#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 234 of 1
Okay how about this then: instead of an arbitrary integral domain, I know my elements live in a Dedekind domain
This somewhat limits the possible examples, but in general they're still not UFDs
I'm guessing I have to construct examples in the ring of integers of some number field with non-trivial or possibly large class number
Or the coordinate ring of some affine curve...
So real
This guy is still less agressive than that one guy who knows a ton but is always so angry when solving the problems lol
that's me lol. Anyway he was just joking
Nah not you hold on
I'm FURIOUS
Foghorn
This guy always comes with some crazy problem, drops 400 f bombs in two messages, and solves it and leaves
Frankly i wish i could be more like him
miz is just a little goofy that's all...
Perhaps
Let F be a field and K/F an algebraic extension. Let α and β be two elements of F.Show that there is a polynomial m(x) ∈ F[x] with the following property: if f(x) ∈ F[x] satisfies
f(α) = f(β) = 0, then m(x) | f(x).
I know that if f(α) = 0, then the minimal polynomial of α divides f. Since the extension is algebraic, is that enough to say that such a minimal polynomial exists?
Yes. Algebraic just means there exists a polynomial with alpha as the root, so you can take the monic one with smallest degree and this will be the minimal polynomial
And such a polynomial exists since every nonempty subset of the naturals has a smallest element !
I've seen the use of $\mathbb{Q}[\sqrt2]$ and $\mathbb{Q}(\sqrt2)$ used interchangeably. Do they both mean the polynomial ring with (concrete) coefficients $\sqrt2$?
JJCUBER
in this one specific case they happen to be the same but no, not generally
Q(\sqrt(2)) is the smallest field containing Q and sqrt(2)
Q[sqrt(2)] is as you described
Q(sqrt(2)) is a field extenstion
thank you!
I think you mean alpha and beta in k?
You can take the least common multiple of the minimal polynomials
Think why this is the correct polynomial
(lcm in the polynomial ring)
the problem says F, but this may be a typo. i don’t really see the purpose of the beta in this problem. would alpha and beta lying in K change things?
my understanding is that since the extension is algebraic, i have some m_alpha(x) and m_beta(x), and from that i can construct a m_alpha,beta(x) that divides all other such polynomials that alpha and beta are a root of since it is minimal
my mom dropped me down the stairs as a child
How do you define m_alpha,beta?
Also the problem is just trivial if a,b are in F since then x-a, x-b are in F[x]
i was thinking the minimal polynomial that contains both alpha and beta as a root. this would be constructed like you said, taking the lcm of both minimal polynomials respectively
Yea, it's just the monic polynomial that generates the ideal (m_a,m_b)
what do you think isthe point of introducing a beta in this problem?
is it just to think about constructing a minimal polynomial that contains two things as roots
like this could have been stated and proved the same way with just alpha
i think so. it seems like this is basically constructing the minimal polynomial of two potentially distinct elements, alpha and beta.
i.e. that there exists minimal polynomials for not just one, but multiple elements
okay i see, thank you
I think this example works: in the ring Q[X, Y]/((X+1)^2 - YX^2), the elements x = X+1 and y = X satisfy x^2 = zy^2 for z = Y, but z is clearly not a square
I think it’s Dedekind cuz the polynomial gives a nonsingular affine curve
I still can’t think of an example in the number field case…
Notice, if
x^2 = zy^2, then (x/y)^2 = z. So t^2 - z is reducible in the field of fractions.
So if your domain is integrally closed x/y must be in your domain. So there shouldn't be any examples coming from number fields.
I see! Thanks!
But I like how this distinguishes number fields from function fields lol
I think you'll find that
YX - X - 1
squares to Y.
Any Dedekind domain is integrally closed. So there shouldn't be a difference whether you get your Dedekind domain as the ring of integers of a number field or the cordinate ring of a curve.
For this proof
I dont understand the bottom line
Since its a subgroup, why does that mean g^2 is in it?
g in H U gH
Oh right i see
Right so why do we have if g^2 in gH
I understand the proof following that
Just confused on why we assume that now
It's just assumed for sake of contradiction. You have that g² is in H U gH, then you show that g² is not in gH, so it must be in H
Oh right
But I don't understand why H U gH is a subgroup. Can you post the question with the definition of H?
Oh thats just the question
But sure
Oh, it's just an assumption. I thought it was a known result or something
Oh crap
this was actually the case lol. i’m not sure how to approach it. i know the size of the multiplicative group but that’s about it
Well, notice that
a^31 = 1 means that
a^124 = 1, so a^125 = a means that a is in F_125. Thus [F5(a) : F5] is either 3 or 1
Then you just need to conclude it's not 1
that’s neat, cool
In general, you can deduce such degrees purely from the multiplicative order, since
a in F_p^n <=> a^{p^n-1} = 1
<=> ord(a) | p^n - 1
<=> p^n = 1 (mod ord(a)).
So [F_p(a) : F_p] is the smallest n such that p^n = 1 (mod ord(a)).
I take it that every isomorphism between a finite dimensional (rank) vector space (module) and its dual induces a symmetric bilinear form on it right?
Why is it symmetric 
Conjugation by the isomorphism?
Let me check
Need not be symmetric actually
Nondegenerate bilinear form
Yeah
A map
M -> Hom(M, R)
is the same as a map
M(x)M -> R
Which is exactly a bilinear form.
TENSOR HOM ADJUNCTION ECKS DEE
How did I not notice that
my exercise is to show that if H is an index n subgroup of A_n, then the left action of An on An/H is isomorphic to the alternting permutation group of An/H. can i get a hint showing that if x \in An then its action on An/H is an even permutation?
i think it suffices to prove this when x is a 3-cycle
hmm i proved that the set of left actions is a subgroup of the symmetric group of (An/H) of index 2
hence is normal
ok so i just need to show that 1 3-cycle is in this image
then all of them are, hence the image is just A_n
wait, actually am i done? index 2 subgroup of S_n is A_n?
does this stream of arguments work
Quick question
By the alternating permutation group of A_n/H are you referring toA_[H : A_n]?
An is indeed the only index 2 subgroup of Sn, so that should do it
Technically, you don't need it, since it is proved by showing that Hom(M, Hom(N, R)) is the same as bilinear maps and then using universal property of the tensor product.
If you skip the last step, you get the equivalence without mentioning tensor products.
For completeness:
Any injective map M -> Hom(M, R) gives a non-degenerate bilinear form. Forms for which this map is bijective are usually called perfect (at least for R = Z and M finite-rank free over R) to distinguish them from the non-degenerate ones.
Real
I just realized this is how I defined symmetric bilinear modules in shit I’ve done before. I just forogot
Incredible mizalign L
So I just had a thought I'm curious about
The field ℤ₅(√2) contains square roots of all elements of ℤ₅.
Does that mean that any quadratic over ℤ₅ will split over ℤ₅(√2)?
Since I imagine the quadratic formula should work?
That is correct. In fact for any finite field, if you adjoin the square root of any number that doesn't already have a square root, then every quadratic will now split.
(Note a finite field of characteristic 2 already has all square roots, but not every quadratic splits. The quadratic formula involves dividing by 2 after all)
Yeah I figured that would fail for characteristic 2, lol
Awesome, that'll be my last question on my (take-home) final XD
Wait.. F_2 has all square roots but it has a quadratic that doesn't split?
Oh like x^2 + x + 1
Yeah, x² + x + 1.
Woah that's weird
Are you taking the exam or making the exam? (Or both ;))
Making the exam. I teach undergrad AA.
Niiice
It's meant to be a little lighter on the "prove something you've never seen" side and more on the "show that you understand what these concepts mean" side
It's been a tough semester
Yeah, sounds like a good exercise
For you or the students?
Both
Feel ya
All my students in all my classes have been talking about how rough this semester has been
What do the averages tend to be on your exams?
