#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 226 of 1
they're just saying what I said
I think, at least in my mind, the key thing is this:
VANDERMONDE
How
So, is the fact that we have a polynomial ring actually important besides being a PID? I think not.
I guess so
nope?
Ok fine I’ll make an actual observation
Since it’s over a PID you can put it in smith normal form, which makes the eigenvalues obvious
Wtf is smith normal form
That’s my one mildly productive contribution for the year done
put what in smith normal form?
Oh it's just the normal form you get like a scalar matrix block
also yeah what ca you put in snf
we're trying to find a matrix
(other direction is easier)
Here's an idea:
Consider instead the element x = (p1, ..., pn) of R^n and the submodule M it generates. Now R^n / M is torsionfree, since for any element y in R^n, if ry = sx, then the gcd of the elements in ry equals s. So s is a multiple of r, hence y = (s/r)x.
Thus R^n/M is free, thus R^n = M (+) R^n-1.
Then there is an isomorphism R^n -> M (+) R^n-1 = R^n which we can think of as a matrix whose first column is x.
Since this is invertible, the determinant is in F. Rescaling one column we may assume the determinant is 1. Transposing the matrix gives the desired result.
Oh, so you're just supposed to do some horrible calculations?
I suppose not
Or I guess there might be a clever trick to construct a matrix
It's just a problem book
Maybe
But math is also for not so clever people I believe
So I will learn modules
And get back to this
Thanks for the solution
Oh i think i may have an idea
Consider the set of all determinants of matrices whose first row is (p_1,...,p_n). This is an ideal containing p_1,...,p_n and thus 1 right?
Wait no it's not clear
Is it obvious that it is an ideal?
The main problem is addition lol
Rippies
Hmm
Okay, I'm tempted to say the following works - i'll write it out for n=3
Suppose we have $(p_1,p_2,p_3)$ = 1. Write $(p_1,p_2)=(p)$ where $(p,p_3) = (1)$. Then if $p = f_1 p_1 + f_2 p_2$, the matrix $A = \begin{pmatrix} p_1 & p_2 \ -f_2 & f_1 \end{pmatrix}$ has determinant $p$. If $1 = pa + p_3 b$ I think the matrix $\begin{pmatrix} p_1 & p_2 & p_3 \ -f_2 & f_1 & 0 \ \pm b & 0 & a \end{pmatrix}$ ought to be as desired
Süßkartoffel
what problem book is it?
So a sort of inductive approach with block matrices
Eh okay doesn't quite work
Gr
Well this has nerd sniped me lol
Essentially just the proof that torsion-free => free over a PID, right?
I guess. But existence of Smith normal form is not that bad
Hmm, a more linear algebray idea:
Let w1 be the vector (p1, ..., pn) and v1 = (a1, ..., an) a vector such that w1v1 = 1.
Let K be the field of fractions of R, and consider the orthogonal complement of w1 in K^n. Pick a vector v2 in the orthogonal complement and rescale such that v2 is in R^n and gcd of coefficients is 1.
Pick w2 in R^n such that w2v2 = 1. Then w2v1 = r for some r. Replace w2 by w2 - rw1. Notice w2v1 = 0 and w2v2 = 1.
Pick v3 in the orthogonal complement of w1 and w2, and rescale as before. Pick w3, so that w3v3 = 1. w3v1 = r, w3v2 = s, replace w3 by w3 - rw1 - sw2.
Continuing you construct the matrix with rows wi and one with columns vj, that multiply together to the identity. Since both matrices have coefficients in R, the determinant is a unit in R, hence in F. Rescaling one row gives the desired result.
It's like grahm Schmidt lol
Ok cool thanks
Berkeley problems in maths
@still dew I found this proof by induction: https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/1833917/if-gcd-a-1-ldots-a-n-1-then-theres-a-matrix-in-sl-n-mathbbz-with-fi
it's for integers, but that's not an issue; it works over any PID
can somone explain this part where they say repeated use of the equation [y^2] = [xz] and conclude that [f] = [g(x,z) + yh(x,z)]?
Suppose I was just thinking about the ring K[x, y, z]. I'll view this as K[x, z][y], so elements of this ring are polynomials in y whose coefficients are polynomials in x and z with coefficients in K. That is, an element of degree 2 looks like f = g_0(x, z) + y g_1(x, z) + y^2 g_2(x, z) where the g_i are in K[x, z].
Now we have this same way of thinking in the quotient K[x, y, z] / (xz - y^2), but now we have the identification xz = y^2. Thus, in the above expression, we can rewrite f = g_0(x, z) + y g_1(x, z) + (xz) g_2(x, z) = h_0(x, z) + y g_1(x, z) where h_0 is a new polynomial in K[x, z], namely h_0 = g_0 + xz g_1.
Basically just do that repeatedly. So if I see a term of the form g(x, z) y^{2n}, rewrite it as g(x, z) (xz)^n, which is absorbed into the degree 0 term. If I see a term of the form g(x, z) y^{2n + 1}, rewrite it as g(x, z) (xz)^n y, which goes into the coefficient of the degree 1 term
Thanks for this
Can I get a hint on this?
Suppose M is an module over a Noetherian ring and that f : M to M is a surjective module homomorphism. Show that f is also injective.
I'm trying to get some contradiction by looking at some non-zero c for which f(c) = 0, and getting the existence of d such that f(d) = c, and so on. But I'm not sure how to use the Noetherian condition
Hi, is it true that if I have an integral domain A with field of fractions K, then the field of fractions of its normalization is also K?
what is normalization?
integral closure in its field of fractions
i don't think it's true but i can't come up with anything
The integral closure of A is a ring containing A and contained in Frac(A). It is immediate that its field of fractions is also Frac(A).
The kernel of f is a submodule of M.
Now, think about ||the kernel of f^n||
Also, I think you mean that M is a Noetherian module, not module over Noetherian ring. Because as stated it's not true
hint: what's (x+y)⊗(x+y)?
can you really do that with tensors?
x⊗y + y⊗x = (x+y)⊗(x+y)?
arent they completely different things
Just making sure you understand: what you wrote here isn’t true; make sure you distribute and really understand det’s hint
I forgot to mention that M is finitely-generated, oops
But thanks for the hint - I think I've got it 🙂
You didn't — a Noetherian module must be finitely generated.
(earlier the ring was assumed to be noe, not the module >.<)
A finitely generated module over a Noetherian ring is indeed Noetherian though
But worth noting that the same proof works for any Noetherian module
Also, interestingly, it's true if you just assume M to be finitely generated, but then the proof is quite a bit harder.
At least if it's over a commutative ring, not sure if it holds in the noncommutative case....
Oops 💀
That a finitely generated module over a Noetherian ring is Noetherian?
It holds for the same reason — if R is Noetherian, R^n is as an extension of R^{n-1} by R (induction), then M is as a quotient of an R^n.
jagr prolly meant the original question. f : M --> M epi, M f.g. / comm ring A then f also mono.
since the standard proof of that requires nakayama
in fact you can check that Sym^2 is exactly the symmetric things
like there's an action of C_2 on V (x) V which swaps factors and Sym^2 is the stuff which is fixed under that
yesyes
x(x)y + y(x)x is bilinear, and let it be a function f(x,y)
now f(x,y)=f(y,x) so it is symmetric
good question
It is indeed not true in the noncommutative case. Just let A be a ring with an element x such that x has a left inverse, but no right inverse.
Then if you take A = M, then multiplication by x on the right is surjective, but not injective.
Nice
Classic example being endomorphisms of uh k^{\mathbf N} and the left shift operator x
or Q[x] and d/dx, ∫
Is that Noetherian though?
