#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 217 of 1
yeah I see, cool argument
Yeah, so
phi(sqrt(2))^2 = phi(sqrt(2)^2) = phi(2) = 2.
So if you can show that no element squares to 2, you're good.
I am confused about why phi(sqrt(2)^2)=phi(sqrt(2))^2=2?
Well, by definition of a homomorphism
phi(xy) = phi(x)phi(y)
so in particular phi(x)^2 = phi(x^2)
We also have phi(1) = 1, thus phi(1+1) = 1+1 = 2
so we are firstly assuming that Q(sqrt(2))=a+b*sqrt(3) as isomorphism, then use contradiction to show it is impossible to be homomorphism?
That's right
I got it, really appreciate that
that's the type of problem that would occur if you did with closed sets
you'll just have radical ideals I and J such that I + J = (1) and I n J = nil(A), and from this its not immediately clear how to manufacture an idempotent without doing some messy newton-ish work
you'll have i+j=1 and ij nilpotent. so i(1-i) = nilpotent
which is back to the original thing
sowwy det's internet died 
or just on the open cover U u V 
yee, but you would be dividing by a unit element.
lemme give the details, so you have a ring A and a nilpotent ideal I, and an element e such that e^2 = e mod I. (if the ideal is locally nilpotent, just replace I with (e^2 - e))
for newton's method you look at f(x) = x^2 - x and f'(x) = 2x - 1. Notice that f'(e)^2 = (2e-1)^2 = 4e^2 - 4e +1 = 1 mod I. hence f'(e) is a unit as I was nilpotent. so it makes sense to look at
e' = e - f(e)/f'(e) and blah blah
https://stacks.math.columbia.edu/tag/00J9 this has a few more details
ah they do it by hand >.<
lemme just finish it as well
so for for h in I you know f(e + h) = f(e) + f'(e)h mod I^2.
putting h = -f(e)/f'(e), you simply get
f(e') = 0 mod I^2. and I^2 is again a nilpotent ideal (with smaller nilpotency)

how does jagr keep such stuff in head 
It helps that I'm teaching this semester
Gave an exercise sheet with this as an exercise not long ago
how to justify f(x)=x^5+ 2x^2 + 5 can not factor the quadratic factor? I am considering f(x)=(x^2+ax+b)(x^3-ax^2+cx+d), is it correct or is there any better way to show it can not be factored into quadratic factor times cubic factor?
Hm good question
Turns out it’s irreducible mod 23
I think basically you can go yeah
mod different primes
Probably easiest thing here is to go mod 5 and 2 to try to get to a contradiction
But you can always just brute force it as you are doing, which is probbly fastest in many cases lol
Okay so the quotient ring here is just the set of equivalence classes ${f(x) + I | f(x) \in F(X, R)}$ ? Is that really it?
CHTRGPT
I keep on feeling like there's more here
If I take evaluation homomorphism is this isomorphic to just R by first theorem of isomorphism?
what exactly would this embedding be given by? I know that $H_i \leq G_i$, but i'm not sure if $x/H_{i + 1} \mapsto x/G_{i + 1}$ makes sense
okeyokay
agh wait okay nvm
What difference does it make if I take continuous function here?
Question 3, I conclude that the kernel will be {1}.
And fix an element of A, if I do mapping f:G->A such that f(g)= g(a).
Then it will be bijective mapping by using the given condition and transitive property.
But I do not know where abelian property required.
Is A and G finite
No
if mod 5, then f(x)=x^5+2x^2 and its root is x=1. If mod 2, x^5+1 implies root x=1. it seems that it can not turns out that f(x) is irreducible I think?
What’s the preceding exercise
Mod 23 it’s irreducible
Smallest prime that works too
you mean mod 2?
for mod 23, all roots x will generate nonzero right?
from x=0 to x=22, f(x) not zer
Like if f(x) is irreducible mod F_p for some prime p then it’s irreducible over Q too
So u just have to find a prime that works
OK, it seems that 23 is the smallest prime that works
actually this questoin gives the hint: to let us show that it does not have linear factor and quadratic factor. And I also tried p=2, 3, 5......these don't work
I didn't mean to imply it is irreducible over those. I meant you can use this info to narrow down possible factorisations
But brute forcing should be fairly OK. Like write it as (x^2 + ax + b)(x^3 + cx^2 + dx + e) with everything an integer. Then 0 = a + c, 0 = b + a and 2 = ad + bc = ad + a^2 which means a = 0 or a = -d.
That's only a couple of lines and nearly solves it
This one
G is a group of order p^2 and wants to prove that it has a normal subgroup order p.
Since G is a group of order p^2, it has an element of order p, say a , so G/(a) is cyclic so G is an abelian group.
So take subgroup generated by a, (a) so it is normal subgroup.
Is it correct?
And I want to show that the Quaternion group is not isomorphic to a subgroup of S_n for n<=7.
Let A be any set of order <=7.
So in this case, I want to show that stabilizer of any point a belong to A must contain subgroup (-1).
Hint?
this is fine.
every group of order p^2 is abelian, so every subgroup is normal. in particular, the one generated by the element of order p that is guaranteed by cauchys theorem.
Thank you, any hint for the last one?
actually, how do you know G/(a) has group structure
you are implicitly assuming that (a) is normal in G
Oh
How every group of order p^2 is abelian?
If Z(G) has only identity element then?
If Z(G) is non-trival then G is abelian group.
well G is a p-group so it has a nontrivial center
if the center is G then it is trivially abelian
if the center is of order p then G/Z(G) is cyclic so G is abelian
we know that the center is normal so the quotient has group structure
How can I show that?
But I have one result that G is a finite group of order n and p is the smallest prime dividing |G|, then any subgroup of index p is normal.
So if I have an element of order p, say a then (a) has index p in G so (a) is a normal subgroup.
G acts on itself by conjugation. The size of an orbit divides the order of G, so is either 1 or a multiple of p.
An element has orbit of size 1 iff it's in the center.
So |G| = |Z(G)| (mod p). So the center has at least p elements.
Yes, the last equation comes from the class equation?
Got it, thank you.
Why are the eigenvalues at the bottom roots of unity?
This is about the standard representation of S3 permutations group
tau has finite order, so tau^n is the identity, hence eigenvalues^n = 1
Oooh thank you
All little bit help for the first bit pls
All my attempts have been aimed at finding an explicit map
But have failed to do so
have tried (a,b) |-> ((ab)^d,a^l/m b^l/n)
Hint: mn = lcm(m,n) * gcd(m,n)
Okay?