But in my AA class I had 2 out of 10 people turn in my most recent Problem Set that was due Thursday
Took an exam in a non - math class today and the avg is going to be like 50% 😢
I don't do exams, I do problem sets, and they have the ability to revise their work based on feedback.
Thats awesome
I'm holding exams in about 2 weeks
But even then a bunch of them are dead-set on getting everything right the first try
To the point of not turning the damn thing in
That and they have never worked together
Despite me telling them they could and should :V
Yeah that happens when the policy is a more relaxed than normal, can they turn it in later and get the same grade
Yeah 😭 I always have mixed feelings about policies like these because i have no friends in a class then im way less likely to work together with other people
Yeah. I've been trying to go off the "if you've demonstrated that you understand it, that's the most important thing" idea ... but I need to add more restrictions to that
True. But they all sit at tables of 2 or 3 (there's 10 students) and have been working in those groups in class all semester as well
So they work together, just not on the problem sheets?
Yeah i feel that but you have to like someone a lot to go do homework with them on your own time vs in class
If I'm rambling let me know :V
Also, if anybody is up for looking at said take-home final and giving their opinion on how hard it is, please DM me
I'd be up for it, but I guess it's hard to say how hard something is without knowing what you've taught them
I want an example where lcm does not exist. They state that 2(1+i √ 5) and 6 have not lcm in Z[i √ 5], and reason that if it exists say l, then N(l) =72 or 144 , where N(l) is the norm of l, and it is not possible.
But N(l)=144 it is possible when I let l = 12, right?
12 is a common multiple, but 6(1+isqrt(5)) is also a common multiple. And neither of these are multiples of each other, so they can't be the least common multiple.
Okay got it, but why did they stated that N(l)=144 which is not possible?
Well if the lcm exists, it's norm must be a common multiple of their norms. So if you look a little bit at what norms are possible, 72 and 144 should be the only options
Yes, and no element has norm 72 in that ring, but 12 has norm 144, but 6(1+i√5 ) is also common multiple and neither of these are multiple of each other, my question is how did you guess this 6(1+i√5) ?
I'm not sure I did anything special. I'd argue it's easier to spot that 6(1+isq(5)) is a common multiple than 12.
I guess you can think that you'll have to use the weirdness of this ring somehow. Which comes exactly from that
6 = 2*3 = (1 + isq(5))(1 - isq(5)) doesn't have unique factorization.
So when you have both 2 and (1+isq(5)) it's natural to compare what happens when you multiply by 3 to what happens when you multiply by (1-isq(5))
Okay, thank you
In Dummit and foote, they state that Let R be unique factorisation Domain with field of fraction F and let p(x) in R[x]. If p(x) is reducible in F[x] then p(x) is reducible in R[x].
I think p must be a primitive polynomial.
If I let Z[x], then 5 is irreducible in Z[x] but 5 is not irreducible in Q[x], right ?
If L / K is a field extension, and x_1, …, x_n are elements of L, then how do I show that all subfields of K(x_1, … x_n) that contain K must contain one of the x_i ? (or potentially none of them if the subfield is just K)
this is what number theorist deserve for writing an algebra textbook
Wait is this even true
K(x_1+x_2) moment
Every finite extension of Q is of the form Q(a)
So your result would imply that you never have any intermediate fields
I guess this is particular striking if you take like Q(x)/Q so you have Q < ... < Q(x^4) < Q(x^2) < Q(x)
I wanted something like that to hold to prove this
what’s wrong with their proof?
Here splitting field is “minimal subfield over which f split”
Well…
well you definitely can't expect it to split if all of the roots aren't in M, so you better adjoin them all!
Ok I see it I think: if G is a subfield of M containing K, and f splits over G, then if G is not equal to K f will have too many roots
Well like
Any extension of K contained in L over which f splits must have the alpha_i and hence contain M
by definition of splitting
and f splits in M
“a polynomial can split in only one possible way”
When it splits in M, you can view it as a element in L[x] which is a ufd, so the roots must be the alpha i's.
I don’t see how L[x] being a UFD implies that, but the way I thought about it above was
if a polynomials of degree n splits in two different ways, it will have more than n roots
in fact, in the two different splittings, the constant must be the same, and if a x-x_i ever appears in both splittings then the rest must be the same
so you only really need the number of roots argument when both your splittings are completely different (share no x-x_i)
Guys I have something that is literally breaking my brain rn
Are angles real numbers?
Angle measures are real numbers, yes.
You can see them as the Abelian group – and yes, not ring – R/2piZ
I would say that an angle itself is a geometric shape, different from a number.
But if they are a geometric shape do they exist in Euclidean space?
Yeah, perhaps it would be better to say that angle measures are congruence classes in R/2piZ, rather than literally real numbers ...
Wait...
Could one consider angles a vector space?
Because they have scalar multiplication
It's generally most productive not to obsess overly about what things really are, so long as we agree about how they behave in the situations we use them in.
And are an abelian group under addition
Ik ik but I'm writing a thing defining angles so I wanna get this right
No.
they're a module but not a vector space
Okay that makes sense
Would someone mind proof reading my definition here for me
I am explaining a lot of stuff based on this definition of the set of angles which is something I don't see most texts use so I want to ensure its 100% accurate and clear
Also could I phrase this as real numbers are a metric used to define angles?
I sort of withdrew that. To each real number there's a corresponding angle, but each angle has many real numbers that it corresponds to.
That is true
But I think my phrasing still holds
Since it doesn't indicate the kind of map between the two
Maybe the phrasing: real numbers are a metric used to define angles modulo 2pi would be better
(At least if "angle" is a geometric thing, rather than some kind of synthetic concept that remembers whole revolutions. The latter is definitely useful sometimes, but doesn't lend itself to a fully geometric definition).
Depends on how you define a triangle
I like to define it as the addition of three noncollinear vectors who's sum starts and ends at the same point
These vectors form three interior angles all non-reflexive
no it doesn't
Wdym?
what do YOU mean?
Idk lol I was just covering my ass in case my definition of a triangle was wrong
Mb
a lot of "highschooler tries to formalise things in odd ways" vibes
That is fair I'm an engineering major not a mathematician
Is there a better way to formalize it?
@delicate orchid ?
What about with vectors?
Thank you
Still want to see you elaborate on this, otherwise a Discord classic to drop an insult like disappear
I was getting my nuggets out of the oven
the better way to formalise it is to just define them as elements of R/2piZ as tropo said and leave it as that, rather than writing 2 pages
As tropo said??? Wtf my work is being stolen from me
I ain't scrolling up buddy!
Most of those two pages aren't even on that though?
I look forward to seeing you in court, we can get lunch after
Only one setence?
then why post them
I think we've said everything that needs to be
I was not helpful. I was evil and mischievous.
What does that mean exactly
2pi radians is the same as 0 radians. So is 0.5 * that either pi or 0?
Well, only if you limit them to at most one revolution. Otherwise, is 0.1 · 10° supposed to be the same as 0.1 · 370°?
Seems to me it doesn't.
I guess you could say they obey it modulo 2pi?
with scalars in what ring is the question
Real numbers
R/2piZ is obviously a Z-module
Multiplication of reals modulo something is itself not well-defined, even before we start talking about angles.
But what is then the result of 0.1 · 10° which had better be the same as 0.1 · 370° if you're working modulo 360°?
If I need to, I'd say explicitly "measure the angle with a number in (-pi, pi]" or whatever makes sense in the situation. One just needs to accept that doesn't create a particularly nice algebraic structure.
Aww...
I wish there was a way to well define the abelian group of angle along with the ability of dialation over the measure of all real numbers
if you really want to multiply an angle I've thought of a way to do it but it's not pretty
I can take it 🥺
No, multiplication mod 2pi is not well-defined.
R/2piZ is not a ring, like I said
wowee
Scalar multiplication is already not a ring operation mb I should have specified this
If you are describing it mod 2pi, then it is in fact a ring operation.
