#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 239 of 1
D_8 has 3 iso classes of fusion systems on it, Q_8 only has 2.
trolled once more
anyway this makes sense now
maybe.
I'm far too tired to induce things from an index 2 subgroup in my head. Do you think I'm some kind of braniac?
Trust me it's OK, just think about the degrees
We have four characters down there. Two of them have inertia group the entirety of the group
yeah, trivial and the (1,-1) mf
And Gallagher tells us therefore (assuming they extend -- they do) that there will be four linear characters
I don't think you need Gallagher for that 
And the other one? Degree two, since it's (as a class function) the sum of two linear characters
Allow me my abstract nonsense
So you get 1 1 1 1 2
ah ok. Then the rest is trivial
Those are the degrees, and you even know the representations since you've described them as induced from linear characters!
Sick huh? I love this shit
are u telling me a p-group has monomial characters??!?!?!??!
Stunning ik
You can get a lot out of this in the McKay setting, as you're likely aware
Since we always have a normal subgroup when we're working with da normaliza
erm.. what the deuce?
In my lovely finite groups of lie type, the Sylow subgroup is often cyclic too. So we get an awful lot indeed.
buddy. U ever heard of "A_n"?
Yes... for nice primes.....
Lol
For my beloved Sp_4(q), all the Sylow ell-subgroups are cyclic... for ell =/= 2 or p
!!!!!!!! I'm so glad you asked
Firstly: I have no idea for the prime 2
A_n is easy, B_n, C_n, are easy unless p =2
I forget how D_n works
and the exceptionals are a finite problem
Secondly: in almost all cases, they're in the normaliser of a torus
oh it's THAT kind of bullshit is it
And there are effective ways of computing the order of the normaliser of the torus
Very effective
Basically
actually of course it is they're reflection groups lmfao
Compute the determinant of a certain action on the character lattice
and also
mix in the # of fixed points of the Weyl group
It turns out to be very nice indeed
We can't compute them explicitly, usually, since this involves calculating the Lang map. But we can compute them up to isomorphism.
SNOORRREEEE
🤓
compute them explicitly I don't want any more excuses
ok now do it for the complex reflection groups
all 37 of them
well, 34+3*\infty
erm 🤓 the Weyl group is a real reflection group always
does he know
groups
oh no no no he does not know
he knows!
Gunter Malle scares me
he should
sounds like you guys know how to handle sylow groups. can someone explain to me how to prove that a group of order 24 is not simple using the sylow theorems?
I don't think I can use the same argument I've used for other orders so far and I'm wondering what I'm missing:
If it has three 2-Sylow groups and four 3-Sylow groups, where is the contradiction?
the group acts on the three sylow 2 subgroups by conjugation, and this action is transitive. That gives a homomorphism G --> S_3
kernel is non-trivial and normal.
hi walter 
hi walter and det
hi potato 
hi potato 
hello hehe
Let $B\subseteq A$ be an integral extension of rings. Let $I$ be some ideal of $B$. Then, the induced map $B/IB\to A/IA$ is also integral. This is injective if and only if $AI\cap B=I$?
how would element count work? i'm learning this as well
croqueta3385
hm i'm unsure here, i think acting on sylow is nicested
how would you count elements from the sylow 2 subgroups? sylow 3 are nice and intersect only at {e}. so ig that gives (3-1)*4 elements of order 3
i'm not sure about the 2 yeah
sure yeah
seeing B contained in A is hurting my brain though
But yeah B -> A -> A/IA has kernel IA cap B, which of course contains I
so it becomes injective iff that kernel is just I
I don't understand this example
what is the injection B-->A here?
B/x=k[y]/y^2 and A/x=k[z]/z^2
I'm fairly certain counting is the way I'm supposed to solve this task since they did the same for order 12 but I can't figure it out either
well lol if k is char 2 you can send x to x and y to y
ah nvm
that works
because (xz-y)^2=x^2z^2-2yxz+y^2=-2y^2+y^2=-y^2
but then y is sent to zero
Oh god oh fuck
Welp, anyway $N(a + b\sqrt{pq}) = (a + b\sqrt{pq})(a - b \sqrt{pq}) = a^2 - b^2pq$
THE TUBE
Assume $u = a + b\sqrt{pq}$ is a unit, then $N(u) = \pm 1$. assume $N(u) = 1 = a^2 - b^2pq$
THE TUBE
going to look into irreducibles
||sqrt(pq)sqrt(pq)=pq||
Let w = sqrt(pq)
Assume p is reducible in Z[w], then we have a non-unital x = a + bw in Z[w]/Z such that x | p. Likewise x' = a - bw | p, implying (a + bw)(a - bw) = a^2 - b^2pq | p. p is prime so a^2 - b^2pq = s1 or sp where |s| = 1
Assume a^2 - b^2pq = sp, then a^2 = (s + qb^2)p implying p | a. let a = pc
(pc)^2 - b^2pq = sp implying pc^2 - b^2q = s
-qb^2 = s (mod p)
q has an inverse modulo p, call it k, then:
b^2 = q^-1 (mod p) or b^2 = -q^-1 (mod p)
First case cannot happen, q is a nonresidue mod p. By Euler's criterion, (-1)^{(p-1)/2} = (-1)^2n = 1, thus -1 is a q-residue mod p, thus the second case cannot happen. Proof by exhaustion, a^2 - b^2pq cannot equal plus/minus p
Therefore p is irreducible (prime) in Z[w], but pq = w^2
which implies that p | w^2 => p | w
I think this is overcomplicated. If p=ab then p^2=N(p)=N(a)N(b). If a nor b are units then N(a)=+- p, so that you can find integers x,y with x^2-y^2 pq=+- p. This leads to the equation p x^2-q y^2= +-1. Reducing mod p gives that q is a square mod p
note: you should use that -1 is a square mod p
I am going off of what I did on paper and I just wrote out the legendre symbol sorry about that
Alrighty yeah that can allow me to chop out some of the extra work
thanks
i have a quick question croqueta if you don't mind
to finish the proof you have to show that p and sqrt(pq) are not associate (i.e., one is not the multiple of the other), but this is obvious
not seeing it off the top of my head let me think
p | sqrt(pq) => p^2 | pq => p | q (contradiction)
Looks good
Is the reason we can put a norm on Z[a] due to quadratics being equivalent up to scaling and translation?