I was aware of that I couldn't proceed tho
Actually I have tried a bunch of natural maps uptil now
Nothing is working 😭
If n = p_1^a_1…p_k^a_k for some primes p_i you can write C_n as C_{p_1^a_1} \times … \times C_{p_k^a_k}. Result then follows by exploring commutivity of the direct product of groups
I see but the book hasn't stated the abelian groups split into cyclic groups yet
We’re not using that
I’m not citing the fundamental structure theorem this is a consequence of the Chinese remainder theorem
Yurrrr
Yeah
Actually this is cool
It didn't think of this
Holy shit
Thanks a million
How many homomorphisms are there between $\varphi: \mathbb (Z/20\mathbb Z,+) \mapsto D_{12}$, where $D_{12}$ denotes a dihedral group
Kakaka
any tips for this Q?
I have only seen variations of this type of Q for between cyclic groups, i.e., $\varphi: \mathbb Z/20\mathbb Z \mapsto \mathbb Z/ 6\mathbb Z$
Kakaka
then I can just reason by looking at the restrictions on where the generator 1 can be sent, i.e. possible values of $\varphi(1)$ in modular artihmetic
Kakaka
would it make sense to construct an isomorphism of D_n to some cyclic group so I can use this strat?
Any homomorphism whose domain is a cyclic group is determined by the image of a generator under it
or is there supposed to be some more general way that I am missing to do these "counting homomorphisms" Qs
what if it were teh other way around
domain dihedral
codomain cyclic
Any group homomorphism is determined by the images of a generating set of the domain
makes sense
but how do I choose images if the codomain isn't cyclic
I can't use modular arithmetic anymore
do I go by a case-by-case
depending on the type of group the codomain is?
i.e. for instance
1 is a generator of any cyclic domain
suppose I sent that to the Identity map in D_n
If by identity map you mean identity element then yes that would work
Actually that gives a group homomorphism between any two groups
omg i recognise this username
u helped me in like a number theory q last yr or soemthing
and it made me so happy
If u say so boss lol
wait how do I see that
because for cyclic domain + codomain with the same group operation
I can jsut do modular arithmetic
so using homo properties
I don’t mean to be rude but it’s very obvious
I have f(k) = f(1)+...f(1) k times
i am like 1 week into group theory soz
f(x) = 1 for all x in G implies f(xy) = 1 = f(x)f(y) immediately
I can tell because you still care what the actual operation is
what do u mean hahaha
i need to be careful of the operation on groups don't i
Groups don’t care what the operation is just what structure that operation gives
because it needn't be the same between groups after homo
Anyway
As previously mentioned homomorphisms out of cyclic groups have cyclic image, so this is just classifying cyclic subgroups of D_12 with orders dividing 20
i mean like
elements in D_{12} are flips and rotations right
symmetries of an undirected n-gon graph
so supposse x = a flip, y = a rotatoin by 2π/n (for n vertices of the n-gon)
how can I see that if f(1)=Id
then f(xy)=Id = f(x)f(y)
wait, but identites needs to map to identities
oh
i did that
oh that's the trivial homomorphism
which always exists
I’ve already given a full proof that the trivial map between any two groups is a homomorphism
Yes
And it’s image is the trivial group, which is a subgroup of D_12
so how do i find the nontrvial maps
is Pinter's book good
I told you
I have never read an introductory algebra textbook so idk.
Anyway the seminar is starting chat
Have fun wew
If we have |G: Z(G) | = n then what can we say about |G: C(a) | ?
Z(G) <= C_G(a) so [G:C_G(a)] <= [G:Z(G)]
I sort of did ig lol
Good 
Yeah, but how can I show that?
It’s obvious?
I want to prove that if Z(G) has n index then every congruency class has at most n elements.
So I think it will work.
Not for me
Like it follows from definitions in one line:
Z(G) <= C(a) => |Z(G)| <= |C(a)|
And [G:H] = |G|/|H|
Yeah but it is not given that G is finite
This is true with cardinal arithmetic so I don’t care about finiteness
Okay thank you
An actual proof though? Each gZ(G) is contained in gC(a)
Is it correct?
yeah that implication holds
Thank you
(12)(34) has a length of 4 in S_n, right?
Hello chat what’s up
good question uhhh
oh wait no, luckily (12) and (34) are both of the form (i, i+1) so this should have length 2 
So what about (13)(24)?
now that's a bit more interesting
by length do you mean the order of the element here
they're conjugate by a transposition in S_4 - so I will cite the result that multiplying by a transposition either increases or decreases the length by 1
we're conjugating - aka multiplying by two transpositions, so this is either length 0 or length 4 (and I don't think it's length 0...)
nah it's a coexter group thing. For S_n it's the number of transposititions of the form (i, i+1) you need to bash together to make your element

ah wait, I didn't consider it decreasing and then increasing... hmm
Bubbleshawty
Oh I didn't know about it, thank you
I.e the power n such that x^n = e or the cock texter group
No, I think your definition makes sense
that's good, what definition do you have?
(23)(12)(34)(23) = (13)(24), so yeah it should be length 4
They didn't define length just say (123......n) has n length
weird
goop theory
I'll give u the exposition just for real reflection groups cause I cba with coexter systems
length as in in terms of a generating set, with specifically the adjacent transpositions as the generating set of S_n
bubble sort moment
They defined length of a cycle is the number of integers which appear in it.
root systems?
yes, actually
Root systems be nice and simple but somehow churn out bullshit like this
let <a_1, ..., a_n | a_i^2 = 1, (a_ia_j)^(m_ij) = 1> be a real reflection group (set m_ij = 3 for S_{n+1}) then you can decompose an element into this basis, and the number of generators is invariant based on decomposition and is called the length
I did a little root system shit when I was interested in why E8 existed for a time
Turns out it’s a rather basic module exercise why it does 
it's just one of those things....
it is one of those things yes
your dinky diagrams are small enough where the thingy just so happens to be randomly positive definite
Where can I find this ?
Don’t make fun of my dinky diagram 
I don't know of a source, I know it from Humphreys book on reflection groups
although, this maybe?
