image are exactly the things with these compatibility relations. So the only way for something not to be in the image is if there are extensions N < M such that s_N is not the restriction of s_M. Just fixing those two elements gives you an open set in the product topology district from the image.
Nice, thank you!
Hi everyone. Reading through Gallian's 6th ed. abstract algebra book. He does a preliminary section on mod arithmetic. Just trying to understand in this example using an error checking application as an example, why is the dot product equal to 5i and not -5i? I think this is because since there is an error in the 2 position, the mod is calculated to be "5 over"... is this thinking correct? Thanks!
I feel like there's some missing context here needed to answer this
there is, i tried to narrow down the scope, but i could see where maybe more info is necessary
I dunno about how this encoding scheme thing works, it seems to be whatever that's about explains why it must be 5i vs -5i
basically the idea is when you mod the code, it should be 0 (divisible by the mod number)... if it's not equal to 0 then, that's the magnitude of the error (how much you're off by). make more sense?
i could put the entire page from Gallian, but want to avoid if possible
the way I'm reading it is the blue box is the left side and the red box is the right side of the equation:
the left side ends up being 10 and the right side ends up being 0+5i
which is why it's + not -
you're right! i see it now, i was misreading that, it's kinda early, everything is blurring together
it's sort of confusing because it almost looks like they've "factored out" the left into the dot product on the right
but I'm guessing that dot product on the right was precomputed as an error correcting number that we already have or something
yes, factored it out, and we already know it mods to 0
how do we know it mods to 0, just was calculated and happened to be that before the digit was flopped to 2?
I don't think it should be assumed to be 0 always at least if that's what you're suggesting
oh well we're done I guess, maybe if I saw the algorithm I'd know lol w/e have fun
on second thought, i dont think this evaluates to 10
i'll post more context when i get a chance
Since r and s are relatively prime numbers so there exists c and d such that rc + sd = 1.
Now 1a = rca +sda, thus a = b + c, where b = sda and c = rca, right?
Not really sure how to think about “this Z mod hom factors through H …”
What is the significance of elements in H mapping to 0 ?
What's H
All elements of the form
Are R and S related
R is a subring of S
If you have a Z-morphism A → B and the image of the submodule C ⊂ A is trivial then you induce a map A/C → B
Ok i can see that in that new map the 0 in the quotient gets mapped to 0 because C gets mapped to 0 in the original map
This induced map just takes a coset and maps it to where the original map sent any representative ?
Yea
Slightly more generally if you have submodules A ⊂ B, C ⊂ D then a map B → D that restricts to a map A → C will induce B/A → D/C
This is a common trick to define a map between two groups / rings / modules
Oh. Yeah. Seems important
E.g. if B, D are the free groups / modules on generators and A, C are the relations
Yea this is the first time ive seen the construction of an algebraic structure by first starting out with some free object and then quotienting by the relations u want satisfied
Thats neat
This section is about tensor products of modules and i thought the way they built it was cool
Ok so just to be sure on details , the point of everything in H being mapped to 0 is necessarily only so that the map from F\H to L is well-defined
If you have two different representatives but the same coset, their difference is in H, so then they map to 0 and u can show that then they map to the same thing by rearranging equation etc
Sort of thing right
Watch out, you mean F/H not F\H!
Ohh yeah haha
After this section on tensor products the book covers exact sequences
Big topic!
The fun part of algebra
No way
NOW it gets fun?
So actually upon reflection i am really enjoying modules
More than group theory
Das cool
Although i do feel a bit naughty for not having studied topics in group theory like sylow theorems
At some point i will go back
As someone who 'studied' them, don't.
I never studied them and they've never come up
Oh … i see 😅
Depends on what you study later on
No
Where DO they come up then?
In group theory 
Ah. Lol
One place where they come up is in my research area, rep theory. There are several important conjectures regarding the relationship between the reps of a normaliser of a Sylow and the whole group.
Ohh yeah actually i really want to learn representation theory especially
More than alg topology
Is there research that goes on purely in group theory?
Yes
Yea but I've heard many mathematicians say they're surprised by that fact 😭
I did an REU at a university which has a few people working on group theory. Community seems small but very nice from the couple conferences I went to
lots of important research is being done in geometric group theory, which studies groups using topology
I'm talking about just group theory though, not GGT
GGT is a big field that even crosses into non-group stuff. I know semigroup theorists who do 'GGT'
I guess it comes down to what counts as "purely in group theory". I'm sure there is lots of research being done on algebraic groups for example
fair enough, I guess maybe it comes down to whether the topics of research concerns the questions or the methods. a lot of the topology of GGT is in the techniques, but the (overarching) questions are often purely group theoretic
By the fundamental theorem of Galois theory, there's a one-one relation between intermediate field extensions of some extension, and the subgroups of the Galois group. So some field theory questions get translated into group theory questions, which is where things like Sylow groups show up.
What does count as “purely group theory”?
That is indeed the question
I'm in the midst of doing D&F exercises, and thee are a whole lot of them. How do I decide which exercise is worth doing?
and at what point can I safely move onto the next section.
for the record, I've on 10.3 and I've done most exercsises up to 18
Please ignore everything I've just said. I am moving on because most of the exercises from this point on require things I haven't done
Yea dude like if youve done that many exercises i think u can move on
Also lets help each other on 10.4 man this shit hard 😭
Ive been literally on this page for days
I do understand the overall idea but i dont like moving on until i really understand each detail of the proof and why everything is the way it is yanno how it is u guys study math too
I've just started the chapter, I'll get there probably by tomorrow or the day after
Ok cool, maybe lets ask each other questions. Could be helpful to work it out together
There is something unique about working thru it with another student vs just getting help from the experts all the time
Tbh ive been super sleep deprived so im thinking at like 45% capacity anyway
for sure. i'm quite busy tomorrow and I'll working quite a lot over the next few weeks but I'll definitely find some time to get through this myself and then we can go through this in here]
Don't the higher number exercises tend to be harder
Get a good mix of questions throughout the set
Perhaps I'll go back to the exercise about modules over noncomm rings not having a well-defined rank (I think? essentially that # of the minimal generating set isn't well defined). that seemed interesting
Non-IBN 
what's the lifting property?
