#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 236 of 1
Ah, hmm
It's an inclusion though
I guess usually one needs to work elementeise for integral extension anyway
^
Sorry for not clarifying, I am specifically asking for when A -> B is not inclusion in general case.
Que :
Let G be a group of order 75 which has an element of order 25.
Then the number of elements of order 5 in G is
Ans :
75=(5)*(15) implies number of subgroup of order 5 is 1 because of sylow theorem. Therefore all elements of order 5 generates the same subgroup which is equal to number of generators of subgroup of order 5 and ie phi(5)=4
Answer is correct according to ans key but is my justification correct? If wrong please correct me
<@&286206848099549185>
Looks fine to me boss. Except sylow’s theorem implies that the number of subgroups of order 25 is 1, not 5
No I wrote number of sylow subgroup of order 5 is 1
Then that’s complete nonsense
I’m well aware that’s what you wrote. I’m correcting you
And that subgroup is also normal
I mean sure but that’s not particularly relevant
.....oh right that's true
I think the order 5 elements all should be in this subgroup
Oh okay thanks !
Oh now I understood why it's wrong thanks wew lads tbh
no problem Exuberance
im trying to show that Z[i] is prinicpal
i want to show every ideal is generated by an element with minimum magnitude
say this is (a+bi)
then i need to show that for every (c+di) in the ideal, letting m denote a^2+b^2, m divides both (ac+bd) and (ad-bc)
if not, then im trying to use division algoroithm but getting stuck
Good
Well I mean really you just need to show you have a euclidean function if you've seen that
I was about to ask if euclidean domains need to be integral and I realized that's an exceptionally stupid question
I don't think it's exceptionally stupid lol, isn't it just part of the definition
the fact that it is part of the definition is aforementioned exceptional stupidity
Well it's okay dw
i just proved that if a1,...,an are nonzero elements in a pid, and (a1,a2,...,an)=d then d is a gcd. my proof didnt use the pid hypohtesis though. is it really necessary
We need it to be a pid for the ideal (a1, ..., an) to be principal for any choice of a1, ... an
Yeah looks like for this direction it’s not necessary 👍
The big one is there exists a generator which you need PID for
lang moment
Hm. Yeah maybe
Well if we have a commutative ring, and two principal ideals (a) and (b), if their intersection is also principal, (c), then c is by definition the greatest common divisor of a and b
I just had a kind of weird observation,
the intersection is the lcm the sum is the gcd
oh shit thanks man
THE TUBE
i am wrong ignore me lol
there is actually one thing here which you may be interested in
if G is a group then R^G can naturally be given a coalgebra structure too
as in like, the multiplication G x G-> G induces maps R^G -> R^G (x)_R R^G if you apply R^(-) to everything
and this coalgebra structure is nicely compatible with the algebra structure and gives it the structure of a bialgebra lol
yeah I'm just trying to ponder
Namely if we have a commutative ring R and the fixed point subring R^G for |G| finite, like what can we siphon from this besides the fact that it's an integral extension
Yeah that's an interesting part too
well if R is noetherian i believe R is finitely generated R^G-algebra
Algebraicly or like as a module
oh shit
I wonder if that is a byproduct of it being an integral extension
No because I'm p sure this is false if R is not noetherian
maybe I am wrong though lol
interestingly this gives artin's lemma for the case when R is a field using Noether Normalization if you can prove the size of the generating set is |G|
i think for example if you consider R = k[x_1,x_2,...] and let G act by x_i -> -x_i then R is probably not a finitely generated R^G algebra
Well the problem is you don't know about the size of the generating set ig
Maybe it would work if you used the fact that k is a field and optimised the proof of every step but idk
Yeah
i think artin's lemma needs some extra lin alg to make use of teh special vector space structures invoved
Yeah that's the thing
Artin's lemma implies Independence of Characters
I don't think it goes in the reverse direction though
no wait I'm a dumbass
automorphisms are characters from R^x to R^x
when i first had a peel at group theory some years ago i was so confused by group actions… now they’re like my favorite things in grouo theory
(i barely know any group theory)
They are very nice
How can this direct sum in problem 5.17 be a ring if I does not contain the identity?
Here's what I think is going on: this direct sum has to be as a direct sum of R-modules - if it was the coproduct of rings it would be a tensor product. Hence the identity given by the embedding of 1 \in R into the 0-graded part gives you the identity of the ring.
tfw the number of groups of order 2^(2^n)
1, 2, 56092, quite a few

Hey chat so
we know that every transformation of a finite field is a polynomial
Is finding the polynomial of a given transformation the same as finding the discrete fourier transform of the function if we plug in (f(r^n) - f(0))r^-n where r is the multiplicative generator

Like let $\mathbb{F}q$ be a finite field of order $q$ and $f$ be a transformation on it. Assume a priori that $f(x) = \sum{n = 0}^{q - 1}{a_nx^n}$. Then immediately, $a_0 = f(0)$. Likewise: $\frac{f(x) - f(0)}{x} = \sum_{n = 0}^{q - 2}{a_{n + 1}x^n}$ for $x \neq 0$. Since $\mathbb{F}q^\times$ is cyclic of order $q - 1$, there is a multiplicative generator $r$ that is the primitive $(q-1)$-th root of unity \\
So thus, we can say $\frac{f(r^k) - f(0)}{r^k}= b_k = \sum_{n = 0}^{q - 2}{a_{n + 1} r^{nk}}$, so isn't solving for $a_{n+1}$ just solving for the discrete fourier transform of the $b_k$?
THE TUBE
How did you conclude the answer for a? Because to me it seems like you didn't understand the problem
I was thinking it was the degree as no idea what the true answer might be
If you can help me out
file is called quiz
Well first of all, it says that it's looking for irreducible factors of degree 7
is this a take home quiz fam
Practice quiz from my professor as not the actual quiz
Aight
Just need help with trying to figure out
Do you understand what this means
128 oh god it's just splitting it a bunch of times
wait no
x(x^127 - 1) oh good lor
PRIME
Yes that is what I thought for
No idea as just x^128
I assume it's F_2^7
Me too
Then that's LITERALLY the product of (x - a_i) for all a_i
(x^127-1)
tldr:
finite field under mult is cyclic of order q - 1, so 127
so each element solves x^(q - 1) = 1, i.e x^q - x = 0
so every element is a root
So finding the "degree 7 factors" confuses me
Surely this isn't the field you're working over
Otherwise it trivialises the question
because finding the septic divisors would be nCr(q, 7)
No idea what is meant by that
idk what you mean by order 7 factors tbh
Like wouldn't this polynomial split for like, any F_2^k for k <= 7
like "degree 7" wtf does FAM MEAN
x^7 + x + 1 is irreducible mod 2 (obviously literally just check 0 and 1 lmao) so F_2[X]/(X^7 + X + 1) is iso to F_128
i am yapping to myself to understand the problem gimme a moment to condense it
Okay as I do not understand it myself
Makes sense
@chilly radish This is confusing because if alpha is the primitive 127th root, then wouldn't alpha^3 be in GF(128)?
so it's minimal poly would be (X-alpha^3)?
