#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 214 of 1
Quite possible that the word was translated from some other language
Transitivus means to move across. The group action moves one element to another
ah it comes direct from latin. Nice
Yeah not that this has anything to do with actual math, just a curiosity
'transit' means 'a movement' generally in english
I think I should look when was this term introduced. Weyl introduced group actions, didn't he?
I'm not sure you'll get a better explanation than jagr's
Any free action would do that, wouldn't it?
Except the identity
Perhaps I'm splitting hairs here....
no, a free action can definitely have more than one orbit (take <(12)(34)> acting on {1,2,3,4})
A free action doesn't necessarily move across the whole set.
That's the special thing about transitive actions, it moves across the entire set.
Ah now I get it
Thanks both of you
then suppose that alpha is a root in Zp(t), so t=(q(t)/r(t))^p=alpha^p, and take the derivative on both sides such that r(t)=0
are there any ideas about how to show alpha can not be element in Zp(t) by writing (x-alpha)^p=x^p-t?
Well if
t = (q/r)^p, that means
t r^p = q^p
Left side has degree
pdeg(r) + 1 and right hand side has degree pdeg(q). So they can't be equal.
one question: so you mean left side has degree p+1, right hand side has degree p? but why t has degree 1?(since t can not be anything)? and t is not similar to r, so why we can just add degree 1?
When you multiply two polynomials you add their degrees, so the degree of
t * r(t)^p is 1 + the degree of r times p.
so here t is a polynomial with degree one? and also must degree(r)=degree(q), since we only know that alpha should be of the form alpha=q/r where q and r are polynomials?
We don't a priori know anything about the degree of r and q, but no matter what they are the degree of q^p is divisible by p, while the degree of t r^p is not
since t=(q/r)^p, it seems that if difference of deg(q) and deg(r) is divisible by p, then t must have deg(t)=0 mod p.
You’re really trying to show that you don’t have equality in the polynomial ring F_p[t]
So remember what you know about polynomials and apply that here—F_p(t) is just Frac(F_p[t])
probably i need explanation about why deg(t)=1?
That's kinda just the definition of degree.
Like the degree of a polynomial is the largest n such that t^n apears
So 1 has degree 0, t has degree 1, t^2 has degree 2 and so on
but it seems that t=(q/r)^p, so won't the degree of t related to the difference of deg(q) and deg(r)? Also what will t be, since you said t can not be anything before
I think you want to express that F_p(t) contain elements of rational functions?
If I could offer some words of advice—q and r are polynomials in t (q = q(t) and r = r(t)) so what jagr has done is write r^p(t) t = q^p(t) and deduce a contradiction from there by arguing about degrees in the polynomial ring F_p[t]
I think you need to take a few steps back here.
A polynomial is just a formal sum a0 + a1t + a2t^2 + ...
The t is just a formal symbol, it's not anything specific.
When we have a ring R, then we can define a ring of polynomials R[t]. And we can define the degree of a polynomial, and it behaves well.
You seem to want to make t into something, but it is just a formal symbol. and by itself it is a degree 1 polynomial.
oK, I got it, really appreciate your response
has anybody actually used the 2nd isomorphism theorem in a problem lol? halfway through my algebra course and I don't remeber using it once
I just opened a thread to ask a rings question (also for future questions) would someone mind taking a look https://discord.com/channels/268882317391429632/1210670975054512188
Used it a bunch in Galois theory but not much for just groups in my first course except for one time
it kinda comes up a lot in general ig
but uh i haven't seen it explicitly referred to much
i for one never remember which is 2nd and which is 3rd
Different authors use different numberings, so that's understandable
very common in comm algebra, ex localisation and stuff
I believe hes referring to the $GH/H \cong G / G \cap H$
rbmuk
Yes that's what it means to me too
Can someone explain what does sigma|X mean?
Sigma restricted to X
Then what will be elements of Sx? (ie. all elements from X?)
it seems somewhat confused that automorphisms sigma can be mapped to elements from symmetric group
Why do you say that?
Sigma permutes elements of X, hence gives you an element of SX
does permute mean something like sigma(a)=b?but all sigma fixes elements from X and sigma(X).
a function sigma : X -> X 'permutes' X if it is a bijection.
That's all that means
all sigma from Gal(E/F) seems to fix all elements from X.(ie. sigma(alpha1)=alpha1 and so on) so it seems to me that it all maps to identity?
Sigma does not fix all elements of E, it only fixes elements of F.
Why do you think that?
so we will have a map to elements of Sx now, since elements from X will not be fixed
can someone give me some pointers for parts b and c?
idk just go through the definition for b
so we will have sigma(alpha_i)=alpha_j as automorphisms from E to E?
These. will be form of elements in Gal(E/F)?
for c u have two antihomorphisms, one of them being self invertible
and the composition of two antihomomorphisms is a homomorphism
Sigma maps elements of X to other elements of X yes
is there any argument in order to argue that sigma->sigma|X is an homomorphism?
not totally related but interesting fact for b: if you take psi to be the trivial homomorphism the equalizer would be the kernel of phi
I almost thought it was category theory for a second
i'm not doing category theory tho
oh wait I am taking it as a course.
Not much. It's just that composition is still composition when you restrict a function.
I think it is hard to imagine an arugment here, it seems like intuition
I mean you can easily turn that into a formal argument.
(st)|X(x) = (st)(x) = s(t(x)) = s|X(t|X(x)) = (s|X t|X)(x)
Hence (st)|X = s|X t|X
OK, so since we have a injective homomorphism, we finally conclude that Gal(E/F) is isomorphic to the subgroup of Sx?
Yes
some pointers for 2 and 4??
For 2, A/M is a field extension of K. So if A is finitely generated and K is algebraically closed, what can you conclude?
For 4, you could use Artin-Wedderburn. Or just assume it has d+1 maximal ideals and use CRT to get a contradiction.
does two automorphism refer to map from a+bi-> a-bi and a-bi to a+bi respectively? And also can we modify it into map from z to z instead of z to conjugate(z)?