mmh I'm not sure I understand the question
Well when we append the root of a quadratic integral polynomial to Z
we still get a norm it seems
is this exclusive to quadratics?
the norm is a quite general construction coming from field extensions
is it just the constant coeff of the min poly?
yes
I see
well
here it is implicit that if $\alpha$ is some algebraic number then we are talking about the norm coming from the field extension $\Q(\alpha)/Q$
croqueta3385
Let a be a root of a monic integral polynomial of degree n
Z[a] ~= Z[X]/(p(X))
it's an integral extension so Z[a] has the structure of a rank-n free module over Z
in this case the norm will be the product of the roots of the minimal polynomial of \alpha, or the constant coefficient of the minimal polynomial times (-1)^n where n is the number of roots. Note that not all roots of the minimal polynomial of alpha need live in Q(alpha)
but the issue is getting the norm from that constant coefficient? Would it just be the product of each element's conjugates. But what would be the "minimal polynomial" of an arbitrary element of Z[a]
In general, if $L/K$ is a finite field extension and $G$ is the Galois group (of the Galois closure) of $L$ over $K$ then given $\alpha\in L$ you define the norm $N(\alpha)=\prod_{\sigma\in G}\sigma\alpha$
croqueta3385
i haven't gotten to too much galois stuff yet
well you just adjoin to L all the roots of all the minimal polynomials over K of elements of L
this will give the normal closure, to be Galois you will need separability but just assume L and K are field extensions of Q, so everything is separable
i will come back to this after I learn more about galois extensions
note that for example the Galois group of Q(i) consists of the identity and the automorphism bringing i to -i
so then the norm of a+bi will be (a+bi)(a-bi)=a^2+b^2
i wonder at some point is Galois theory has a connection to characters
though I suppose automorphisms are
themselves "additive" and automorphic characters from G^X to G if you ignore 0
you can also compute the norm from linear algebra, by regarding L as a vector space over K and looking at the linear transformation x-->alpha x. Then the norm is the determinant
Interesting chain of ideas
Characters are linearly independent over an integral domain, in particular fields
automorphisms are a special subset of characters, still linearly independent
I am going to toy with this
Automorphisms were linearly independent?
hmm
what is the kernel of this action? or how can i see its non-trivial?
Since there's someone stduy algebra, there must be someone study cryptography
DMs me, please, i wanna some communication
Do you know what the kernel of a group action is?
Intersection of stabilizers?
Yes
I know what it is, I couldn’t find it in this particular example
Hint: 24 is more than 3!
In that case, the fact that the action is transitive is irrelevant?
Well, you need the kernel to not be everything either
Okay, thank you
Problem VII.4.5 from Aluffi: Can't we just say like, take the roots of g in F, and consider the field generated by those roots, which is clearly the unique splitting field
i don't understand why there is work to be done in this question
here is Aluffi's definition of splitting field
I'm trying to understand a proof that any group of order p^2 is abelian, for prime p. They do this by showing that either G is cyclic, or G is isomorphic to <a>x<b> for two elements a, b of order p. But they claim that <a> is normal in G because of one of the Sylow theorems. I don't get why. <a> is not even a Sylow p-group, it's just a p-group, and it's not the only one in G
Only if you see those automorphisms as group automorphisms instead of K-akgebra's
For the "subset part", I think the dependence part is false
Fun fact: this is not true for division rings.
Maybe the fact that such a field exists and is unique, so that you're entitled to call it "the" splitting field?
When you write that G is isomorphic to ‹a› × ‹b›, do you mean the direct product of the groups ‹a› and ‹b› on the RHS?
Because that's already necessarily abelian (direct product of abelian groups is abelian). (And so ‹a› is normal, if that's still important.)
Wouldn’t be surprised
Could probably find one set of linear dependent characters over the ring of rational quaternions
Not really the group automorphism itself but the character it induces
I.e group automorphism F^X to F^X
What is X?
Ah, so you mean automorphism of unit group for fields?
Yeah, but they need to show that <a> is normal first. Then G iso to <a> x <b> is eventually the conclusion, which shows that G is abelian as you say
Ah, maybe it's because [G : ‹a›] = p then. There is a theorem in finite group theory that if the index of a subgroup of a finite group is the smallest prime factor of the order of the group, the subgroup is normal.
Does some texts include this one among one of Sylow theorems?
I think they were referring to a field automorphism.
An automorphism of a field F can be viewed as a function from F to F, and the set of all automorphisms is a linearly independent subset of F^F (F-vector space with pointwise operations).
Never that I've seen.
Hmm
I guess it's just a mistake in the proof
Ouch, just found out that miz just said automorphism, not group automorphism
I want die me ashamed..
?
Can't you use this?
I mean, it's a step in the proof that is wrongly attributed to Sylow. But the conclusion is correct
Well a character is a map from a monoid M to an integral domain or field K so a field automorphism can be forg’d into a character from the field’s multiplicative group into itself, since it must fix 0
It's OK, the word ‘character’ probably understandably primed you to think about groups.
Yeah, field automorphism is a character
Therefore group automorphisms are linearly independent
Maybe I should have studied character theory explicitly, seeing how this terminology confuses me
Eh, perhaps too late
I don’t know much about character theory either
Tldr it’s just a monoid map into a group
*field
Prove that Zp is a field for p prime
Use p being coprime to every nonzero element, and use Bezout lemma
So for the sake of illustration let's let p = 11
Then every element is coprime to 11
So then we can construct the inverse by ax + bp = gcd(x,p)
So like for x = 5 we have
11/5 = 2 r 1
5×2 + 1 = 11
11 - 5×2 = 1
So 5^(-1) = -2 = 9
So you can construct it.
groups of order 6 are either cyclic or S3 right?