You guys are the experts in this anyways
i am DEFINITELY not
I just got to the finite field part of my textbook today and I wanted to do this for practice
mostly to get adjusted to notation also used
Okzy
Note that "irreducible" is not the same as "no roots", so you need to check for divisibility by polynomials up to degree 3.
oh shit brainfart yeah
What should I do then
tropo what exactly is alpha here, and is it asking for the minimal F_2 poly of alpha^3 in F_128
In fact every element of GF(128) other than 0 and 1 is a primitive 127th root of unity.
really?
alpha is a root of x^7+x+1 -- namely, the residue of x in F2[x]/<x^7+x+1>.
Yes, since the multiplicative group of a finite field is cyclic and 127 is prime.
huh guess I don't understand fields very well
Not every element generates that finite field though i thought
Like take 2 in Z/7Z
I think what you need to do for (21) is calculate 1, alpha, alpha^2, ..., alpha^6, alpha^7 in a standard basis over F2, and find a linear combination of them.
That is not immediately a parallel case because the number of nonzero elements in Z/7Z is not a prime.
127 is the answer
To what?
To the problem
Tropo by residue of x do you mean x mod (X^7 + X+ 1)
Which problem?
Yes.
20
alrighty,
127 irreducible factors of degree 7 would give a polynomial of degree at least 889, which I don't think sounds like x^128-x.
I still have trouble interpreting the F[alpha] ~= F[X]/(p(X)) thing sometimes
Wha6 should the answer be then
where alpha is a root
but I guess any choice of root gives a different iso?
algebraicly indestinguishable
We know the only subfield of GF(128) is GF(2), right?
Yes
that's because log_2(128) = 7 is prime right
Yes.
sorry jacobson doesn't cover finite fields very well thus far
I don't mean to be an inconvenience
This means that each of the 126 elements outside GF(2) generates the entire field, so it is the root of a minimal polynomial of degree 7.
Lets say we DIDN'T choose a prime-power of 2
like uh 2^8
so 256
PERFECT uh
1024
1023 is divisible by 3
(I think perhaps they're asking this for 2^7 because the question is somewhat easier there)
I'm just trying to understand what you would do
Yes as I do agred to that so 128 then
What are we doing?
Oh, this is the factorization over finite field
That would make the degree at least 896.
Okay
But the degree is actually only 128, so you don't have room for all those irreducible factors you keep wanting!
Do agreed and I need to go to sleep but if you can figure it out then
do you understand this stuff well?
Well, mildly
I'm kind of a bit mind melted right now and I'm trying to get a stronger understanding of this
I think one can, at least, think of the maximal degree of the irreducible polynomial of this one.
Furthermore, irreucible polyomials of degree 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 cannot have any root in GF(128).
(Because such a root would generate a subfield of a size we have agreed doesn't exist).
No way, it shouldn’t be that easy

Does this have to do with the degree of GF(128) over GF(2) being 7?
As we agreed to up here.
This is boring, let’s talk about GF(64) 
Since we know x^128-x has 128 different roots (namely all the elements), it cannot have any irreducible factors that don't contribute some of the roots.
So irreducible GF(p^a) polynomials of degree n with roots in GF(p^b) exist iff n | log_p(b) - log_p(a)
Correct.
i see
I thought [GF(p^b) : GF(p^a)] = log_p(b) - log_p(a)
I was wondering why binary coefficient would be important this whole time
Realized that it’s the one allowing reduction
by tower law if there is an intermediate subfield then it must divide that
and intermediate field F = GF(p^a)[x]/(p(x)) for irreducible p(x) of degree n must be an extension of degree n over GF(p^a)
thus n | [GF(p^b) : GF(p^a)] = log_p(b) - log_p(a)
okie I see now
Just tying this up: we know the irreducible factors of x^128-x must have degree 7 or 1, and they are all different since a multiple factor would mean we have fewer than 128 different roots.
Hm. Does factors of x^128 - x over Q appear over GF2 as well?
If it factors over Z
Wait
Wdym “factors over Z”
I was thinking, if it factors over the integers, we have the epimorphism into Z/2Z
so the factors would, well, remain factors
Hmm I should be able to describe this e.g. respect to universal property
actually, that's a monic polynomial in Z, so wouldn't it need to factor over Z by rational root theorem
wait
i am thinking of gauss' lemma
Yeah Z vs Q is not a problem here obv
Since every element is a root, we certainly need to include both x and x-1 among the factors. That leaves 126 degrees which can now only be covered by factors of degree 7, so there must be 126/7 = 18 of them.
The epimorphism Z onto Z/2Z extends to an epimorphism Z[X] onto Z/2Z[X]
Does it remain to be epimorphism
It is clearly surjective, so definitly epi.
So like, lets say we had like
some q = 2^p where 7 | 2^p - 1, i refuse to find the specific q
wait
p=3 perhaps?
Since every element is a root, we certainly need to include both x and x-1 among the factors. That leaves 126 degrees which can now only be covered by factors of degree 7, so there must be 126/7 = 18 of them.
Your right as thank you
So like, if we had like x^1024 - x
the irreducible factors must have a degree dividing 10, i.e 1, 2 or 5?
Or 10.
Over GF(2)
In fact, if we collect my arguments here together, I think what they add up to is that the irreducible factors of x^1024-x are exactly every irreducible element of F2[x] whose degree is 1, 2, 5, or 10.
hm
Can this allow you to compute the amount of irreducible polynomials of a specific degree in GF(2)?
So we can use arguments like this to count irreduible polynomials of various degrees without actually finding them.
I see
Would that be the number of embeddings from GF(2) into GF(2^k) for degree k?
There's always exactly one such injection (at least if it is to be a field or just ring homomorphism).
Well, there's never more than one homomorphism from GF(p) to anything, because 0 always maps to 0 and 1 always maps to 1.