You don't need K to be algebraically closed either, just that A/M is a finite extension.
Both of the maps you've written are equal
The identity map, sending a+bi to a+bi, is the map z |-> z that you describe
And the map sending a+bi to a-bi and that sending a-bi to a+bi is also the same map
so the two maps are referring to z->z and z-> conjugate(z) right?
I've been working on this problem for a lil while now and am stuck https://gyazo.com/29db92a701bc682b8c9ec22990b49799
im a bit stuck on how to proceed
So far I showed if X is the set of diagonals of the cube, and s_4 is the group action acting on X, then the stabilizer of some diagonal i corresponds to S_3
okay now you need to find some kind of homomorphism
between S_4 to S_3 right
im not sure how it'll help me in constructing a homomorphism
which is where im stuck
i guess it'll show by orbit stabilizer theorem that S4/H has same cardinality as S_3 which may help me later on
intuitively H is the rotations of some face right
yes
I said it corresponds to 1 Type 1 rotation and 2 Type 3 rotations of a cube
if you label the diagonals 1,2,3,4
fix a diagonal and rotate it
what do you get
(visualize this as the cube staying fixed, but the diagonal rotates)
hmm
so for example the middle cube in your image
that red line
rotate the red line by 90 degrees
hmm not really
okay so you observe that to change the stabilizer from one diagonal to another we're simply rotating
change the stabilizer as in..
so what would a good surjection be
i'll think about it its not totally clear to me yet
just say one intuitively for now
think about the fact that S_4 is the disjoint union of left cosets of stab (i) for a fixed diagonal i yes
yeah
lets see
so a surjection could perhaps be "throwing out" the rotation information
wdym by throwing out the rotation information
an element of S_4 is in one of these left cosets yes?
yes
oh
Does this have something to do with that S_3 permutations can be represented in S_4?
is that what you meant by throwing out rotation information
basically the intuition is that we can get rid of the information about which diagonal we are taking the stabilizer of
let me reread some of the past messages and see
i kind of have to go rn
all good
i think what you've given me is good help but ill have to think about it
thanks for the help
Is the Z/4Z notation equally valid for the reals, i.e. R/4R? (My textbook extends what they call Z_4 to R_4, but my professor prefers the Z/4Z notation [since it conflicts with cyclic groups I think].)
what's 4ℝ equal to
Yeah you gotta need to look into how the extension works
That's a good point
Would there be some equivalent notation other than R_4, or is it just completely nonstandard in the first place?
yeah another standard notation is "0" lmao
I presume that's a joke?
no?
So 0 means R_4...
R/4R is the trivial group
I'm referring to R_4, not R/4R
R/4R was my attempt at using some other notation for R_4
what is R_4 lmao
^
can you actually define it
set of [0,4) where when (for a,b in said set) a +_4 b > 4, a +_4 b = a + b - 4
oh do you mean R/4Z
well the issue is they also do 2pi
although I guess 2piZ is valid, just doesn't yield a set of integers?
I mean sure you can talk about R/rZ for any r in R
I see, thanks
this is a standard way to write the circle group
is there a particular reason why this channel isn't just called abstract algebra?
it used to be called that and then some people decided having homological algebra and people just starting out with group theory in their first proof based math course was a bad idea
Abstract algebra is a funny term to me
you'd have questions on Tor and Ext and whatever followed up by people having trouble proving things are subgroups
The abstract is pointless other than to say it isn't high school right lol
yeah that's fair enough lmao
May I have struggles in figuring out if specific Tor is a subgroup of another group
I guess you can say that the terrm is abstract 😏
Half the people I know think that it's just a normal algebra class
One thing is that this channel is named more specifically, unlike advanced algebra or algebraic geometry, as a result, every now and then someone will post some high school geometry or algebra questions.
There have been discussions on changing algebraic geometry channel names to more specific terms, like schemes-varieties-stacks or something.
This happens rarely and people get crucified for doing it so it's a non issue really
when did that happen?
All the time lmao
I'm trying to come up with a proof that R/4Z is isomorphic to the [0, 4) group defined above (lets call it S). Can we define a homomorphism phi: R -> S, phi(x) = x mod 4, then notice that ker(phi) = 4Z, then use the first isomorphism theorem to conclude that R/4Z ~= S?
is R the real numbers?
not sure your map would make sense
if R was to be the real numbers
Yeah, R is the real numbers. I think mod can be defined for reals: x mod n is the (unique) r s.t. x = n * q + r where q in N and |r| < n
That's usually the way to prove that something is isomorphic to a quotient yes. And indeed it works
So you rarely think about the cosets directly, you just find an appropriate homomorphism and use the isomorphism theorem?
If the quotient group is isomorphic to one you're already familiar with, then yeah sure
But in this case you're just considering cosets, like the definition of the group operation in a quotient group is just that you pick two representatives and add them together. Which is exactly how you defined addition in S
So you are just working directly with the cosets
I see, thanks! Final question: is R/pZ isomorphic to R/qZ for any positive integers p and q? So there is in a way only one circle group?
yeah
Thanks 🙏
If you want a challenge try to describe the isomorphism for real numbers a and b
not really a challenge
multiplication by a fixed real number is a group automorphism of R
Level 2 challenge, prove that any continuous homomorphism R -> R is multiplication by a real number.
I think just phi: R/aZ -> R/bZ, phi(x) = (b/a)*x is an isomorphism
how do I calculate <a,b>/N where N is the normal group generated by abab^-1?
and thereafter its abelianization?
oh nvm
its ablianization is rather simple
just ZxZ/<(2,2)>
which is ZxZ_2, I think
maybe it's just $\bZ\star \bZ_2$
DarQ!
One way to calculate it is to notice that this is exactly the defining relation of a semidirect product
I don't know what semi-direct products are 
<a,b| abab^-1 = 1>
It’s like Z ltimes Z upon
I should do some algebra sometime, it's kinda funny how little algebra i know at this point 
ehhhh, it can wait a semester I bet
i don’t understand why this is related to semidirect products actually
Hmm, so what kind of answer are you looking for when you say "calculate it"
thank jagr tho!
i have seen like the construction of one via group actions, but is there a way to make some connection to this presentation?