No, that's the point
If the ring was Noetherian then any finitely generated module would be Noetherian as well
If the module is Noetherian it doesn't matter if the ring is commutative or not
Oh yeah maybe that was silly of me lol not quite an example for what you want
Well, it's an example for what I wanted.
why is everybody so confoosed 
Probably people got too much blood to their head, when trying to read crysis' name
Confuwused 
what does it mean for an element a \in M to be annihilated by I^k? Does it mean that for all i in I^k we have ia = 0?
yes
thanks
Annihilation of the wicked
is this subring being fixed pointwise (i.e dxd^-1 = x) or is it being fixed set-wise (dSd^-1 = S)?
The former is trivial, as dxd^-1 = x => dx = xd for all d in D so S is a subset of Z(D), else it must be all of D
It is the latter
if I can show that any polynomial of degree n with real coefficient can be factored into product of linear or quadratic polynomials, can I argue that all quadratic polynomial as factors must have either one real and one complex or two complex roots?
Good luck finding a quadratic with one real root and one complex root
it is not
If a complex number is a root of a polynomial with real coefficients, then so is it's complex conjugate
OK, i got it
Then my argument to say because all quadratic polynomials factors must have two complex roots, and it shows that all roots of polynomial of degree n with real coefficient must be in the field of complex numbers right?
x^2 - 1 has a real root 1 and a complex root -1
:)
x²-ix
Prove that any non-constant polynomial p(z) with real
coefficients can be factored into a product of linear and quadratic polynomials, each with real coefficients. my solution is to suppose base case n=1 or 2, and suppose n=k is true. Then when degree is n=k+1, and suppose contradiction that there exist a factor with degree larger than 3, but the question is how can I argue that a polynomial with degree k+1 must have at least one linear factor or quadratic factor??
use that C is algebraically closed
then read this
I think I can not use it at this time, here is the original question
hmm if k+1 is odd then its easy
what all are you allowed to use?
Eh you kinda have to assume C is algebraically closed to do this lol
if q is any polynomial in C[x], then q * bar(q) is in R[x]. and since quadratic formula is a thing, if you proved (a) that would imply C is algebraically closed.
<
Kinda funny how like, C being algebraically closed was smth we implicitly assumed on faith in high school
Like I wonder if, in a similar vein, anyone has ever asked a teacher why sqrt(2) exists
Because imo it's a good question lol
so (a) is more or less equivalent to C being algebraically closed. there are many proofs of this, using topology, galois theory, complex analysis. idk any that just uses induction
the galois theoretic proof is beautiful
that's det's favorite too 
topological one is my least favourite ish
In the sense that the proof is sort of easy to visualise but slightly tedious to write down iirc
galois theory of covering spaces :giggwe:
i wonder if we can actually translate the proofs
so part a is equivalent to prove that C is algebraically closed?
yep
i am considering if C algebraically closed means we can factor exactly n roots for polynomials of degree n
yee
Hence we can not reason that C algebracially closed here right?
since these two are same thm
yea if you used that, (b) would look stupid
i won't say it's any more tedious than the galois theory proof
<
if f(z) is never 0, then g(z) = f(z)/|f(z)| makes sense.
for tiny values of z, g hovers around g(0)
while for large values of z, g should make n loops
more precisely, h(z, t) = g(zt) from S^1 x [0, 1] --> S^1 is an uwu homotopy. similarly h'(z, t) = g(z/t) is also an uwu homotopy (it makes sense at t = 0 as well).
so constant g(0) is homotopic to (-)^n : S^1 --> S^1
<
how does this follow from Hilbert's Nullstellensatz
What is your form of the Nullstellensatz
There are some forms in which is part of the statement
Lol
Also feel free to ask about such things in advanced algebra (or even alg geo if it's towards varieties)
ka fieldKan algebraically closed extension ofk- For any ideal of polynomials
Jink[X1, ..., Xn], one has I(V(J)) = radical(J)
Unfortunately the nullstellensatz is essentially a name for a family of theorems
Ah, okay.
And are you asking specifically about the last line?
Or everything
everything
For the first bit, it's easy to see that I(P) contains (X1 - a_1,... ) and that the latter is maximal since the quotient is just K again. So that is the first bit.
For the last bit about maximal ideals: this does follow from the characterisation you have if you upgrade it slightly to saying there's a correspondence between radical ideals of K[x1,...,xn]. and algebraic subvarieties of K^n. A maximal ideal corresponds to a minimal (non-empty) subvariety, which is necessarily just a point, and from the start you know the ideal corresponding to a point is of that form
For the second bit about the radical, well you can view that as a consequence of this correspondence in a similar way (any algebraic variety is a union of its points.)
You can also view it as saying that / as a consequence of the fact that k[x1,...,xn] is a Jacobson ring - that is, every prime ideal is the intersection of the maximal ideals which contain it. Since the radical of I is the intersection of all primes p containing I, and each such p is the intersection of the maximals containing it, in fact I is the intersection of the maximals containing it. And the third part characterises those maximal ideals
Sorry this is a lot of text, but I hope it's helpful and feel free to ask more!
Knowing about the correspondence between alg sets and ideals is super useful, and the nullstellensatz is the hard bit of this correspondence (everything else is much easier)
Assume $x^n = y^m = 0$, then $(x + y)^{nm} = \sum_{k = 0}^{nm}{\binom{mn}{k}x^{nm - k}y^{k}} = \sum_{k = 0}^{m - 1}{\binom{mn}{k}x^{nm - k}y^{k}} = 0$
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nm - k > nm - (m) > n(m-1) > n if m > 2
That indeed gets you sums of nilpotent are nilpotent (w/ commuting)
I am reading up on the correspondence between varieties and radical answer, thanks for the answer @south patrol
i'll compress a lil what potato said.
in general if X is any algebraic set, then I(X) = functions vanishing on X = {f such that f(p) = 0 for every p in X} = {f such that f in I(p) for every p in X} = intersection of I(p) for p in X.
so I(V(J)) = intersection of (x_1 - p_1, ...) over p in V(J) = radical(J)
and for the last part, if J is a maximal ideal, then radical(J) = J is a proper ideal. so since this is an intersection of I(p) for p in V(J), there should be at least one such p, else the empty intersection wouldn't give a proper ideal. This means J is contained in I(p) = (x_1 - p_1, ...) and by maximality, we get J = I(p) = (x_1 - p_1, ...)
Assume [x] in R/N is nilpotent, then for some n: forall r in [x] r^n = 0 (mod Nil(R)) implying r^n is in Nil(R), which implies (r^n)^m = 0 by definition, so r^nm = 0 thus r is in Nil(R)
thus [x] = 0
Np
Yes, though saying for all r in [x] is a little unnecessary given that you notation implicitly picks a representative
wait wow that all made sense
I am going to generalize this a bit. Assume z is in Z(U), and H is the subset of units x such that x = z (mod I)
x = z (mod I) => x - z is in I => u(x - z)u^-1 = uxu^-1 - z is in I => uxu^-1 = z (mod I) => uxu^-1 is in H. Thus H is normal in the group of units under multiplication
so is the correspondence between subvarieties of K^n and radical ideals just extra stuff?
@south patrol does this sound right?
Wdym?