I mean
Oh wait that’s why it’s a bimorphism
Wait no that’s
I should probably go to sleep I am brain soup
Z maps into every ring
So if it’s a field
The generated subfield is Q or Z/pZ
I.e it’s <1>
so yeah what tropo said makes sense to me
Yes, since the images of 0 and 1 fix the images of all other elements of the prime field.
it’s generating set is {0,1} and if two ring morphisms are equal on a generating set they are equal, which is enforced by the ring morphism def I guess
Now for that next question
How to find the minimal polynomial of alpha^3 hm
It all comes down to generators!
^
I am a bit dense so I’m trying to understand what you mean by this
Sorry, I need to sleep now.
No worries I greatly appreciate you helping me
Seems like it is about computing polynomial whose root is alpha
But idk how you can compute alpha in the first place - what is it?
I'll come back to this later, I'm just going to babble in #1217259452621783154
Ahh
if x^n - 1's splitting field over Q has galois group the group of units of Z/nZ then wouldnt this contradict that fact that Q(w) is degree n-1 where w is the nth root of unity?
the degree is the totient function, i.e the number of units of Z/nZ
is the minimal polynomial nto 1 + x + ... + x^{n-1}?
Think of Q[i]
it's minimal polynomial is x^2 + 1, not x^3 + x^2 + x + 1
it's a degree 2 extension because it's a quadratic
thanks makes sense
you're welcome
hmm, actually maybe I am a bit more confused
isnt this irreudicble
sup
and the primitive root is a root of that?
if n is prime
ohh
is there like a rule like the eistenstein criterion for testing irreducibilitiy of these polynomials?
or do you just recognize its cyclotomic polynomial
The cyclotomics are always irreducible
right, but how would you show something like that?
It's by definition
The cyclotomic polynomials are the polynomials that divide x^n - 1, but not any prior x^m - 1
oh ic
actually there is another def that states them as irreducible
it's a bit annoying to show they're irreducible
but if I just expanded it out into \sum c_i x^i, it would be a bit annoying to recognize which was actually cyclotomic?
lmao in general it's hard to tell when a polynomial lies in a given family depending on how you define it
so if you were given a random ass polynomial, showing it's the nth cyclotomic sounds like, hell
yeah lemme just remember these
plus, their degree is the totient
so there are infinitely many cyclotomic polynomials of a given degree afaik
actually no
i am an idiot nvm
I have another question about galois groups tbh
like if my polynomial is irreducible, why isnt the galois group just S_n? What prevents me from permuting roots arbitrarily like that?
is it because minimal polynomials can change over intermediate extensions
This is supposed to be a proof that coset multiplication is well-defined for normal subgroups
I don't see how this shows that though
We need to show that aN = a'N and bN = b'N implies (ab)N = (a'b')N
You use bN = Nb is equivalent to N being normal
Here there's no a', b'
Yeah so this is showing that like, this equality holds as sets
What I see this proof showing is that if you multiply aN and bN as subsets (i.e. XY = {xy | x \in X, y \in Y}) you get the same thing as (ab)N
I don't see how this implies this
yea
Then you have abN is the set product aN•bN = a’N•b’N = a’b’N
You’ve shown that abN can be recovered from the product of aN and bN as sets, so if the sets are equal you get the same thing
Thanks
Swag
Also dyk if it's true that coset multiplication of ideals is not equal to their subset product?
I think I saw this somewhere
ring theory ideals?
Yes
Ok I guess I answered my own question
I have another one
Why do the following two facts imply that (left) cosets partition a group?
\begin{itemize}
\item The relation defined by $a \sim b \iff a^{-1} b \in H$ is an equivalence relation.
\item $a \sim b \iff aH = bH$
\end{itemize}
It is supposed to be "obvious", but I am at a blank.
plexcty
Pretty sure it’s appealing to the fact that equivalence classes partition sets
Right, ~ induces a partition on G. But why does the second fact above imply that this partition is exactly the cosets of H?
I know how to answer this question, but my proof has a couple steps in between. My impression is that the second fact should make this proof very direct, but I don't know how.
there is exactly one element x for each pair (a,b) such that ax = b
and likewise one y such that ya = b
It has to do with this
a problem on my galois theory final today was to determine if cbrt(2+sqrt(5)) + cbrt(2 - sqrt(5)). was rational or not. i’m not really sure what approach he was expecting with this
i see that you can like call it x and cube everything but what approach would be expected on a galois theory final
True, but that's still not as obvious as I'd like
If I change the definition of $\sim$ to $a \sim b \iff a \in bH$, then after showing $\sim$ is an equivalence relation, it is \textbf{actually obvious} that
$aH = {b \in G ~|~ a \sim b}$ and then the conclusion follows.
plexcty
This is what I was looking for, I guess I misremembered the right definition of ~ to make the proof as clean as possible
The natural thing to do would be to embed it into a Galois extension, then check whether it's fixed by the Galois group
that’s what i was thinking but i wasn’t really sure how to go about it
This seems super long
Let G be a finite group, T an automorphism of G with the property that T(x) = x if and only if x=e. Prove that every g in G can be represented as g = x^(-1)T(x) for some x in G.
If I define the mapping x->x^(-1)T(x) then it is well defined and injective because T(x ) = x implies that x = e. And G is a finite set so mapping is one-one and onto. Thus for all y in G there exists x such that y= x^(-1)T(x).
Is it correct?
Looks good. I don't think you have to mention that the mapping you define is well-defined. There's no reason for it to not be
How can I show that for a subgroup $N \subset G$, if coset multiplication is well defined, i.e.
$$ aN = a'N \quad \land \quad bN = b'N \implies (ab)N = (a'b')N ,$$
then $N$ is normal?
plexcty
Does this proof by contrapositive look good?
Suppose $aN = a'N$ and $bN = b'N$ but $(ab)N \neq (a'b')N$.