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Word_metric
no not quite
Wikipedia links are just chat zipbombs
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Length_of_a_Weyl_group_element this is closer but is more technical and YUCKY!!
it is a word metric
yeah but my mans just wants to know about lengths of permutations for pete's sake!
fair
he don't need to know about the got dang word metric
where the expression is just a string in the generators of the group, with the product being w
i.e for S_n, write it as a string in transpositions (i i+1)
Okay thank you
Then what can I say about if I have two elements g and a in S_n , where length of g is s and length of a is t. Then what will be the length of gag^(-1)?
anything between l(a)-2l(g) and l(a)+2l(g)
I don't know how but okay
I want to prove that Z(S_n)= (1) for all n>=3 . I thought I could use the C(a), but I think it does not work.
In the book it is given that if g is length of m then | C(g) | = m•(n-m)!.
this can be done with cycle notation
assume $z \neq 1$ is in the centre, then z acts non-trivially on the set ${1, ..., n}$ then use the fact that V5_ is about to type out for me
Like for all elements there exists one element which does not belong to the Centraliser set of it.
essentially you show that conjugating by an element of S_n corresponds to applying a permutation ot the numbers in the cycles
Wew Lads Tbh
only stated here for cycles but it holds in general (decompose your permutation into cycles, then add \tau^-1\tau between the cycles)
Yes
see if you can use that to show that if z is in the centre, z must be the identity
Okay
Chat is this real
it might just be...
Oh centre of S_n
change of basis of a F_1-vector space 
Lol
Centre is a normal subgroup and not A_n or the quotient would be cyclic, that solves for n >= 5
Then you have a finite problem
Overkill solution lmao
But yes I'd do what you did
I'm not following - well I am but what do you mean
also showing A_n is simple is much longer and I think still uses the fact
I mean like centre is normal and can't be An or Sn or Sn would be abelian
using A_n is simple is crazy
I was joking though
Note though that our approach doesn't work for S2 so I'm confused why
"centre can't be non-trivial because there's only one non-faithful character of S_n"
Thanks buddy
Yeah lol
boss that's abelian
(12)=(21)
So if I let z be an element that belongs to Z(G), then zgz^(-1) implies that for all i, z(i)=i, right ?
indeed!
That you can rotate stuff in cycles
Thank you
I guess the key thing is that n! has 2 prime divisors iff n >= 3
Lol
Like commuting with a p cycle means you are 1 or a p cycle
And then obvs cannot be p and q cycle
no? (123)(45)=(45)(123)
this is deranged
Oh wait no
I was thinking something with a (p+p)-decomposition but this is even better
Lol ye
Chat is going bonkers
Its always pretty lit here
0 Matrix is diagonal matrix, right?
Yes
Okay thank you
Huh. I guess it is.
It has an eigenbasis 
More than one even 
Okay thank you
Sarcasm 😂?
nope
Okay 😂
Just going to type random thought shit out here becaused bored
Assume M is a free Z module with symmetric bilinear form B.
Then it has associated quadratic form Q(x) = B(x,x)
M/2M is a vector space over Z/2Z = F_2
B(x + 2a, y + 2b) = B(x,y) + 2(B(x,b) + B(x,a)) + 4B(a,b), so mod 2 it is B(x + 2a, y + 2b) = B_2(x,y), so it's well defined over M/2M
If M is self dual and admits an isomorphism B(c,x) = L(x) in M*, then likewise there should be an isomorphism of B_2(c,x) in M*/2M* = (M/2M)*
But it's also important to note that Q_2(x + y) = B_2(x + y, x + y) = B_2(x,x) + B_2(y,y) = Q_2(x) + Q_2(y) so Q_2 is actually a linear form, thus Q_2(x) = B_2(x,x) = B_2(b,x) for some b in M_2
or b - x and x are orthogonal for every x
Need to do the big think here
where we going with this boss
The dimensions of even unimodular lattices must be divisible by 8
holy guacamole...
Well, depending on the form lol
If the form is like, just the standard dot product then yeah it must be 8
If you have negative terms like space time the dimension would be congruent to the number of negative terms mod 8
It boils down to if the norm of x is even then the norm of 2x must be divisible by 8
Then you just kind of look at the dimension of your free module
Going to see if you can determine the minimum dimension such that there is no < 2k norm elements in these lattices
For 1 I know it’s 24
huh
I think Serre has a similar approach but I don’t remember specifically what approach he used
wonder if that's related to sphere packing somehow
Probably Sylvester law of inertia
probably a conincidence
Pontryagin duality
locally compact abelian group
is group but also is topology? Which channel does it reside in?
hello chat
Idk about sphere packing but it sounds like some Pontryagin duality shit revolving around modular forms
I literally heard "24" and "lattice" and made the connection to sphere packing
nothing concrete lol
Leech lattice and E8 respectively I think
yeah
although we don't use the Leech lattice anymore due to the theory of four humours being superseded by germ theory
there always is
I think it should be a+c=0, b+ac+d=0, and bc+ad+e=2?
I am also typing on phone lol
Waiting for the pasta wuder to boil
Lunch of champions
whimsical
positively
Are you sure you aren’t Icelandic at heart
I ain't no huldufolk I'm more of a Sedihkonur
true
did have to look up the spelling of that second word I will admit
anyway we're a tad off topic lol
I mean if L is a unimodular lattice of dim N then it basically is self dual and has the symmetric form (inner product) by default lol
Looking at the F_2 vector space L/2L, the inner product is antisymmetric if you can call it that mod 2 idgaf
u can't
there must be another way....
Or you could just keep shifting x forward or behind in increments of 1 and check eisenstein's criterion
I don't think it's factorizable
Gauss' lemma lets us reduce this down to checking ur poly in Z[x]
can we eisenstein it or something?
My lazy way is eisenstining the fuck out of it by shifting x or by either checking a fuckton of modular congruences
no we can't (in reference to eisenstein)
f(x) is factorizable iff f(x + n) is
yeah shifting is a good idea
Can someone help me check x^5+2x^2+5 in Q[x] and use brute force to factorize it into (x^2+ax+b)*(x^3+cx^2+dx+e) and show why it is irreducible? I write a+c=0, b+ac+d=0, and bc+ad+e=2, bd+ae=0, and be=5, but don't know how to proceed it
the shadow government trying to silence my homedawg out here
if you're mega lazy you can use decarte law of signs to guess if there are strictly positive factors and see if it's even worth it lo
Also, i factorize it into (x^2+ax+b)*(x^3-ax^2+cx+d), but still not work?
what do you mean that I can't?