What about A6
what is A6 again?
A_6 doesn't have order 6
Nvm
A6 is alternating group or smth?
The group of even permutations in S_6
oh ok thanks
which is more than 6 elements
n!/2 elements
trying to remember why its that though
Construct a bijection between the odd and even permutations
Let G be order 6 and not cyclic, then there’s 3 Sylow 2 subgroups and G acts on them by conjugation. That gives a morphism from G to S_3, and because the groups have the same order, it’s an isomorphism
do u guys have some recommanded books about group, ring and fields
I just don't understand why these concepts is proposed or introduced
So abstract, and hard to learn and understand
but why in an abstract way
Dummit and Foote
Convenient for what? First of all, nobody is forcing you to study about these things
I am not taking about the energy i spent
I am takling about the generation of this subject to have a better understanding
for me, To figure this out can make this subject easy to learn
Do you prefer reproving everything about an object that looks like Z or just see it's a ring and apply the whole general theory
That's the thing
kind of understand
It's like summarizing the general law of the existence of specific
At what stage do u study this subject
high school?
okay
I learn this to do my research in cryptograhpy
Highly depends on how your country's educational system works etc etc but whatever
Oh yeah that indeed might be useful
same
but second year
@loud merlin wait, why your pfp YeWenjie?
U Chinese?
I suddenly realized it
No, I don't need to be Chinese to read the books / watch the show lol
Oh okay
(i) help
Think about 2^3
too hard gonna come back to it i guess
6R as in the ideal sum of the ring with itself 6 times?
How about this
What do you get if you expand
(x + x)^3 ?
6R = {a+a+a+a+a+a | a in R}
How does that help you get 8x^3 don't you?
Alright, so 8x^3 = 2x
Then you can simplify that a little bit
sorry ill do this tmrw
it’s 8, I got it!
How does this statement even make sense. Isn't the sum of two ideals a sup set of each ideal?? So 6R contains R. It seems like you're saying the ring is trivial if a^3=a. Come to think of it I can't think of a ring that satisfies this. Is the ideal sum not bigger than each ideal?
way I see it, as long as the ring contains 1 you can make the element 6=1+1+1+1+1+1 and then 6R would be the principal ideal generated by 6
It just refers to the elements of the ring that are multiples of 6.
You wouldn't think 6Z = Z for example
Don't even really need 1 in the ring, you just define it exactly like gkn1 suggested
their response I don't believe was meant to imply that it was the ideal sum of R with itself 6 times. For instance since R+R = {a+b | a, b in R} while 2R = {a+a | a in R} are not the same thing. I think that's what's confusing you there
OH NO OH NO
wat
questions about rings with a = a^3 tend to have a reputation
I’ve tried a problem like this and it was hell
Rings where for each x there is a n > 1 where x^n = x are commutative
Classic problem at this point
well i'm glad other people find it hard, earlier i was beating myself up over not being able to do it
i dont understand what this 'let x be a symbol' means
is f actually a function and x its parameter
x is just some indeterminate variable
so f is a function right?
nope
f is just a formal polynomial
functions need a domain and codomain, I see nothing of the sort here
it's just a symbol
it's actually simplier to understand than whatever the hell the a_is are
why are the a_ hard to understand?
also why can we multiply a_ by x even though x isnt necessarily in R?
they're not - it's just that the x is even easier
it's literally just a symbol
that doesnt make sense
like is this some formal syntax thing
should i have seen this concept before?
They have written it in a weird way. The natural way would make to make the a_is constants denoting elements of R. Instead they're saying x is a symbol and the a_is are elements of R, which feels like a type mismatch though technically there's no problem
this seems false
consider Z⟨X,Y⟩/(X²+1,Y²+1)
hm
actually i suppose you don't have (XY)^n = XY
can we conclude that X.. yeah exactly
f represents a range of different values depending on what x is right?
hrm
no, f is not a function
hm
what is it then
a polynomial. It says right there
uh
consider the quaternions on F_p?
babble alert! babble alert!
do you mean like
you can think of it as just giving you the form of adding and multiplying polynomials without evaluating them
ohhh okay I see
it literally is a new type of object to me
F_p<i,j,k>/(i^2+1, j^2+1, k^2+1, ijk+1)?
yes
to demonstrate the difference, as functions F_p -> F_p, x^p and x \in F_p[x] are the same due to fermat's little theorem
but they're very different as polynomials
i dont understand your notation
Fermat's tiny itty bitty theorem
what exponent are we using on elements of F_p
wdym
well we need x^n = x for all x in your ring
yeah 5
right so F_5
actually all the elements of this ring have exponent 5
i suppose
because frobeanius
1 5 10 10 5 1
there might be something of higher expontent we're missing. I do not have the will to think about it
ok I thought about it
(i+j)^5 weirds me out
,w expand (x+y)^5
hmm... you win this time...
hmm... but what about (j+k)^5....
it's actually the Identity
I had to use this crazy equivalence relation and split the group down lmao
I cannot wait until I never have to think about any of this ever again
Then don’t
and ultimately this is a false statement
alas, I must
You sure?
check this shit out @dull ginkgo
Oh ignore 0
yeah i've literally just given a counterexample
lets not be too hasty now
what was the counterexample
quaternions on F_5, apparently
F_5 quaternions
which element in there fails
I just don't like it...
none of them
I'm suspicious........
this expansion assumes i, j commute if you're trying to look at (i+j)^5
You haven't really proven that x^5 = x.