what's the context?
might be better to say lifting map but idk
if this is in the context of covering spaces then you can image lifting maps as being a right inverse to the covering map
So they "lift" objects from the base space to a layer of the covering space
thanks
Working on (3) right now. What's the relevance of this isomorphism $L \otimes_K U_0 \xrightarrow{\sim} U$? So let $\sigma \in \Gamma, {f_i}{i \in I}$ a basis for $U_0$, and $x = \sum{i \in I} \alpha_i f_i \in U$ where $\alpha_i \in L$. Then $u_\sigma(x) = \sum_{i \in I} \sigma(\alpha_i) f_i$ which is in $U$ still since $\sigma(\alpha_i) \in L$ still. But then for the reverse direction I want to use that $u_\sigma(U) \subseteq U$ to show that $L \otimes_K U_0 \to U$? is an isomorphism but I don't even see where the isomorphism is used in fact that $U_0$ is a $K$-structure?
Spamakin🎷
Let $R$ be a commutative ring with 1. Prove that the principal ideal generated by $x$ in the polynomial ring $R[x]$ is a prime ideal if and only if $R$ is an integral domain.
\begin{proof}
Suppose $\langle x \rangle$ is a prime ideal of $R[x]$. Let $p(x),q(x) \in R[x]$ such that $p(x)q(x) = 0$. Since $0 \in \langle x \rangle$, $p(x)q(x) \in \langle x \rangle$.
\end{proof}
clubsoda14
Does this imply that either p(x) = 0 or q(x) = 0?
not too sure where to go from here
If you wanted that p(x)q(x) = 0 implies p(x) = 0 or q(x) = 0 then you need that R[x] is a domain
right thats what im trying to show
Do you know that for a ring $S$ and ideal $I$, if $I$ is prime then $S / I$ is a domain?
Spamakin🎷
Yes
and of course the converse holds
so it's an if and only if
ok so try that direction for suitable (obvious) choice of S and I
Yea is there any way to do it directly with the fact that <x> is a prime ideal
my question was if p(x)q(x) = 0 and p(x)q(x) ∈ <x> (a prime ideal), does this somehow imply that either p(x) = 0 or q(x)=0
no, it just implies that x divides p(x)q(x)
I think the idea is that $V$ can be recovered from $V_0$ by an extension of scalars. In particular, if we have $v\in V$, and a basis of $V_0$, what this isomorphism says is that we can express $v$ as an $L$-linear combination of the basis elements of $V_0$.
kibocchi
I didn't read your proof, but when you took $x\in U$, you implicitly made use of this fact.
kibocchi
If I'm given the additive group $\mathbb{Z}/n\mathbb{Z} \times \mathbb{Z} \times n\mathbb{Z},$ is there a formula for the number of elements of maximal order? For instance, I've shown that if $n$ is prime then this is just $n^2 - 1.$ I had initially thought it was $\varphi(n)n + \varphi(n)(n - \varphi(n)),$ but some computations showed this to be incorrect because I miss a bunch of elements.
IAmDerek
If n = ml with m and l relatively prime, then
(Z/n)^2 = (Z/m)^2 x (Z/l)^2
and an element has maximal order if each entry has maximal order.
So if n is square free it's the product of p^2 - 1, where p divides n. And in general it would reduce to the case n = p^k
Product of p^2 - 1 and what?
So if it's p^k, it seems that my idea of it being phi(n)(2n - phi(n)) is correct. I'll take a look at this m,n coprime case then
Just the product of p^2 - 1 for the primes p.
So if n = 30
(2^2 - 1)(3^2 -1)(5^2 - 1)
Ahhh, okay, so it seems it would be something like
$$ \prod_{p \mid n}(p^{2k}-p^{2(k-1)}) $$
IAmDerek
damn, have u solved all of part 1, 2(i.e. group and ring) ?
suppose we have a group $G = \langle S_G | R_G \rangle$ and a set map $f:S_G\to H$, $H$ a group.$\newline$
Does there exist a unique extension of $f$ to a homomorphism $\varphi:G\to H$?
c squared
i have tried looking at the following diagram:
and showing that the kernel of p_G is a subset of the kernel of tilde(f) to use the universal property of the quotient map (viewing G as a quotient of the free group on the set of generators S_G)
but i can’t quite show that
could i get a hint or two for this?
F^x is cyclic (of order 2^r)
yes, it is like that
No, it's generally not going to extend. If the map respected all the relations it would though, by the first Isomorphism theorem
I could give you something really dumb like G = <1,1* | 1 = 1*>, take f(1) = 1 and f(1*)=0, to Z, and then there is no group homomorphism extending f
ok thanks
Yea, this is the condition basically
It doesn't always happen, as smay showed
In fact any finite subgroup of the mult group of a field is cyclic! Even if the field is infinite
yeah i have that
so if f(r) = f(r’) for all r,r’ in R_G, then it would be okay?
yeah ig its well known a subgroup of a cyclic group is cyclic
the field being infinite tho
is cool
what do you know about generators of finite cyclic groups
No...
In the infinite case the big group isn't cyclic
Only every finite subgroup
the group of units of an infinite field need not be cyclic
you can even take C for example to show this
You need f(r)=0
For all r
When here I think of f as the extension to the FREE group
well there's just one generator
this is what the solution does
but i don't see why the kernel has the given size
by the euler phi function, there are 2^{r-1} generators
Isn't it 2^r-2^{r-1}
oh that's what you mean
yeah we have phi(2^r) choices for the generators, but one is enough is what i meant hmm
same thing
:P
I am not sure how this helps, to be honest
i didnt say it did
bro
It's kind of a bad move to give hints if you're not sure of the efficacy of said hint
?
i just suggested to think about generators
do y'all see it
Nope. I used a different book
oh damn, which book was it ?
i am just trying to find good problems in abstract algebra in general, any suggestion regarding that ?
how do I glue points on a plane? I only know what to do in 1 variable case
could it be (x^2-2, y^2-2) and (xy+2)?