I don't allow it
Maybe try polynomial long division of x^5+2x^2+5 by a quadratic x^2+ax+b and notice that you get a factorization iff the remainder is 0
This should reduce to just 2 variables I believe
i tried for a lot of values and I could not get a consistent fucking prime for the non-leading coeffs for the life of me
which i guess that method is only really useful if you know a priori that it's irreducible or it's low degree
We will have (b^2+a^2*b-2a+a^4)x+(5-2b+a^3b) as remainder, but question is how to show that these coefficients must be non-zero?
There is a kind of logic-y interpretation of this in a way
oh brother this GUY STINKS!
boolean logicy
alg e bruh
Self-dual vector spaces with a symmetric bilinear form over F_2 are themselves kinda fucky
if they have a basis e_1...e_n, then basically the only options you got are e_m e_n being orthogonal or not
Which actually is interesting because that restricts the amount of possible symmetric bilinear forms
Might try this with E8 actually
bruh it's nice and even except for a single fucking basis vector that just tags along like a tumor
this is kinda craazzyyy
isnt it one or two lines
maybe but I can't find them
first thought is that multiplication by anything in G is a homemorphism from G to itself
yeah
don't know how to use compactness here. It's too pointsetty for my tastes
let me think for a second
first of all
why do you need compactness, what is an example where K,F closed and KF not closed 
Are topological groups hausdorff in this case
the book I'm following assumes they are Hausdorff, yeah
consider G = R and subgroups Z and αZ for irrational α
Z + αZ is dense
hence not closed
hot
more or less infinite union of closed is not closed, compactness makes it "finitey" union
But FK is the union of the (compact) images xK of K by left multiplication of elements in x
yeah, I noticed you can write it as $\bigcup_{k\in K} kF$
croqueta3385
so it's like a compact union of closed stuff
but idk how to make this intuition precise
oh yeah
check that out
btw does this generalize
Parsing
like if I have a continuous function $f\c X\times X\to X$ such that for all $x\in X$ both $f(-, x)\c X\to X$ and $f(x, -)\c X\to X$ are homeomorphisms, does it follow that the image of $f(K, F)$ is closed, where $K$ is compact and $F$ closed?
croqueta3385
you can prolly do this directly too with proving compliment open, or even with nets if you add Hausdorffness
this uses the inverse map as well, so at least this solution doesn't generalize ><
seems like the proof of proving in-Hausdorff & Compact -> Closed
if you're a real major dingus you can use the product topology probably lmao
Does this work?
Consider a sequence in f(K, F) that converges. Lift this by preimage to a sequence in (kn, xn) in KxF. Since K is compact kn has a subsequence converging to k. So wlog say kn converges to k.
Then I believe we can say f(k, xn) has the same limit as f(kn, xn). But since f(k, F) is closed, the limit is in f(k, F).
So I guess I'm using the assumption that f(x, F) is closed, not that F is closed.
I'll have to read that but I think det's proof works verbatim
the left multiplication by g^(-1) would be the inverse of f(g, -), which you are allowed to take
unless there's some subtletly I'm not seeing
(det doesn't like to think about generalizing general topology ><)
that's neat
thanks guys
Im still a bit unsure about the step with the convergence of f(k, xn), but meh.
it's topology dear you don't need to be rigorous
Rigor mortis
you are doing this $\lim_{n\to\infty} f(a_n, b_n)=\lim_{m\to\infty}\lim_{n\to\infty} f(a_n,b_m)$, assuming that $\lim_{n\to\infty} f(a_n,b_m)$ exists for each $m$
croqueta3385
i think you can just do that because it's continuous in the two variables
Chat, I didn't make much progress
ah second
mmh connected meant that you can't have clopens besides the whole space or the empty set
so I have to show that the subgroup is clopen
I know open subgroups are closed
oh yeah I remember this one
yep and it's pretty quick to show that the subgroup is open
yeah so if U is open and S is some subset then US is also open
and the subgroup is like U*U^{-1}, and you keep doing this
also U^{-1} is open
so QED
swagg
nu
you need more
yeah I meant you keep going
you don't need to finish in finitely many steps
ok let me be more careful
at limit stages you take unions
union of open is open
so you can keep climbing
lmao
This technically uses transfinite induction
no
how I did it yes

because I constructed the subgroup by an inductive process
and at each step everything is open
idk how you would show the subgroup is open otherwise
a slightly easier way is to look at V = U u U^-1 and then consider union of V^n for n >= 1
how do you know that's the subgroup?
because it's closed under multiplication and inverses
right
I mean that's what I did
I just didn't realize the construction stopped at omega
induction is a special case of transfinite induction :p
<
thanks
horror
Transfinite induction is recreational mathematics.
You don't really need any inductive construction though.
Like let U be the neighborhood of identity, and let H be the subgroup generated by U. Then for any h in H, H also contains hU, hence H is open, thus clopen. Thus equal to G.
I may be stupid but how are we concluding H is closed here
oh
Open subgroups are closed
Because G\H is the union of cosets
yus
I knew it had something to do with cosets but couldn't remember the argument properly
if $R$ is a ring and $A\in R^{n\times n}$, then can we consider $R^n$ an $R[x]$ module via
$$p(x)\cdot v=p(A)v$$
or must R be a field for that to be well-defined?
eigentaylor
and more generally if T is a module endomorphism on a module M over a ring R, can we consider a R[x] module via the similar definition
p(x)*m=p(T)m?
I guess R would need to be commutative
You need to give R^n a R^nxn module structure, but i assume its just the obvious one implcitly
Yes
okay cool
This is in fact all R[x]-modules...
just when this sort of idea was proposed in a class i took, it was in the context of a vector space V over F and a linear operator T such that it was an F[x] module
p(x)*v=p(T)v
wanted to know how general we can get
oh really? as in, if the scalars are elements of R[x], the scalar multiplication action must be p(x)->p(T) for some module endomorphism T?
Every R[x] module is an R module in the obvious way, and all the extra data you need is how x acts
and the way it must act is necessarily some module endomorphism?
that sounds very reasonable
thats more or less part of the definition of an action
ive just never thought about it that way before. thats really cool
The map r->xr is almost by definition a module endomorphism
giving M and A module structure is just a morphism A -> End(M)
i suppose scalar multiplication in vector spaces is similar. cv is just (cI)v
that's kind of trippy but also in some ways kind of obvious
Actually, I don't think you need R to be commutative if you're just a little careful about what p(A) means.