And the original statement is true, so there can't be any counter examples
I know I was just taking the piss by asking wolfram
that's precisely why I'm still sus of it
kind of
[Just a burning memory gradually fades in]
the commutative quaternions are the trivial ring
Burning memery
Do you mean the abelianization of the qaternions
take a guess... brainaic...
consider any commutator of the Q_8 group lmao
it might be
wait
no it's not
is it?
no because you get the funny i⁵ and j⁵ at the end
uh
what is it actually
odd degree elements square to 0 in graded commutative rings
yeah but it's not commutative innit
did I say it was
yes
I said graded commutative not commutative graded
fuck this
$xy = yx(-1)^{\text{deg}(x)\text{deg}(y)}$ is graded commutative
Wew Lads Tbh
oh
question is, is what we have graded commutative.... probably!
probably not
oh well!
too many loops spoil da broth...
(i+j)⁵ = 2i+2j i think
I thought it was a 2
(i + j)^2 = i^2 + ij + ji + j^2 = -2
So (i+j)^4 = 4, so
(i+j)^5 = 4(i+j)
you thought what was a 2
i see
what else looks like a 2
wow somebody was actually bothered to do the explict calculation
if you look at it funny
Anyway the first step of that psycho problem for me
Is establishing (what feels like) torsion
Then i had to split it into commutative subrings
Is it possible to do something clever, or is it just horrible calculations all the way down?
In particular, subrings of Z[x] for x in R
call the minimum n > 1 : x^n = x the rank of x, r(x)
it’s easy to show x^k = x for k >= r(x), k = 1 (mod r(x) - 1)
assume we have some n > 1
k = lcm(r(x) - 1, r(nx) - 1) + 1
(nx)^k = n^k x^k = nx = n^kx
(n^k - n)x = 0
Oh, you're letting n depend on x as well
So each x has an additive order
Y e s
Sounds rough
So every element has an additive order
Back
So ord(x) | (n^lcm(r(x) - 1, r(nx) - 1) - 1)n
For each n
Mmh maybe try doing some concrete case like x^3=x for all x or that a finite noncommutative field is commutative
I basically considered Z*(x)
Anyway as a break
I need to show Z[sqrt(w)] is a euclidean domain where x^2 - w = 0 is irreducible over Q
don't tell me to latex it
i swear to
I’m pretty sure if you use the standard function on C
You will end up with what you desire
Idk where the irreducible assumption comes in but it will
Because I said so
i have to use the norm function
Yeh
x = a + bs {s = sqrt(w)} has norm N(a + bs) = a^2 - sb^2 which is nonzero for each x
Yeah
(if it is, then (a/b)^2 - w = 0 giving x^2 - w a linear factor which can't happen)

so then
Assume we have elements x = a + bs, y = c + ds \neq 0
We want to find elements q = u + vs, r = p + qs such that
yq + r = x and |N(r)| < |N(y)|
this is harder than I thought it would be
Basically we just need to find a q that satisfies |N(x - qy)| < |N(y)|
oh wait it's not a general statement
sqrt(-10) is not UFD
Say R a ring and b an ideal and x an element of R. Are xb and (x)b different sets?
I guess the left side may fail to be an ideal for example
As an extreme example, take b = R
Then you are comparing xR with (x)
Then the two definitely needn't coincide
any hints on (ii) I'm being dumb
I feel like I need to use the fact that x in H itself
G is direct sum of A and B, where A is sum of n many cyclic groups of order powers of 2, B sum of cyclic groups of order prime powers. Then clearly H=(Z/2Z)^n. Try calculate sum of elements of (Z/2Z)^n
Yeah
Thanks
Np
good god
lol
Oh writing g for an additive group hurt my brain slightly
I saw sum of g and assumed this was the like central idempotent of the group ring or whatever
up to scaling
Oh, what is this?
(i) if g is not an involution (order 2 element), then g^-1 is distinct from g and is also in G, thus will cancel when all added up. The only elements that won't cancel like this are involutions. Therefore we can strip out G\H from the sum and still have an equality. This implies that x is in H since H is closed under addition.
(ii) Assume |H| > 2. H must contain an element other than x and 0. Let y be the sum of elements of H other than x and 0, which is not an empty sum. This implies x = y + x + 0 => y = 0. So the sum of elements other than x and 0 is still 0
assume for x and y in H, x + y = 0, then x = y because both are involutions
wait
this feels like a contradiction
Can |H| > 2?
Yea (i) I got the same proof
(Z/2Z)^2
Consider (Z/2Z)^2
Yea you got to my failed proof attempt lol
let me ponder for a second
Hint: you ||pairing f and (1,…,1)+f, see yourself how many (1,…,1) you get||
Wonder if one could do some kind of reduction to prime power
|H| must be a power of 2
Every element is by definition an involution (is of order 2)
by legrange's theorem, |<a>| = 2 | |H|
so no other prime can divide |H| as it'd have a larger cyclic group
Do you know what group rings are
Well i guess i should say group algebras which is preferable
omfg
so uhhhh
it's not
Just a bit weird to work out the details
2 | |H| because each element is an involution right
And we stripped out {0,x} so H\{0,x} has an even number of elements
if it's empty we have a contradiction, otherwise there has to be another element we can strip out the same as the first. We have induction that leads to a contradiction unless x = 0 i think
Yes
Oh whoops I see. The difference between xR and (x)R is somewhat whether the ring R is commutative. Maybe I could find an example of these being different in a matrix algebra or something like that
R[G]
Ah so it is enough to analyze that.
wait nvm
y not equal to x or 0 in H implies (y + x) is in H and is also not equal to x or 0
I keep trying to find an easier route but it's just harder than showing it's a power of 2 and using contradiction lmao
Does this use the lemma that every rational number is within or a half distance of an integer?
the multiplicative part is easy (conjugate is also in D)
x = (a + b*sqrt(-3))/2 for a = b (mod 2)
(a^2 + 3b^2) = (a^2 + 3b^2) = 4a^2 = 0 (mod 4)
so N(x) = (a^2 + 3b^2)/4 must be an integer for each x
I solved this by doing (ii) first and then (i). How do you solve (i) without (ii)?