(x²-2, y²-2) is not maximal.
(x+y)(x-y)=0 in the quotient, so the quotient cannot be a field.
Try ||(x-y, x²-2)||.
I am looking at one of the exercises in my group theory book, and it says
Let G be a group and H be a proper subgroup of G. Then <G -S>=G.
But I was considering the case where our group is the integers under addition and we take the subgroup of odd integers. How can the even integers generate the odd integers?
What's the subgroup of odd integers
i was trying to figure out the constructibility of a regular polygon and all that
btw i learned about fields and stuff just days ago so i dont know much 😭
and I don’t get how each imaginary root of unity corresponds to one additional degree of extension $deg(\frac{\mathbb{Q}(\zeta)}{\mathbb{Q}})=1$ (when there are roots labelled $\zeta^1,\zeta^2,\dots,\zeta^n$), and not two degrees or any other number for that matter
daff
I'm not sure what you mean be "correspond to one additional degree of extension"
Also Q(zeta)/Q has degree 1 only if zeta is rational.
yes
oh yeah damn
i said this because
like if you extend the rationals by zeta you get in ex. $x^4-1=0$ it would be a degree 2 extension because there r two imaginary roots
daff
i think im misunderstanding something 😭
Are you asking what the degree of Q(zeta)/Q is for different choices of zeta?
In general if zeta is a (primitive) nth root of unity, then the extension has degree phi(n)
i dont get that one either
i know gauss proved it but
wait did he
I don't know who proved that originally
is there an intuitive explanation?
so i was watching this
video
Concludes series on constructibility, bringing together results for both compass/straight edge and compass/marked ruler.
he just says like it just happens and doesnt give an explanation
I think you need some medium-hairy algebraic argument involving cyclotomic polynomials to see it.
medium hairy hahahaha
where can i find the medium-hairy algebraic argument involving cyclotomic polynomials
It's simple enough that I think I've understood it once, so it can't be very hairy.
Well, there is a little work to be done to prove it. But the basic argument is that if x is any number, then the degree of Q(x)/Q is the degree of the minimal polynomial of x.
The minimal polynomial of zeta is the cyclotomic polynomial, having the primitive nth roots of unity as roots.
There are phi(n) primitive nth roots of unity
i downloaded disquisitiones arithmaticae and i cant get mnyself to start reading it
For example for n=4, the 4th roots of unity are
1, i, -1, -i
and out of these i and -i are primitive
yes i get that
wait no
is the definition of primitive like
it extends $\mathbb{Q}$
daff
We say something is a primitive nth root, if it's not an mth for for any m<n.
For example (-1) is not a primitive 4th root of unity because (-1)^2 = 1, so it's a 2nd root of unity

If V is a finite-dimensional vector space over K, and if V^E is the extension of scalars to E, then is det(A) = det(A^E) for all linear operators A on V?
It's represented by the same matrix right 
right… thanks
Another way: by abstract nonesense exterior powers commute with tensor products, and by uniqueness of the determinant we get that det on V^E is just det (x) 1
This is morally more correct since you don't need to choose a basis 
(Also for what arki said to be correct, you do need to choose a basis for V^E correctly)
I can't quite see how the universal property of free modules is being used here. I would imagine that the universal property shows only that there is a Free R-module on N (constructed in dummit and foote by considering set functions N-> R with finite support and defining addition and scalar multi as expected) through which the homomorphism can be factored. I have no idea where the free Z-Module F on S x N came from. Can anyone advise?
I was thinking of this as being like a template that eventually induces the tensor product map that we want
Universal property of free R-modules:
An R-module map F(S) → M is the same thing as a set function S → L
Presumably they define the tensor product as the free group on SxN module the tensor product relations
Here the set function sends (s, n) to sφ(n)
Yep
And so we get a Z-module map F(S×N) → L
Wait I think I see what's trying to be done
By mapping each "basis element" via this
We're defining a set map S x N -> L then applying the universal property of free modules
yeah
I don't see why F(S x N) should be a Z-module?
Does the universal property not sugges that F(SxN) ought to be an S-module?
Consider L a Z-module
We're taking R = Z
So F(S×N) is a Z-module
and clearly we can make L a Z-module because L is an abelian group already
So you can think of each (s, n) as a basis element of F
Yup
we can write each element of F(SxN) uniquely as c1(s1, n1) + .... + cn(sn, nn) by definiton of the free module, and becuase Z is commutative we can think of the elements (si, ni) as a basis?
Yup
It doesnt have finite rank right?
I'd imagine not
Its just the collection (si,ni)
perhaps if S, N are finite sets
I think they mean there is a unique rank since Z is a cring
Though besides the point
ok i'll carry on working through this and come back when I get stuck
What is the rank of a free module again? Size of generating set isnt it?
thank you arki
Yea the cardinality of a basis
Which can fail to be well-defined for general rings I think
Ok, but if cardinality of a generating set is not finite then ?
Then it's that cardinality
Ok
oh. so we have the induced map F(SxN) -> L, and then as the subgroup H which generates the module relations is mapped to 0 by phi, we can quotient out by it to get a map F(SxN) / H = S \otimes_R N -> L mapping (s \otimes n) -> s \phi(n)
plaintext notation overload
but essentially the module relations are mapped to 0 by the homomorphism, so we can safely quotient without changing anything
and this makes the induced map an S-module hom
hmmm
I'll need to reread to get all the details but I think Iget the idea
thanks all
what is this marked in yellow?
I assume G^* is maybe the Frattini subgroup?
but what is G^p[G, G]
Presumably G^p are the pth powers in G, and [G, G] is the commutator subgroup.
so is G^p [G, G] the group generated by G^p and [G, G] ?