This means that
$$ (ab)^{-1} (a'b') = b^{-1} a^{-1} a'b' \notin N .$$
Writing this element as
$$ b^{-1} a^{-1} a'b' = (b^{-1} (a^{-1} a') b) (b^{-1} b'), $$
since $a^{-1}a' \in N$ and $b^{-1} b' \in N$, if it were the case that
$$ b^{-1} (a^{-1} a') b \in N ,$$
then
$$ b^{-1} (a^{-1} a') b) (b^{-1} b') \in N, $$
which is a contradiction. Thus
$$ b^{-1} (a^{-1} a') b \notin N ,$$
meaning $N$ is not normal.
plexcty
Okay, thank you
The criterion mentioned is eulers criterion, using this it's trivial to show that -1 is a quadratic residue, but I don't know how we get to showing p is not prime in Z/pZ. I would appreciate any hint 🙂
Z[i] = Z[x]/(x^2+1)
@languid trellis after proving that -1 is q.r., you know that there is some integer a such that p | a^2+1
in other words p | (a+i)(a-i)
now assume that p is prime in Z[i] and get a contradiction
Then I should apply correspondence theorem in some way to be able to say something about Z[i]/p
Oh
Well what I mean is you can write (Z[x]/(x^2+1))/p in another way
Well
a^2 + 1 = 0 mod p if a is a sqrt of-1
(just being careful as this is a different sense of x to what you said above)
i guess filip and i may be doing different things lol
yeah Filip's is faster i think
I was meaning to suggest ||Z[i]/p =F_p[x]/(x^2 + 1)||
Ooo ramification
Right, we just need to show that p doesn't divide a+i and a-i which holds because p divides neither a or i. i is irreducible and if p | a, then p | a^2, so p doesn't divide a^2 +1 due to even/odd considerations
Hmmmm
it's a bit easier too since (a+i)/p = a/p + i/p [in Q(i)]
and that guy isn't in Z[i]
Ic
Ack. It is not ramification behavior, what am I saying
Well it's closely related
I think F_p/(x^2 + 1) is a field, so so is Z[i]/p, so all elements are a unit and so nothing is prime?
The ideal (p(x)) has to be maximal iirc
Oh but in F_p x^2 + 1 isn't maximal because (x^2 +1) is the 0 ideal? (x^2 cong -1 mod p)
Uh
Am I tripping
Do you have x^2 cong -1 for formal parameter x?
In this case I suspect prime ideals should correspond to maximal ideals
Btw, (0) is a prime ideal.
my mind is broken rn
Pity
Not sure what you mean by formal parameter but the context is that if p is a prime of the form 4n+1, then -1 is a quad residue mod p, and we're trying to get to p not being a prime in Z[i]
Do you recall what “-1 is a quad residue mod p” means?
Basically, I have difficulty seeing where you deduced x^2 cong -1.
prime ideals are maximal when k[x] is a p.i.d because adjoining any element to a prime ideal (not in the ideal) means they are coprime and hence generate k[x] by bezout. maximal ideals in k[x] are prime because the ideal (d) is generated by the gcd of all elements in the ideal, so if the product ab is in the ideal, then d = gcd(a,b) is in the ideal, and so a = cd is in the ideal as is b = fd
-1 is a quad residue mod p means that (1) -1 is not cong to 0 mod p, (2) there exists an integer a such that a^2 equiv -1 (mod p)
Yeah, so there exists an integer which satisfies the property.
But when we say x in k[x], it is not a
so x^2 + 1 cong 0 is true when we apply the evaluation map
x -> a
but not in k[x]
@south patrol I need to go now, but I would appreciate it if you could flesh out your approach a bit more, and when I get a moment I'll come back and review it : )
Yeah, I am sorry for pushing it
if H,K < G and HK = KH then also HK < G but i forget, what is the name for this sort of product of subgroups
?
Cool: First note that $\mathbf Z[i]/p \simeq \mathbf F_p[x]/(x^2+1)$. Now $p$ is prime in $\mathbf Z[i]$ iff $\mathbf Z[i]/p$ is a domain, iff $\mathbf F_p[x]/(x^2+1)$ is a domain, iff $x^2 + 1$ is irreducible over $\mathbf F_p$, iff $x^2 + 1$ has no roots over $\mathbf F_p$ (since it's a quadratic!) iff $-1$ is not a quadratic residue
Crystalline Potato
it was a 5 point t/f on a 200 point exam, 3 hours
Damn. What the fuck
I am majorly taken aback
I'll need to convince myself of that iso and 'p prime in Z[i] off Z[i]/p is a domain
@languid trellis the following proof is given in Herstein
If p is of form 4n+1 then there exists a^2 + b^2 = p.
|| Now if p is prime in Z[i], then p = (a + ib)(a - ib) divides one of them. Let p divides a + ib.
a+ib = p(c+id) by comparison p divides a and p divides b then p will be divide a-ib it implies that p^2 divides p, it is contradiction. ||
The second is a super important fact
Well, okay you can divide itinto like
p is a prime element iff (p) is a prime ideal [that is easy]
and then if A is a commutative ring and I an ideal, A/I is a domain (resp field) iff I is prime (resp. maximal)
this is very important
Proving a^2 + b^2 = p is the next exercise .-.
Yep this is just definition, if A/I is not a domain then there is some 0 divisor, I.e. (a + I)(b + I) = I which implies that ab is in the ideal, while a or b aren't which means I isn't prime
I remember proving the second part (maximality implies A/I is a field) in some wacko way with considering elements in R \ I but I'll have to remind myself later, I've got a lesson now
can someone at least verify my question makes sense? 
HK being the set { hk : h in H, k in K }
Yes if HK = KH then HK is a subgroup of G
but does this product have a name?
I don't know about it
Product of subgroups
A product of subgroups that is a subgroup
If one of them is normal and there's trivial intersection it's a semi-direct product
If both are normal and there's trivial intersection it's a direct product
excellent excellent thanku all
Okay but every subgroup is this with B = {e}
So it only really makes sense IMO to ask if the object AB has a name, with reference to the specific presentation and id just call that the product of A and B
Like, within G I guess
I dunno
Chmonkey 
It's called a Zappa-Szep product, and can be characterized externally (but it's a mess)
omg what an amazinh name
Nooooo you can’t say it has a real name, I look like I’m wrong then
if p is prime then Z_(p^r) over addition has p^r-p^(r-1) generators but im struggling to see why
obviously you have divisors p^1,..p^(r-1) and then 2p^1,..,2p^r-1 up to (p-1)p^1,...,(p-1)p^(r-1)
shouldnt that be (p-1)^(r-1) divisors
Let 𝑅 be an integral domain containing C such that it is a finite-dimensional C-vector-space.
Then R not necessarily field , right?
Because if I take R is the set of all at most n degree polynomials over C.
I believe R is automatically integral over C and hence C
Well like pick any r in R. Then C[r]/C is a finite extension
so it is trivial (as C is algebraically closed) and r is in C
Your example doesn't seem to have any multiplication on it
Yes
In exercise 6.4, why are we allowed to mod out a module by something which is not a subset of that module.