Sure yes nice
Idk everything that det said made sense and didnt mention any correspondence
Well he is using the correspondence implicitly / proving parts of it
The correspondence is basically the point of the nullstellensatz and gives the results you mentioned a natural interpretation

can I use the finite-rank crap of M_n(R)
if $e(n,m)$ is the matrix with a $1$ at $(n,m)$ and $0$ elsewhere, i'm pretty sure $e(m,m)Me(n,n) = M_{n,m}e(n,m)$
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$e(a,b)e(c,d) = \delta_{b,c}e(a,d)$ so $M = \sum_{n = 1}^{N}\sum_{m = 1}^{N}{M_{n,m} e(n,m)}$ \\
$e(k,k)M = e(k,k) \sum_{n = 1}^{N}\sum_{m = 1}^{N}{M_{n,m} e(n,m)} = \sum_{n = 1}^{N}\sum_{m = 1}^{N}{M_{n,m} e(k,k)e(n,m)} = \sum_{n = 1}^{N}{M_{n,k}e(k,m)}$ \\
$e(k,k)Me(h,h) = \sum_{n = 1}^{N}{M_{n,k}e(k,m)e(h,h)} = M_{h,k}e(k,h)$
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Why do people write n before m?
arbitrary choice in this case as long as it's consistent
usually when I see n written before m, I have to swap them in my head
Every I embeds into an ideal I via the constant-diagonal map
but idk how to go about this problem
"number" and then "hey what's another letter that's like n but different..."
If R is a ring, R embeds straight into K = M^n(R) via the constant-diagonal matrix map
so for now I'm literally just considering R to be in M^n(R) for my sanity
actually gonna need to ponder how I'd do this formally
Poor education.
||/s||
But yes lol I often go back and change n to m later so i can use n after
Oof, interesting
If I can coerce some kind of uniqueness out of this it would be nice
some thoughts: consider an ideal J of M_n(R) and let E be the set of entries of all the matrices in J
playing around with diagonal matrices, we conclude that <E>⊆E, so E=<E>
so J⊆M_n(<E>)
M_n(R) is a finitely generated module/algebra over R generated by the aforementioned all-but-one matricies, so xe(n,m) = ye(n,m) for x,y in R <=> x = y. If M is in J, then M_{m,n}e(m,n) is in J. Thus M_{n,m} is in E, but also in the image of E under the diagonal-matrix map back into itself
I think considering it as End_R (R^n) would make it simpler
unfortunately we're not at modules yet
Since it is more closely related with its algebra structure
I don't want to jump too far ahead, even though yes, it would be easier
and the fact that the double-indicies are reverse references the idea of the transpose
I mean, you can still define R-linear maps R^n -> R^n
Dunno if this would be using module facts
that's a lot of work for a single problem
I really don't feel like going through all of that
Ah. I thought dealing with e_ij would be of bigger hassle
i mean that's how jacobson gives it
Ouch
Oh, you solved it
Can anybody visualize anything when it comes to algebraic groups? Because, for me, if the proofs doesn't flow into my mind, I'm going to be stuck for a while
Actually I think it just flat out comes from it being a finitely-generated module
Hm I don't think it is obvious
It's obvious from the definition
E.g. Z/2Z has less ideals than Z
just every way I try to approach it feels redundant via the definition as the "ideal of matricies with components in J"
does this prove the claim? the fact that M_{n,m} is in E follows from the definition of E
we need the reversed inclusion
every way I try to do the reverse inclusion I run into this problem
it's not redundant
Every element in J is a unique sum over the scaled "basis matricies"
because M_n(I) means all the matrices with entries in I
but when I defined that set E, we only knew that J contains matrices with elements in E, but not necessarily all such matrices
the hard part is the reversed inclusion
It may be easier to start with an ideal of R, embed it into M^n(R) and consider the generated ideal
I think it follows from like
E e_{ij} is included in J
This ideal BY DEFINITION is M_2(I)
...wait
unless I phrase it very particularly
You still need to show the surjectivity
a matrix in M^n(R) is an element of M^n(I) if e(n,n)Me(m,m) = xe(n,m) for some element x of I for each n and m
what exactly is E e_{ij}?
matrix where all entries are 0 except for a 1 at double index i,j
Multiplied by ideal E (by E e(i, j) I mean)
I think the universal-multiplicative-closure of ideals in particular here is super important with that identity
Versus other finitely generated modules as an algebra
@cobalt heath but do we really know that that set is included in J?
By the kind of manipulation given here @dire siren
You can kind of "extract" certain coordinate of the matrix and move it to desired location
yeah, but to what matrix you apply these manipulations?
Of course, this only holds for both-sided ideals, but I think left ideals would be more involved anyway
we don't really know how J looks like
Some c \in E should appear somewhere in some matrix in J
Then the manipulation reveals the generators of J
M_n,m e(m,n) over all M in our ideal serve as an additive generating set over J
Yeah
..wait that m, n is switched
I'm chosing it to go n-m-m-n specifically
just due to the identity I showed
I’m just trying to formalize it
Next chapter is modules over PIDs
Ohh, that's great
Sorta cheating with this problem because I know a priori some module stuff and I’m using module theoretic ideas
While the textbook assumes you don’t
I think it might be foreshadowing for modules
Sorta
Giving ideas about how modules would go
I see it now, thanks
I can barely think, it's 3 AM here
Ah sorry, I innately assume everyone lives in the same timezone
I am usually in worse state at 3am..
Let me be formal with that problem.
M^n(R) admits a basis e(n,m) of which generates it as a unital associative R-algebra. It also has the identity that e(a,b)e(c,d) is 0 unless b = c, where it’s e(a,d). It also admits an isomorphism from R to it’s center
Thus let’s say we have an ideal J of M^n(R). from the above identity, e(n,n)Je(m,m) is a subset of Z(M^n(R))e(n,m) ~ Re(n,m) can be identified with a subset of R by bijection. The intersection of the image of all the e(n,n)Je(m,m) is an ideal of R because of the algebra-center structure.
This image is an ideal of R because Z(M^n(R)) ~= R, so it can be embedded back into R, and can be expanded through generation. It turns out this new ideal is the original J
in other words, $e(n,n)M^n(I)e(m,m) = Ie(n,m)$
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It has to do with the whole basis of the algebra shit and R being isomorphically it’s center AND the ring that the algebra is defined over
Which might actually classify matrix rings in retrospect alternatively
R isn't center tho, is it
iso to the center
The subring of diagonal matrices
What if R is not commutative
Oh shit, good point
Ofc noncommutative rings also doesn't exist but /s
Proof still works, it just has to do with the embedding of R into M^n(R)
@cobalt heath I had the horrid realization that M^n(R) is some god awful semigroup ring R[K] where K is the semigroup where e(n,m)e(k,h) = \delta_{m,k}e(n,h) with an annihilator 0
Wh
I’m not wrong
By semisimplicity, I mean specific properties of modules
But that's.. interesting
You just ignore the annihilator in the semigroup ring
I’m still thinking of a way to formalize that goddamn exercise but it has to do with how you define the matrix ring in the first place
That semigroup ring def might literally be the most formal way to put it without calling it an endo ring explicitly
Gotta speedrun to modules then
I have some stuff left in this chapter to do, it’s also a big chapter
Hey everyone, I have this question: $\$If $H$ is a subgroup of index $2$ in a group $G$, and $g \in G$ has odd order, then $g \in H.$\\
What I've done to solve it is do it by contradiction and I'll try to summarize briefly what I did:\\
Suppose that $|G:H| = 2$ and g is odd and $g \in G - H\$
Then G/H = {gH, H}, thus $g \in gH$, also $g^2 \in gH\$
So for some $h \in H$, $g^2 = gh$, implying that $g = h$, so $\Rightarrow!\Leftarrow\\$
However, at no point during the proof did I use the fact that g is odd, so what have I done wrong because obviously this can't be true. I am by no means saying that this is the best or even correct way to solve this, just saying what I've tried.
theaveragejoe6029
Why is g^2 in gH
I think the average joe thought that gH is a subgroup
Need sanity check
"same process" is just first iso theorem
but isn't this impossible? Z^3 / <n, n, n> is finite isn't it?