Yeah
but is this ${ xy : x\in G^p, y\in [G, G]}$?
croqueta3385
Should be yeah
what's happening in the last line?
it seems to only tell us that the ideal generated by x^2 - y^2 is contained in I
I ⊂ <x + y> seems weird
This is what I was looking for, thanks 🙂
I think that last line is false. I don't think x^2+1 is in the ideal generated by x+y for example. Or at least I'm finding it very hard to see how that would be.
makes sense, thanks
yeah they probably wanna do <x^2+1,x+y> instead, which is a maximal ideal
The reasoning doesn't really make sense even then, I think.
"Look, this element of J is also in I, so I is a subset of J" is mad.
Even
"Look, this element of J is also in I, so I is a subset of I+J" wouldn't be much better, even though the conclusion then happens to be true.
I think whoever wrote the solutions copied it wrong from math stackexchange. It looks similar to the proof that I is not prime in here: https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/4592814/find-a-prime-ideal-which-contains-x21-y21
Which is kinda funny to me
Hmm, I don't think either is necessarily copied from the other. Considering (x+y)(x-y) is a fairly standard approach for dealing with attempts to make too many ring elements with the same square, and there's not much else (other than the problem statement in common between the MSE question and the above quote.
yeah i think the reasoning given is just wrong
also they did a lot of work to show that <x^2+1,y^2+1> is not prime
this is immediate from their observation that (x+y)(x-y) is inside the ideal lol
I suspect whoever wrote it didn't feel confident enough to just assert that neither x+y nor x-y is in <x²+1,y²+1>.
but it's obvious from a degree argument right
Yeah -- given sufficient experience with such degree arguments.
how would you prove that x^2+1 is not in <x+y> btw? I couldn't figure out a rigorous approach, except computing grobner bases, and thus decided to just use Sage for it.
Having two variables and two generators might cause someone to doubt their intuition there, especially if they have only seen those arguments carried out in detail in the single-variable case.
Every polynomial in <x+y> evaluates to 0 when you plug in x=y=0. But x²+1 doesn't.
just to make sure, anything in that ideal looks like P(x,y)(x^2+1) + Q(x,y)(y^2+1), and deg(P(x,y)(x^2+1)) >= deg(x^2+1) = 2, similarly for the other term
hence x+y, x-y aren't in the ideal
Ahh I think I see, by the ideal-vanishing set correspondence?
Well, more elementarily because every element of <x+y> has the form (x+y)·P(x,y) for some P, so when we evaluate that at (0,0) we get 0·P(0,0) which is zero no matter what happens in P.
I feel one needs a bit of additional footwork to convince oneself that the higher-degree terms from P(x,y)(x²+1) and the ones from Q(x,y)(y²+1) can't somehow cancel each other out.
Sorry, I meant the part that follows. Since V(<x+y>) is not a subset of V(x^2+1), then <x^2+1> is not contained in <x+y>, where V is the vanishing set.
Well, yes, that too.
What I did was just to show one concrete point where x+y vanishes but x²+1 doesn't.
Oh lol, yeah that’s right. That’s interesting
(2) Is an ideal of the integers Z. Is (2) not an ideal of the Z algebra Z[x]? What is the ideal generated by 2 if not
well ideal generated by a thing is always gonna be an ideal
but if you mean "do the even integers form an ideal in Z[x]" then they don't because you are missing tons of stuff
well you're taking polynomials with integer coefficients and you're multiplying them by 2
to get (2) in Z[x]
Maybe the ideal of even integers in Z[x] is (2)[X]
what is (2)[X]
if you mean like
polynomials n + nx + nx^2 + .. + nx^k where n is even that's not an ideal in Z[x]
Ah shoot okay
that's a valid point. how'd you fix that?
You can use the same argument above. We have that the ideal $I$ does not vanish identically on $(0,0)$, but $<x+y>$ does. In other words, the vanishing set $V(I)$ is not contained in the vanishing set $V(<x+y>)$, and thus by the inclusion reversing property of $V$, $<x+y>$ is not contained in $I$. Ditto for $<x-y>$.
kibocchi
Ok so if $L = K(\alpha)$ then clearly the only automorphism that stabilizes $\alpha$ is $\text{id}_L$ as any other non-identity automorphism must move $\alpha$ somewhere else (if it didn't then it wouldn't be non-identity). The converse direction I'm not so sure about.
Spamakin🎷
The thing jumping out to me is that a polynomial is irreducible if and only if the Galois group acts transitively but where could I get a polynomial from. The minimal polynomial of \alpha?
Consider some $\beta\in L$ such that $\beta\notin K(\alpha)$, and then consider the automorphisms that move $\beta$.
kibocchi
wouldn't I need to know something about the minimal polynomial of beta over K?
because such an automorphism moving beta couldn't swap alpha with beta so I'd need more information surrounding beta I think
For the argument I'm thinking, it would suffice to consider the minimal polynomial of beta over K(a).
ah since beta isn't in K(alpha) there exists some other root gamma and so I can always permute beta and gamma and then by irreducibility of the minimal polynomial I can extend this to an automorphism of all of L (at least iirc some theorem like that exists)
errr maybe I have to say something about how gamma should exist in L first, hm
And these permutations will fix alpha, since we are over K(a), so these permutations are non-trivial automorphisms contradicting the Stabilizer condition.
right that much makes sense
just gotta figure this detail out
L is Galois over K
ah so minimal polynomial splits and roots are distinct
yupyup
How do you check if a commutative algebra (A,f:R->A) is a sub algebra of another commutative algebra (B,g:R->B) over the ring R? If there is an inclusion map i: A->B does showing A is a sub algebra of B just amount to showing if=g commutes?
~~Uhh, I don't know what the two functions, f and g, from the underlying ring to the algebra are.