No because it isn't binary I thought?
Because you are describing an action of the integers mod 2pi on the integers mod 2pi.
Idk what you mean now. It is most certainly binary.
instead of representing angles as elements of $\bR/2\pi\bZ$, instead represent them as matrices of the form $\begin{pmatrix} 1 & \text{cos}(\theta) \ 0 & \text{sin}(\theta) \end{pmatrix}$, then you can define $n\theta := \begin{pmatrix} 1 & \text{cos}(n\theta) \ 0 & \text{sin}(n\theta) \end{pmatrix}$, I haven't through through how addition works yet (most likely it just doesn't)
Wew Lads Tbh
My logic was:
Vector x scalar->vector
Angle x scalar->angle
so I guess binary was the wrong phrase and I should have said that it isn't within one contained ring
You are a goat for this
wait, just define them as rotation matrices, then everything works immediately
If only there were a well-known group this is isomorphic to
replace $\begin{pmatrix} 1 & \text{cos}(\theta) \ 0 & \text{sin}(\theta) \end{pmatrix}$ with $\begin{pmatrix} \text{cos}(\theta) & \text{sin}(\theta) \ -\text{sin}(\theta)& \text{cos}(\theta) \end{pmatrix}$
Wew Lads Tbh
What is $\frac12$ times $\begin{pmatrix}-1 & 0 \ 0 & -1\end{pmatrix}$?
Troposphere
Out of everything I think this may be the most relevant the more I think about it
All I need the reader to get is that angles act on points to perform rotations in Euclidean space
I went too deep
annoying I can't pass this to the lie algebra
What a pity the exponential map is not injective ...
mithrilsword1
Where A is a angle measure
start with a lie algebra rep of R, or as I like to call it - R, then pass to S^1
we did it reddit
Sure, as long as you don't want to multiply by non-integers.
well if we wanted a Z-module structure then we didn't have to do too much to begin with 
Yeah -- or in particular the complex unit circle, which is probably the most popular representation of angles in advanced work.
Unfortunately that's a perfectly good abelian group (aka Z-module), but not a vector space like Mithrilsword wants.
U(n) reps, or as I like to call them, [BU(n), BU(n)]
bubu
Bun-bun.
How can i find an algebraic number α so that Q(α) = Q(√2,∛3)
Hint: Look at the proof of the primitive element theorem
Heuristically sqrt(2) + 5^5^5 3^1/3 should work
from what i’ve seen i should just take a linear combination of the generators?
wait no, i need a linear combination that is not fixed by any of the Galois automorphisms?
That's essentially Potato's point. If you pick alpha = sqrt(2) + q·cbrt(3) for some q, and then write out the first six powers of alpha in the standard basis over Q, then the determinant of the resulting 6×6 matrix is a polynomial in q of degree no more than about 36. Choose a huge q and it's pretty much guaranteed that you won't hit one of the few roots of that polynomial.
whats the definition of normal that's given in your prior literature?
how do you find the automorphism group of a graph
tryinig to do this one in particular
I don't think there's a good (that is, polynomial-time) known systematic algorithm; that would seem to involve deciding graph isomophism.
Think of this as a license to be ad-hoc and depend on insights/observatons specific to the particular graph.
there are automorphisms that swap 1 and 5, 3 and 4, 2 and 3, 2 and 4. The trick I use to find automorphisms is to find pairs of edges that have the same neighbours. I'll leave it up to you to show that these generate the whole group
correct me if any of those automorphisms are wrong, it's 3am and I'm very tired
The particular graph there is the complete bipartite graph K_{2,3}.
loosely speaking, those are just the permuatations that preserve adjacent vertices right
Yeah
In general bipartite graphs you can permute either set of vertices however you want and it’ll give you a graph automorphism
So the overall thing should be isomorphic to S_n x S_m for Bi(n,m)
Except if n=m, in which case you can also interchange the groups.
True!
There is a statement, any irreducible polynomial is primitive. Is the Non-zero constant irreducible element in Z[x] primitive?
To show the number of roots of a non-zero polynomial over a integral domain R is atmost it's degree.
Should I show first if there is root a then we can write f(x) =(x-a)q(x), q in R[x]? Is it true in R[x] ?
yes that sounds like a good start
f(x) =(x-a)q(x) in R[X] iff f(a) = 0
But does the remainder theorem work in the non-Euclidean domain?
you would have to work in R's field of fractions but in the end i think the q and r you get live in R[X]
but i think u can prove it without division algorithm
The division algorithm will work as long as the leading coefficient is a unit in the ring, so you can do it with x-a
How I WISH this was how it was taught to everyone 
Should I work on its field of fraction or from it imply that if I have more than n roots ( polynomial degree is n) , say n+1, then p(x) =(x-a_1)×....×(x-a_(n+1) ) it's contradicts that p has degree n
Yeah you can work in the field of fractions if you want. Showing the degree contradiction is a good strategy
Without using the field of fraction, does it work because the leading coefficient is 1 of x-a, right?
Yeah, so you can generally factor roots like that in the ring itself
Being an integral domain is important in one of the steps
In degree contradiction?
Yeah that’s one, in integral domains you have the nice multiplicative rule for degrees. Also in factoring it as a product of roots, say f(x) has two distinct roots a,b you can then factor f(x)=(x-a)q(x) now in an integral domain you can say that b must be a root of q(x). That would generally fail, say f(x)=2x in Z/4Z
Okay thank you
In a commutative ring, the minimal ideal is always the principal ideal?
let a≠0 in minimal ideal then (a) is subset of I, so I = (a), right ?
Minimal nonzero ideals are principal yes
(Although there can be multiple minimal ideals)
Any hint to show that Non-zero minimal prime ideal is principal ideal
That would be kinda hard to show, seeing as it isn't true
Just look at k[x, y]/(x,y)^2 for example.
In fact for Noetherian domains this is true iff UFD
Sorry I forgot to mention R is UFD
Think about the prime factorization of an element contained in your ideal
If $(G,e)$ is a divisible abelian ordered group, does $G$ have to be archimedian aswell? That is, for $e < a < b$, must there be $n \in \mathbb{N}$ with $a^n > b$?
Literature-chan
No. The classic example of this comes from model theory, where one constructs the hyperreals
I think also one can just take Z^(N) with the infinite lexicographic order but I would have to double check.
I think R^N works
Or just R^2 even
This is just infinitesimals in naive hyperreals
If I want to show that in Z[√5] where N(x +√5y)= | x^2 -5y^2 |.
x is irreducible if 4<= N(x) < 16.
Can I use here negation?
And I have shown that for non zero non unit N(x)>=4.
So if I let x= ab, where a and b are both non-unit then N(x) => 16.
yeah, that's fine
Okay thank you
There is a statement that for a prime p in Z, the polynomial 1+x+x^2+...+x^p is irreducible in Z_2[x] only if p≠2. I think this statement is not correct, right?
if p≠2 then the evaluation in 1 is p+1=0, so 1 is a root
maybe you mean Z_p[x] instead?
No
then it's false
May be printing mistake
it is irreducible only if p=2
What is meant by evaluation in 1 ?
f(1), where f is that polynomial
Then f(1) = 1 , so how is 1 root?
f(1)=p+1 and p+1=0 because you are in characteristic 2
But p≠2 so how characteristic 2 ?
Z_2[x] has characteristic 2
Yes
I am talking about it you state that if p ≠2 then the evaluation in 1 is p+1=0, so 1 is a root
I don't see the problem; as long as you work in Z_2[x], any even is equal to 0
even if it was Z_p[x], the statement is still false because f(-1)=0 for p≠2
Yes
Any hint to show Z[i]/(p) is isomorphic to field of p^2 elements, if p remains a prime in Z[i].