Hint: ||for a linear transformation on a finite dimensional vector space injective = surjective = bijective||
That quotient module formula doesn't seem well formulated
The start of the exercise specifically says to think of R^n-1 as a submodule of R^n by the described inclusion
I know, but "thinking of it as a submodule" doesn't make it a submodule
It feels handwavy
Unless you redefine the notation to mean what we want it to mean
It just means we will from now use the symbol R^n-1 to refer to the described submodule
Gotcha
I've never actually used the word myself except when answering the question of what it is called 😛
Though I guess in general Id use 'product of A and B' to mean the subgroup generated by {ab | a in A, b in B}, so I guess it's convenient to have a separate name for when that is a subgroup to begin with.
And I guess the name really belongs to the external construction anyway.
can anyone help me with the proof of "every non zero element of Zn is a unit or a zero divisor"
i cant understand why all proofs have taken gcd of elements
Well, either it’s a zero divisor or a unit which is determined by if it’s coprime to n or not
Do you happen to know Bezout Lemma?
If we have a pair of numbers, a and b
There is a pair of numbers x and y (infinitely many, in fact) that satisfy:
ax + by = gcd(a,b)
Let’s say we are considering Z_n right
if gcd(a,b)=1?
ax + by = 1
Taking that mod y
ax = 1 (mod y) and likewise
by = 1 (mod x)
I.e that’s the definition of a unit
That’s the definition of a unit 
There is an element b such that ab = 1 (mod n)
oh right right
understood
1?
Yeah
can you explain this
i just know this looking at solution
so let’s imagine that we have m, and the modulus is n
where d | m and d | n and d > 1
d is the gcd
say ad = m, bd = n for sanity
need not be the gcd, can be any non-one divisor
But it helps to use gcd
a and b be any arb integer?
No
Let’s make this a bit easier using Bezout again
So we have an + bm = gcd(n,m) = d right?
yes yes
So
let’s say d * k = n
so n/d = k
if we multiply both sides by k:
we have:
ka * n + kb * m = n
Taking both sides mod n:
kb * m = 0 (mod n)
Thus it’s a zero divisor
So we have two cases
If m is coprime to the modulus, there is an x such that xm = 1 (mod n) so it’s a unit
Otherwise there is an x such that xm = 0 (mod n) so it’s a zero divisor
And notice that Bezout lemma gives us the other “halves”
So we can actually compute the x’s
this helps a lot thank you so much
~~you can look up the “extended Euclidean algorithm” if you actually want to compute the x’s :3 ~~
im rusty on basics, will understand this better after i study basics again
No worries
gotchaaa
also
can i maybe dm you for other doubts in ring theory?
or ask here
Preferably ask here, a lot of people are more well versed than me
I’m currently on the rings section of an abstract alg textbook lol
😭 this was so detailed i wasnt expecting anyone to break it down at this level
yeah same
which book are you following
gallian?
lol okay
Same. Have you looked at modules yet?
Not too much
Like I haven’t learned stuff like Nakayama’s lemma yet
Or like projective module stuff for homology
Any hint, in a group of G of order p^2 any normal subgroup of order p must lie in the centre of G. ( I don't want to use the result that G of order p^2 is an abelian group)
Every subgroup of G must either be trivial or have order p by Legrange’s theorem
Which is cyclic and thus abelian
?
Yes but how does that group lie in the centre of G follow?
For any normal subgroup N < G, conjugation defines a map G -> Aut(N).
Think about what Aut(Cp) is and what such a map could be

Aut(Cp) ?
Aut(N) meaning the group of automorphisms of N, and Cp being cyclic group of order p
Okay
How I’d handle this is
-
order is p^2, so every proper nontrivial subgroup has order p by Legrange theorem and is Cyclic
-
the center cannot be trivial, (this is a theorem, I forget the name, I can only remember the proof), so it must be all of G or is a cyclic subgroup of order p
-
you can prove that G/Z(G) is cyclic of order p in the latter case, and is thus abelian, so the whole group must be abelian
Wait shit
That just proves it’s Abelian lmao
That actually proves there is only two groups up to iso of order p^2 lmao
Z/p^2Z and Z/pZ^2
Yes by Conjugation classes we can prove that it has a non-trivial centre but I don't want to use that result
Yeah
Immediately we have two cases: Z(G) = p^2 or Z(G) = p. The latter case implies Z(G) is the ONLY normal subgroup
But then any normal Subgroup lies in the center of G= G so it is correct but I don't want to use group action results here
Well why not Z(G) = 1
can’t
Showing the centre is non trivial is the hard part here
Yes but
Notknow wanted to avoid that
ermmm sorry sweaty.... you're not allowed to be centreless...
Stop being self-centered (Abelian)
Yeah, I think proving that every p-group has non-trivial center is much harder than what notknow wants to prove
Without of that
let G act on the subgroup of order p via conjugation, orbit stabiliser gets you a contradiction unless the size of the orbit is 1 => the subgroup is normal
so we want to show every normal subgroup of G of order p^2 must be contained in the center right without using Sylow
how do we generalise the proof for For every prime p, Zp, the ring of integers modulo p is a field
we don’t those are the only non-rational prime fields
quoitenting a ring by a maximal ideal is a field. This question is woefully incomplete if you're looking for any other answer
They don't introduce group action yet
that's not my problem
Wait
ok how about this
The intersection of Z(G) and H?
How do you know Z(G) is non-trivial though mizalign
All subgroups must have order, 1, p, or p^2
I am trying to create a proof by contradiction
ok no I'm just reproving orbit stabiliser
just use orb stab ffs
How does it explain the theorem
Writing Z_p gives me the ick
Certified p-adics moment🔥🔥
Yes
you need to be more specific with what you want from us. Do you want us to explain the construction of the finite fields that aren't quotients of Z?
$W(\mathbb F_p)$
Crystalline Potato
Consider G of order p^2. Then every subgroup of G must have order p^k for k = 0, 1, 2
Assume H is normal proper subgroup such that H cap Z(G) is a proper subgroup of H. Then clearly [H cap Z(G) : H] = p or p^2
this scares me😭
maybe it don't matter
but the intersection must be in H and Z(G)
i don't see how you can get a contradiction from this if Z(G)=1 lol
Sort of implicitly using group actions, but let x generate this normal subgroup of order p. And let y be an element in G.
Since the group is normal yxy^- = x^k for some k.