That aside, yes, when you have any two algebraic structures A and B, you can prove that A is a subobject of B by constructing an inclusion (an injective structure-preserving map) from A to B.~~
A commutative R-algebra by definition is a ring morphism f: R → A into a commutative ring
Ohhh, I only knew the "algebra over a ring for which the product is commutative" definition. I see why this works too. Thanks!
To update my answer now (thanks to @mighty kiln):
When you have any two algebraic structures A and B, you can prove that A is a subobject of B by constructing an inclusion (an injective structure-preserving map) from A to B.
Here, the structure of a commutative algebra is made out of:
- a commutative ring A
- a ring homomorphism f: R -> A.
So, our structure-preserving inclusion i: A -> B will have to:
- respect the structure of the ring A - that is, it has to be a ring homomorphism from A to B.
- respect the structure of the maps f: R -> A and g: R -> B. That is, if = g.
- be an inclusion, that is an injective function.
So yes, this is what a morphism between commutative algebras will look like.
So what do wreath products do?
The direct sum R (+) R of groups equipped with componentwise multiplication
how can I show that if G is a profinite group and x-->x^n is surjective (for n a positive integer) then it is also injective?
I think the best way is to view G as instead an inverse system of finite groups G_i. Wolog we can assume all the transition maps are finite, then multiplication by n defines a surjective map on G if and only if it induces a surjective map on each G_i. But G_I is finite so this means that each G_I has order prime to n, so G has no n torsion.
^
suppose x^n=1 for x!=1. Since G is profinite, there exists an open normal subgroup U not containing x. The nth power map will still be surjective in G/U but this is a finite group and x^n=1 mod U with x!=1 mod U
Doesn't this also work? @dim widget
I was a bit confused when looking at the diagram because it doesn't work when "surjective" is replaced by "injective", but I guess that's just totally different (eg. multiplication by p is injective in Z_p but not surjective, and it is not injective on the finite quotients)
Yeah there is some duality at play, certain properties are easy to check for inverse limits, but the dual properties are easy to check for direct limits
and often it’s more tricky to check the other way around
unrelated but what is the G-module structure here? Lambda=Z[G]. Is X taken with a trivial G action?
Yep that works too, it’s similar
before they said this
It’s the action gf(\lambda) = f(g^-1\lambda) or f(\lambda g)
Okay apparently it’s the first one then
alright, ty
nw
Is it correct to say that if A is a commutative algebra over a ring R and S is a subset of A then the R-subalgebra generated by S is the intersection of all R-subalgebras of R which contain S?
I get that the generated algebra is the smallest sub algebra that contains S but the "smallest" is vague. Smallest means this condition right?
Yep this condition is closed under intersections so to take the smallest X you just take the intersection of all X’s
Supposing $n = n_1 + \cdots + n_k$, the obvious subgroup of the symmetric group $S_n$ isomorphic to $S_{n_1} \times \cdots \times S_{n_k}$ has index given by the multinomial coefficient $\binom{n}{n_1, \dots, n_k}$ which has a nice combinatiorial interpretation.
\bigskip
\textbf{Question:} this suggests there should be a combinatorially nice and reasonably canonical choice of representatives for the cosets of this subgroup. Anyone know?
Boytjie
Maybe it's actually really obvious lol
is there a "nice" description of H_1(G, A) for an arbitrary G-module A? Something similar to H^1
I think the usual choice of representatives are the minimal length elements in the cosets. Those are the permutations s such that s(1) < s(2) < … < s(n_1) and the same for the other blocks
I suppose there isn’t a nice list of these things
Yeah if I were doing coxeter combinatorics that would be the right way, alas I am not
Good to know though
When the action of G on A is trivial I think then H^1(G, A)=G^ab otimes_Z A. But in general it seems somewhat more annoying to write down
No wait it is super nixe & I misunderstood looool
nice*
If H is a subgroup of G, is Z[G] a free Z[H]-module?
Cosets should be disjoint for multiplying monomials, so I’d believe it?
yeah taking representatives of G/H works for a basis
Yes, choose coset representatives
shouldn't the left be H^q(G/H, A^H) ?
Assume $R$ is commutative. Let $I$ and $J$ be ideals of $R$ and assume $\mathfrak{p}$ is a prime ideal of $R$ that contains $IJ$. Prove that either $I$ or $J$ is contained in $\mathfrak{p}$.
\begin{proof}
Let $\sum a_i b_i \in IJ$, where $a_i \in I$ and $b_i \in J$. Since $IJ \subseteq \mathfrak{p}$, $\sum a_i b_i \in \mathfrak{p}$. So $a_i \in \mathfrak{p}$ or $b_i \in \mathfrak{p}$. Hence $I \subseteq \mathfrak{p}$ or $J \subseteq \mathfrak{p}$.
\end{proof}
clubsoda14
Is this chill
my worry is the part where I write Σaibi ∈ p implies ai ∈ p or bi ∈ p
i dont know if thats valid
I don't think it's valid.
Why
Σaibi ∈ p ⟹ aibi ∈ p?
since p is an ideal which means it is an additive subgroup?
You made a big logic jump exactly where you are worrying about. Try to expand it out and see that you can't using the definition of prime ideal.
I think I need a little help understanding why
it could be that a1, b2, a3, b4 are in p
why is it that a1, a2, a3, a4 are in p
or b1, b2, b3, b4
Uh
Well my thinking was that If IJ is the set of all finite sums of the form Σaibi, and since IJ is an ideal (an additive subgroup), wouldnt that imply there are two different sums such that Σaibi - Σai'bi' = aibi?
simpler than that, by definition aibi in IJ
then wouldnt that mean my proof is valid
if aibi is in IJ and IJ is a subset of p, then aibi is in p
and if ai is an element of I and bi is an element of J, and since p is prime, then ai is in p or bi is in p
hence I is a subset of p or J is a subset of p
that's where this example comes in
you know that a1b1 in p, a2b2 in p, and so on
so that implies that a1 or b1 in p
a2 or b2 in p
what if a1 in p and b2 in p
Uhh
do you see the logic jump? i can give you a hint of where to go next
why is this bad?
because then we dont have the guarantee that a2 in p
and we thus cant prove I is contained in P
alternatively we arent guaranteed b1 in p
and thus we cant prove J is contained p
This is probably too elementary for this channel, but my question is: is the induction here really necessary?