I'll look into them
bab^-1 = a^-1
Means you have a semidirect product of Z with Z of the action a |-> a^-1
oh omg
ty
I dunno, like, to some extent I think just giving the presentation of the group is enough of a calculation, right?
ig I wanted something more concrete, like Z\str Z_2 or smth
that doesn't really work tho, does it 
Well $\mathbb Z \ltimes \mathbb Z$ is pretty concrete, if you know that it means. Otherwise I guess you would just need to describe the elements and how they multiply.
jagr2808
that makes sense
if you’re trying to describe the elements use the fact that abab^-1 is a commutation relation, so every element has a form a^ib^j, then for describing multiplication you only need to say how elements of this form multiply
(you get that ba=a^-1 b, so just at every point where you have an a to the right of a b, use this relation)
This is not isomorphic to Z * Z_2 right
It doesn't have any elements of order 2
Guessed it, but I cannot think of why right off my head.
w means e^(2pi*i/3). And I want to know if the two automorphism I find is correct here
salamander lemma
Have fun diagram chasing
I remember having that as a homeowork problem and just being like I don't think I need these 10 points
if there is a function f(x)=x^3-1 in Q[x], since f(x) is separable and f(x)=(x-1)*(x^2+x+1) , we know that E=Q(w). and [Q(w):Q]=|Gal(E/Q)|=2, so we have two automorphism from E to E. So what are the two automorphism: z->conjugate(z) and z->z?
I liked proving how diagram chasing works, I don’t like doing it :)
What is there to prove about how diagram chasing works, you just have a commutative diagram and just going around chasing elements
There needs to be more diagram lemmas with fun names.
Like this one https://www.researchgate.net/publication/341029857_The_Anaconda_lemma
It’s fun to consider how there’s like an underlying homological lattice
How do you mean?

good thing you already seen it 
I'm struggling with an exercise in Jacobson: Show that for n \geq 3, the centre of S_n is of order 1.
The centre is a subgroup, so that implies that the only element in the centre is the identity map.
My approach so far has been, take a and b to be maps in S_n. As they are not the identity, each permutes at least two elements of [n]. Say a permutes at least j and k, and b permutes at least k and m. Then a(b(k)) = a(m), whereas b(a(k)) = b(j), which may not be equal. I'm unsure about my idea of "permutes at least 2 elements", and "may not be equal", (this idea breaks for S_2 because there are only two elements to permute, thus our construction breaks).could anyone advise if (1) this approach works, (2) is there a nicer way to go about things, and (3) a hint if so. 🙂
pls ping btw
If a is not the identity, then there is some i, j different such that a(i) = j. From there I would split into to cases either a(j) = i or a(j) is different from i.
In both cases try to construct a simple permutation that doesn't commute with a.
you can always write a permutation (a b c ... z) as (1 a)(1 b)(1 c)...(1 z)
or the reverse depending on how it works specifically i forget
anyway that might help
or not
Case 1: a(j) = i. Define b(i) = 1, b(j) = i. Then ab(i) = a(1) \neq i (by bijectivity of a) whereas ba(i) =i.
Case 2: a(j) \neq i. Define b(j) = i, b(i) = j. Then ab(i) \neq i, whereas ba(i) = i
And this only works when n \geq 3 because then I have to make a third choice in Case 1.
thanks jagr
Yeah, so you sort of implicitly assumed neither i or j was equal to 1. So in general you would just have to replace 1 with something different from i and j
or you can say that the center is normal but there are only very few normal subgroups of S_n
lol
Make sense.
this feels very like presupposing my conclusion
actually
it does a bit but i think it's fine
feels sus tho lol
i thought about it for 5 secs and concluded it was fine and that's just the most reliable thing in existence
lol
Like a year ago!
I have question regarding modulo
i do not really understand
what is the bar suppose to mean
can somebody help with that
mod n
well then what is the diffrence between a bar and not a bar
because they both mean mod n
can you give an example
no
look at the screenshot you sent
they are defining k-bar as k mod n
idk how to give an example of this
there are examples already in the screenshot
3-bar = 1002-bar
etc.
but the integers 3 and 1002 are in fact not equal
becasue 3/3 = remainder(0) and 1002/3 = remainder 0
i see that but i mean
we write as well 11 = 8 mod 3
is that not the same
youre asking whether “11=8” is the same phrase as “11 = 8 mod 3”?
im aksing if its the same as bar yes
what
if its the same as saying 11 bar = 8 bar
sure then i get it eventhough i do not like the notation because it reminds me of conjugate of a complex number
you can alternatively view the elements of Z/nZ as sets of integers with the same remainder when divided by n
but i suspect that isnt a particularly helpful perspective at this stage
i see
The bar is the equivalence class
you will see this more than once: in general $\bar x$ for some $x \in R$ usually means the image of $x$ under $R \to R/I$ for some ideal $I$ of $R$
or the image under some other map, but usually under a quotient
The 2bar mod n is the set of all integers that equal 2 mod n.
(I prefer the notation [x] for this)
what do you mean with second bar
What
[2] = {2,2+n,2+2n,2+3n,...}
e.g. if n=2, [2]=[0]=evens
$\bar 2$
mod n
Mod 2, [0] ≠ [1].
\bar 2 = [0] and [1]
Mod n≥2, [0] ≠ [1]
Why is [0] equal to [1]?
no equal to each other
but i mean that when i say 2\bar this mean actuall 2 mod n and this equal to the equivalen class [0] and [1] together
[1] ≠[0] because they are different sets.
not equal to each other
huh what
ℤ/2ℤ = {[0], [1]}
If you use \bar{2} to mean ℤ/2ℤ, everyone will come after you with pitchforks.
Z/2 is bad. Me no like.
im a Z/2Z guy but if i have to write quick i do Z/2
Z/2 would make me think "??? is this the coset 1/2 Z in something like Q?"
Z_2 is quick!
i think of 2 adics then
that is what i want to say
fair
Eh
I've literally never used the p-adics.
analyst spotted
I've been doing more algebra recently.