Honestly (ii) feels like the de facto way to prove (i)
but uh, maybe take [x_1,x_2]?
Or conjugation?
those just feel like (ii) in disguise
I think so
Showing it's euclidean seems to elude me
Because it kinda is?
yea lol
For finite G two subgroups having coprime orders is equivalent to having trivial intersection
No, two subgroups can have trivial intersection even without having coprime orders
They're not equivalent
Lol take any two distinct subgroups of order 2
N_1 and N_2 is normal, so both are fixed by conjugation by G
Thus g_1 g_2 g_1^-1 is in N_2
coprime orders implies trivial intersection but not the converse yea
this + whatever you were probably going to write further is basically my proof of (ii) lol
Nvm the route i was gonna try leads to trivial intersection anyway
If R is a commutative ring and A and B are subsets of R. Then the product of sets AB is a well defined set.
If A and B are ideals then the product is also an ideal AB.
Say in this case that A and B are ideals then it's the case that the ideal product AB is exactly the same thing as the subset product AB right? I think I basically asked the same question but I wanna be sure if this is obvious to anybody
For commutative rings yeah they are the same
For noncommutative rings it is sums over the subset product
aka the Abelian additive group generated by the subset product :3
yea the definition of the product of ideals is the sum of such products of elements (in a commutative or noncommutative ring)
Wait i am mistaken because i was thinking of the group theoretic def of ideals for a second
It’s sums over the product lmao
Yeah, they don't agree even for commutative rings
I was thinking of principal ideals for a second
For commutative rings it is just aR but for noncommutative it is sums over RaR
My brain is frying today Jesus
Gonna take a shot at this
I need some help at the euclidean domain part
We have x = x_r + x_i sqrt(-3) \neq 0, y = y_r + y_i sqrt(-3)
1/y = y*/N(y) where y* is conjugation here. Issue is that I cannot state much about if 2 divides N(y) or not
@long obsidian Consider (a)(b). a^n*b^m might be in the subset product, but a^n b^m + a^m b^n isn't
Sorry I'm trying to juggle rn
Thanks okay it seems like the difference is whether it's a single term.
y'know what. fuck this shit
i am constructing the eisenstein integers and constructing an isomorphism
I'm thinking if you were given an example earlier with the Gaussian integers, instead of the basis {1, i} you can use the basis {1, 1/2+sqrt(-3)/2} and do the same trick with parallelograms
I basically used the primitive 6th root instead of the primitive 3rd because it’s more obvious to conclude
But yeah
Did you do Jacobson 
I hardly know him...
The textbook crying emoji
That’s where the q is from
Questions tend to be more difficult than D & F from my experience though I stopped D&F at groups
I've heard of it now that I think of it
This set took me like, an hour and a half when in D&F it took me like a quarter of the time per problem set
but mostly I learned algebra out of Artin, D&F, and Lang and none from alluffi nor jacobson
There is a big ol string of problems about Gaussian primes
Surprisingly none about Eisenstein primes. Idk about those, might try to prove some stuff about em
yeah try to see if you figure out which prime split, ramify, or remain inert
I think I know how to do all of them
D&F is peak 🔥🔥🔥 I’ve almost read the entire book! Which is so wild to me
Gonna try them tomorrow
Wow, how did you find time to read entire book?
Not all the exercises but I took algebra for this year and we covered basically all of it
silly question but, what's the alternative
Not a silly question at all! For me, I just review what I heard in the lecture.
Do you guys think atiyah and matasuma's commutative algebra pretty much have the same material in them?
Actually I almost don’t, just try to learn most in the lecture
Fuck no
This isn’t a matter of opinion
If you look at the table of contents you see AM has way less
Okay I thought matasuma had more but I couldn't interpret the table of content exactly cause I don't know how much is left in the exercises. Thanks
Used to not but this quarter I do
i just finished a whole year of algebra and we also did practically the whole book minus a module theory
Feels great right
i feel like i’ve learned a lot but there are still some parts of galois theory i don’t feel completely comfortable with yet, yeah
sorry, what is the first question even saying? it reads like gibberish to me
if H is a subgroup of G, let S be the set of all right cosets of H then let there is a homomorphism between G and A(S). if o(G) does not divide i(H)! then kernel of that mapping is larger than {e}, because if kernel is {e} then image set is a subgroup of A(S) but by Lagrange theorem o(G) divide i(H)! which is not possible by hypothesis, is it correct argument?
what are A(S) and i(H)?
A(S) is a set of all automorphism of s and i(H) is a index of H, o(G)/|H|
Do you know what a polynomial ring is
i just reread it. i had a TIA reading this. the "for which a second polynomial" part tripped me up
thanks
Is there specific name for polynomials raised to some kth root
And are these well studied
Looking for a source
with commutative ring R, is R[x] = R[y]?
i dont get how we can use x like this
i thought it was just part of the notation for constructing a polynomial
They’re certainly isomorphic. The indeterminate x or y is just notation.
So it’s things of the form $r_nx^n+r_{n-1} x^{n-1} + \cdots + r_1 x + r_0$ where $r_i$ are elements of the ring R and your $x$s are just indeterminates
Nope
i understand, thx
Only knowing that G is a group and H a subgroup of the center of G, how would you describe/write G/H ?
I’m struggling to see what the group looks like
how do you want to describe it?
Just with {}
{gH : g in G} isn't good enough?
Is H = Z(G) here
I’m so bad at this
a subgroup of Z(G)
Z/3Z is {0 + 3Z, 1 + 3Z, 2+3Z}
G/H = {gH : g in G} is defined for any group and subgroup as the collection of left cosets.