Depends on how formal you want to be, but I would say $a_1 \cdots a_k a_k^{-1} \cdots a_1^{-1} = e$ should be obvious without having to do the induction explicitly
sheddow
what's their explanation for $\tau$ not being able to fix $\sqrt[3]{5}$? the real subfield is $\Bbb{Q}[\sqrt[3]{2}]$ ofc
hausdorff
The real subfield has degree 3, Q(cuberoot(5)) has degree 3 and is real.
So if cuberoot(5) is in the field, then this will be the entire real subfield
hmm
so are you saying that if we have two real subfields of the same degree, then they are equal?
I'm saying if you have a subfield with the same degree as it's superfield, then they are the same
a = cuberoot(5)
b = cuberoot(2) for simplicity.
we assume that a \in Q[b, w], so Q[a] \subset Q[b,w]. Q[a] has degree 3 over Q.
as Q[a] is real, we have Q[a] \subset Q[b], since Q[b] is the real subfield of Q[b,w].
how do you get Q[b] \subset Q[a]?
or do you not need that
Q[a] < Q[b] and both have degree 3, hence they're equal.
Or if you like
3 = [Q(b):Q] = [Q(b):Q(a)] * [Q(a):Q] = 3[Q(b):Q(a)]
So [Q(b):Q(a)] = 1
ahh right, thank you!
I've got zero ideas for (1). $\mu_m(K) = {x \in K ~|~ x^m = 1} \simeq \langle \zeta \rangle$ where $\zeta \in K$ is a primitive $m$-th root of unity.
Spamakin🎷
clubsoda14
I'm confused? How did you show that $\varphi^{-1}(\mathfrak{p}) \in \text{Spec}(R)$ always? If you did that then you're done (the other portion of the ``or'' would be irrelevant.
I'll type it up give me one second
do your ring homomorphism have to be unital btw?
no no, the homomorphisms
does 1 have to map to 1?
or is the 0 morphism a valid ring homomorphism?
because if it is then you should find a map where $\varphi^{-1}(\mathfrak{p}) = R$
Spamakin🎷
such (non-unital) morphisms exist
clubsoda14
I think i see what you mean
because what you've shown here still holds if \varphi^{-1}(p) is the whole ring
I see
yea your proof should start "if \varphi^{-1}(p) = R we are done. So suppose not" then show \varphi^{-1}(p) is in Spec(R)
Here's sort of a fun proof:
Let w be a primitive rth root of unity (zeta^m/r) and let c be a root of x^r - b. Then
||x^r - b factors as (x-c)(x-wc)...(x - w^r-1 c)||
||If it's not irreducible, then some polynomial dividing this will have coefficients in K. So w^something c^i is in K for some i. Hence c^i is in K, hence c^gcd(i, r) is in K.||
Now
||let d=gcd(i, r). Then (c^d)^m = a^d, which implies d=r.||
why do we know x^r - b must factor like that?
why can it not factor as say 2 polynomials or something, or 3 or whatever.
Because a polynomial always factors into (x - the roots)
over some field yes but not necessarily K
I'm confused what you're asking. c is not in K
Like the roots of x^r - b is c, wc, w^2c, ...
so it factors as (x-c)(x-wc)... over the algebraic closure or over K(c) or whichever field you want to work in where the polynomial splits
nvm I completely misread what you wrote so I see it now. I thought you were just showing that factorization couldn't lie in K[x] and I was lost
When this map is not injective, how can we intuitively think is going on , as it relates to extending N (R-mod) to an S-module?
Of course on the extreme end, when the kernel is all of N, there is basically no consistent way to “extend scalars”, but what is going on in those in-between cases?
Probably working through some concrete examples would help
in this case, how are we even mapping something like I((mi,ni)+(mj,nj))?
based on the definition of that inclusion map?
I was trying to understand why this map is in general not a group homomorphism
(mi + mj) tensor (ni + nj)
This is driving me mad
For the first part u(U n v)
I consider an element ug g in U n V and then ug h g^-1u^-1 is in u(U n v) somehow
But I am having trouble showing this
Hints
First have u figured out the identity
So h = xy with x in u and y in U n v.
So g xy g^-1 = gxg^-1 gyg^-1
Then you can just go down a checklist of properties. Like it's gxg^-1 still in u, is gyg^-1 still in U, is gyg^-1 still in v
x.y=x
Y=3/2
x+2y-3=3/2
2x+4y-9
Ah okay I'll try this now , what's the point of this excercise anyways 😭
Although Thank you so much
y=9-2x/4
That normal subgroups intersect nicely I guess.
Or maybe just practice in symbol pushing
symbol pushing 😭
This exercise is kinda weird, since the operation given doesn't seem to form a group.
Or I must be misunderstanding something, like they can the group (G, *), but then they write x . y
Why?
Which operstion failed?
Well, like you said the identity should be 3/2, but
3/2 . y = 3/2 + 2y - 3
I suppose it's possible that 3/2 is the only element of G, since they didn't specify that
Ohh it fails
Well, it fails unless y=3/2.
So I suppose you're just supposed to realize G = {3/2}
Still kinda weird though
How did you feel it fails for operation?
How I feel about it?
It has only one element to be a group?
Yeah, you can have a group with just one element. It just seems like a kinda stupid example
@rocky cloak I got through the proving normal subgroups part , I am now stuck on the isomorphisms
Any hints
Do you know the isomorphism theorems?
Yea
Then use those
Not the first isomorphism theorem. Notice your problem contains products quotients and intersections of subgroups
So for the first isomorphism consider for example N = u(U n v), S = (U n V).