Good.
By that I mean learning algebra that I really should've known, like the isomorphism theorems beyond the first.
Learning what a modular lattice is helped me finally understand the lattice isomorphism theorem
the stuff ive been learning the past year doesnt need any group theory beyond like simple groups
and silly me can only remember so much
imo Sylow's theorem should be replaced in introductory algebra classes with something else
my alg 1 course did too much
unfortunately...
why unfortunately?
And why jk? i think its fair to call p-adics analysis since they have a complete metric
Would it be right to say that all groups with prime order have only one distinct form? (i.e. group table)
Yes, this is called isomorphism type. There is an unique group of order p up to isomorphism
Indeed, the only groups of prime order are cyclic.
Fun fact: the first product of two primes such that the only group of that order is cyclic is 15. And the first product of three primes is 255
(and the pattern stops there)
What is the next one?
i forgot, i just remember its not of the form 2^n-1
darn, I was hoping to find it in oeis
thanks!
you're welcome
Also I just realized that the pattern for number of groups for a given order is the first entry to oeis
god bless
they have their priorities straight
hmm
is there a list of oeis sequences with just brief descriptions anywhere
or a next button i can click
wdym by next
you can just edit the link
do i really have to edit the url every time
if you are searching, you can scroll through the matches. If you just want to look at a random ones, you can modify the number in the url.
you can make a script to automate it
(5)
just type in a random sequence and scroll through them on a single page then
ctrl-l (2)
backspace (3)
number (4)
enter (5)
actually you need to click ctrl-l then right then backspace 😉
install qutebrowser and make a macro to automatically increment the url with a key press, its pretty easy
yea they said 6 keys
it's 7
why would i need to click
I consider ctrl + L one key since its done with both hands at the same time
it's literally two keys, this is not up for debate
why would i need to click??
what is 'hit'
it
what am i clicking on
yeah and highlights (in 95% of browsers)
lol
I'm an advid ctrl-l haver, I know my stuff 😉
i literally did not realise, clicking right arrow is literally unconscious
fr
told you
anyway 7 is definitely too many
5 + 2
just create a user script, easy
but that would be like
thats a whole lot of overhead
but think about all the seconds those minutes of work would save!
I'm starting to see where all my time goes
anyway, groups am I right?
with qutebrowser you can make little macros for little stuff like this in like 10 keypresses
qutebrowser sucks tho
but so does every other browser
which is unfortunate
life is unfair
well qutebrowser uses vim-like keybindings
yeah but I just recall it not being that good back when I checked it out many years ago
yeah
and vimium c has a ton of functionality
how come it doesnt have macros
good question
it do be cute though, i use it sometimes when i need to do some simple web stuffs
me too besti
is this a good proof
let $n$ be a positive integer
\newline
\textbf{(a) }If (a) and (b) are integers congruent modulo (n), so (a \equiv b \pmod{n}), shows that (\text{ggd}(a, n) = \text{ggd}(b, n)). Thus, (\text{ggd}(a, n)), for (a \in \mathbb{Z}/n\mathbb{Z}), is well defined.
\begin{proof}
$ggd(a,n) = ggd(b,n)$
\newline
we know that $a \equiv b \mod n$ that they have the same remainder or in other words the following holds:
\begin{align*}
n | a &- b \
a - b &= qn \
a &= b + qn\
b &= a +- qn
\end{align*}
we know that the $ggd(a,n)| a$ and $n$ and furthermore we know that a equals $a = b + qn$ so this means that the $ggd(a,n) | b + qn$ this subsequently means that $ggd(a,n) | b$ and that $ggd(a,n) | qn$. we also know that $ggd(b,n) | b$ and $ggd(b,n)| n$. this actually means that $ggd(b,n) | a+(-qn)$ or $ggd(b,n) | a $ and $ggd(b,n) | -qn$ and therefore $ggd(b,n) | qn$ this also means that:
\begin{equation*}
ggd(a,n) = ggd(b,n)
\end{equation*}
\end{proof}
ggd or gcd are the same its the highest common divisor
Just curious, what does ggd stand for?
its in dutch
ah
if you can help me with that (:
I'll let someone else look at it in addition, but so far I notice that you don't define q and you use b x qn at some point instead of b + qn?
Mootje
I'm not sure that gcd(a,n)|b+qn => gcd(a,n)|b, gcd(a,n)|qn generally?
although I guess you are utilizing that a === b and qn has divisor of n
still not convinced it holds like that though
you are right actually
can every derived series be written as the homology for some chain complex? as in H_n(C) = G^n. if there is such a construction, can anyone point me in the right direction
yeah take the chain complex where all the differentials are 0 lmfao
replace this with a quasi-isomorphic chain complex
idk this is silly
you have to ask a more refined question if you want a good answer
This works?
Wow
isn't this what i am asking though? to find a quasi isomorphic chain complex to the trivial one
but yeah i'll try to refine the question and come back
yes but you have so much freedom to do this replacement that you can't expect an interesting answer without asking something more specific
makes sense
maybe the point here is that derived series are not interesting as a homology then?
or well, i guess you could say that about any homology then 
i'll try and make sense of what i want to ask
nGroupoid's answer had nothing to do with the derived series.
Give me any sequence, I can find a chain complex with that as the homology.
that was the point of my second answer
well not answer
but my second message
this stemmed from trying to give an example of homology to someone who had seen derived series before, and to say that they had seen a specific example of a broader concept
So, quasi isomorphism just means a morphism that induced iso on homology, right?
i believe so
Are the derived series a homology group of something interesting?
lol that's your question
But hey, now I get it 🙂
well i kind of just assume they are interesting
it is more about, how can we express the derived series using homology in a meaningful way, but that is too broad a question because of what ngroupoid said
Here's a paper that I don't understand. Sorry if it's useless.
In 1964, John Stallings established an important relationship between the low-dimensional homology of a group and its lower central series. We establish a similar relationship between the low-dimensional homology of a group and its derived series. We also define a torsion-free-solvable completion of a group that is analogous to the Malcev comple...
i think it is also out of my depth but looks like it touches on what i was asking
thank you for the link!