I may just be tired, friend texted me asking for help
but I'm not seeing it
nvm it isn't finite i'm dumb
I got it I'm dumb
well, if g is in gH, shouldn't g^2 be in gH. Also since if g^2 is not in H, it has to be in gH.?? right?
g doesn't have order 2 tho.
why is g^2 not in H
by assumption for contradiction g is not in H, since H is a subgroup. g^2 also cannot be in H. I think thats right?
I’m saying your reasoning on g^2 not in H is the issue
Because why can’t g^2 be in H
Consider 2Z as a subgroup of Z
It has index 2, in fact
1 is not in Z, but 2 (i.e. 1^2) is
Just because g isn’t in H doesn’t mean g^2 isn’t
oh okay. I get you, thanks.
Do you have any other suggestions on how to solve this question then?
Yes but I can’t just give the answer
What do you know about index 2 subgroups
(The thing being index 2 is important!)
honestly not much. I'll have a read of some theorems.
hopefully you wont hear from me again.
thank you
But yeah, if you know much about index 2 subgroups and what nice property they must have
There’s a nice way to handle every element in G based on in or out of H
Theres ur hint
Ah, just got it. Thank you 🙂
Let b and d be rational numbers such that d is not a square in Q. How do we prove that x^2 - bx + d is irreducible over Q(√d)[x]?
Do we somehow apply Eisenstein
Also additional information : d(b^2 -4d) is also not a square in Q
and x^4 + bx^2 + d is irreducible in Q[x]
[If we need more context, I'm actually trying to determine the galois group of the splitting field of x^4 + bx^2 + d over Q, when d and d(b^2 - 4d) both aren't squares in Q. I ask the question because that is something would work to establish that the galois group is indeed D_8, as per Kappe-Warren's Lemma]
Hint: quadratic formula
(Also minor terminological thing: I'd say irreducible over Q(sqrt(d)), or irreducible in Q(sqrt(d)][x], not irreducible over Q(sqrt(d))[x])
Oop, got it
Also wait lemme check
Hmm it's just sqrt(b^2 - 4d)
Now we do know that both d and d(b^2 -4d) aren't squares in Q
What if b^2 - 4d IS a square
I guess it's worth noting that both of these additional informations are necessary
And that also in Q(√d)
You can use these to prove that b^2 - 4d is not a square in Q(sqrtd)
hmmm...
b^2 - 4d = (b - 2√d)(b + 2√d) in Q(√d)
Those can't be in Q because d isn't a square
Of course both of these factors cannot be the same because otherwise d is 0 and it means d is a square in Q
So if this needs to be a square both these two need to be sqaures aswell
It's possible for the product of two non-squares to be a square
Maybe try to instead think about what squares in Q(sqrtd) looks like
(x + y√d)^2 = x^2 + y^2d + 2xy√d
It must be of this form right
Oh.
2xy must be zero for it, and that means either x or y is 0
Yeah, now you're onto something
One of x and y is zero
Because b^2 -4d is definitely rational
so if y is zero
Actually no.
I'm not sure what to do from there
I might be missing something very trivial it seems
Because if one of x and y is zero, whole thing boils down to b^2 - 4d being a square in Q
How to know about that
Oh wait
b^2 - 4d = x^2 => b^2 - x^2 = 4d => (b - x)(b + x) = 4d
Oh fuck these aren't integers...
Is there any smart way to count subgroups of size p^k of (Zp)^n?
I was thinking counting linear subspaces of (Zp)^n as a Zp-v. space (as subgroups of (Zp)^n are subspaces of (Zp)^n and viceversa)
Maybe one can make this a question about counting some set of matrices
Which should be easier
Yes exactly this
||assuming by Zp you mean the field w p elements||
Yes
But how would you do that?
Because I don't know how I would count that
So you have the two cases, either x is 0 or y is 0.
If x is 0, then y^2d = b^2 - 4d, see how this contradicts your first but of information? Hint: ||multiply both sides by d||
If y is 0, then b^2 - 4d is a square in Q, see how this contradicts your second piece of information? Hint: ||How does x^4 + bx + d factor?||
One thing you could do is start by counting the number of (ordered) sets of k linearly independent vectors. Think about how you might pick such a set one vector at a time.
Then do a similar calculation to determine how much you've overcounted
Oh ok so for the first one it would be something like:
(p^n-1)(p^n-p)...(p^n-p^(k-1)).
And each k-dimensional individual subspace should have
(p^k-1)(p^k-p)...(p^k-p^(k-1))
ordered bases.
So when counting linearly independent ordered sets of size k we are counting each k-dimensional space
(p^k-1)(p^k-p)...(p^k-p^(k-1))
times. So it would be the quotient of these two products, right?
prove that in Z[sqrt(-5)] the number 2 - sqrt(-5) is irreducible
use the norm
Thanks for your help (:
@dire siren that problem from last night, I’m pretty sure it can be proved through the following lemma:
If $I$ is an ideal of $R$, then $M^N(I)= \sum_{m = 0}^{N}\sum_{n = 0}^{N}{Ie_{n,m}}$ where $e_{n,m}$ are the matrices that are all 0 except for being 1 at double index $(n,m)$
Request a new nickname
It’s not too hard to prove that fact and the correspondence that follows
yes, after proving that E * e_{i,j} is included in J, we are done, because they generate M_n(<E>)
Yep
What’s a polynomial ring?
A ring consisting of polynomials 🤓
But more seriously, do you know what a polynomial is?
Yes, but is a polynomial ring just a ring that consists of polynomials?
Basically.
The polynomial ring in n variables R[x1, ..., xn] is the ring consisting of all polynomials in n variables with coefficients in R.
When people say a polynomial ring, they usually mean the polynomial ring in some number of variables over some commutative ring.
So I guess it would be more appropriate to say it's the ring of all polynomials (in a certain number of variables / with certain coefficients)
Yeah I actually solved the x = 0 part a few minutes ago just now, but I'm still confused on y = 0 part
OHHH WAIT
Let y = x^2.
Then x^4 + bx^2 + d = y^2 +by+d
Bruhhhh...
If that's irreducible this can't even work out because this quadratic factors like
(y -b/2 - sqrt(b^2 - 4d)/2) (y -b/2 + sqrt(b^2 - 4d)/2)
lol
If √b^2 - 4d is a square we ded
Btw, there's another problem. If we do assume that d(b^2 - 4d) is actually a square this time, does this change the Galois group?
(i mean if it doesn't then there's a problem with the question I'm trying to attempt)
anyone here familiar with Banach-Lie groups?
Nevermind, it takes similar arguments
Thanks a lot @rocky cloak @south patrol
What would be the idHom_R_(R,M) where R is a ring and M is an R-module group?
does anyone have an idea why this is true? L is nilpotent and some 2x2 matrix:
binomial theorem?
tried it but don't see the pattern
what is the (x) here? Like the hadamard product
tensorproduct
do you mean nxn matrix? rather than 2x2
yea it works too
Sure, then this looks like a basic induction
ok i don't know that this is true so i have to find this formula somehow
well you have the formula and can just prove it holds by induction
no like i don't know how to come up with that formula
Well you don't have to you already have the formula
now you just have to show the n->n+1 step
i don't want to prove that it is true
i want to find how you would come up with that formula
like what is the reasoning that this works
maybe it has something to do with binominal theorem
ect ect
Hom(R, M) is just equal to M
If L is a nilpotent 2x2 matrix, then L^2 = 0, so most terms in the right are 0....