If it's an R-module endomorphism there's no problem I think
But the matrix alone will be an issue, surely
In any case I think we're in commutative land still
yeah the rest is specified by how R^nxn acts on R^n, that has to be part of the data
Yeah, so if you think of R^n as a left module. Then endomorphisms look like right multiplication by matrices (viewing R^n as row vectors).
So it's not really right to say p(A). Since if p is for example rx, then the resulting action should be left multiplication by r and right multiplication by A.
This is what makes r and x commute even though r and A don't
so how about the simple case of R=F a field. would this necessarily have Torsion based on the minimal polynomial of A? i.e. if P(x) is the minimal polynomial of A, would P(x) generate Tor(M) (forgive me, i'm super rusty on the notation, idk if Tor(M) is right)
The entire module would be torsion yes, and p(x) would generate the annihilator.
oh yeah because p(x) would annihilate everything
so could we instead make it an F[x]/(P(x)) module via
(q(x)+(P(x))v=q(A)v?
i think that should work actually...
it would be well defined since if p(x)+I=q(x)+I, where I=<P(x)>, then (p(x)-q(x))*v=0 for all v so
(p(x)+I)v=(q(x)+I)v
unless i'm makin some crazy mistake. i am rusty
Yes that's right. If M is an R-module, and IM = 0, then M is naturally an R/I module, for any ring R and ideal I.
A quick question: if we have a form of a+b2^(1/3)+c2^(2/3)=2^(1/3), can we get the conclusion that a=0, c=0 and b=1?
Yes, that's true
Let $A$ be a ring, $I$ be an ideal of $A$, and $B$ a set in $A$. Is it true that if for every $a \in A$ there are $b \in B$ and $i \in I$ such that $a=b+i$ then $B$ is a set of representatives of $A/I$?
Casiel368
I guess you probably want there to be a unique b for each a. Or I guess "set of representatives" can have several representatives for each class?
But yeah, that's right.
Well, you have to prove that
a + I = b + I
Then for the uniqueness thing, think about what happens if
b + I = b' + I
and you pick a to be b.
Got it. Thank you
Here R[f; F] where R is of char p, is the free left R-module generated by 1,f,f^2,.... such that fr=r^p f
Why does this V=U+Kf generate the algebra? Specifically, i dont see how to get the f^2 from this say. Does Kf mean the smallest subalgebra containing f instead?


kaori 
Seems like R[f; F] should be the smallest K-algebra containing V.
😭
this sucks when I actually started to try it
First I tried tackling abelian-ness. If x, y, and xy are all in I, then x commutes with y:
a(xy) = (xy)^-1 = y^-1 x^-1
a(xy) = a(x)a(y) = x^-1 y^-1
Which implies that $I \cap xI \in C_G({x})$
Dyfunction Executive
Isn't I closed under inverses ? As a is automorphism if g -> g^-1 then g^-1 -> g
yes it is
it's closed under that automorphism, inverses, and xy for two elements in I is also in I iff they commute
Right
What do yall think of this derivation of derrnagements
For example, this can be used to count the number of Permutations of $N$ elements that fix $k$ elements. First, let's lay down notation, let $P_{k}(N)$ be the number of permutations of $N$ elements that fix $k$ elements.
This sum runs over all the permutations of $N$ elements so it will clearly be equal to $N!$.
[
\sum_{k=0}^{N} P_{k}(N) = N!
]
The number of ways to fix $k$ elements is equal to the number of ways to NOT fix $N-k$ elements multiplied by the number of ways to fix $k$ elements.
[P_{k}(N) = P_{0}(N-k) \cdot \binom{N}{k}
]
Using the symmetry of binomial coefficients, we make a cosmetic change to the sum.
[\sum_{k=0}^{N} P_{0}(N-k) \cdot \binom{N}{k} = N!
]
Substituting this into the sum.
[\sum_{k=0}^{N} P_{0}(k) \cdot \binom{N}{k} = N!
]
Now I will use a sleight of hand and claim that we've already solved this problem. This is because we saw earlier that if you sum the differences of a sequence against combinatorial coefficients, you get the sequence back. Thus, I claim that the number of "Derangements" of $N$-elements is equal to the $N$-th difference of the factorial. Let's put this to the test.
[
\begin{array}{c|ccccccc}
n & 0 & 1 & 2 & 3 & 4 & 5 & 6 \
\hline
0 & 1 & 1 & 2 & 6 & 24 & 120 & 720 \
1 & & 0 & 1 & 4 & 18 & 96 & 600 \
2 & & & 1 & 3 & 14 & 78 & 504 \
3 & & & & 2 & 11 & 64 & 426 \
4 & & & & & 9 & 53 & 362 \
5 & & & & & & 44 & 309 \
6 & & & & & & & 265 \
\end{array}
]
This table says that the number of derangements of 2 elements is 1, and the number of derangements of 6 elements is 265. This table lines up with the known values and leads to the known formula
[
\sum_{i=0}^{N} (-1)^{N+i} \binom{N}{i} i!
]
Simplifies to
[
\sum_{i=0}^{N} (-1)^{N+i} \frac{N!}{(N-i)!}
]
Hundred Humans In a Rat Suit
It's my own
$|I \cap xI| = |I| + |xI| - |I \cup I| = 2|I| - |I \cup I| > \frac{3|G|}{2} - |G| = \frac{|G|}{2}$
Dyfunction Executive
Jacobson is a cheeky mf
Can't have a subgroup index less than 2 unless it's the whole group
that is a fucking absurd exercise my god
G
One with index 2
So here's the whole thing, but not using that fucking I because it sucks
Let group $G$ be finite with automorphism $\alpha$ such. Let $A = { x \in G | \alpha(x) = x^{-1} }$ and assume $\frac{3|A|}{4} > |G| \ \$
Assume $x, y \in A$ commute, then $\alpha(xy) = \alpha(x)\alpha(y) = x^{-1}y^{-1} = (yx)^{-1} = (xy)^{-1}$ thus $xy \in A$. It's not hard to see that it's necessary and sufficient. Therefore, for a fixed $x$, $A \cup xA \in C_G({x^{-1}}) = C_G({x})$. Now using inclusion-exclusion: $|C_G({x})| \geq |A \cap xA| = |A| + |xA| - |A \cup xA| = 2|A| + |A \cup xA| > \frac{3|G|}{2} - |G| = \frac{|G|}{2}$. Because the centralizer's order must divide the group's order but is also greater than half of the group's order, the only possibility is that the whole group commutes with $x$. Since $x$ was arbitrary, the whole group is abelian
Dyfunction Executive
Fuck the second part is hard too
If |A| = 3|G|/4 then |A| can't be a subgroup because |A| must divide |G|. If A lies in it's own centralizer than A must be a subgroup so clearly there must elements that don't commute with another in A
like assume a is not in C_G(A), then A \cap a^-1A must be an abelian subgroup of order 2
Wow, you managed it
Man of skill
It was the inclusion exclusion that fucked me over
and I realized it and felt dumb
lol
Well, at least you are not mathematically dumb
This is the first jacobson problem that took me an hour
Was everything else so easy for you
no,
just somewhat difficult
much harder than D&F's group theory exercises
but usually they took me around 5-10 minutes
or less if they are immediate
Wow, seems you are very good at this
I do sometimes get caught up in being overly rigorous
which isn't always necessary especially for exercises
the sylow stuff scares me 
though admittedly the proof of sylow's theorems are really cool applications of orbit stabilizer in itself
Btw no offense, but there seems a few typos here
Like 2 |A| + |A \cup xA|
fair enough
I was kind of typing out my thoughts here to make it concrete
not really caring about typos or whatnot as long as I got the idea
Also A \cup xA \in C_G({x}) >.>
Ahhh
Just that I was smooth brained to follow it
Trying to prove A \cap xA is a subgroup if x \in G\Z(G)
Isn't A \cap xA always a subgroup
Maybe?