However, G/H is a group iff H is normal in G
I just can’t wrap my head around G/H
Ah, subgroup - then idk if there are specific ones
Effectively, gH is like g + H, but you use operation of the group instead of addition
Btw this kind of repr is also a hack in some sense
I see
this one just breaks everything up via modulo classes. so all multiples of three are treated the same here, etc
Okay i may still be a little confused
how sway
No no okay i’m getting there, thank you !
I need to prove that if G/H is cyclic, then G is abelian
whatchya got
I will try to do this now that i have a better representation of G/H
Oh that. Is G per chance finite?
No more than what i shared
Not specified nope, just that H is a subgroup of Z(G)
Darn. No sylow.
Maybe good to begin with G/H = <a>
I just realized I never did this for the infinite case.
G/H = <g_0H>
for some g_0 in G
finite, infinite, the proof should go through the same
Guess the proof is kinda anticlimatic
;-; My proof for the finite case used Sylow (I did this a year ago) so that machinery is out of my toolkit now.
isnt the ideal principal anyway
by definition
oh
i missed the second half of the sum xd
i thought it was an equality
try looking at ||xH and yH||
I'll try this.
Alternatively, you can look at G -> G/H and uh
Commutator? Idk
Traditional way works better
Also uh question: Say you got a family of subgroups {Ki} of G indexed by some index set I. Look at the cosets. Are all equivariant maps under left multiplication action of G between these cosets of the family characterised as the action of an element of G^I by right multiplication on Prod(Ki) and the maps taking Hi->Hj?
@kind temple i’m still kinda stuck ngl haha
G a group, H a subset of Z(G) such as G/H is cyclic. Prove that G is abelian
I think we can say that there is a g in G such as G/H = <gH>
And if n is the cardinal of <gH>, G/H = {g^kH^k, k ranging from 0 to n-1} ?
for a hint: ||G/Z(G) is cyclic means you can write every element of the group as x^az for some fixed x, and z central||
Okay i got it, thank you !
let F be the free group on a set S = {a,b,......} , and let G be a group. Every map of sets f: S-> G extends in a unique way to a group homomorphism T: F -> G.
They defined a_1a_2......a_n -> f(a_1)f(a_2)....f(a_n), how can i show that this mapping is well defined?
Since ab is equivalent to acc^(-1)b but then how f(a)f(b)= f(a)f(c)f(c^(-1))f(b) ?
f(x^-1) is defined to be f(x)^-1
Quick sanity check: Given a finite dimensional real or complex vector space $(V, +, \cdot)$, the representation
\begin{align*}
\rho : \text{End}(V) &\longrightarrow \text{End}(V)\
A &\longmapsto \rho(A) := A
\end{align*}
is irreducible, right?
SK2099
That's correct, you don't need finite dimensional either.
So you're viewing V as an End(V)-module. Indeed it's a simple module, even if V is infinite dimensional. Any nonzero vector can be sent to any other one by some element of End(V)
Thank you; just wanted to make sure.
Hello, for all g in a finite group G, card(g Z(G)) = card(Z(G)) ?
multiply by a group element is invertible, hence it's a bijection
That’s what i thought yes, but it sounds insane ?
The little intuition i have is telling me wtf
how does that sound insane, take the map sending x to xy, then this map has a two sided inverse given by x -> xy^-1
Then adjust your intuition
If K is some subset of the integers, |K| = |K+n| for any n. This is the same.
the one thing I will never find intuitive is the whole "topological group is generated by a neighbourhood of the identity". I know the proof off by heart and yet I do not like it.
Simply close your eyes and repeat it 50 times
Is the following a well studied property: what is it called when if I give you a set of functions and look at their sum. If their sum is zero, then all the functions must be zero
But there is no information about f
f is an arbitrary map from S, set of variables to G, when we extend f to F<S> to G
We require that f(s^-1) is defined to be f(s)^-1
the map T sends a word a_1...a_n to f(a_1)...f(a_n), we want T to be a group homomorphism, so we require T(a_1a_1^-1) = T(1) = 1, hence we require exactly what cogwheels said
Or put it this way, we define g(s)=f(s), g(s^-1)=f(s)^-1, g(Πs^ε)=Πf(s)^ε
g(s^-1)=f(s)^-1 is a rule, we require so
It has nothing to do with the original f
Yes we require but f is an arbitrary, so we define f(s^(-1)) = f(s)^(-1)
Yes
we define g(s^-1)=f(s)^-1
If you go through the whole construction of the free group from it's generating set X, you'll know that it's actually words in X U X^-, where X^- is the set of symbols x^-1 for each x in X (followed by quotienting by the relation xx^-1 ~ 1). So really, we should be thinking about an extenstion of f to a map g from a set S U S^- with the restriction that g(s)g(s^(-1)) = 1
s^-1 isn’t in the domain of f
We define g(s^-1)=f(s)^-1, I used a different letter g to make you less confused to understand that it’s a extended, new map
I'll match this notation to make it clearer
There is no such thing as f(s^-1), originally I thought you understood the same letter f is actually a new map
So in summary, given any map f:S->G, we define g:F<S>->G, by g(Πs^ε)=Πf(s)^ε. You can directly verify that g is a homomorphism, we call g an extension of f because any s from S we indeed have g(s)=f(s). Sometimes we just use the same letter f instead of g
Now all clarified right
Now I got it but why don't they introduce g in the statement why they just tell us that {....,a^(-1),a,...} maps to corresponding image
Thank you a lot
Np
Since there is no ambiguity, everything is clear, so doesn’t matter how an author writes it you will eventually get the correct version
is it seen as messy/ugly to abuse proofs by contradiction
Math has no emotion, it doesn’t care or even know whether a method is beautiful or ugly , it doesn’t have any preference
yeah but theres a culture right
i saw ppl saying reaching for proofs by contradiction will make you learn less from the proof (if youre doing it as an exercise) usually
maybe that would havew been a better q
I have no idea why people would say that.