Ahhh
Right, you can take homology of the group
And do fun stuffs, I guess
It's quite interesting how you can consider a group as a discrete group, and work on it topologically.
can somone helo with the folloowin
\textbf{(a) }If (a) and (b) are integers congruent modulo (n), so (a \equiv b \pmod{n}), shows that (\text{ggd}(a, n) = \text{ggd}(b, n)). Thus, (\text{ggd}(a, n)), for (a \in \mathbb{Z}/n\mathbb{Z}), is well defined.
\begin{proof}
(a \equiv b \pmod{n}), so this implies that $n | a - b$ or this is also equal to:
\begin{equation*}
a - b = qn
\end{equation*}
so this means that:
\begin{equation*}
a = qn + b
\end{equation*}
we then want to prove that
\begin{equation*}
gg(a,n) = gcd(qn+b,n) = gcd(b,n)
\end{equation*}
suppose that $ggd(b,n) = d$ this implies that $d| b$ and $d|n$ this also implies that $d| qn$ so this means that $d | qn + b$ this means that d is the common factor of $qn+b$ and also of $n$ but we now want to show that $d$ is the gr
Mootje
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for more information.
(You may edit your message to recompile.)
Mootje
let $n$ be a positive integer
\newline
\textbf{(a) }If (a) and (b) are integers congruent modulo (n), so (a \equiv b \pmod{n}), shows that (\text {ggd}(a, n) = \text{ggd}(b, n)). Thus, (\text{ggd}(a, n)), for (a \in \mathbb{Z}/n\mathbb{Z}), is well defined.
\begin{proof}
(a \equiv b \pmod{n}), so this implies that $n | a - b$ or this is also equal to:
\begin{equation*}
a - b = qn
\end{equation*}
so this means that:
\begin{equation*}
a = qn + b
\end{equation*}
we then want to prove that
\begin{equation*}
gg(a,n) = gcd(qn+b,n) = gcd(b,n)
\end{equation*}
suppose that $ggd(b,n) = d$ this implies that $d| b$ and $d|n$ this also implies that $d| qn$ so this means that $d | qn + b$ this means that d is the common factor of $qn+b$ and also of $n$ but we now want to show that $d$ is the gr
\newline
\end{proof}
Mootje
Compile Error! Click the
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(You may edit your message to recompile.)
im not really sure how to continue
Look at #❓how-to-get-help
Asking for help here is fine that’s the entire point of these channels
Now that you've shown that d is a common factor of both a and n, you need to show that d is the greatest common divisor by introducing a number "c" such that it's a common factor of a and n, then show c<=d after some manipulations. Ping me to elaborate or you can try doing it yourself.
i see
i proved in another way
but not really sure if its correct
this is what i did
@vernal flume im not really sure if this is correct
i am facing difficulties with part i
i tried looking at the contrapositive
also as cosets are disjoint besides the first term in the union the rest of a_2H_2 to others must equal the union of rest of cosets of H_1
I don't understand pls elaborate
How does being the largest H_i work
If we don't know any of them are finite yet
The problem is you could have [G:H_i] = \infty with each H_i also infinite if their argument is what I think it is
Hiding the evidence
Anyway this is a very strange question and it’s making my head hurt
Same
I think it’s because it’s a finite union of these cosets, that has to be where it would break
But again, this
Its clear that at least one of the H_i must infinite or the union would be finite. If there are an infinite number of cosets for all of the H_i then since it’s a finite union of other cosets can we conclude via a disjoint argument that only a finite number of cosets of each H_i are contained in this union, giving a contradiction?
Using this idea
Gee wilikers…
First of all if that then we have a finite union on one side and infinite one on the other
I don't think it is true that at least one H_i is infinite
Part (ii) seems to contradict this
Then we would have a finite union of finite sets, contradicting the fact that G is infinite
Once again I reiterate that an infinite subgroup can still have infinite index
Z as a subgroup of R
Or S^1 as a subgroup of C^\times if you want two of the same cardinality
I see, but part (ii) explicitly asks to show that G is the union of the cosets of finite index
It doesn't imply that each H_i is finite?
Yeah we agree there
no, but if you drop the infinite ones, you are left with a counterexample
Index being infinite dosent guarentee uhh
Tell
I’m on da edge of my seat
I'll leave the source here incase it helps
: Problems in Abstract Algebra by A R Wadsworth
From groups ch
I’m trying to intuitively understand this problem
It’s saying we can write g = a_ih_i for all g in G and finitely many a_i on an intuitive level I guess
Assume the indicies are ALL infinite. With the index and a specified coset we can find an partition of G for each a_i H_i with that coset in it. I’m wondering if we can hijack the infinite partitions that each contain one of the finite union’s sets
choice jumpscare
Uhh probably not a very important observation but if something say b is in a_2H_2 then it can be written as bH_2
We can keep getting new letters if we assume every index is infinite
So starting from a_1 we get there is some H_i with an infinite number of representatives of H_1 in it
Then that H_i can be written as those things multiplied with it
Again it's assumed of infinite index
If a|b and b|a then a=+b or a=-b not a=b
But yeah in this case since gcd is always a positive integer, a=+b
Sure I will write both prove because I really love it
Ok this has been resolved
Thank you everyone
The author is apparently very mean
Let’s have a peep
Inclusion exclusion crossed my mind I must admit but I didn’t see how it would be useful
Cheeky little poset
Okay I am unsure it worked lol
So it’s a finite union, but over sets which are each a part of infinite partitions of the first set
I’m wondering if you can inductively prove it by somehow combining cosets of two subgroups
If we’re to go with the inclusion exclusion nonsense then |a1H1 U … U anHn| = |H1| + … + |Hn| - mobius function junk
I’m still not seeing how this would show something to do with the index
Strange
Are you guys still stuck on (i) lol
I want to see if I can come up with the argument used without just Googling it but I may need to relent
Assume G, infinite, is the finite Union of cosets with infinite order. Firstly each of these subgroups are proper otherwise the index would be 1
I have an idea
The intersection of two of the cosets is either empty or is a coset itself in the intersection of the two subgroups
However the index of this subgroup doesn’t necessarily need to be infinite
Quick question; does the theorem from group theory that says that Znm is isomorphic to Zn X Zm if gcd(n,m) = 1 hold if we replace the groups with rings?