xy is in A iff x and y commute for x and y in A, but I can't guarantee they commute
From the previous exercise, you can see operation is closed over commuting elements in A
but i can't gauruntee x and y commute in A \cap xA
Not x and y
crap, I was doing it on paper
I used an element b in A \ Z(G)
I tried writing it out on scratch paper
For fixed b in A \ Z(G), B = A \cap b^{-1}A is what I had down but I was considering a fixed x here and reused it lol
If I can show B is a subgroup then commutativity comes with it
idk how to show closure under product
not just product with b
let me try it out real quick
Ah, A \cap b^{-1}A might be different, since b^{-1} may not be in A
..wait it should be in it
Then, similar logic still follows from
Fo y \in (A \cap b^{-1}A),
y = b^{-1} x for some x \in A (and y \in A)
trying to find aforementioned similar logic
Idk, y x^{-1} = b^{-1} \in A
holy shit I'm a moron
No
Same logic as the first part
wait nvm
assume c lies in C({b})/B
it's 12:30 am I'm gonna go to bed
is it possible to come up with a functioning algorithm that is the sort of inverse of hyperoperational iteration
Like, an operation that operates on an operation, and returns an operation which shares the same relationship to it as addition to multiplication
It seems intuitive that you can't just always produce such a thing but is there a strategy to construct one if possible
Also interested in how unique they would be as solutions
what is the name of the theorem about what direct sum of rings a given module is isomorphic to?
Classification of finitely generated modules over a PID?
🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇🍇...
dont ban me pls
Banned
Channel name 
Really makes you think huh
Hey if you don't mind asking which book by Jacobson are you currently venturing through
Basic Algebra I
no problem!
Gaming
Np
I did one exercise in like 15 minutes then spent an hour dying to the next one
I was up for like 2 hours on this exercise
I gave up because it was eventually like 12:30 am when I stopped and I was tired as fuck
Back to this: If $|G|$ is a finite Abelian group with automorphism $\alpha$ and subset $A = { x \in G | \alpha(x) = x^{-1}}$ such that $\frac{3|G|}{4} = |A|$, then $G$ has an abelian subgroup $K$ of index $2$.
Dyfunction Executive
let me find my solution to this
A has the property that $\forall x, y \in A \left[ xy = yx \Leftrightarrow xy \in A \right]$
Dyfunction Executive
if this is true then set y = 1
So if the whole damn group is abelian, then A is a subgroup which can't happen because |G|/|A| = 4/3
ah nvm, x in A
Hi friends
Therefore, there must be a noncommuting element b in A
here's how I did it yesterday.
I am not reading this conversation for when I inevitably try this problem in like 2 weeks
it took me like 40 minutes and I think I got lucky
don't answer immediately noooo
topologist make an actual fuckin rigorous statement challenge
Must be a typo, G should be a finite group
rigor mortis
I'm not
I mean if 3 |G|/4 = |A|, doesn't that imply 2 | |G|, which gives you a subgroup of index 2
if G is finite abelian
Or am I smoking
no, not necessarily, because 4 divides |G|
.
personally I don't know where you've found an abelian subgroup from lol
Well okay I was overkilling it
Like from the classification it follows, I wasn't sure what tools we were meant to have aha
G isn't abelian
if 3|G|/4 = |A|, then |A| can't be a subgroup of G, which happens if A lies in C_G(A) i.e all of it's elements commute. So therefore there are noncommuting elements in A
who's product therefore are also not in A
consider b
or at least it better not be abelian or else this is really boring
it can't be
Okay lol
Yeah
Let b be in A \ C_G(G)
Now consider A \cap b^{-1}A
Which I'm pretty sure is equal to C_A({b})
If x in A commutes with b then x is in b^-1A too, so yeah
I'm wondering if it's actually C_G({b}) itself so I don't have to prove it's a subgroup which grinded my progress to a halt last night
why do authors decide to make every exercise the most annoying technical bullshit possible btw
but also probably because it was 12:30 am and I was tired as fuck
it is, I used this fact in my proof for the first part of my question
D & F exercises: calculate the order of A5
Jacobson Exercise:
hmm, gotta consider c \in G \ C_G({b})
A \cap b^-1A = {x in G | x in A, b^-1x in A} = {x in G | a(b^-1)a(x)b^-1x = 1} = {x in G | bx^-1b^-1x = 1} = C_G(b)
oh my fucking god I should've just considered the commutator
\begin{align*}b^{-1}A &= {x \in G | b^{-1}x \in A} = {x \in G | \alpha(b^{-1}x)b^{-1}x = 1} \ &= {x \in G | \alpha(b^{-1})\alpha(x)b^{-1}x = 1}\end{align*}
[\Rightarrow A \cap b^{-1}A = {x \in G | bx^{-1}b^{-1}x = 1} = C_G(b)]
wow that was easy
oh yeah that's way cleaner
I imagine this is what Jacobson wanted you to spot
and the idea of intersecting your set with some convolution of that set (which is the part I got lucky in spotting lol)
sorry it was annoying me lol
Wew Lads Tbh
well you're showing that elements of A commute
I mean that's what I based the whole thing on
elements in a A commute <=> their product in A
Arguably this proof should work for any antiautomorphism
instead of (xy)^-1
so where a automorphism and an antiautomorphism overlap
also I don't think you need to take the compliment of Z(G) when you choose b, it's still true just a lot more obvious
I still don't get how we can assert that A \cap b^-1A is C_G(b)
like itself if we don't know a priori that that C_G(b) is in A
Which is basically equivalent to if x commutes with b, then x is in A
I know the one way
but not the other way
NAH WAIT
nvm
all I can assert is that a(x) commutes with b
but not that it's necessarily in A nor b^-1A
I think this is incorrect because this shows an inclusion not a two way
a(b^-1)a(x)b^-1x = 1 AND a(x) = x => [b,x] = 1 is a one way, not a two way
I cannot think of a single fucking way to do this
That would imply over the whole group that it is necessary and sufficient for x to commute with b that a(x) = x and a(b^-1x) = (b^-1 x)^-1
@delicate orchid is it specifically because of any assumptions we made?