We have that p can not be written as sum of two numbers and if any element a + ib in (p) then both a and b are divisible by p. But how can I show it?
clever way to do this, let alpha be (72)^1/6
the next part was to determine the minimal polynomial of alpha, so a sqrt(2) + d*cbrt(3) would’ve been hard to do that for
(p) is a prime ideal in Z[i], which is a PID, so (p) is maximal, which implies that Z[i]/(p) is a field
it is therefore enough to find the number of elements in Z[i]/(p)
extra hint: ||you can find representatives||
Okay, thank you
wtf
Oh a flat S-module
Ummm, so my guess would be
If you look at testing flatness against the inclusion of an ideal J -> S
Then what you really need is that the multiplication map
J (x) I -> IJ is an isomorphism (injective)
I would then think that because I is basically a bunch of copies of R as a direct SUM which means it commutes with the tensor product OVER R
That you want to try and show that this kinda is true even for the tensor product over S
Or errrr
Hard to explain
Basically, IJ is gonna be given by like
Let J_i be the image of J under projection to the i-th coordinate
I believe IJ is then (+)^N J_i
By examination
And I believe you should be able to see that I (x)_S J should be the same thing
I'm having some trouble understanding the following: Let S be a semigroup with 0, and suppose that D = S \ {0} is a D-class such that D^2 is not {0}. Then D has at least one idempotent. Why is this true?
My teacher said that it's because of the Miller-Clifford theorem, but I don't get how this theorem can prove this
oh thx, i forgot that examine tensoring J -> S is enough
J/IJ -> S/I is injective if we show IJ = I \cap J, and this is clear i think
Oh youre totally right, I don’t know why I was tensoring with I
Do you know how to show it isn’t projective?
It is incredibly restrictive for a quotient to be projective, and you can describe exactly what the ideal you are quotienting has to be, and it’s abundantly clear it isn’t satisfied in this situation
does this work?
I feel like you're missing something about x^3 - 7 being irreducible over Q or something.
Right now it's not clear why the cube root of 7 couldn't be in K.
i mean K is a quadratic extension of Q so the cube root of 7 can’t lie in K
is that not a justified statement
i was thinking about trying to argue this using the fact that the degree of the splitting field of x^n - a is n*phi(n) or n/2 * phi(n), along with the tower law, but i’m not sure if that would work
that's more or less what the problem asks to prove
you need to know that such a cube root generates a degree 3 extension of Q, which is equivalent to saying that x^3 - 7 is irreducible over Q as jagr was saying
you can definitely have a cube root of 8 inside of K for example
so the polynomial being irreducible over Q tells me that i need atleast a degree 3 extension to obtain a root of it
but for a cubic, being irreducible is equivalent to not having a root, so the polynomial can’t be reducible in K?
¿$(G / N)\times N=G$?
cosín™
Or there are funny examples. Like compare $\mathbf Z$ with $\mathbf Z/2 \times 2\mathbf Z$
Crystalline Potato
If they have comprime order you can show that a certain short exact sequence splits so it is a semi direct product
But as stated this is false
that's burnside's right?
I don’t think so I think you can just define the inverse map in the obvious way and it works out ?
No
In the integral domain R, is this statement correct only ideals of R which are free as R-module are Non-zero principal ideals?
This is an if and only if actually
Hey just to make sure I can always write an ideal as an ideal sum J=\sum <f_a> of the principle ideals of all the generators right?
I have shown if it is principal ideal then it is free but how can I show that If it is free then it is principal ideal?
Show that if M < N and both M and N are free, then the rank of M is <= rank of N
yeah i figured it out first and stuck in showing it's flat

Is it natural to view the r:a->r(a) the radicalization of an ideal a in ring A as a projection since r^2 =r?
are there uncountable families of distinct (as in, non-isomorphic) groups ?
Do you want any groups, or do you want some rules?
Free group on a set of generators
And you have uncountably many sets of different cardinalities (and hence necessarily lead to non-isomorphic free groups when taken as generating sets)
ohh
Ah, are cardinalities guaranteed to be uncountable?
I also thought of this but was unsuare about that
Had to look this up actually, and it works assuming standard ZFC:
Alternatively, maybe upward Lowenheim-Skolem theorem does the trick
whaa i was not expecting model theory to enter into this
This is one of the fundamental questions one can ask in, well, "model" theory
I do wonder if there are uncountably many nonisomorphic groups with its cardinality at most uncountable.
Maybe working with subgroups help
at most uncountable?
Do you wish to restrict to countably infinite groups, or did you mean to say at most the cardinality of the continuum?
Ahhh, sorry. I mean cardinality of continuum.
Morally it feels like there should be uncountably many (non-isomorphic) group structures on a set with cardinality continuum, but I don't have an argument
Interesting question in any case, might be worth looking up
Yeah, let me think
For any set $S$ of primes, you can construct an abelian group $\oplus_{p \in S} \bZ / p \bZ$. By order argument, distinct set $S$ result in distinct isomorphism type of groups.
Absta
Since there are infinitely many primes, this gives P(Z) worth of distinct groups.
How are you getting P(Z) worth of distinct groups?
Ah okay, I see what you mean
That works 
I think most of the typical families of groups become uncountable (or really a proper class) of you allow them to be infinite.
So the free groups, the symmetric group, alternating group, (projective) (special) linear group.
No uncountable cyclic group though.
In integral domain ring R, if a is right invertible then it will be left invertible also, right?
suppose ar=e (r the right inverse of a, e the identity) then you can play around with ra-e and see what properties it has and what friction that forms with being an integral domain. ||ra(ra-e)=rara-ra=ra-ra=0 but ra != 0...||
Actually I need to mention here R is not commutative
i don’t see how that works :S for example the symmetric group on any two sets of the same cardinality will be isomorphic right? just due to the existence of a bijection… though i admit i’ve never really touched on any cardinalities greater than the continuum’s so it might just be that which confuses me
yeah obviously otherwise the proof would be trivial lol
So if R is not commutative how ra ≠ 0 implies?
Wait
😉
That's right, a set is determined up to bijection by its cardinality. So the family of symmetric groups would naturally be thought of as indexed by Cardinals.
I used this argument
Let a≠0, then ab = 1, now let ba= y => a=ay.
a(y-1)=0 since R is integral domain so y=1, is it correct?
right so it really just boils down to having sufficiently many large cardinals
Yes, and you have a proper class of them and can get as many as you like.
The Cardinals are indexed by the ordinals, and there are ordinals of arbitrary large cardinality.
whew
yeah looks good to me, not too different to what I did
Yes but I am thinking about what if we remove integral domain property and add that there is no right zero divisor
have any book rec which gives an introduction to these things?
Then it will work, right?
also thanku very much for the explanations
can you have right zero divisors without left zero divisors
Yes I think
show me
Matrix
AB=0 so B is a right zero divisor and A isn't a left zero divisor?
No I mean AB =0 but BA≠0
I don't really have any specific recommendations. But a book on set theory I guess...
real
sure, but what you wrote, is A not a left zero divisor?
you can't have only right zero divisors without left zero divisors, they're two sides of the same coin
Yes A will be left zero divisor but I thought the question is if A is left zero divisor then it will be right zero divisor
this is what matters
I call a be right zero divisor if there exists r such that ar=0 where r≠0
is this more or less restrictive than an integral domain
are there any left zero divisors here
If a is right zero divisor then r will be left zero divisor
Means if there is no right zero divisor then there is no left zero divisor
I'm just trying to understand if your alternative condition is really different than an integral domain or not, and if it's different how
No I don't think so
cool
ok having thought about it for a second this is easily the prettiest of the constructions mentioned
thanku
Thank you
yup yw
No problem!
especially since it does not rely on cardinalities larger than that of the continuum
If ab is a unit then a,b is not necessarily a unit.
Let R be the ring of Endomorphisms of all infinite sequence of R. (May be this is wrong interpretation)
Take a= (a_1,....,a_n,...) -> (a_2,.....,a_n,...) b= (b_1,.....)-> (0,b_1,.....,b_n,....)