I can't figure out this proof at all. I don't understand how we justify f_i > e_i for some i. Can someone help?
o(g) = |<g>| and exp G = the smallest positive integer e s.t. x^e = 1 for all x in G.
Chinese remainder theorem?
In general if two two-sided ideals $X$ and $Y$ of ring $R$ satisfy $X + Y = R$ then $\frac{R}{X \cap Y} \cong \frac{R}{X} \times \frac{R}{Y}$
If h^og isn’t 1 it has to have a bigger order?
Dyfunction Executive
Hence one of the exponents in the prime factorisation has to be bigger
I thought this, but im not convinced the order has to be bigger
ok thanks
Yeah ok fair enough
You can argue this by splitting h into p-parts for each prime but ill keep it basic. If h^o(g) isn’t 1 then clearly o(h) cannot divide o(g), so one of the prime exponents must be higher
If o(h) did divide o(g) then h^(o(g)) = h^(ko(h)) = 1^k = 1
It holds for Z/nZ and Z/mZ because Bezout’s lemma implies there exists a and b such that an + bm = 1, so it generates all of Z. Therefore the ideals <n> and <m> are comaximal, and their intersection is <mn> by divisibility. Thus Z/mnZ is iso to Z/mZ x Z/nZ
ahhhhhhh
The proof of sylow’s theorems are so fucking simple I’m surprised I didn’t figure it out
They’re easy once you know them
i swear to god working with divisibility is the hardest thing known to man
the rest of the argument is nice tho
I think I have an inductive argument on the number of distinct subgroups that apear:
||If there's just one subgroup that appears, then G is the finite union of cosets means it has finite index||
||If G is such a union with n distinct subgroups, let Hn be one of those groups. If Hn has finite index we're done. If Hn has infinite index, then not every coset apears, hence the is a coset of Hn contained in the union of the other groups. By left multiplication this means any coset of Hn can be written as a finite union of cosets of the other groups. In particular the cosets that apear in the decomposition can be. Thus G is the finite union of cosets of the other n-1 groups. So by induction one of those has finite index.||
Group action on groups of prime power order
HOW THE FUCK DID I NOT THINK OF THAT
um spoilers sweaty
Why spoilers if it’s literally nothing to do with the ongoing convo 
spoilers for me in about 3 weeks time
u just spoiled that captain america dies
good job
Don’t worry, now it’s trivial
wait no I didn’t get to it yet in Jacobson lmao, I just started last night and finished the exercises in Chapter 0 lmao
are you just doing the exercises?
No,
I’m reading it and doing the exercises when I get to them
Well, I alternate between doing the even and odd exercises
gotcha
I read over all the problems, but if I don’t immediately know how to do a problem I do it
I need to review my lin alg but I really cba taking notes so I think I'll implement ur strat
until i get to stuff I'm looking at for the first time
I know a lot of the content in Jacobson already but it’s worded much nicer than D&F
i plan on using D&F as an exercise book
Exercises are much harder though. But because it’s not for a class I used abbreviations for my understanding
Overly formalizing it takes way too long often times if I understand the solution on my own
the important thing is that you're able to come up with the ideas
That’s what I focus on
If a problem uses repetitive wording I use ditto marks lmao
thats why i specified
how do u get good at this lol>
- dont do physics
Like once I start a proof I am generally ok, but I can not always start
The problem is trying to keep at the level that the textbook is at because I know more than the textbook has provided thus far
This one took a bit for me to process Lmao
i skipped this one 
But I use abbreviations or English sometimes like for that one
Though once I slowed down and actually read it, it’s fuckin awesome that you can “generate” a equivalence relation
I really liked that exercise
I am excited to get to the Galoisy stuff
But my goal is to try to take an alternate approach to the fundamental theorem of Galois theory
I read these as double cosets for like 15 seconds
yeah this is cool
I want to prove Artin’s Lemma by proving F is an **algebraicly finitely generated extension ** of F^G
For G Finite subgroup of Aut(G)
reminds me of generating a simplical complex from a bunch of 1-simplices
and then invoke Neother normalization
To make it algebraicly generated as a module
Which the dimension being |G| comes from that
I have an idea
Let F be a field, G a finite subgroup of Aut(G) of order N, and F^G the fixed point subring.
Because G is Finite, F over F^G is an integral extension and thus algebraic. Any intermediate ring must be a field.
Fix some x not in F^G, and consider the valuation map from F^G[X_1…X_N] that sends the indeterminates to the orbit of x under G, necessarily of cardinality N.
I want to prove that the map must be epimorphic
I can assume there’s an intermediate field K that is the image, I wonder if I can prove that it can’t happen
Are the modules $Hom(M\wedge M,N)$ and $Alt(M\times M,N)$ isomorphic? Where can I find a reference for this statement?
username0000
this should just be the universal property of the alternating product
which is in turn a combination of the universal props of the tensor product and quotient
WAIT A MOMENT
waiting
The monoid-algebra F^G[G]
Which is a commutative ring
I don’t really know if it’s a field
FINITELY GENERATED MODULE WAIT A
Wait a second, I think F^G[G] is isomorphic to F
As F^G[G]-modules, yes. But as rings no. Since F^G[G] has zerodivisors
Oh good point, what is a zero divisor you can think of?
1 - g for example
1e - 1g yeah
Got ya
Trying to see what I can do with that ring
It’s not hard to show it’s a quotient ring of R[X_1…X_|G|] via either universal property or a similar construction to the tensor product
putting a backslash \ before your _ and * will prevent discord from turning them into italics and stuff
I am too lazy to do it on mobile except for when I want to escape asterisks for jokes
Do you think I can prove Artin’s lemma possibly by using this ring
Idk, seems it would be easier to just use the usual linear algebra way
The usual linear algebra way seems like magic
I had a brain wave
Chinese remainder theorem
what is combinatorial commutative algebra?