a([x,b]) = [a(x),b^-1] = e which just shows a(x) commutes with b
fuck this bullshit
I'm googling this
I am being dumb on group theory again lol
a(x)x = a(x)b^-1 bx = a(xb) bx = a(xb)bx = a(xb) xb
oh wait this is only for the first part
y e p
ok at this point you know what I'd do?
anything else
anything else is more productive than this
whatever fuck this problem
questions that rely on some bullshit "trick" rather than testing fundemental understanding of the concepts have no place in textbooks
save that shit to fuel the olympiad sweats' egos
It's the whole
fuckin $C(b) \subseteq A \cap b^{-1}A$ direction which keeps fucking me over
Dyfunction Executive
I'm convinced what I did works
I'm not because it's a one way not a two way from what I can see
=> |A U h^-1A| = |A|+|h^-1A| - |A \cap h^-1A| = 3/2|G|-|A \cap h^-1A| < |G| => |A \cap h^-1A| >= 1/2|G|
not quite getting equality there either
If we can show A \cap h^{-1}A is a subgroup then it's immediate
x, b^{-1}x, y, b^{-1}y in A
a(xy) = a(x)a(y) = y^-1 x^-1 = y^-1 b b^-1 x^-1 = (b^-1 y)^-1 (xb)^-1 = a(b^-1y)a(bx) = a(yx)
so at least they commute
WAIT
so their product, xy, must be in A
and thus so must b^-1 xy
so it's a subgroup
alright whatever u say boss
nah wait I fucked it up lol
I can't find a goddamn resource for this problem either
that isn't this one that just skips over the proof that C(h) = A \cap x^-1 A
If b is in A \ Z(G), then b doesn't commute with an element c. Clearly bc = d is NOT in A, so c is in A \ b^-1 A
@rocky cloak HELPPPPPPPPPPPPPPPPP HELPPPP HEEELLLPPPP
Gotta love exercises that make you feel like a moron and a complete failure lol
yeah, I got my PhD to do that
don't need this nonsense on top of it
jagr is still typing
Jagr about to spit some supa hot fire I can feel it
So b is in A\Z(G) then you want to prove that
C(b) = A cap b^- A?
So certainly C(b) is a proper subgroup. And you've shown that A cap b^- A is contained in C(b), so since
|A cap b^- A| >= |G|/2 it must be everything
it's so unbelievably over
omfg i forgot about the greater than or equal
So yeah I guess it's just a counting argument
Don't know if you could generalize it to a setting where G isn't finite...
considering we're ordering things by cardinality and using lagrange everywhere, I'd be surprised
What was the question?
.
A \cap b^{-1}A is obviously abelian because of the commutativity <=> product-in rule
Next one I need to try is showing $\frac{\bigcap_{i \in I}K_i}{H} \cong \bigcap_{i \in I}{\frac{K_i}{H}}$
WHY
what
how rigorous do you recommend doing this problem lo
write down "obvious" then continue on with ur day
Dyfunction Executive
well the thing I notice is that on the left you have things that look like kH with k in the intersection, and things on the right that look like kH with k in the intersection (xH is a coset of all of these dudes iff xH = kH for some k in the intersection)
Step 1: ||correspondence theorem says there's a lattice isomorphism between subgroups containing H and subgroups of G/H||
Step 2: ||lattice isomorphisms preserve meets and joins|| 
the FOURTH iso theorem makes an appearence
I am SCARED and ALONE in this DARK SCARY WORLD
something something Zassenhaus
isn't that the "butterfly" one
This is the best way though TBH.
isn't this proving the lattice morphism preserves meets
No.
If P and Q are posets and f: P -> Q is monotone, f need not preserve meets or joins.
But if f is an order isomorphism, it does have to preserve meets and joins.
Very convenient.
Dyfunction means this is showing that the morphism in the corrispondence theorem is infact a lattice isomorphism
I think
yes
This asks to show that the correspondence preserves (arbitrary) meets, yes.
that's what I was
My point (and @ jagr2808#0's IG) though is that the easiest way to show that is to show that it is monotone (in both directions).
\leftrightarrow
Dyfunction Executive
RECOVERED
oh right you wanted the surjection
Epimorphisms of groups are always surjective when forg'd I think
... yeah? where are you going with this
ring morphisms seem foreign and scary given Z -> Q is fucking bimorphic
i was just making sure 
That's not so bad honestly; after a while it seems natural for localisations to be epi.
epi <=> surjective is just true in Set so I really don't know what you mean here, presuming you're also "forg'd"-ing these too
if you're not, then yeah it's GROSS
lol
How does the proof that epimorphisms of groups are surjective go again?
i forgor the category theory version
i just know quotient groups projections are surjective because of the congruence relation
something something all SES of groups are split something something
I don't actually know
good question, I shall google
I remember it being somewhat complicated
But I'm sure there are epis which are not combinations of quotients and localisations
.
I think there's a proof that shows all subgroups are equalisers that is more complicated, but for showing that epi injection => isomorphism, there's a more elementary argument.
Given a subgroup H, let G act on G/H + a new point infty the usual way (fixing infty), and define another action by conjugation by swapping H and the point.
This defines two group homomorphisms to Sym(G/H U {infinity})
Any g in G fixes infinity, so it commutes with the transposition iff it fixes H iff it lies in H.