Then ab=1 but ba ≠1, right?
Okay, thank you
Would it be right to say that the identity hom is phi(x) = x while the trivial hom is phi(x) = e?
I feel like they are vague/up to interpretation (namely the former), but they seemed to be "assumed" in my class.
Yes, those are fairly standard names for them
thanks
and does the identity one come from the fact that the identity permutation is usually notated as Id(entity), which is itself a function (that maps each element to itself)?
I guess that's kind of backwards though; it would moreso be from the fact that the identity function is typically f(x) = x.
tfw tivial hom is different to identity hom is the same as trivial iso
The identity homomorphism is the identity function and is also the identity with respect to composition.
The word 'identity' comes from it leaving things identically as they were.
So e is the identity because e*x = x, and Id is the identity homomorphism because Id(x) = x
Yeah that was pretty much my intuition behind it. It was just weird since we never used either of those words as descriptors for homomorphisms (or functions in general, outside of the identity permutation) until the final the other day. I just went off of what seemingly made the most sense.
Enderton, Elements of Set Theory
Kunen, Foundations of Mathematics
both have pdfs available online
thanku thanku
also if you prefer videos, Antonio Montalbon has a full series of set theory lectures on Youtube, it's worth watching
I am not sure but can units be reducible in a ring?
What's the defn of reducible element 
An irreducible element in an ID is a non-unit non-zero non-[product of two non-units]
Yes
So the reducible element is a non-zero non-unit element which can be written as products of non-units ?
That would make most sense to me, but check the exact definition in your book (if you're following one).
where can i find enderton?
Okay, thank you
So units neither reducible nor irreducible
That would at least match "1 is neither composite nor prime".
Can I upload here?
No.
Okay, thank you
whew wonderful
for me it's the first result googling "enderton set theory pdf"
ehehe
my google-fu has dulled
happens when my library has almost everything i need
lol I always just google "{book name} pdf" when I want to find something
I want to show that in an arbitrary ring, if 1-ab is left - invertible then 1-ba is also left invertible.
If I let c(1-ab)=1 then how can I guess the left inverse of 1-ba ?
One way to think about this is to lend some intuition from geometric series.
If you imagine ab as some number < 1, then the inverse of 1 - ab would be
c = 1 + ab + (ab)^2 + ...
While the inverse of 1 - ba would be
1 + ba + (ba)^2 + ...
Which we can see equals 1 + bca.
Now you just need to check that the guess is correct.
This is nice
Another approach:
Note
c(1-ab)=1
Now if we multiply on the right by a and regroup we get
c(1-ab)a= ca(1-ba)=a
Now multiply by b on the left and subtract both sides from 1 to ger
1- bca(1-ba)=1- ba
So
(1+bca)(1-ba)=1
Lmao I had to do this by trial and error
the geometric series approach actually gets you to the answer quite nicely without having to guess or do (seemingly) weird algebraic manipulations
Yes, thank you
But I want to know how that intuition hit you ?
just seeing (1 - x)^{-1}
Well, the inverse of 1 - x being a geometric series is something that comes up quite often.
I see we're interested in 1 - ab, that's something of the form 1 - x, maybe look at the geometric series. And boom it worked out
that probably triggered an alarm lol
The fact that I've seen this proof before is also a big help 
lol fun fact actually (not relevant to what you're talking about), in set theory a "large cardinal" is actually a thing, they're cardinals that are so large that they can't actually be proven (within ZFC) to exist
when I read "sufficiently many large cardinals" I was like
haha oops
Okay, thank you
Any hint to show any ring with identity of order p^2 is commutative?
And if I want a non-commutative ring of order p^2 without unity.
Consider R is a set of all 2 × 2 matrix over Z_p where all lower entries of matrix are 0.
Is it correct?
perhaps look at the center of the ring, and reason about what the quotient as a group looks like
mhh that wouldnt be closed under multiplication
how?
actually nvm it will be
Say M and N are two F-algebras. To prove that they are isomorphic, is it sufficient to find an F - vector space isomorphism that also preserves products?
THAT
oops caps
wait I’m not sure what you mean. F-algebras have more structure than vector spaces
Z(R) has at least two elements and Z(R) is also a subgroup of R so Z(R) has order p or p^2.
If it has order p then R/Z(R) as group of order p and it is cyclic group. So if a,b is notp in Z(R) then ab- ba in Z(R). But I don't know how it makes any contrary?
wait I misread
That is indeed sufficient. Try proving it for yourself!
Thanks! I will
Notice you haven't used that R/Z(R) is a cyclic group
I used abelian property may be I need to use generator property
Then R/Z(R) is cyclic additive group so any multiplication defined over it must be commutative
now try and move back to R, can you write the elements in a way that shows they commute?
Let Q(zeta_n) a cyclotomic field.
For all k < n such that gcd(k,n) = 1, let g_k the automorphism defined by g_k( zeta_n ) = (zeta_n)^k
How prove this result :
Suppose z in Q(zeta_n). Then z in Q <=> for all k such that gcd(k,n) = 1, then g_k(z) = z
?
What sort of results do you have to work with? Since Q(zeta_n) is a Galois extension an element is fixed by all the automorphisms iff it is in Q
Is there exist an elementary proof without knowing galois theory ?
Then any element x in R can be written as a^n + z_1 where a is non-zero fixed element and n is some integer, z_1 is in Z(R).
Then xy= (a^n + z_1)(a^s + z_2 ) = a^(n+s) + a^nz_2+ z_1a^s + z_1z_2 = a^(n+s) + z_2a^n +a^sz_1 + z_2z_1 = (a^s + z_2 )(a^n + z_1) = yx.
Is it correct?
Oops remember its the additive group so its an not a^n, but yeah
Yes, thank you ❤️
Are you talking about this ?
Let z in L
If for all g in Gal(L/K), g(z) = z then z in K ?
Yes
Is the proof of this complicated ?
Mhh not too bad, you assume z not in K then it has a degree > 1 minimal polynomial and you construct an automorphism that sends it to another root of said minimal polynomial. There’s a few preliminary results needed though
One thing you can do is look at
f(x) = average of gk(x)
then f(x) = x iff x is fixed by each gk and the image of f is exactly those elements fixed by gk, and f is linear.
Since (zeta_n)^i is a basis for Q(zeta_n) you just have to prove that applying f to them gives you something rational.
If I want an example of a non - commutative ring of order p^3 with identity.
If I let R is set of all 2 × 2 matrix over Z_p where a_21( entry at A[21] ) is 0. Then R is a non-commutative ring with an identity of order p^3, right?
That's right
Okay, thank you
another approach: if the ring is Z_(p^2), we are done, so assume the ring is not Z_(p^2), so its characteristic is p
your ring contains 0,1,2,...,p-1
let a be different from these
prove that all ma+n with 0<=m,n<=p-1 are distinct
since the ring has p^2 elements, these are all the elements, and they clearly commute to each other
To show all ma+n are different with 0<= m,n <=p-1 are distinct.
If m_1 a + n_1 = m_2 a + n_2 and let m_1 ≠ n_1 and n_1 ≠ n_2 , then (m_1 - m_2)a = n_2-n_2 but since 0< m_1 - m_2 <p so it's inverse exists in mod p so a will be in Z•1 , I am not sure
that's correct
given a quotient group G', is it the case that (g^n)'=(g')^n? I feel like this is overreaching, but based on the definitions of the cosets and such it seems this may be true.
using the prime notation instead of overbar because I'm lazy
Yes
The quotient map G -> G' is a group homomorphism
Even before that this follows by how you define the quotient group
yeah, I'm just rusty
In a commutative ring with unit, can units have divisors other than other units?