Still doesn't seem quite right to me though....
Why though? That’s what I’m actually trying to prove that they’re equal
it is generalized for L^m=0
You have an isomorphism sending f to f(1) and inverse sending m to
r |-> rm
Where is this formula from?
It is from the solutions from Linear algebra class that I have
Question is:
Show that I⊗L - L⊗I is nilpotent if L is nilpotent, but that the reverse does not always hold
I is the identitymatrix, and L some linear function given by a matrix
I see, well I think there are some binomial coefficients missing. But either way you get that it's nilpotent
Does anybody know of a good syllabus/course outline/study guide using dummit and foote for a kind of generic qual/prelim style course?
I'm planning to study from it over the summer.
I'm mostly looking for decent suggested sections with exercises/hw to do from it.
What is the definition of sub-semigroup?
A subset closed under the binary operation.
a subobject in SemiGrp
In general a sub-X is usually a subset so that the inclusion is a homomorphism of Xs
In more general its a monomorphism
In even more general its an element of some distinguished class of monomorphisms (that is closed for composition maybe?)
often regular monomorphisms
giving this answer but unironically
Okay thank you
I've come across the following statement:
If a ring R is a domain and there is an additive group isomorphism f : R -> Z^n for some n then R is Noetherian
could anyone explain why this is true? i dont think you can extend f to a ring homomorphism, so i'm not sure if you can say e.g. f(ideal in R) is an ideal in Z^n as a ring
Z^n is a noetherian Z-module, and any ideal of R maps to a sub(Z-)module of Z^n, so you get the ACC for free.
It's waaaaaay stronger than necessary tho
Why is domain specified there?
I guess a more general statement is that if M is an S-module which becomes noetherian after restricting scalars then it's already noetherian
domain seems irrelevant
$Let ( \tau = (1\ 2\ 3\ \ldots\ n) \in S_n ) and ( \sigma \in S_n ). Prove that ( \sigma\tau = \tau\sigma ) if and only if ( \sigma = \tau^i ) for some ( i \in \mathbb{Z} ) with ( 0 \leq i < n ).$
Mootje
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for more information.
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how to prove this ?
There's a general formula for sigma tau sigma^-1 you may know
for a cycle $ \tau = (a_1\ \ldots\ a_k) $ and a permutation $ \sigma $, we have $ \sigma \tau \sigma^{-1} = (\sigma\ a_1\ \ldots\ \sigma a_k) $
Basically note that like
Every element of {1,...n} is of the form σ(a) for some a in {1,...,n}
what is στσ^-1 applied to σ(a) ?
@winged void
Yee tr this
how to determine the factor ring $\mathbb{Z}[i] /<1-i>$?
Dubs
why is your text orange
write out an explicit isomorphism to Z
anyways you’ll do it by finding a ring hom with kernel (1-i)
or that
you should know (and if you didn’t now you do) that kernels of ring homomorphisms are ideals and an analogous version of the first isomorphism theorem for groups also holds for rings
also why did you choose to make your text orange
i haven't gone till there
this chapter just introduces ideals and factor ring
@narrow wagon in the quotient ring you have 1=i
so any a+bi becomes a+b
and 2=(1-i)(1+i)=0, so the ring only contains 0 and 1
this can also be seen using the norm, but I guess this is not a suitable solution given that you just started with ideals: the fact that N(1-i)=2 tells us that the ring has only two elements
you mean 1+ I = i + I?
yes
2=(1-i)(1+i)=0, so the ring only contains 0 and 1
how does this conclude
ring has only 2 elements
so we proved that any element can be represented by an integer
and because 2=0 it follows that any even number is represented by 0, and any odd number is represented by 1
so it's isomorphic to Z_2?
yes
so in general if $\mathbb{Z}[i] /<a-i>$
Dubs
this is isomorphic to Z_{a^2+1}?
as coset representative a and i are same
a^2=-1 ie a^2+1=0
well, yes, but the proof is not that straightforward in this case
if k=0 in a ring we cannot necessarily conclude that the ring is isomorphic to Z_k
@narrow wagon basically to make it work, we should also ensure that the classes 0,1,2,...,a^2 are all distinct
that was actually also the case for the initial ring: the classes of 0 and 1 are distinct
for a=1 it's clear, but for arbitrary a is not that clear
To be fair like Z[i] = Z[a-i]
So isnt this always Z
Or am I missing smth lol
Oh I'm thinking of i as a sumbol
But here it is actually a qrt of -1
I guess it's still doable without morphisms
if k and l are in the same class, then k-l=(a-i)(x+yi) for some integers x,y
this is k-l=ax+y+(ay-x)i, so ay-x=0 and ax+y=k-l, so k-l=y(a^2+1)
but given the range of k and l, we must have k=l
anyway, the general result is that for a and b coprime we have Z[i]/<a+bi> ~ Z/(a^2+b^2)Z
that's a very clean solution
I just tried to find some elementary approach given that the guy who asked said that he was just introduced to ideals and quotient rings
I have an assignment question where I need to describe all the homomorphisms from Z to Z_12, so my first thought was just phi(n)=kn where k is an integer between 1 and 12 inclusive, this mapping would map the generator of Z which is 1 to every possible element in Z_12, however, there are multiple ways to map 1 to lets say 2 for instance, 2*1, but also 2^1, the mapping phi(n)=2^n would still map 1 to 2 but other 3 would be mapped to 8 instead of 6, is this a different homomorphism or does it make sense to say the mappings are isomorphic to each other since the only thing that matters is the generator and phi(n)=kn are all the mappings up to isomorphism?
what kind of homomorphisms? group homomorphisms? ring homomorphisms? something else?
is phi(n)=2^n an homomorphism?
I guess not because it doesn't preserve the group operation
indeed it is not.
thanks
In ZF, is there a classification of dedekind-finitely generated abelian groups?
Hint, R/I is commutative but R not, and I don't want take I=R
What
Are you saying you want a noncommutative ring R so that you can quotient by an ideal I and get a commutative ideal?
Phrasing it as “hint” is odd
Yes
And I want an example such that a + I is nilpotent in R/I but not in R.
So if I take R= Z and I = 4Z.
If a = 2 then 2+4Z is nilpotent in R/I but not in R.
Is this correct?
And similarly I want an example such that a is zero divisor in R but not in R/I.
So if I take R=Z_6, I is ideal generated by 3( element of Z_6) and a =2 then a is zero divisor in Z_6 but not in R/I.
Is it correct?
What have you tried
Similarly I want an example such that R/I has 1 but R has not
I thought if I take it I = R then it will work
And R is non- commutative
Well that does work, since you map to the 1 ring
Well this also works with R/I, as do others, but yeah
But I am looking for another example
If you have R = R_1 x R_2, can also quotient out R_2
And how can I prove that R/I = R then I = (0) ?
Got it, thank you
I’m not sure that one is true even so
It's given that
All you need is a surjective ring homomorphism R -> (something commutative) right?
If I take R = Z × 2Z and take I = Z × {0}, then it will work
I am not sure mapping terms
Like I said up here
Yes
This is commutative though
We can replace it with M( Z) × M(2Z) , right?
2× 2 ?
Yes
So your ideal is {0} x M(2Z)
If you do that ideal in Z x M(2Z), it turns a non commutative into commutative too
Got it, thank you
I made a mistake here , I = {0} × 2Z
Yes
well i tried this but i did not really reach a specific solution
where i have power
im trying this --> way
If I take R= {0} then R is a field, right? Then R[X] is a field, right?