Then it's asking you to show
SN/N = S/(S n N)
Ah okay this was easy then , my bad I didn't notice (Un v) (UnV) is UnV
Okay wait i might be able to do the second part
Thanks for the help so far
Might be a mistake in your given answer then
Then it will be B?
It should have a √2 instead of a √3 ig
i√2
Oh wait
It's 4
💀
I'm so done 😭
c
It should be c
Uh what are the roots of x^2+4
2i
Yeah whenever you have a i in sth there's also √3
(still a better lovestory that Twilight 💀)
What what?
Have a look at it?
Bump
Prove solvability of automorphism group.
can someone help me out here please?
Oh i actually found why that excercise was significant it's zassenhaus lemma, which later helps in the proof of schreier refinement theorem
How?
I mean ok sure but idk why its that just from the definition of the function alone
Wait this is a #point-set-topology question
anyone here read pinter's algebra and saracino's algebra (a first course)? someone in book recommendations said pinter might be the way to go, just wondering if anyone read both.
Add them before you map them
I tried pinter, didn't like it since a lot of the important results were left to exercises (which is something some people like apparently).
not a big fan of that, not my first time reading through something, anyway, i looked at pinter and i didn't see too many proofs in the explanations
clubsoda14
I found a different proof online that is a lot longer, but is this fine?
they defined the natural projection S -> S/M and then showed that R/φ^-1(M) is a field
why is varphi(I) not all of S? (in your chain of inclusions m phi(I) S)
if I is properly contained in R and phi is surjective then wouldnt phi(I) be properly contained in S?
Or is that not necessarily true
Why is this a lot longer? Like you've explained the whole proof and it's quite short.
What if R is the complex numbers
Wouldn’t the group-forg’d conjugation automorphism be distinct from the multiplication endomorphisms
That's right 👍
But the addition in the free Z module is .. not component wise though?
(m1,n1)+(m2,n2) is not (m1+m2, n1+n2) …?
Its just … (m1,n1)+(m2,n2)
I am having trouble with a question regarding group actions from a practice test I am working through. I will include a picture of the question along with some notes I have taken about the problem. Also for terminology, G*(alpha) is an orbit and G_(alpha) is the stabilizer. Any help would be greatly appreciated
a) you've noticed that the stabilizer are the matrices of the form [1, b; 0, d] so that's p(p-1) matrices. The orbit has size p^2 - 1, so in total that's (p^2 - 1)p(p-1) elements. (p=3).
b) that's correct, but your missing the proof I guess.
c) [1, 0] and [2, 0] span the same one dimensional subspace. The 4 subspaces should be the ones spanned by [1, 0], [1, 1], [1, 2] and [0, 1] respectively.
Thank you! And dang I can’t believe I didn’t that on part C I appreciate it!
lemme check, is this Dummit and Foote?
I found the page
We aren't doing addition in the free module. The free module is the middle step, we are doing addition in M times N (which was previously assumed to be just the cartesian product, but D&F is probably abusing notation)
You just start with a cartesian product M x N , and then define free Z-module with M x N as generating set
I dont see where there is a direct product of modules structure going on
Where are we defining a (m1,n1)+(m2,n2) = (m1+m2, n1+n2) structure?
The map M x N -> M tensor N is mapping free Z module to the tensor product
Say M is an R module generated by a set {m_a}_{a\in A} indexed by A and another R module called N.
A hom F:M\to N is determined by its image on the generators. How do you exactly say that?
Say I had a set map f:{m_a}_A->N is this just an application of the universal property of the free product F:Free({m_a}_A)->N? This isn't exactly the original but I have a sense that it's something like this. I know if {m_a}_A is a generating set there is a map from F:Free({m_a}_A)->M but I'm not sure how to put them together
I mean you can involve free modules and stuff if you want I guess, but it's really just every element in M is of the form
m = Sum_a r_a m_a
so
f(m) = Sum_a r_a f(m_a)
so just think of it like a linear combination okay. I guess I was worried that it wasn't obviously a hom.
To be honest I also had an interest in this question also as a statement about commutative R algebras. So the linear combination thing didn't make it clear to me that the hom would respect the multiplication of the commutative algebra
how often is the concept of preimage (for functions) used in group theory?
What do you mean "it wasn't obviously a hom", what is "it"?
a lot. a sort of fundamental example is that the preimage of 0 of a group homomorphism is a normal subgroup of the domain
It says that we have a map f, from M x N (left ambiguously) to the free module on M x N. And then we pass to the quotient M tensor N, which means we have a map from q, from the free Z module on M x N to M tensor N. Thus we have a map which is the composition of those two maps: qf. This map is a map from the cartesian product to M tensor N, not from the free module. Now, notice that M x N is the same notation for both the cartesian product, and direct product. We can thus infer that the authors are using it as the direct product, since they are talking about homomorphisms, how the map qf does not satisfy the homomorphism condition, which would not make sense if we were only considering M x N as the cartesian set.
and more generally, the preimage of any normal subgroup is again normal in the domain, and you can often say things about the quotients of groups using facts like this. many exercises will reduce to finding homomorphisms such that the preimage of 0 is the “right set”
and they’re used pretty much everywhere you go in math, not just algebra, so it’s worth being really familiar with it
i know what they are, but someone on the server was going on about them at length, i thought, maybe i dont know enough about preimages
ah lol, most of the interesting things you can say about preimages are about preimages of special sets, when you know stuff about both the map and the structure of the objects that you’re talking about
what all do we need to know about preimages? i studied them briefly in a foundations of advanced math course at the graduate level
but not super indepth or anything
Like how it interacts with intersections, unions, subsets etc is useful.
And more specifically in algebra how preimages of rings/groups/ideals/prime ideals are again that, and when their properties are carried over
is that typically explained in undergraduate abstract algebra books whenever they talk about homomorphisms?