So if u is a unit, does there exists a non-unit r dividing u, i.e u = rs for some s? I know that s cannot be a unit, because then r = us^-1 is a unit. So the question reduces to: can a unit be written as the product of two non-units?
ok the answer is no
units are divisors of 1, so divisors of units are divisors of 1 (by transitivity of “divides by”) hence units
——————
Anyone know why in the definition of irreducible element, we specify that the element must be nonzero? To me it looks like even without specifying this 0 will still never fit the other criteria: 0 = 0 * 0, and 0 is a non-unit
Seems like a redundancy
that is a good question, I didn't even realise that was convention. Maybe it's something stupid to do with the zero ring
ah wait, non-integral domains
like if (0) is maximal then your ring is a field, so R/(0) is still a field. So it doesn't break the first thing I thought of to check
what does (0) being maximal have to do with 0 being irreducible? I know that an element p is irreducible iff (p) is maximal among principal ideals, but I don’t know if this is what you’re using
Well for example take a UFD. If 0 were irreducible then you can never be a UFD as 0 = 0•0 = 0•0•0 = …
0•0
I’m not asking why can’t we let 0 be irreducible
I’m saying that the “no non-unit divisors” part of the definition of irreducible element should already omit 0 as being irreducible
since 0 = 0*0 is and 0 is a non-unit
Ah
For what it's worth nlab doesn't include "non-zero" in their definition
I guess it’s a 0-ring thing?
In the 0 ring 0 is a unit
But 0 shouldn’t be irreducible because then you’d need to consider (0) as a prime ideal or something…?
¯_(ツ)_/¯
I’m also unsure about whether or not the definition i learned specifically omitted 0
I guess it's just sort of emphesizing that
0, unit, irreducible and reducible are the four distinct categories
Oh wait I overlooked that most people don’t call 0 a non-unit
Even though it technically is
Or at the very least wouldn't call it a unit.
“A UFD is a ring such that every nonzero non-unit element r can be written as…”
This is implying that they do consider 0 a non-unit
Oh oops
different question:
In the definition of UFD there’s two parts, one part being a factorization into irreducibles exists and the other part being that the factorization is unique up to reordering and associates. Doesn’t a factorization into irreducibles (ignoring uniqueness) always exist, in a general ring?
Not without some finiteness assumptions
Like consider k[x1, x2, ...] With the relation that
xi = (x[i+1])^2
Then x1 cannot be factored into irreducibles
Hm
another example is the the polynomials in Q[X] with integer constant coefficient
I guess my reasoning was: for a given element r, if it’s irreducible then stop, or else write it as a product of two non-units; now keep recursing this process on the individual factors. if this process never terminates then it means r can be written as the product of an arbitrary number of non-units
I guess that is where the finiteness assumption comes into play
Yeah, so at least in a domain if (a) = (b) then a and b are associates.
If you keep factorization r into more and more terms you'll get an increasing sequence of ideals. If your ring is Noetherian, then this must stabilize, so you'll reach an irreducible.
So in a Noetherian integral domain any element is the product of irreducibles.
If you ditch the domain part you can have weird things like two elements both being multiples of each other.
Like in k[x, y]/(xy) you have
x = x(1 + y) = x(1+y)(1+y) = ...
Wow this is so cool
If you think of the factorization process I described as building an infinite binary tree starting from the root, then if the process doesn’t terminate, for every n > 0 there will exist an element at level/height n, and in particular there is an infinite path starting from the root that only moves down. it is then the elements along this path form the chain of increasing ideals
Wait random slightly related question: if for every positive integer n there exists a chain of increasing ideals of length n, does this imply the ring is not Noetherian?
The integers would be one example
Or any non-field domain, by simply looking at (x^n) < (x^n-1) < ... for some non-unit x
Let G be a group. And G' be the subgroup generated by all commutators of group G. I want to show that if G' <= H <= G then H is normal.
Then let any h in H and g in G. So h^(-1)ghg^(-1) in H it implies that ghg^(-1) in H. Hence H is normal in G.
Is it correct?
Yes
Do you maintain some blog ?
Say A is a ring and a,b are ideals and r(a) denotes the radical of a. I wanna show r(r(a)+r(b)) is a subset of r(a+b)
Say x^n =c+d where c^p in a and d^q in b.
Is the trick to do something like (x^n)^{p*q}?
Cause x^{npq}=(c+d)^{p*q} I think from the binomial theorem each term will have either a c^p factor or a d^q factor and that might do it...
My blog is my mathcord activity
Yes
For commutative rings
x^(n(p+q)) probably
I have a question
If we have a finite ring
The sum of all elements is 0 iff the number of elements is odd right?
Yeah, since the number of elements that are their own negative must be a power of 2, so if there are an odd number of elements, zero must be the only such element.
(Being a finite abelian group is enough).
Ok but F4 has sum of elements 0 right?
Oh shoot. I read the question as "if", not "iff".
So "odd number of elements" => "they sum to 0", but you have a good counterexample for the other direction.
Ok thanks
Notice that every element not of order 2 is cancelled by its inverse. So the sum of elements is just the sum of elements of order 2.
The elements of order 2 form a subgroup isomorphic to (Z/2)^n
If n=1, the sum is not 0. If n>1, then consider a nonzero element a. Then we can pick 2^n-1 representatives xi such that every element is equal to either xi or a+xi.
So the sum of elements equals
[sum xi] + [sum a+xi] = 2^n-1 a + 2[sum xi] = 0.
So the only abelian groups where the elements don't sum to 0, are those which have exactly one element of order 2. I.e
Z/2, Z/4, Z/8, ..., Z/2^n, ...
and products of these with odd groups.
The elements of order 2 or 1 form a subgroup isomorphic to (Z/2)^n
The Omega-(2,1) subgroup….
Could anyone reccomend Fraleighs book for advanced but not graduate level group/ring/field theory?
Or not-reccomend
I have to take a 2nd course in modern algebra later on and only the worst prof at my school teaches it so I was thinking about prepping myself
fraleigh is not very advanced i think
I'm using Fraleigh for my first course in algebra. I like it a lot, but if this is your second course it may not cover everything. We're covering almost every chapter except the two last ones
I don't think it covers modules for example
if you're doing a second course, I think rotman is nice
d&f is standard but then you're reading d&f >.<
Hm okay, my intro course ended at like ring homomorphisms I think( we covered fields but not extensively)
And the next course goes much further
You don’t like D&F?
I don't either
Maam may I inquire why?
Just intuit the entire thing
Realest thing wew lads tbh has said to me in 3 years
Tbh this is more just from them having slightly weird conventions about units in rings lol
but i think the book is fine lol
I was reading some lecture notes on Galois theory and there's an example where they calculate the Galois Group of x⁴+8x+12
And prove that it's A4
It's in spanish but anyway
So to prove that it's A4 they use that f(x) is separable and the discriminant of f(x) is a square in F
Hence it's a subgroup of A4
But then they use that f(x) decomposes as a product of polynomials of degree 1 and 3 working mod 5 and somehow conclude that the Galois group has a 3-cycle
Which I don't understand
Galois group acts transitively on roots of irreducibles
Are they implying that if you have f(x) a polynomial in Z[x] and:
- You take its splitting field K1 over Q.
- You reduce f(x) mod p and take its splitting field K2 over Z/pZ.
Then the Galois group of K2 is a subgroup of the Galois group of K1?
Yes
Np
Me no good at that
But it's pretty weird that they just say it like that
Hi i am learning about modular lattice and i found this comment of yours?
How are these two connected?
Could you please elaborate on this?
(I am assuming you are talking about fourth isomorphism theorem,by lattice isomorphism theorem)
Sure! I might flub it though.
So we have
a, b
uhh lemme figurebout how to get meet and join chars
.
a ∧ b
| |
a |
| b
| |
a ∨ b
that's an ascii drawing of the lattice
oh god okay the following drawing will be horrible to type lemme actual draw it
This is like trying to describe a song on discord through onomatopoeias
No problem,take your time
Just ping me whenever you reply
I used in it my first course; it's fine but pretty dry to read
Is it true that if J/I is an ideal of R/I then J is an ideal of R?