So equaliser of the two group homomorphisms into Sym(G/H U {infinity}) is H.
Oh, IG you do get subgroups are equalisers.
Nice
Woah very cool
IG the idea is that
(i) in S_{n+1}, the elements of S_n (embedded by fixing n+1) which commute with (n n+1) are precisely the things fixing n. (Let n be infinite if necessary
.)
(ii) Stabiliser of any point in a group action is an equaliser (using (i)).
(iii) Any subgroup is a stabiliser in left-coset space, hence an equaliser.
Is there a version of linear independence of characters evaluated at finitely many points?
That is, for some characters χ1, …, χm: G -> F^× and some elements x1, …, xn in G with suitable hypotheses, the vectors (χi(x1), …, χi(xn)) in F^n (i = 1, …, m) are linearly independent.

OK, so a standard proof can be used to show that if χ1(x), …, χm(x) are distinct, then for any y, linear independence holds after evaluation at y, xy, …, x^{m-1}y.
Is there a version of invertibility of Vandermonde matrices where instead of x, we have a character on a group, and instead of 1, x, …, x^{n-1}, we evaluate the character on a subset of the group?
Actually, I guess that amounts to double-posting, since it's practically equivalent to my previous question…
The mapping to order which was a natural choice for me didn't work
Cause we loose injectivity
Is such a map possible
If not how does one generally try to prove that such a map can't exist
you'd have to find two non-isomorphic groups with a similar enough subgroup structure that you can't distinguish between them using this map
gah if it was just solvable finite groups we might be able to do something funny here
thinking about subgroup lattices, given a H < G by the correspondence theorem we have the subgroup lattice of H is the lower set from H, and the subgroup lattice of G/H is isomorphic to the upper set from H
nah this doesn't work, there's non-isomorphic groups with isomorphic lattices
Some hints:
The composition factors of a group is independent of composition series.
There are infinitely many primes.
wait you can still use the composition series idea even if G isn't solvable?
oh yes of course
I am not very familiar with composition series...I know the definition and what composition factors mean
Actually these are bad hints cause they overcomplicate it.
A better hint is that C2xC2 and C4 are not isomorphic.
ok maybe I'm over complicating it then
Well say f(C2) = n
What is f(C2xC2)?
nk?
What is k?
some no.
Okay, but which number?
Huh
2
Why
f(C2xC2) = f(C2)f(C2xC2/C2) = f(C2)(C2)
Oh right C2*C2/C2 is iso to C2
Now, the next question would be, what is f(C4)?
ok yeah wow I was absolutely overcomplicating it
I was associating each prime to one of the simple groups and then using their exponents to count their appearances in compositions series - which I think would satisfy the required property? and just trusted that this would somehow be injective
So the main point is that the value is completely determined by the composition factors of the group.
Hmm
I need to learn more about composition factors
Could one do this without this example
I mean this specific objects
Anyways this was cool @rocky cloak thank you
Enumerate all finite simple groups as S_1, S_2, …
Enumerate all prime numbers as p_1, p_2, …
Given a finite group G with composition factors S_i1, …, S_in (possibly with repetition), let f(G) := p_i1 … p_in.
But f does not exist?
yur
What's yur
yes
Okay
The british can be strange and unusual sometimes
it's just me
Everyone with an honorable role in Discussy past 7:00 est
it's just Wew
Hello chat what’s a good use of Sylow stuff
You can use it to show that a bunch of orders can't house simple groups, that's the classic example.
^
But they're more like
they tell you global data about the group from local data
You just need them to understand the p-structure of a group. It's just super important for later stuff.
that's the gist
all of the examples that come to my mind are way too high level lol
shout out to 95% of proofs involving Brauer's characterisation of characters
They are interesting in general, a bit confusing
The proof is neat though by basically just considering the group action on prime-size subsets
Yes and it also tells you a bit about the structure of p-groups
hi chat
yes I know
P groups are groups with elements all of prime power order right
The group section of Jacobson is like 70 pages total lmao
You're also doing basic algebra by Jacobson?
What's the difference between his basic algebra and lectures in algebra?
why else would a single exercise that sticks out like a sore thumb from the others is awful
idk I didn't see his lectures
Might do that eventually, but I do much better doing problems on my own then watching videos or lectures
Youre thinking lectures in algebra is videos?
no idea homie
It's a book
Oh
uhhhh
8/10 but it's also the second textbook I've ever gone off of so i can't give a good relative score
I got to the Galois stuff in D&F and didn't go further, but D&F didn't make a lot of sense comparatively speaking to Jacobson
Okay then I'll also start Jacobson tomorrow help me if I get stuck okay..?
Thank you for the suggestions
Have a nice day
Surely the main use of Sylow subgroups is that the representation type of a group in characteristic p is equal to the representation type of its sylow subgroup.
I mean what else could you possibly use them for.
.... U H
I'm not very good at algebra
There's much better people to ask, I am just grinding for no good reason and as a motivation to not just lay in bed all day feeling miserable 
calling that the "main use" shows your bias
I never use that fact really
p-solvability is a lot more important for characteristic p reps in my opinion
Is there any simple tool, compass-like, that is actually able to draw cubic roots?
Imagine caring about anything more than just the representation type of your algebra 🤓
Nuesis construction I think?
Source?
Okay this is kinda cool
does Jacobson do group representations or is that like it’s own dedicated course 
it better be
I recommend Benson II for an introductory representation theory course joy cat joy cat
It’s in the second book nvm
The second book is apparently like the fucking gauntlet from what I’ve heard
oh and the first one isn't?
Idfk I have only done D&F before this which is also apparently just as bad
Relative to what idk
I’m going to go work on Abbott lmao
bro u havent even read it what r u on abt
oh I've seen the exercises
and to answer your question I'm on about 5 tabs and 2 litres of pure ethanol
you've only seen the exercises that we struggle with enough to post here
selection bias moment
Hot
Does this generalize for finitely generated k algebras
so quotients of k[x1,....,xn]
mmh I guess it's still true
because maximal ideals of k[x1,...,xn]/I where I is some ideal correspond with maximal ideals in k[x1,....,xn] that contain I
Yes that's completely correct
this led me wonder if there is a criterion in general that tells you when, given a map A-->B the induced map Spec B-->Spec A respects maximal ideals
ok I guess surjectivity is enough in general
Calling this the Nullstellensatz is a bit funny to me though lol
Well an important thing to mention is Jacobson rings