People often exclude the zero ring from being a field definitionally, but it's up to you. Indeed in this case, R[X] = R.
E.g. the statement "J is a maximal ideal of R iff R/J is a field" breaks if you allow the zero ring to be a field
Yes
Helo
Hello
Okay sorry yes
Do not worry
so yeah did you try uh what is στσ^-1 applied to σ(a)
I do not see it
Here is what I did
It's just (στσ^-1)(σ(a)) = σ(τ(a))
I'm not really sure what you're doing
How did you get that I do not get it
But how is that going to prove sigma = tau to the power of i
I'll get that in a sec
the point is you can work out what στσ^-1 is
Then see what happens when it is equal to τ
So στσ^-1 sends σ(a) to σ(τ(a))
If we use the convention that like addition is taken mod n, then uh
στσ^-1 sends σ(a) to σ(a+1)
i.e. it's the cycle(σ(1), ..., σ(n))
so now we're saying (σ(1),...,σ(n)) = (1,...,n)
The last step I do not see how mod n
Will apply that sigma (a) will be send to sigma(a+1)
Sure I agree about that but we did not use mod here
Right
We use composition
Or am I saying something false
But how sigma (a+1) will apply that sigma = tau to the power i from here
In p-adic integer ring, non-units have form a/b where gcd(a,b) =1 and a is divisible by p, right?
No, the p-adic integers include irrational units.
The nonunits are those divisible by p.
local ring uwu 
Yeah there are a few ways to think about this. But note that e.g. if we view the p-adics as the set of sequences (a_i) where a_i is in Z/p^i and the a_i are compatible under the projections Z/p^i -> Z/p^{i-1} then (a_i) is a unit iff all the a_i are units, iff none of the a_i are multiples of p
But p-adic integer ring defines as { a/b | gcd(a,b ) =1 p does not divide b and a and b are integers} so how irrationals include, may be I am talking about other definition
that's Z localized at (p). the completion of that ring is the p-adics.
That is not the p-adic integer ring.
These are the p-adic rationals.
confoosing terminology
i would call Q_p padic rationals
They are the rational elements of Z_p
<
Whereas Q_p is usually referred to simply as the p-adic numbers
So if I take this definition then the non-unit form is a/b and p divides a , right?
I think this is really fairly standard terminology but you'll have to forgive me if I'm wrong, det
oh det doesn't know ><
me can't figure out when the adjective is defining something new vs when it's restricting.
I wonder how terminology ended up being like this
I mean, it seems pretty reasonable.
You have Q_p and you call it p-adic numbers, because they're a new number system. Then you call [the closure of] it's ring of integers, the p-adic integers, makes sense.
The you split the p-adic integers into rational and irrational numbers, and call them p-adic rationals and p-adic irrationals.
Me when ostrowski’s theorem
i have just did what you have suggested
this is what you have suggested right ?
but then idk how to go further from here
so im not really sure how now
I’m pretty sure metrics on Q can be classified by the existence of a prime with n(p) < 1
Hi. Sorry if this is not suitable for this channel. Would anyone help me to confirm this statement? It seems to say any G < GL(n,R) as n×n matrices could be written in block diagonal form, but I cannot see how this is true (the last sentence where it states the standard representation of GL(n, R) on extrrior algebra can be written as direct sum...)
@cedar path this is a question for #advanced-algebra
This is just decomposition into irreducibles
Every matrix is can be written in block diagonal form by just having one nxn-block.
For some choices of G, there might be more blocks. Take G = {I} for a trivial example
My algebra is a bit rusty, but iirc reducible and decomposable are not the same thing?
I think the usage of the word is somewhat inconsistent.
But you're right that not every representation decomposes as a sum of simple representations
are these not complex representations
tbf there's nothing in the image that says that they are so fair enough
I don't see that it would matter
Only for finite/compact groups though
I'm leaving it there
Like for G = Z = [1, Z; 0, 1], the canonical 2-d representation is indecomposable, but not simple
the claim is that we can write it as a direct sum of irreducibles though, so now I'm confused
it's definitely not the case that every proper subgroup of GL(n,R) is compact
if it was just writing it as a sum of indecomposables then sure but that's not what it says
I forgot to mention here G is assumed to be Lie group
Well Z is a lie group, but maybe 0-dimensional groups are out
ah it's only for the exterior powers ok
jagr does the character decomposition for \lambda^k V hold for these reps if we replace the characters with just trace functions
I would guess so, but idk
if so then yeah good luck actually seeing the jordan decomposition
if you just think about it via schur functor nonsense then as long as V is finite dimensional nothing should go wrong
What book is this?
Riemannian Holomony Group and Calibrated Geometry by JD Lotay
@south patrol i found something but do not really understand it
what is here mod k suppose to mean
why like taking the reaminder of a_i+i / k
Hmm, I can't seem to find that book
Oh i didn't know Maschke is true for compact group. As holmony group are compact I think it would suffice for the purpose of this book. Thanks XD
The proof works the same way just with Haar measure used to average
Well in fact it is just a generalisation if you note the original proof uses the Haar measure on a finite group
to be fair/pedantic the colon doesn't necessarily indicate a definition but merely an introduced topic. It seems to me that local rings are one way of introducing tho. I agree that the notation is strange
maybe further context does show that they mean this to be a definition
I find it ironic how the so called "academics", when presented with ideas that differ from the mainstream, are always do quick to dismiss them and call them "bad". Its funny how despite academia being advertised as a place of inclusivity, knowledge and innovation, they still find a way to gatekeep opinions that don't suit the "norm". Academia has become an industry that sells fake knowledge and keeps away ideas that are too radical for their liking or political agenda. Perhaps the truth is that the brightest minds of our century are now not in the academia but independent thinkers. Ill let you reflect about this. Maybe if you try thinking for more than 5 seconds about it unlike your professors taught you to, youll find deeper meaning in the notation used by the book, and wont be so quick to judge a book by its cover next time.
Can't tell if this is a shitpost
everything carla says is a shitpost
This shallow comment just proves my point..
we're just 2 lost worms swimming in worm bowls..... year after year.
I'm not sure disliking what seems like intentionally misleading notation, should be seen as closed mindedness.
It's not like it's really differing ideas, it's just bad communication
The main point was that they called it the p-adic integers when that has a very well established meaning
This is the aame argument as used by religious dogmatics
Saying that is an "idea that differs from the mainstream" is overselling it lol
How lol
obvious troll is obvious
The truth is school ans university today doesnt teach you to think for yourself
They just want you to think fast
Lol
Thats why exams are timed
So I say smth is bad for using terminology at odds with everyone and now it feels like you are saying I never think for myself and shun open mindedness
Or have elements of that
Quick thinking is useful in the workplace
It's like if I told you I was a vegetarian that eat beef, you say that's not possible, and I reply: You're just closed minded about your definition of vegetarian.
Quick thinking => more production (even if defective) + less complaints => rich people benefit from capitalism (basically modern equivalent of slavery disguised as "you can choose what you want to do"
OK
In math everything has definitions. The book uses a different way. But the book says it. Its not like the books changes the definition when it suits it
stop trolling on the internet
There are many different worlds of mathematics other than the mainstream one
With other axioms
But this book isn't defining some new revolutionary ideas. It's just taking about normal things with confusing terminology.
I cannot find a single place online which uses p adic integers to mean anything else
Sometimes the most revolutionary ideas are the simplest ones tho
How is this going to be revolutionary lmfao
Carla what the fuck are you talking about
Bad terminology and notation for something standard is bad. Big shocker.