It’s dry??? 😭😭😭
lang is like a reference book
I don’t think I’ve seen a better book so maybe I need to look more
Yeah
Aluffi says here that if R is a ring, I is an ideal of R, and J is a subgroup of R containing I, then J/I is an ideal of R/I iff J is an ideal of R. The reverse direction is proven here, but the forward direction is not obvious to me.
I know this question should be asked in #book-recommendations but I am asking it here, that is which book best suited for problem solving ?
If you know then go ask there instead and this question is way too vague to be answered in general
I answered in #advanced-algebra but tbh I should have answered in this channel. Don't spam a question in multiple channels
I think by number theory magic, if O is the ring of integers of K1, and P is a prime lying over p. Then the decomposition group D(P) of automorphisms that leave P invariant surjects onto the Galois group of K2. So since the Galois group of K2 is C3, the original group must have an element of order 3.
This is basically a version of the Dedekind-Kummer theorem.
yea what jagr said, although it's a bit stronger, you can actually determine the cycle decomposition of the element by how the minimal polynomial decomposes mod p.
woops i got distracted
sorry
now let [x,y] mean the interval from x to y
that is, {z : x\le z \le y}
now take [a ∧ b, b]
take x in that
now we map it to
[a, a∨b]
by mapping x to a ∨ x
likewise we can map the other way via doing b ∧ y
For a modular lattice, these two maps are inverses
(on the intervals)
so they are isomorphic
so now
in, say, groups
A \cap B = A ∧ B
AB = A ∨ B
if you interpret (not entirely sure how to formalize this, but I think it exists in the form of a theorem also called the lattice isomorphism theorem?) the interval as the quotient group
then you get the diamond isomorphism theorem
Groups form a modular lattice. So do Modules.
At least, I think that's right
Please check my connection between modular lattices and the isomorphism theorems before being confident about it
I've found two factorisations for 7 in D. $7 = (2+ \sqrt{3}i)(2- \sqrt{3}i)$ and $7 = (\frac{1}{2} +\frac{3}{2} \sqrt{3}i)(\frac{1}{2} -\frac{3}{2} \sqrt{3}i)$. If this is a euclidean domain, then by a previous theorem it is also a UFD, meaning something has gone wrong. Am I missing something? Does cancellation not hold in this ring for example?
swifteeee
pls ping : )
,w simplify (2 + sqrt(-3))/(1/2 - 3/2 sqrt(-3))
@languid trellis ^ is a unit
How are we concluding that? Isn't the conclusion that 2 + sqrt3 i is in the ideal generated by 1/2 - 3/2 sqrt(3) i?
You mean how we are concluding that (-1 + sqrt(-3))/2 is a unit?
Yep
It's because this is a 3rd root of unity
Oh I didn't realise
Its inverse is its complex conjugate, which also is in the ring
Right I gotcha
I wouldn't have caught that
So the factorisation is unique up to unit multiplier
also it wasn't stated explicitly but Absta did it, it's probably a good idea to write sqrt(-3) and not sqrt(3)i since neither sqrt(3) nor i are actually distinct elements in this ring.
Yep, always good to think of the unit - it can easily confuse you 
Lol. Wacky ring
“Both in Z or both halves of odd integers” sounds like E8
I have no intuition on when Z[something] should be a ufd or not yet. Earlier on we showed that Z[sqrt(10)] isn't a ufd but Z[sqrt(2)] is
I’m pretty sure that is unsolved
It's okay, I believe no one in the world has that intuition yet
Jacobson gives some criterion in some special cases
For negative sqrt it’s the Heegner numbers I think
In number theory, a Heegner number (as termed by Conway and Guy) is a square-free positive integer d such that the imaginary quadratic field
Q
[
−
d
]
{\displaystyle \mathbb...
If q, p prime (q/p) = -1 (legendre symbol) then Z[sqrt(pq)] is not a ufd for example
There's 9 of them. What the fuck
OK back to studying thank you all
So unexpected, right
It's hardly believable
Yeah. For me, esp. last one being 163 and there's no more
Small-number accidents can keep happening for surprisingly large "small" numbers.
This feels like it's closer to moonshine than law of small numbers, but whose to say
It’s original proof apparently used j function, complex multiplication and finding roots of a polynomial of degree 24
Which is extremely specific
Idk if the 24 is something completely unusual or
After all, what are sporadic groups other than a particularly grand set of small-number accidents?
wtf is a small number accident
always potty train your small numbers
I wonder if the “integer or half integer” thing has to do with E8
Ok ok thank you
is there a standard symbol for “isomorphic to a subgroup of”
half integer? did someone say root space? E8??
so half integralness comes from the definition of a root system. the motivation aka the connection with lie stuff comes from the rep theory of sl2C
as [H,X]=2X
But as just described in Jacobson that is a ring
what is?
you mean the rep ring?
oh i was thinking of a thing
Is E8 not integers or half integer vectors who sum to even
This
i wanted to say during a presentation that "irreducible decomposition is like the prime decomposition - in fact it's literally the factorization in the representation ring" but it doesn't look like they are the irreds in the rep ring?
because (assume complete reducibility, e.g. for semisimple lie algebra)
if we have V irreducible
that means V \neq V1 \oplus V2
it does not mean V \neq V1 \otimes V2
but the latter is the product in the rep ring
so instead irreds are like primitive idempotents
this can be made precise
as in
they literally correspond
and there's like algorithms using this to compute things like decompositions of the lie alg
but i don't know them yet
I don't know whether it's related to E8 or not, but the more elementary reason is just that the quadratic formula has a division by 2 in it. So produces things of the form
x/2 + sqrt(y)/2
So when you look at the ring of integers of some quadratic field they will look like that.
Ah
I was so excited to start expositing stuff until I saw “Lie algebra”…. The nice guy finishes last once more…
le nice guy
When I have a Galois extension and I know what its Galois group is, how do I find the fixed fields of the subgroups of the Galois group in general?
Hey, I got an exercise to show that G x H in the category of abelian groups is also the coproduct. But I am kind of confused when I have to use that all groups are abelian and that G x H is the product. And so I am kind of stuck, anyone got some hints? I have tried to write out some compositions of homomorphisms and sums of elements, but non gave me insides in the problem.
So I think I want to show that mu has to be defined mu(a, b) = j_G(a) + j_H(b), but I don't get how.
You're probably not supposed to work purely abstractly with the product. Instead you hopefully already know that in this category G×H is exactly the group whose elements are pairs of one element from g with one element from h, and the operation is (g1,h1) + (g2,h2) = (g1+g2, h1+h2).
Right, operations are piecewise
So based on that, there only "reasonable" thing to try in order to make it a coproduct to is to define i_G(g) = (g,0) and i_H(h) = (0,h).
And since mu is a homomorphism I can somehow show mu is also piecewise?
Say for example I have the cyclotomic extension Q(z_13). I know the Galois group is (Z/13Z)*, which is cyclic of order 12 and I know that the subgroups are cyclic for every divisor of 12, but how do I do to determine the subfields given by the Galois correspondence?
And then the two commuting triangles fix exactly what µ has to do on elements of the form (g,0) and (0,h), and all other values of µ then follow from being a homomorphism.
And where would you use that they are abelian? Since G x H is not the coproduct in Grp, right?
Or is that to show that mu is a homomorphism?
The crucial point is that Z (that is, the codomain of µ, not the integers) is abelian.
If Z were not abelian, we would get into trouble with
µ(g,0)µ(0,h) = µ((g,0)+(0,h)) = µ((g,h)) = µ((0,h)+(g,0)) = µ(0,h)µ(g,0)
so the whole thing wouldn't produce a homomorphism if j_G and j_H map to elements that don't commute.
Ok thank you, I think I get it
The mapping of x to the avarage of g(x) for g in H defines a linear projection onto the fixed subfield by H.