What even are fields
Is there software that computes the square root of an element in a multivariate polynomial ring modulo a certain ideal?
E.g. I believe that -2x^6 - 40x^3 + 16 is a square in Z[x, y] modulo (3x^4 + 12x, -x^3 + y^2 - 1), but I don't know how to compute the square root
this question feels more suitable for #math-discussion tbh
otherwise look in your abstract algebra textbook for the definition
im having a little trouble understanding the proof of this theorem, if im not mistaken an ideal must be a subring of a ring, so what this correspondence is doing is using the fact I think that F_q is isomorphic to F_p[x]/f where q = p^n and f is an irreducible poly thats just my guess and im pretty sure im wrong
obviously the whole in my logic is that F_q is isomorphic to F_p[x]/f not F_q[x]/f
where q = p^n
I think this argument is not using what is q
That is, e.g. I do not see the mention of p, and that q = p^n.
yeah but i believe my professor is skipping steps
Why though?
because his notes are full of him skipping steps lol
Ah
I don't think it is using "F_q is isomorphic to F_p[x] / f".
Rather, it is defining a new ring. And an ideal on the ring
the new ring being all the polynomials of the form c_0+c_1x + ... + c_(n-1)x^n-1?
Yep!
Basically you can identify that with F_q[x] / (x^n - 1)
By like, regarding "x^n = 1"
so if we regard x^n = 1 then it follows that this new ring is a subring
or subfield
It's just a new ring
Not really a subring of F_q[x], because multiplication is different
Like, on F_q[x] there is no zero divisor, but F_q[x] / (x^n - 1) has an obvious zero divisor of (x-1).
I meant a subring of F_q[x]/(x^n-1)
Ah, do you mean C?
well our new C the ones with the polynomial types
Yeah C is an ideal to make/identify (whether C is a ring or not.. is debatable)
so for the most part.... yes?
Yeah except that C does not have identity ( 1 )
so how does it follow though that part is not exactly clear to me
.
It is showing that C can be considered an ideal, not a subring.
Do you recall what is an ideal?
yeah
The line "Since a(x)c(x) = .." is showing that C is an ideal of the "polynomial" ring F_q[x] / (x^n - 1).
yeah I got that part but what Im interested in is for C to be an ideal, if im not mistaken it must be a subgroup of the quotient group F_q[x]/x^n-1 first
this is also one of the conditions for C to be an ideal
or is that wrong?
Yeah, it should be.
Indeed, there is an abuse of notation happening here, by identifying C as a subset of F_q[x] / (x^n - 1).
Which is basically the correspondence given above
is it an isomorphism?
Isomorphism as an additive abelian group, yeah.
I admit this kind of identifiation may look like "skipping steps", but this is quite common approach in algebra (and other math).
I see, so from my understanding he is showing there is an isomorphism to this specific subset of F_q[x]/x^n-1, is that correct?
or saying rather
The isomorphism is immediate
You can also notice that.. "(c_0, .., c_{n-1})" is not given an algebraic definition, so you can simply regard it as a polynomial.
Ok so it's obvious but this is what he was saying essentially right?
then my second question would be, do we regard x^n = 1 because 1 is a root of x^n-1 or something its not really clear to me why this is the case tbh
F_q[x] / (x^n - 1) happens to work out well in this case.
?
Since you want the ring to have dimension n over F_q, you want F_q[x]/(f) where deg(f) = n.
With the setting f = x^n - 1, multiplication by x basically gives "cycling" the code.
yeah
For instance, with F_q[x]/(x^3 - 1),
x (2x^2 + 3x + 1) = 2 + 3x^2 + x = 3x^2 + x + 2
(2, 3, 1) -> (3, 1, 2)
mhm, yeah it gives this effect because x^n = 1, how does x^n = 1 be though?
Wdym "how does x^n = 1 be"?
how is it that x^n = 1
Ah, the ring F_q[x] / (x^n - 1) is basically like
Polynomials, but x^n - 1 = 0. So x^n = 1.
If you recall modular arithmetics, you might understand this better
oh right
yeah ok I see lmao
because we are modding by x^n -1
thanks @cobalt heath
No problem!
if you give me an abelian group G, can you always find a ring R such that G (with the inherited product) is an ideal in R?
(i assume rings are commutative and have an identity)
i've found an example of an abelian group which can't be made into a ring, but i'm not sure if you can ever not make it into an ideal
seems hard
not sure how to approach this in a general sense
you could probably do it for finite abelian groups, hah
shouldn't that example work?
mmh if I understand you want G to be embedded in the ring where the operation on G is multiplication on the ring, right?
in that case G has an identity element, so the ideal would also be a ring
but maybe you meant G should be embedded with respect to addition in the ring
You mean that the addition in the ring is the operation of G? If so you can make this into an ideal.
Consider the ring ZxG with pointwise addition, and multiplication (m, g)(n, h) = (mn, ng + mh). Then G is an ideal.
Let $h: \mathbb{C}^{\times} \rightarrow \mathbb{C}^{\times}$ be defined by $h(z) = z^{4}$. Prove that $h$ is a homomorphism of multiplicative groups and find the kernel of $h$.
gian
The kernel are those elements that map to the identity, so for which z do we have
z^4 = 1?
(so the kernel should have 4 elements)
Let $G$ be a finitely generated group . Then show that for fixed positive integer $k$ there are only finite number of normal subgroup of $G$ of index $k$. How to do this can someone can give a hint ?
spectrum
how do i prove for 0 < x < y and 0 < u < v, xu < yv for x,y,u,v being real numbers
it seems rather trivial but I cannot figure out what axioms to use
xu < xv < yv
relate subgroups to homomorphisms to S_n
thanks, that's clever
I don't know where else I would ask this question. This might belong in linear algebra. I guess this is a question about modules
What is the basis of the complex numbers C as a complex vector space?