Notice that (yxy^-)^k = yx^k y^-, so y^2 x y^-2 = x^k^2, and similarly y^m x y^-m = x^k^m. Then think about what happens for m=p^2 and think about Fermats little theorem.
Aut(Cp) is isomorphic to U_p where U_p is the set of all units in Z_p. And its kernel is the centre of G, right?
Assume Z(G) = 1, then no element commutes with all G. The quotient group G/H must have order p and be cyclic, without a doubt because we asserted H is proper and nontrivial
sure
Yes, or I guess the kernel is the centralizer of the subgroup, but that will also be the center of the group yes
H has to be cyclic if it’s nontrivial and proper
because it must have order p
Assume r is the generator
Would r not have to commute with everything and thus can’t have trivial center?
because G/H is cyclic, consider it’s generator s
Every element of G is of the form s^a * r^b
reminds me of the proof that Inn(G) cyclic iff G
But the thing is
That H is normal
so s^a r^b = r^c s^a
sr^a = r^bs so
(srs^-1)^a = r^b
I’m trying to show that r must commute with s
Which if that happens, the center cannot be trivial, and (r) must lie in Z(G), so Z(G) must contain H which is generated by r
it implies that p divides k^(p^2) -1 , and Fermat little theorem says that a^p = a when a and p are relatively prime, right?

Indeed
So I need to prove p divides k-1
Yeah, or I guess you already did, since that's Fermats little
Full proof: assume H is proper, nontrivial, and normal in G of order p^2. Thus H must have order p.
Thus H is cyclic, generated by element h
G/H must therefore have order p^2/p = p and is also cyclic, so let it be generated by sH = Hs. Thus for each xH we have xH = (sH)^k = s^k H
We have that u = shs^-1 must be in H, and s cannot be in H. What’s left is to show shs^-1 = h
I am stuck here and pondering what I can do
It implies that k^p - 1 =0modp implies that k-1= 0 , right ?
G/N is isomorphic to Aut(N)?
Not usually, no
Kernel is the centralizer of the N
That's right, so G/C(N) will be a subgroup of Aut(N)
That completely depends on G and N
But in this particular case, G has order p^2 and Aut(N) has order p-1
So there are not many possible maps G -> Aut(N)
If C(N) can not be {e} and if C(N) has order p then Aut(N) has a subgroup of order p which is not possible. Thus C(N) = G, right?
We have p cosets of a group that has p^2 elements, how many elements does each coset have
p
You’re done then
Not quite
?
Yes both are cyclic (prime order p)
Order of each coset is the order of H
But it’s showing commutativity between their respective generators
This
Just kinda funny how finding a solution that doesn't use that known fact seems to be taking longer than learning about group actions and providing a proof from that
Yeah lol
Wish I could just use conjugacy classes and fruit ninja that shit
I see
Sylow is way overkill
Can you use that a group of order p^2 is either isomorphic to the cyclic group or the direct product of order p cyclic groups?
Welp I give up I have more productive things to do and Jacobson made me not want to touch a group ever again
He wants to avoid that route or the one showing Z(G) cannot be trivial
Of which I autopiloted and was not what was desired
While we’re at it, I want the answer without the definition of the center either
Here sorry
Centralizer of G 
Zentre
Zentrum
What do you want to use?
Conjugation classes are like the most primitive thing in groups
Other than I guess primitive groups
They don't define conjugation classes yet
Wtf? How do you get to normal groups without conjugation
They do not define group action yet and this question included in Cayley Theorem section
Conjugation classes aren’t necessarily from group actions
@crystal vale Assuming I didn't make any mistake:
If the group is cyclic we are done. Let's assume it's not cyclic, so then the order of any nontrivial element is p.
Let H={1,x,x^2,...,x^(p-1)} be normal. Let y≠e be arbitrary. Then yH=Hy, so xy=yx^m, for some 0<m<=p-1.
It follows that y^(-1)xy = x^m.
By induction: y^(-k)xy^k = x^(m^k).
For k=p we get x=x^(m^p), so x^(m^p - 1) = e, so then p must divide m^p - 1. But m^p - 1 = m - 1 (mod p), so p | m - 1, but given the range of m, it follows that m=1. Thus xy=yx.
That is smart
Got it, thank you
Any hint, if a cyclic Subgroup T of G is normal in G, then show that every subgroup of T is normal in G.
did you try writing out the condition that every cyclic subgroup is normal?
It follows pretty directly from that
Yes because the subgroup of the cyclic group is cyclic, right?
no it doesn’t have anything to do with a subgroup of a cyclic group being cyclic
Wait I wrote the wrong question, sorry
I mean I need to prove that if T is a cyclic normal subgroup of G then every subgroup of T is normal in G
hell, it's an action of G on G
QUOTIENT OUTS THE LAZY FUCKS
Hint: Each subgroup of a cyclic group is determined by its order.
If we look at a ring R as an R module over itself, and it's a noetherian module, does this mean it's commutative as a ring?
Thanks Vegeta
But G is not finite
It means that it's a Noetherian ring. Don't know if you meant to ask that, but it's unrelated to it being commutative.
Oh, right.
New attempt. Each subgroup of a cyclic group is determined by which multiples of a generator it contains, and those are the same multiples no matter which generator you pick.
It actually doesn’t matter as long as the cyclic subgroup is finite
The only issue is when the cyclic subgroup is infinite does Tropo’s comment not finish it
Probably easiest to split into the two cases of T being finite and T being Z
Yeh
Yeah.
@tribal moss thanks for the help
Aren't noetherian rings required to be commutative? Thats what it says in aluffi
Rip
there's a notion of left noetherian and right noetherian and I think noetherian is asking both at the same time
and I don't htink that implies commutative
but I'll keep it real, idk shit about noncomm rings
so maybe I'm wrong
I think it’s like a generalization of noetherian modules
The nxn-matrix ring over a field is Noetherian (on both sides) for example
If n=1 I guess
left or right modules depending on your

There are noncommutative division rings, e.g
the quaternions, and they are very Noetherian as they have no nontrivial ideals.
nontrivial two sided ideals
I'm not sure exactly what it's asking for in the last part of this question. For reference, G-bar is D_16/<r^4>

the "isomorphism type" isn't something that's been described before. Am I just supposed to show the preimage of each element of H-bar?
preimage*
Oh I see
"isomorphism type" really just means "which named group is this isomorphic to"
D_16 is the order 16 or
ah, so check if my intuition that it's D8 is correct?
it's order 16, yeah. The symmetry group on an octagon
Notation differs usually by a factor of 2 
Anyway so
The quotient is basically just slapping an extra relation lmao
Wait D_16/r^4?