So if you have an extension K(z) I'd start with the extension generated by the avarage of g(z), and see if that one has the right order. If not continue adjoining the avarage of g(z^2), and so on.
What do you mean by avarage?
Like add them together and divide by the number of them
The division is sort of unnecessary for your purposes. Just needed to make it into a linear projection.
Het Guys I have question How to find the number of morfisme c6 to S5. What is the intuition behind this and what to do
Well here there is a specific thing
Oh ok I see that makes sense
Note a morphism out of a cyclic group is determined by where you send a generator
That allows you to classify all maps from a cyclic group into any other group
Do you mean here by a generator the kernel
Or the generator of an element
generator of the cyclic group
well that is an element that can generate the whole group sure
but then how can we know all the morfisme
where can you send the generator?
I just looked at it again and now it is so obvious... Thank you 🙂
well i mean f(g) must have the same order that it has in C_6
or am i saying something wrong now
not really to be fair
well i know but can we say that f(g)f(g) = f(g^2)
you mean that
h=g
but 6 times
Well it gives you a restriction on where you can send g
For example, you can't send g to (12345)
how did you know that
if i may ask
How can I prove that if N is a normal s.g. where |N|=3 and isn't contained properly by the centralizer then there is a s.g. T of G s.t [G:T]=2 ?
What does the function f:F-> F given by x|->x^p-x look like when F is infinite of characteristic p?
Is it equivalently zero?
No
Why not?
Not even necessarily when F is finite
Consider for example F_p(t)
Well x^p - x has at most p roots
It's not zero with infinite characteristic
But x^p \cong x mod p no?
And if it’s characteristic p, isn’t that what we r doing
Like that is just saying this holds in F_p
Doesn't say anything about other fields
Like F_p(t) as I suggested
t and t^p are different
This is the field of rational functions?
Or any larger finite field
Over F_p
Yes
Well rational polynomials ig, not functions
Well there can be a difference ig but yes
We were over char p
Well t is not t^p essentially by definition
I mean the function, not the formal expression
I have tried constructing Z(G).N subgroup and tried to conclude something with second isomorphism and the order counting formula but couldn't proceed much
Idk what you mean
You're talking about whether x = x^p for all x in F_p(t) right
And i'm saying t is not t^p
I see
I confused the function f:F_p(t)->F_p(t) given by x^p-x with the elements of F
So if x = t
f(x) = t^p - t
Which is not the zero polynomial and thus not equivalent to the zero function
Gotcha
Yes
I'm stuck at showing independence of choice here
Assume $S$ is a multiplicative subset of domain $D$ without $0$, such that for each pair $(d,s) \in D \times S$, we have $sD \cap dS \neq \emptyset$. I need to show that if $s_1 d' = s_2 s', d_1 d' = d_2 s', s_1 d'' = s_2 s''$, then we have $d_1 d'' = d_2 s''$
THE TUBE
Which is the independence
it's a bit annoying because idk how to use cancellativity here from the domain
i don't know how to go about this
why is the product of 2 left ideals not nessecarily a left ideal
It should be - do you mean the naive product like { ij | i in I, j in J}
i think there they mean the naive product i wrote down
Hm
Because otherwise it seems it should be a left ideal just cause like
a ( sum_i x_i y_I) = sum_i (ax_i) y_i
ye
and clearly closed under addition
whats about this discution ?
@dull ginkgo horrible problem
so we have to prove that if bx=dy, ax=cy and bs=dt for some non-zero x,y,s,t, then as=ct
here is how to prove it: apply the right common multiple property for x and s, so there are u and v such that xu=sv=m
so bm=dyu and also bm=dtv
thus dyu=dtv, but we are in a domain, so this implies yu=tv
we have axu=cyu, which becomes asv=ctv, and since we are in a domain, this implies as=ct
I finally figured it out using basically the same technique as this
Holy balls that sucks
Thanks man,
Take $s'd^* = s''s^$, then we have $s_1d'd^ = s_2s'd^* = s_2s''s^* = s_1d''s^$, so $d'd^ = d''s^$ \ \
Thus $d_1d''s^ = d_1d'd^* = d_2s'd^* = d_2 s''s^* $ implying $d_1d'' = d_2s''$
THE TUBE
To add a little more information:
Your statement is true by Fermat's Little Theorem for x in Z/pZ = F_p i.e. the field with p elements, but not in any larger field.
In any field of characteristic p, the kernel of x^p - x is precisely F_p, because as a polynomial of degree p, it can have at most p roots, and F_p gives you p roots.
For example, in the field F_p^3 with p^3 elements, the kernel of x^p - x is F_p. (The kernel of x^p^3 - x is all of F_p^3 though.)
at the bottom, why would every element have at most order p^max(i,j)?
Every element has at most order lcm of p^i and p^j so what will be the lcm of p^i and p^j?
Let H be a normal subgroup of G. Then the product of left Cosets is left coset.
So let aH, bH be left Cosets so I want to prove that aHbH = abH.
So let ah_1bh_2 in aHbH. Then ah_1bh_2 = abh_3h_2 so aHbH is a subset of abH.
Now let abh in abH. Then abh = ah_3b so abH is a subset of aHbH.
Is it correct?
doesnt (x,y) have order lcm(order of x in Z_p^i, order of y in Z_p^j)?
how do we get that that's at most lcm(p^i, p^j) from that
Yes, but what will be the order of (1,1) ?
Well, what could the order of an element in Z/p^i be?
lcm(p^i, p^j), so thats where we get p^max(i,j) from, but how do we know some element doesnt have a greater order than that of (1,1)?
since it seems like we're trying to argue every element has order \leq order of (1,1) = p^max(i,j)
For any element in Z/p^i, it's order divides the order of 1
Yes
And this can be taken as an equivalent definition
i see but what is the intuition behind that
idk if there is something to see why that is the case
just wondering
Basically anything * 0 is still just 0 right
So if you do phi(gxg^-1)=phi(g)phi(x)phi(g)^-1 = phi(g)phi(g^-1) = 1 for x in the kernel
Yeah that was just intuition
i see
Like 0 + a - a is still 0
that is true
This would be for abelian groups where 0 is your neutral element
i see make sense
yes can someone check if the way that i determine the number of morphisms from C_6 to S_5 good is
i used your method
but not so sure if i used it good
and continued that way
Not really sure what you've written here, but the main idea is that any map
f : Z/6 -> G
is uniquely determined by where 1 is mapped, because if f(1) = g, then f(n) = g^n.
So such maps are exactly described by elements g with g^6 = 1.
So you should try to count the elements in S5 with order dividing 6.
You might start by counting the elements with order exactly 6 (there should be ||20||)
is this actually true? Translated poorly from Soviet article that gave no proof.
trying a proof by induction and can't even figure out a base case
Seems like you cannot use induction if i goes infinitely.
why not? I suspect it's possible to show that for fixed i, {x_i x_m}_m has finite support
Hmm
still struggling on that much though 
What do you mean by support here?
set of j with nonzero coefficient in the terms
Well, if x_i x_m = 2x_{min(n, m)} like the lemma claims, then it cannot have finite support.
no fix i, then the support is 1, 2, ...., i as we range through m
x_i x_{i+1} = 2x_i.
yes, fix i, and the support is bounded by i
like S_i = {j | x_ix_m has nonzero x_j coeff for some m} is the set {1, ..., i}
but the functional hopefully lets us prove S_i is bounded to start an inductive argument
Hmm, nonzero coeff?
Yeah I don't think that works, because you might have relations between x_i's.
wym, if we assume the lemma, you understand the bound is i? the relations include that f annihilates x_n(x_m - x_m') whenever m and m' are both > n
How will you define the coefficient when like
You can have c_1 x_i1 + .. + c_k x_ik = 0
Then, for any element of R, you can say it has nonzero x_{ij} coefficient.
Ok I see what you mean now, in my wording it is not assumed that R is freely generated by the x_i