I have seen people new to proofs prove something by first assuming that it's not true, and then proving that it is true without using the assumption that it isn't true, which is to say that proof by contradiction was unnecessary. But this is just lack of awareness.
I think it depends, but if you're for example proving the existence of something, then you are in a sense learning more from the construction of said thing than just proving that it must exist.
Eh I mean like
One thing is that if you do a proof without contradiction then the proof can have clear, useful byproducts
Whereas if you use a contradiction a lot then that doesn't happen
So you mean non-constructive proofs, really
Personally I prefer to give a direct proof if one is possible, but sometimes doing stuff by contradiction can be quicker cause you can make more assumptions on your objects
Not really no
What I mean is like
If I assume A and prove B1,...,Bn on the way to C, then I know A => B_i
Whereas if I assume a contradiction to begin with, I'd have to be more careful to extract the consequences
What lol
¬ is the symbol in formal logic for not
I am well aware
I mean that your proof may essentially consist of a bunch of stuff which follows from a contradiction
For a proof by contraposition sure
But yeah you could rephrase it but more time/work needed
yeah I agree that some things would only be a result of A and not C which is useless
anyway I think the argument for not using proof with contradiction if you can avoid it is just that it clarifies what is going on
how do you express proofs by contradiction formally
what language do you have to use
This is getting a bit off-topic.
You can use any logic that has LEM. Even constructive logics like many type theories support proof by contradiction to prove things are false.
sorry I forgot this is #groups-rings-fields
Let G be a group of order n, and let F be any field. Prove that G is isomorphic to a subgroup of GL_n(F). Any hint?
Consider the group action of G on itself. Keyword: “permutation matrices”
Hello
I found problem sets which are assigned from Rotman's UG Algebra textbook
altho I don't know what sections I should read before attempting the psets
can anyone help me out?
G is isomorphic to the subgroup of S_n and S_n is isomorphic to the subgroup of GL_n(F)
Sure, that’s a good way to think about it
The subgroup of S_n is isomorphic to subgroup of GL_n(F), hence G is isomorphic to subgroup of GL_n(F)
K. Lee
Agreed
For example any definition like connectedness must be done by contradiction (since it has a negation in its definition)
Hi everybody I'm Luis from Mexico, my pronouns are her/him. I really love math!
I have a question: is group theory fundamentally about the simmetry of an object? whatever object means?
Group theory's fundamental insight is that it doesn't matter what the object is.
And I suppose it is about symmetries of things, insofar as groups are sets of symmetries.
But in moment-to-moment group theory, we don't really think of it that way very often.
If you're wondering what group theory is 'about' I would suggest just reading an intro.
Historically group theory was just about looking about subgroups of Sn (symmetry groups) and that was im sure a lot of motivation
ultimately it's about more than just symmetries of objects
of course is about more than that but everything I have read so far, they always come back to the idea of simetry
OK
Are the integers symmetries to you? Like the numbers -1, 0, 1, 2, 3 etc
Does this describe some symmetry?
As numbers, no. As objects in a group they do
No but yes. Well I have nothing else to say I suppose.
I think you can see how groups describe symmetries in an abstract sense, rather than a literal one.
for instance, in this(https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/2394650/mathbbz-is-the-symmetry-group-of-what) question they define the integers as a group of symetries of this object.
And that's the thing, can we create and object (let's say geometric object) that has as a group of symetrys a given group?
Groups exist only to act on things some might say
There are lots of theorems that say that, given a group, we can construct some object which has that group associated with them in some way or another.
- Cayley's theorem says that groups can always be seen as acting on a set.
- There is a theorem saying that every finite group is the automorphism group of some graph.
- Classifying spaces are spaces whose fundamental group is a chosen group. A related space is the Eilenberg–MacLane space.
Ok, thanks!I need to think a little more about this
aD \cap bD is some ideal in D
So since D is a PID it's generated by one element called c
thx
Hey, does anyone know why |SL(2,F_3)| = (3^2-1)(3^2-3)/(3-1) ?
The first part is counting the number of possible basis i got that
But why divide by 3–1 ?
SL is the subgroup of matrices of GL with determinant 1
there are 3-1 possible values of the determinant in GL(2,3)
if you want to use first iso, then SL is the kernel of the determinant map GL -> F*, and so it's index in GL is equal to the number of units in your field
Why -1 ?
0 isn't a unit
Ofc
matrices in GL are invertible so their determinants have to be units
Sorry i don’t quite get why it’s index is equal to this ?
the map det: GL -> F* is surjective. By first iso we then have GL/SL \cong F*
let M be a matrix in GL with determinant d, then you can write M uniquely as d*S for some matrix S in SL
that's all that this means
determinant? is that perchance a reference to yonder tail?
younger rail
lets just say it's the immanent because your end is imminent
end? is that mayhaps a reference to minecraft???
shite game
If I wasn't about to vomit I would make a joke about the discriminant
I am not joking
I am in severe distress and suspect food poisoning.
Get well soon!
Never let yourself act on the set of bad food or you will find the toilet bowl is equivariant under vomit action
good luck out there, cadet
Wew you're too based for this world
I've played it for 3k hours I'm the only one allowed to call it shite
lmk when u hit that 10 win streak in bed waurz then u can chat shit ok?
please refer to my previous message
how would I construct a non abelian group where every non identity element has order 3?
The group of strictly upper triangular 3x3 matrices on F_3 has this property
and is in fact the smallest group with this property
how would I go about finding this? Well I'd note that any group with exponent 3 would have to be a 3-group, as if |G| had any other prime divisors then there would be a q-sylow subgroup with q \neq 3, contradicting the fact that every element has order 3. From there I would just try different 3-groups - it's clear that we have to start from at least order 27 because everything smaller is abelian
how did you know every group of order 9 is abelian?
this is a standard theorem that one learns in a first course in group theory
Might be worth giving a hint. May I, Wew?
if it's "p-groups have non-trivial centre" then no. Giving such a hint would make it far too easy!