Doesn’t that just cut down on the order of r?
{s,r | s^2=r^8=1, sr=r^-1s}
for D16
The last one I think is equivalent to (sr)^2 = e because s is involute
yeah
but yeah, I was just looking for clarification on the instruction. I have an understanding of what I'm looking for now
Idk what the isomorphism type is either tbh
I know the Klein 4 proof is rather easy through representation
Just rhe
yeah, a previous part already asked for the orders of the elements, so it's sufficient to show the orders all being 1 or 2
which is already shown

so name the archetypal group
Probably?
but I still have to look at the preimage of H-bar
What is G by default?
Lmao is it proving that two elements involute elements who’s product is idempotent generate a dihedral group
Which sucks
I'm sure that makes sense, but I don't have those words in my vocabulary yet lol
idempotent ❌
involute ❌
Idempotent: some power of x is the identity
Involute: x^2 is the identity
not quite
still only on chapter 3
Idempotent is x² = x
I don't think it's that either
No?
Nilpotent is x^n = 0 for some n
Oh yeah nilpotency in groups vs rings
But notice how left side is multiplication while right side is additive identity
It's a ring
and then K4 is just H8/<-1> so that's easy to show
some resource I used before defined it for groups as x^n = e
For groups
I forget which
Rings it’s that some power is the annihilator
Surely that would be finite order
Yeah I should use that
And nx = 0 in a ring / Abelian group would be torsion
Don’t get it in your testes. It isn’t fun I hear
yes, I know from experience
Real?
yes.
Rip in peace
Does it hurt?
Like is it like ouchie
Or is it like YOWZA WOWZA AAAAAAAAA
What?
Rip bruh. Is it just sudden like “WHAT THE”
yes
Bro that means it could happen to me next second
Every second I could be one second away from testicular torsion
“Oh boy I love not having unbearable pain”
SO(3):

Hello, can anyone help me understand the Invariant factor decomposition method, if there is one, for Finitely generated abelian groups ?
what don't you understand about it?
@dull ginkgo thank you
Welcome lol
Did you get the idea
is this for AP physics
no
Not that kind of field!
If Gal(K/F) = S_3, I want to show there exists a f ∈ F[x] such that K = splitting field of f.
First I note that S_3 has as a subgroup of index 3, so by the Galois correspondence there is an intermediate field L between K and F such that [L : F] = 3.
Now by the primitive element theorem we know there exists an r ∈ L such that F(r) = L.
Now apparently the minimal polynomial f of r in F should work.
But I have a couple unresolved questions
- why is the degree of
fequal to3? - why is the splitting field of
fequal toK?
I took group theory, and I feel very proficient in groups, but my major (bs math with specialization in economics) doesn’t let me take ring theory and field theory
How do I self study ring theory, module theory, and field theory over the summer so I feel as proficient in them as I do groups?
By putting a lot of time into it and reading a great book. I would recommend looking up an old class and following their exercises
I was referencing dummit and foote for this alg number theory reading program i’m doing, but I discovered Lang’s was far more motivated for ant. Should I stick with Lang?
Well if it's finite Galois (which you sem to be assuming) this is always the case regardless of the group
I mean now this is book stuff but in general lang is probably way worse for learning
Oh lol
Book stuff goes in #book-recommendations
Like you can always just ||take a set a_1,...,a_n of generators and multiply together their minimal polys||
It's a general fact that if L = F(r) then [L:F] = n where n is the degree of the min poly of r. To see this, note that 1) you can write r^{n} as alinear comb of 1,...,r^{n-1}, and hence by induction you can see {1,...,r^{n -1}} span. and linear independence of this set is just asserting that the poly is minimal
Another way to see this is that if $L=F(r)$ then $L \simeq F[x]/m(x)$ where $m$ is the min poly of $r$
Crystalline Potato
and thelatter is well known to have the same bsis i mentioned
Sorry, I misstated my question. It should be there exists an irreducible cubic f ∈ F[x] such that ...
Ah well that's more interesting, sure
Okay so we just need to see why the splitting field is k now
you can write
r^nas a linear combination of1, r, ..., r^{n-1}
Just from the min poly
Oh
if $r^n + a_{n-1} r^{n-1} + \dots + a_0 =0$ for some $a_i \in F$
yea I see now
Crystalline Potato
ye cool
Lemme try to see why 1, ..., r^{n-1} spans L
every element of L is the division of two polynomials in r
Well it's a polynomial in r
Although ig you have to prove that too at this point lol
The book recc says Lang is the goat, do u personally dislike it?
Maybe division algorithm to see this?
But yeah tbh this is like field theory stuff i suggest you review, like kind of a prereq for galois theory imo
Which Lang? Lang Algebra or something else?
Well you don't even need this i think
if you consider F[r] then it already contains r^-1
again from the min poly
good exercise
i can’t believe my luck as i got a physical copy of lang algebra for free
Lang Algebra
If I look at the minimal poly of r in L = F(r), and then multiply both sides by r^{-n}, I get a polynomial in r^{-1}
i have part two of their general topology
Well kinda the inverse of what you want but yeah
Oh oops yea
hint: a_0 is not 0
Look at the min poly of r^{-1}, say it is
a_m r^{-m} + ... + a_1 r^{-1} + a_0 = 0,
then after multiplying both sides by r^{m-1} I get
a_m r^{-1} + a_{m-1} + ... + a_0 r^{m-1} = 0,
or
r^{-1} = 1/a_m * (a_{m-1} + ... + a_0 r^{m-1})
Ok that works I think
Sure
Because a_m, the leading coeff of the min poly of r^{-1}, is obviously nonzero
You can also note that if $r^n + a_{n-1} r^{n-1} + \dots + a_0 = 0$ then $-a_0 = r(r^{n-1} + a_{n-1} r^{n-2} + \dots + a_1)$
Crystalline Potato
dividing by -a_0 you see r is a unit
(and a_0 is nonzero by minimality of this poly)
we're in a field so everything is a unit?