Let me rename force "pressure" and see how it revolutionises physics
Carla is delusional.*
* delusional I define to mean "a nice person who looks after their health and wellbeing"
Anyone in the mainstream who disagrees with this is being closed-minded about the definition of delusional.
Also yeah that all around is unorthodox
Hmm ig thatd be weird
I hope it is also clear that I do not genuinely believe the whole book should be tossed out because of this one oddity
I do
maybe youre right
i was thinking more about axioms
And while technically definitions can be seen as axioms
They also serve purpose as communication devices
I think it's important to tell beginners when their textbook uses terminology that alienates them from the rest of the mathematical community. This happens quite often, unfortunately.
That said, I do agree with much of what Carla has said
Np, sorry I got annoyed
Is there any way i can make it up for you?
You don't need to do anything, it's all good
Lol the random reaction coming in late made me chuckle
Happy valentines day, i dont rly care about april fools i was just saying random nonsense but if i say its april fools people will forgive me probably
Anyway
Is there a classification of dedekind-finitely generated abelian groups in ZF
you already asked this
But noone answered
that probably means nobody knows
😭
I'm curious. Any reason you're asking this besides general curiosity?
What other reasons can there be to ask something in math, if not for curiosity?
No, I mean, like does this come from something else you're interested in
i'm interested in how things work without choice. and i'm interested in classification theorems. there's a really simple classification of finitely generated abelian groups in ZFC. and countable abelian groups are too complicated to classify. so dedekind-finitely generated in ZF is a candidate for a middle ground.
altho its not really a middle ground cuz infinite dedekind-finite sets are incomparable to countable ones, but still, would be interesting to me to know if they have a simple classification or not
Well, I have no idea. But it's a little hard to imagine what such a classification would look like.
Like Dedekind-finite and finite being the same is compatible with ZF, so the classification would need to somehow invoice objects that don't really "exist" in ZFC. My intuition would say it's probably "harder" to classify dedekind finite groups than countable ones. But yeah, interesting question.
Hey chat I know some fun applications of CRT
But they're either number theory bs or linear independence of characters over domains
any other cool applications?
characters would never be linear independ- :cereal2:
Any commutative artinian ring is a product of local rings is a consequence
oh that's not immediate and kinda sick
Or you can prove Artin-Wedderburn with it
is it a good exercise or take a lot of work
I know artinian ring in a commutative setting is every descending sequence of ideals terminates
Well, I guess the key idea is really lifting idempotents modulo nilpotent ideals, but that would be a good exercise.
will try it in a bit
Maybe it's really only half of A-W, but you can use CRT to prove that if M is an artinian module, such that the intersection of maximal submodules is 0, then M is semisimple.
I think that would be a nice exercise using CRT
It is easy
once you know some basic facts about Artinian rings
i know none
fun time
Hi, I'm trying to prove that cosets are equivalent i.e. either equal or disjoint. I have taken a look at a few example groups and I can accept intuitively that this is a true statement at least with respect to those particular groups, however I can't quite prove it myself for arbitrary groups. Here's the outline of my proof:
For all groups G, subgroups H of G and elements g and g' in G, gH=g'H \/ the intersection of gH and g'H is empty
Proof by case analysis on whether g and g' are in H.
g in H /\ g' in H => gH=g'H=H by the definition of a group
g in H xor g' in H => gH and g'H are disjoint by noticing that either g or g' is not in H which means that gh or g'h will produce an element not in H, for all h in H
~(g in H \/ g' in H) => Further case analysis is needed on whether g=g' or not.
g=g') gH and g'H are clearly equal.
g≠g') This is the case I'm a bit stuck on since cosets are not necessarily subgroups so you can't rely on any group facts. I guess the fact that neither g nor g' are in H and them being unequal implies that for all h in H, gh≠g' and g'h≠g, right? Is that all I need to finish the proof?
Thanks
by idempotents I am assuming you are talking about the central idempotents from the quotient being iso to a direct product
Well, it's true for non-central idempotents too. But for a commutative ring all idempotents are central
i think this just flat out gives it away, sad face
if J is an ideal of artinian ring R, then J^n must stabilize
Well, it's still proving the fact that you can lift idempotents. Or that an artinian ring with no nontrivial idempotents is local.
brushes over bezout lemma
I know how to do the first part (number of basises, i.e. order of the group) but at a glance the second one eludes me a bit
I think this last case can be proven by contradiction, because e.g. if there exists an h such that gh=g' that means h = g^{-1}g' which contradicts the assumption that neither g nor g' are in H. correct?
@rocky cloak for the second part, I don't think I can do much with the determinant or similarity of matricies unforunately
However that does assert that (A^q - 1)A^2 = 0, so A is a zero divisor
Guess you can think about what the minimal polynomial of a non-invertible matrix could be
god
We haven't even TOUCHED Cayley-Hamilton
I can try to prove it for general rings
Cayley Hamilton isn't needed for stuff w min poly
Hmm, okay. So you want to do it without using any linear algebra?
Well basic stuff
that's an insane amount of work for a single problem
Lol idk what you want me to clarify
minimal poly?
What about it
You don't need Cayley Hamilton to work out stuff about the min poly of a non invertible matrix
Is my point
What's an insane amount of work?
doing a bunch of work proving the existence of minimal polynomial
That's very easy
However, M^n(Z/nZ) is finite
I haven't seen the proof for the existence of a minimal polynomial
I don't it would be much work, but if you really know nothing about minimal polynomials, then I guess you might aim for a different method
book hasn't covered anything about matrix rings besides like the basic algebraic definition and i don't know much about min polynomials of matricies, no
idk how he'd want it to be done
I seriously have no clue what to even try.
do you have eigenvalues
We haven't touched anything eigenvalue related
Literally the section on the matrix ring itself was like 3 pages
and barely covered determinants
so we haven't done eigenvalues, polynomial rings, etc.
didn't explain it as an endomorphism ring, no modules yet
idk how the FUCK he expects us to solve it
or I'm just a fucking idiot
uhhh
I'm guessing Linear algebra is assumed tbh
idfk
nah doesn't work (my idea at least, I'm pretty sure the decomposition is fine)
the +2 has to be something to do with the dimension
Well, it does say that it assumes you're already familiar with linear algebra
woops wrong ping
i feel stupid half the time here having to ask for help for questions from "Basic algebra"
@dull ginkgo if A is invertible, you are done because A^q=1 implies A^(q+2)=A^2
if A is not invertible, then det(A)=0, so A^2=tA, so a^q+2=t^qA^2
and t^q=1 pecause p-1 | q
t=tr(A)
I need to prove existence of minimal polynomial and what form it takes
@dull ginkgo I thought you wanted a proof without minimal polynomial
A^2 = tA
no need of minimal polynomial for that
that's Cayley Hamilton, is it not
it is, but you don't need it
i'm skipping this problem
just write the matrix as
a b
c d
with ad-bc=0 and compute A^2
But, so have you actually not taken any linear algebra before this?
I studied linear alg like 2-3 years ago and forgot a good amount of how to prove some of the stuff
and I don't really like using shit without understanding the mechanisms behind it
At least at the basic level
Alright, just checking
Well this one should be pretty doable by just directly computing
yeah you just multiply by an arbitary element and see what happens
arent triangular matrices closed under matrix multi
yes
I don't get this step:
A^2=tA, so A^q+2=t^qA^2
OH
thanks man
struggling a bit still trying to determine the ideals.
Clearly it's a subspace.