Gasp can you imagine such a thing
and I forbid you from telling asdf that p-groups have a non trivial centre!
they must never know!
And considering the quotient G/Z(G)? Even worse frankly
Just check it for every such group smh
"Strictly upper triangular" means there are ones on the diagonal?
I would have understood that as zeroes on the diagonal, except that doesn't even make a group.
mb, I've only seen it as 1s on the diagonal
I would call them upper triangular unipotent matrices
That does make sense when the context is already matrix groups in particular.
My train of thought was something like, what would the "strict" variant of "$a_{ij} = 0$ unless $i\le j$" be?
Troposphere
(Both of these are useful concepts. The ones with 0 on the diagonal make up the Lie algebra of the ones with unit diagonal).
Unipotent radical of the Borel 
I would like to imagine there's some way of discovering this abstractly
Like, ok. Such a group has to be a 3-group and assume it has derived length two. So let's make the assumption its centre is isomorphic to Z_3, but then Aut(Z_3) is a 2-group and there's no action of a 3-group on a 2-group and we can't form a semidirect product. Idk, I'm rambling, but there's a way to discover this in that way.
Aut(Z_3 x Z_3) has how many elements... (9-1)x(9-3) = 48? So there is an action of Z_3 in there. So there could be a semidirect product Z_3^2 \rtimes Z_3 that works, and from then it's just a calculation
any hints on these? Never encountered PGL outside of this problem so I'm very stuck
It's equally true for GL(2), and the arguments would be the same.
The P just means that you quotient out the difference between matrices that are scalar multiples of each other.
OK now I'm curious. What's this automorphism of Z_3^2 of order 3? (x, y) |-> (x+y, y). Nice. So it's the matrix [ 1 1 \ 0 1]. That's really cool.
||(iii) is just linear algebra I think. (iv) is just saying that you can bring p1,p2,p3 to 0,1,infty by a unique transformation, and the fourth coordinate is something else different from 0,1,infty||
Say $\mathfrak{a} \triangleleft A$, $f:A\to B$ is a ring hom and $\mathfrak{a}^e$ denotes the extension of ideals by f and say $r(\mathfrak{a})$ denotes the radical of the ideal.
I wanna show that $r(\mathfrak{a})^e \subset r(\mathfrak{a}^e). $ say for simplicity $c_1 f(x_1)+c_2 f(x_2) + c_3 f(x_3) \in r(\mathfrak{a})^e $ and say $n_j $ such that $x_j^{n_j}\in \mathfrak{a}$ then is it as simple as using an exponent like $2(n_1+n_2+n_3)$ so that $(c_1 f(x_1)+c_2 f(x_2) + c_3 f(x_3) )^{2(n_1+n_2+n_3)}\in r(\mathfrak{a}^e)$?
HausdorffT1
yeah the 0 diagonal ones seem to come up everywhere in lie theory
I think one way to do this is just to use the characterisation in terms of ideals for a PID
obviously E needn't be one but we don't need that
I was about to hyper shortcut it using Bezout statement of GCD
e.g divisor-minimal element of (a) + (b) and use PID
GOD I HATE THAT NOTA
Now in E, note this remains true
oh wait
just ideal
jacobson uses (a,b) for gcd which like, implodes my brain when also working with ideals like, in the same goddamn sentence
oop
i'm fine with it for Z cause there's almost no ambiguity
But outside that, ouch
(a, b) = ((a, b)) 👀
sniped :3
but yeah think about this
is this by extending the ideals?
ye
ic
you can explicitly just write like lol
(a,b) = Da + Db
etc
but also kinda clear from viewing it as "smallest ideal containing a,b"
I write it as (a)_D because I'm a psycho
Usually domain is when it is commutative
yeah
yes
i thought commutative domains are integral domains
H[X]
maybe
Hmm
I think H[X] where H is the quaternions
this is also Jacobson
bi-divisors are weird
and rare
so who cares
it's commutative, we are abelist here
How's Jacobson going, miz
commutative geometers are abelists
i want to do this
so badly
but I need to finish
what book is this
exercises are either really fun or awful and there is 0 in between
law of excluded middle holds here
Woah
i really don't want to do these
Skip this >.>
Wow, dedication
like i debate writting them down
Polynomials lol
not that they are inherently confusing it's that I want to not have carpal tunnel
Wait so
Same
my brain just fried and wanted to stop working
Da + Db notation difficulty?
how does Ed = Ex cause issues if x is strictly in E\D
I think that would be fine, because in this case, d = x * unit
for non associated x
Ed = Ex means d = x * unit, no?
oh shit yeah
Ah wait sorry, this is not obvious; Still true for domains
Ea + Eb = E(Da + Db) = EDd = Ed
trying to prove how that implies d is gcd(a,b) again
Ah sure
assume d | x | a and b, but NOT x | d
Ea + Eb = Ed, there's an equality so for d = xy
ua + vb = yx = d
oh wait
Like we didn't even have to use that fact that Ea+Eb = Ed
All you need is that ax + by = d and d|a,b
That is true in D and remains true in E
Actually this is also equivalent to (d) = (a,b) so it provides another proof that this is ture in E
This is equivalent to saying like
Well okay so I mean it's still ture in E
So d is in the ideal generated by a and b (in D or E)
And since d | a and b, both a and b are in the ideal generated by d (i D or E)
So (a,b) = (d) in either
But that is not necessary for this proof tbf
what is pid used here for
From the argument earlier
wouldn't this hold in GCD domains then
Well
I used the fact rhat (a,b) = (d) in a PID
I think so
Idk if that is always true
Assumng Da + Db = D(a, b) in GCD domains
oh no
Ig you need Bezout domains
yeah that's a Bezout domain
Tautologically