A unit in F[r]
oh
I'm showing r^-1 is in F[r]
ok
ok I see that makes sense
so so far we've shown that the spanning set of {1, r, ..., r^{n-1}} contains r^n and r^{-1}
what we want to show is it is all of L = F(r)
Ok and by induction the spanning set contains any power of r (positive or negative)
Indeed
Though I would say "the span of". A spanning set of a vector space should be a set whose span is the whole thing
Sorry yea
A little bit closer to showing every p(r) / q(r) is in the span of the r^i over F
Wtf they just take this fact for granted
Lool
As they should 
Just take inverse in F[[x]] and see how it reduces to F[r]
I mean… yeah?
Doubt this would actually work but >.>
What would be the easiest way to show that it is a field, hmm
Yeah I mean ask anyone here an entire 0 people will tell you that is good for self learning of all things 🤣
If I is an ideal of F[x]/J, then there shall be an ideal I’ of F[x] containing J.
If J is maximal ideal of F[x], I’ should be F[x] or J.
I guess this tells about F[a] being a field.
given a unitary ring $R$, a subring $S$ and a subset $Z \subseteq R$, is the smallest subring containing both $S$ and $Z$ the ring $\left{ P(z) : z \in Z \land P \in S[X] \right}$?
Matias
is that correct? polynomials with coefficients in S evaluated in all elements of Z?
Any hint, if G is a group of order pq, p< q, p and q are prime numbers and p does not divide q-1 then G is abelian.
I know Z(G), centre of G can be {e} or G in that case, how can I eliminate Z(G) = {e} case?
use Sylow theorems to fully characterize groups of order pq, commutativity will follow
I feel like this is above the pay grade of the tools bro can use
They don't introduce Sylow yet
Note that the denominator must not be divisible by the minimal polynomial of r, call it p. From here, it suffices to show that any polynomial f not divisible by p has a multiplicative inverse modulo p.
By the Euclidean algorithm, you can find a gcd of f and p and write it as a linear combination xf + yp, where x, y are polynomials.
Because p is irreducible, the gcd is either p or 1 (up to scaling by a constant polynomial). Because f is not divisible by p, it can't be p. Thus we can write 1 = xf + yp for some polynomials x, y. But then x is the inverse of f modulo p.
(Abstractly, we're reproving that the quotient by an irreducible element in a PID (or inspecting the proof above, more generally Bézout domain IG?) is a field i.e. that (p) is a maximal ideal if p is irreducible.)
In short
.
You'll have that Gal(K/L) is a subgroup of order 2, the splitting field corresponds to the core of this group, and S3 has no normal subgroup of order 2.
I got an exercise to show that fibred coproducts exist in Ab. Now I get that it cannot be a subset of the direct product/sum as then it wouldn't be possible to equalise elements. (Just as in Set)
Am I right to look at a subset of the free product but with extra relations dictated by the fibres(?) ?
Hm and all morphisms are homo, so I guess that limits it a lot. Let's come up with an example
a pushout of groups is an amalgamated free product, Ab is a full subcategory so the pushout is also an amalgamated free product
How would that work in the case of a pushout of 0->G and 0->H?
it would just be the free product of G and H
which makes sense, 0 is initial so there's no extra data added when you go from the coproduct of G and H to that pushout
But the free product isn't even abelian.
It would be the abelianization of the amalgaamatef product. Not all subcategories are closed under colimits
Ok, I should look into that, sorry didn't see your message earlier.
Wait so the direct sum is also a free product? I guess... But the abelian groups make it special that the direct sum is isomorphic to the direct product, is there something similar for the pushout? Pullbacks are just subsets/groups? Of the product right?
Does colimits change when you switch to subcategories? Under which conditions do you have preservation of colimits (or limits)?
So the question just comes down to when the inclusion preserves (co)limits. Which would happen for example if the inclusion has an adjoint.
For example abelianization is left adjoint to the inclusion of abelian groups into groups, so the inclusion preserves limits.
And this also comes with the added benefit that abelianization preserves colimits, so a colimit of abelian groups is just the abelianization of their colimit in Grp.
You have exactly the same situation for the inclusion of sheaves into presheaves
Hmm, I don't quite get how inclusion comes into play here
Well, I mean that's just what it would mean for the limit in a subcategory to agree with the one in the larger category.
Do you get the same result of you first include your subcategory into the bigger one, then take the limit vs do you take the limit first
is Zn[i] an integral domain?
Depends on n
has to be prime to be an integral domain?
Yes, but that's not enough
what else
Ah, so inclusion here is the embedding of subcategory into the category? I thought the inclusion you were talking about was between objects of a category.
Before I tell you the answer, maybe play around with Z/2[i], Z/3[i] and Z/5[i]
This also depends on what you mean by A[i] in the first place when A is a ring that is not a subring of C.
Usually it will be understood as meaning A[X]/<X²+1>, in which case it always adjoins a new element even if A already contains an element that squares to -1.
i made the cayleys table of Z/3[i], ab is only 0 when either of them is 0
Sorry, what is this [i] notation? I came a cross it but it wasn't explained
That's right, an what about Z/2
doesnt A[x] generally denote a set of polynomials
should be the same right
Yes, and then you quotient out the principal ideal generated by the polynomial X²+1.
i havent studied ideals yet
Hmm, then I'm not sure you have the ingredients to even interpret the notation "Zn[i]" in a principled way.
Notations of the form "A[B]" generally mean something like "the smallest ring extension of A that also contains B".
This needs to be made precise in different ways according to which kind of things A and (especially) B are.
im confused why Zn[i] is int domain when n is prime but Z[i] can be a zero divisor when there is no modulo
Ok, thank you. Haven't yet read about rings
in my textbook set of polynomials has been written as Z[x]
Well what is (1 + i)^2
Yes, that's the most common use of the notation. Conceptually, we can understand Z[x] as "the smallest ring of functions that contains all the integers (each viewed as a constant function), and also contains the identity function x".
2i
An you were working in Z/2[i]...
does it also make a field?
No, because we don't require that everything has reciprocals.
If you want "the smallest field that contains such-and-such", the usual notation is A(B) instead of A[B].
what if it is a constant
understood
Anyway, the answer is that n must be a prime congruent to 3 modulo 4. But I don't think you quite have the tools to see why that is yet. Would need to at least know a little bit about either prime ideals of finite fields.
what is prime congruent to 3 modulo 4
also im getting the cayleys table wrong for Z2[i]
A more understandable criterion on this level would be that if Zp already contains something that squares to -1, then Zp[i] is not an integral domain.
Namely if a²=-1, then (a-i)(a+i) = a²-i² = (-1)-(-1) = 0.
In Z/2Z, 1 and -1 are the same, so 1 itself "squares to -1".
can you give a bit easy example