Basically subspaces $L$ of $\mathbb{Z}^3$ such that if $(a,b,c) \in L$, then $(ax, bx + cy, cz) \in L$
Maybe start with the principal ideals, then see how they sum together
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I could try but I'm hesitant because Z doesn't embed right into T
But I don't see why the proof of that one wouldn't work here still tbh
We're just... not including the basis matrix e(2,1)
The other three are still closed
Let $R$ be a unital ring, and let $M^N(R)$ be the matrix ring over $R$ generated as a finitely-generated module over the basis $e(n,m)$. \
For any subset $S$ of $M^N(R)$, define $S_{i,j} = {r \in R : \exists M \in S : M_{i,j} = r }$, then $S \subseteq \sum S_{i,j}e(i,j)$ \
Thus $J \subseteq \sum J_{i,j}e(i,j)$. However, for any matrix $m$, $e(a,b)me(c,d) = m_{b,c}e(a,d)$, thus $e(a,b)Je(c,d) = Je(a,d) \subseteq J$. However, this proves invariance of $J_{i,j}$, as $J_{b,c}e(x,y) = e(x,a)\left(e(a,b)Je(c,d)\right)e(d,y) \subseteq e(x,a)Je(d,y) = J_{a,d}e(x,y) \Rightarrow J_{b,c} \subseteq J_{a,d}$ and due to the universal quantification, the other direction $J_{a,d} \subseteq J_{b,c}$ holds, thus $J_{i,j} = I$ for some ideal $I$ of $R$. $J \subseteq \sum J_{i,j}e(i,j) = \sum Ie(i,j) = M^N(I)$, but each $J_{i,j}e(i,j)$ is contained in $J$ thus $M^N(I) \subseteq J$, implying $J = M^N(I)$
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the idea works here as well by neglecting the (1,2) entry
im kinda confused on this corollary, i understand using lagrange's theorem that the only divisors would be 1 and p so a subgroup would be the group itself, but why does that make G cyclic? maybe i forgot a lemma on cyclic groups but yea
pick an element other than the identity; what is its order?
tim
can it be smaller?
i dont know
you mentioned divisors of p
and the order of the element is a divisor of p
oh is that true
it follows from Lagrange
omg
right
i was being fumb
dumb
hold on
right yeah so the order of G must be p but i just dont understand why that makes G itself cyclic
you have an element of order p
call the element a
Suppose E=Q(sqrt(2), sqrt(3), sqrt(5)), then do you think Gal(E/Q)=8? Also, I write f(x)=(x^2-2)(x^2-3)(x^2-5), how will you find galois group of Gal(E/Q)?
First of all, I want to make sure if the degree of it is correct? second, I list sqrt(2), sqrt(3), sqrt(5), sqrt(6), sqrt(10), sqrt(15), sqrt(30) are all not in Q but in E, but have some difficulty to make sure that all groups can satisfy homomorphism.( except identity) and try to consider the case fixing sqrt(2), sqrt(3), sqrt(5) etc
use the tower law to find the degree
I find Q subset Q(sqrt(2) subset Q(sqrt(2), sqrt(3)) subset Q(sqrt(2), sqrt(3), sqrt(5))
and then I use [E:Q]=[E:Q(sqrt(2), sqrt(3))][Q(sqrt(2), sqrt(3)): Q(sqrt(2)][Q(sqrt(2):Q]
do you think degree is 8?
but the question is how can we find all Gal(E/Q)
list sqrt(2), sqrt(3), sqrt(5), sqrt(6), sqrt(10), sqrt(15), sqrt(30) are all not in Q but in E, but have some difficulty to make sure that all groups can satisfy homomorphism.( except identity) and try to consider the case fixing sqrt(2), sqrt(3), sqrt(5) etc
the obvious automorphisms swap sqrt(n) with -sqrt(n)
composing them together you get 8 different automorphisms
and I'm 99.9% sure you get GL(E/Q) = C_2^3
Anyone have any tips on how to show the first part: pi(x^2) = -I
So x^4 = 1 should kinda have x as looking like i, and y as j (if you see Q_8 as 1,i,j,k & negations)
At the very least, pi(x^2)^2 = I
& your conditions on y while being 2x2
Yeah really struggling with this part i dont see how that last relation with x and y helps at all but i think its the key
Well, if you had some other matrix which squares to I and is invertible
Maybe looking at that conjugation condition?
Yeah im thinking of using that x^2 should be in the center of the image
(I do not know a full solution offhand so maybe I’m just wacky)
centres are preserved under isomorphism so yes
Ye
Because it's a functor ||/j||
making me do rep theory by actually thinking about matrices rather than just throwing a frobenius-schur indicator at this and calling it a day
[incredibly loud incorrect buzzer]
Actually lol we were asked to prove in cat theory that uh
The assignment Z(-) on objects does not admit a refinement to a functor
:chad:
trivial.... because I said so!
stop saying "factor" like I know what that means. I don't want to infer two edges of a triangle
yeah
quotient and embedding but that's gross
stop making me think get out of my head get out of my head get out of my head get out of my head get out of my head
Any tips for showing that pi(x^2) might be a scalar matrix.. The setup i have is that pi(x^2) commutes with pi(y) which is not a power of pi(x) and is not itself scalar
Seems like this should be really strong but idk just not working
honestly, that seems lame. I'd think about what the minimal polynomial of an element of order 4 has to be and then brute force what y has to be once you have x using the relations
or you could just try every matrix of order 2 in GL_n(R), there's not an obscene amount of them unless there's a family I've missed
So this is what im working with: Clearly pi(x^2) = T has the property that T^2 - 1 = 0. Thus minimal polynomial is either T-1 (cant be) T+1 (we want to show this) or T^2 - 1. In the final case it is diagonalizable and similar to {{-1, 0}, {1, 0}}. By commuting and being non-singular, we see that pi(y) also has eigenvalues 1 and -1, thus it is diagonalizable too. Simultaneously diagonalizing them shows that pi(y) = P{{-1, 0}, {1, 0}}P^(-1) for some P. But this would show that pi(y)^2 = I, a contradiction?
Okay this was nonsense. But i have tried something new: Again we see if the minimal polynomial can be $T^2-1$. This would mean you diagonalize as {{-1, 0}, {1, 0}} in some basis, so let pi(x) = P * (that matrix) * P^(-1). Then phi = P pi P^{-1} would be another embedding of Q8 into GL(2, R). Once again phi(x^2) is going to commute with phi(y): This tells you that
$$\begin{pmatrix} -1 & 0 \ 0 & 1 \end{pmatrix} \begin{pmatrix} a & b \ c & d \end{pmatrix} \begin{pmatrix} -1 & 0 \ 0 & 1 \end{pmatrix} = \begin{pmatrix} a & b \ c & d \end{pmatrix}$$
Ultimate Chad
The LHS (after calculating) would show that b = c = 0, a contradiction since no fourth roots of 1 exist in R!
Yeah this looks good, nice work homedawg
wew usually tells me I'm a dumbass
Lmao
Oh brother…. This guy stinks!
You should see langs section on finite fields its nuts (Very well written)
I spent most of the time on this problem trying to remember the name of an invertible element
it's a unit, and I'm a fucking idiot
This is such a stupid exercise lmao
(Z/pZ)^x embeds into F^x as a goop via the prime-ring map, so by legrange
Lmao nice
I dunno why mfs set problems like this which are trivial with the most basic of machinery
Any finite field of char p is a vector space over F_p and has order p^n
But they don’t provide that machinery
from that it’s clear p-1 divides p^n - 1
THe jacobson lmao
Yes that’s what I’d do too chmonkey
Then the next problems is the most awful shit
Like, I don’t get why they don’t just ask you to show it has size p^n
I still think u must have skill issued the matrix ideals one
that matrix ideal one vacuumed the life out of me and I am unable to do matrix ideals ever again