Probably
Either proven or given as exercise. It’s easy af tho
what does this mean: proven or given as exercise? like, what is proven?
whats the "it"
Everything, I suppose
sorry, i dont understand
The former is maybe not because it’s just elementary set theory
🙂
This is "it"
here are two exercises that you can do, and then you could probably learn everything else in an introductory algebra text (maybe even these exercises will be there, but this is my favorite exercise to give people about preimages):
Let f: X->Y be a function and let A be a subset of X and let B be a subset of Y. Show that f(f^-1(B)) is a subset of B, and that A is a subset of f^-1(f(A)) (and find examples for each where they’re not equal, eg. the subsets are allowed to be proper subsets sometimes)
thanks, i'll write this down and take a look at it
I was talking about extending a set map f:S->N to a module map F:M->N where S generates M. I think you suggested if m=\sum_a r_a m_a then f(m)=\sum_a r_a f(m_a ).
But I think I should have stated that I'm actually interested in this problem about extending a set map in the case of commutative algebras where the extended homomorphism should also be a ring hom.
So that's why I wanted to understand this extension "categorically" in terms of that free object idea
You can't in general extend maps from a generating set to the whole module. Always being able to do that is exactly the condition of being freely generated
i think i got the first part:
you don't know that f^-1(x) is just a single element, multiple things can map to x under f (or maybe nothing maps to x)
ah yeah you're right, it's coming back to me...
you dont know if its one to one
plus, B \subset f(f^-1(B)) is not true in general, remember what you're trying to prove.
we could take this chat to #proofs-and-logic if you want
For one of the defs of a module
We have that ring R maps into End(A) where A is an abelian group
Does this have to be a monomorphism?
E.g. does the scalar operation need to be faithful?
Answered my own question, finite abelian groups are Z modules even though the order is a subideal of the kernel
jacobson says “R into End(M)” but when I see “into” I assume it’s mono
That kinda fucked with me for a moment
Actually I think (ord(G)) is the kernel
Since it’s the minimum n such that nx = 0
lol I look down to the textbook and my whackass pondering answered the next 3 questions lmao
Currying moment
Also I think if M is simple over R then End_R(M) is a division algebra actually
YES
This is important to rep theory
how do I unlearn something related to rep theory
Hammer
thank u
I don’t know much about rep theory
Why is it kind of uncanny to see something related to real life (food) here
Its like … you guys are all … normal people, too?
@next obsidian so like, we have semigroup rings, like R[G] right… what if we had (left/right) modules over them?
Any use of those
Hahahahaha
This is literally rep theory
Take R = C
And then you get group rep theory basically
Cuz of magical things
I honestly forget how the story really goes, but you focus on semisimple modules
Something about how C[G] is a semisimple ring tells you that you can always do this or something
Idk
at a high level we use representation theory because groups are hard and vector spaces are easy
🤨
anyways representations of groups allow us to prove nice things because honestly groups are boring
we don't care about them
we care about groups acting on things
and informations about these actions allows us to prove things about the groups

give us nice tools to classify them and such
by looking at their actions on vector spaces
rather than the group itself
yea so burnsides theorem comes up alot in combinatorial and finite group theory
and that's proven nicely via representation theory
yea but characters cooler
I really like the ring theoretic flair of 5
That R[\lambda] is a PID, and naturally T^n(x) = x so (lambda^n - 1)x = 0 for each d
Thus lambda^n - 1 is in B, but the divisors lambda - 1 and the sum of powers up to n - 1 of lambda aren’t (consider the (1,0…0) unit vector) so (lambda^n - 1) = B
is jacobson 1 worth doing or is it better to skip to 2
I see
Okay then
I heard 2 covers the stuff 1 does though but apparently in more detail? Idk
I did 7 a silly way for shits and giggles
Assume a and b are homomorphisms from Q into End(M)
Consider the subfield K of End(M) consisting of x such that a(x) = b(x). Now consider that a(n) = b(n) for n in Z by Z being generated by 1 and a(1) = b(1) by ring homomorphism axioms
Thus Z embeds into K
So by universal property of Frac(Z) = Q
Q itself maps into K
I.e a(x) = b(x) for all x in Q
thus a = b.
:3
Oh this seems interesting, but how is x an element of End(M)?
Ah maybe I misread and it's in Q
So you used that the only subfield of Q is Q? 
Moreso field of fractions approach
Edit: You proved subfield of Q*
Intuitively, if we can endow Abelian group A with a (commutative) R-module structure, then you can uniquely determine a RS^-1 module structure from the multiplicative subset S given it’s S-faithful
Wow, seems you gained lots of algebra knowledge
Basically it’s that
I have basic localization stuff scortched into my head like what AM did to Ted with the HATE pillar after the Ore localization shit I did
Which now makes me wonder about modules and localizations about primes
Artinian commutative rings are local rings in a costume
Also apparently if we have a finitely-generated left R-module M and Jac(R) is the Jacobson radical then Jac(R)M is a sub module of M
*Proper
Nakayama generalization apparently
Just was reading through a paper about Jacobson radicals
Yeh
I mean this is how Nakayama is actually most generally stated
You prove that IM = M means there is x with x = 1 mod I such that xM = 0
For fg M
You get this by determinant trick
In the case of Jac(R) that x would be a unit, so M = 0
Fun math fact: Every symmetric group except for S2 and S6 has itself as an automorphism group.
S2 has the trivial group, which is boring
Basically, if you take a set of any size except 2 or 6, and look at the permutations (ways to order things), the only maps that take a permutation, spit out a permutation, and preserve composition (automorphism) are given by conjugation
So a permutation p would define an automorphism P(x) that spits out pxp^-1 for any permutation x
The set with 6 elements has a permutation that doesn't have any analogues at different sized sets
The easiest way I could find to describe this is using graph matching
A (perfect) graph matching is a set of edges of a graph that don't have any vertices in common and each vertex is touching an edge in the matching
A graph can be factored into matchings that don't share any edges
Here is an example of a factorization of the complete graph with 6 vertices
Every permutation of the vertices defines a unique permutation of the factorizations
There happen to be 6 factorizations
No analogue of this automorphism exists for other symmetric groups