I think as a real vector space the basis is 1,i
But as a complex vector space it is (1,i)? I don't get that. Is that saying if I pick an a+ib I can always find an c+id so that (c+id)(1+i)=a+ib?
The complex numbers is a 1 dimensional complex vector space. So any nonzero complex number will give you a basis. For example {1} is a basis, but also {i} would be a basis or {1-i} or whatever.
Not sure where you're getting (1, i) from...
it should hopefully be clear that C is a 1 dimensional vector space over itself by that exact reasoning you just gave
Oh sorry for the confusion that was from some specific thing I was reading.
I guess if I have a z in C it's a basis cause if I have another w in C then (w/z)z=w. Yeah so anything works thanks
(1,i) generates C as well it's just a wonky copy of C 
wait, what is ng in this context?
oh, is it just addition n times?
HausdorffT1
Can anyone give an overview of the proof for why (Z/pZ)* is cyclic?
The quotient ring R[x]/(x^2 + 1) defines the complex numbers.
The quotient ring R[x]/(x^2) defines the dual numbers
The quotient ring R[x]/(x^2 - 1) defines the split-complex numbers
This is blowing my mind. That’s so amazing to me that there is this single method to produce all these weird and exotic algebraic systems. Abstract algebra is an absurdly powerful tool!!
There’s literally infinite possibilities of quotient rings to just try out and see what they’re like
Hey, I need help doing a proof if anyone is not busy.
The proof is Let $\sigma$ be a cycle. Prove that if $\sigma$ is even, then $\sigma^{-1}$ is even as well.
Reactorge
I started by saying that since $\sigma$ is even, it can be written as a composition of an even number of transpositions. I'm unsure of where to go from there
Reactorge
what's the inverse of a bunch of transpositions
the same transpositions right?
well what happens to the order
sgn: S_n -> Z/2Z is a group homomorphism.
looking at cycle or transposition decompositions will work just as well
((12))^{-1} = (21) = (12)
((12) (23))^{-1} = (32) (21)
err
((1 2 5) (4 3) )^{-1} = ??
notice how the lengths and number of groupings are the same
but you can also try the abstract approach: sgn is a group homomorphism, and then you can figure it out
I was eventually able to figure it out! The proof I did was
Let $\sigma$ be a cycle, and let $\sigma$ be even. This means $\sigma$ can be written as a composition of an even number of transpositions. Let $\sigma = (a_1 a_2 a_3 \dots a_{2n+1})$, where n is a positive integer. If we take the inverse of this, it becomes $\sigma^{-1} = (a_{2n+1} \dots a_3 a_2 a_1)$. Sincee they have the same elements and the same length, $\sigma^{-1}$ must be even as well.
Reactorge
This works
Well, I skimmed it,
actually I didn't look at it
maybe it doesn't work
anyways I was gesturing towards the easiest way:
sgn(σ^{-1})=sgn(σ)^{-1}=1^{-1}=1 so even
(here, Z/2Z thought of as ({-1,1},×))
that is, it's a group homomorphism, so sign of inverse is inverse of sign is inverse of +1 is +1.
likewise the product of an even and an odd is odd
We haven't done the sgn stuff so I have no clue what that means 😭
Why doesn't it?
I wonder if this is related to the classification of quadratic forms over R
is ${\frac{1}{2}k : k \in \mathbb{Z} }$ the smallest subgroup of $\mathbb{Q}$ containg 1/2?
Dubs
Yes
what about the smallest subring?
What do you think?
let me try
Indeed it is not a ring.
(1/2)^{k} l?
Prove it
First show it's a ring, then argue why it's the smallest.
If you can't prove any part of it, try disproving that part.
I picked a,b in S and assume k1<k2 to factor (1/2) outside
I assumed you had
I proved S is an abelian subgroup of +
a+(-b) in S whenever a,b in S
finally it’s closed under multiplication
wolg* k1<k2
yeah
since Q is a ring, i assume associativity and distributivity is gifted for it’s elements
@coral spindle
is that correct?
Hint: assume you have a subring containing 1/2 and construct some elements in it
that’s how i started with
i generalised it to this above
I’m wondering something similar to this, to prove 4Z is contained in 2Z, i can say any element in 4Z is a= 2(2l), is some multiple of 2.
Yes, what's the confusion
i mean can i argue something like that
You just did
Just try the proof
sure
No idea where to start
The hint is suggesting that i show that the group $H = \mathbb{Z}^_{p^m} \times \mathbb{Z}^_{q^n}$ has two or more elements of order 2 to contradict the fact that H is cyclic
Noah Song
But I'm lost on how to show that
Do you know any element of order 2 in (Z/p^n)^*? Or what about in (Z/3)^* or (Z/5)^*?
(2, 1) has order two in (Z/3)^* or (Z/5)^*
Yeah, so 2 is an element of order 2 in (Z/3)^*
Do you also know an element of order 2 in (Z/5)^*? What about (Z/p)^* or (Z/p^n)^*?
4 has order to in Z/5 * , this leads me to guess that elements of order two in (Z/p)^* are p-1, but im not sure why that is. For (Z/p^n)^*, I dont any intuition for, except a random guess would be p^n-1
I'm going to think about why elements of order two in (Z/p)^* are p-1
Well, try to verify your guess. What happens if you square it mod p^n
Noah Song
So the element p-1 done twice is 1 mod p
but for (Z/p^n)^* , p^(2n-2) mod p^n is p^2 * p^-2 mod p^n, which is just 1 mod p^n
Nice
So for $H = \mathbb{Z}^_{p^m} \times \mathbb{Z}^_{q^n}$, we can choose two elements of order two:
(a, b) where $a = p^{m-1} , b = 1$
(c, d) where $c = 1, d = q^{n-1}$
Noah Song
Therefore, the group is not cyclic.
Thank you so much !!
How difficult is this problem? I don't know if I'm meant to go into math or not. Is needing help on something like this a bad sign
I wouldn't classify it as a particularly hard problem, but I wouldn't say needing help is a bad sign.
How to tackle problems is a skill you build up, and can take time. Everyone struggles in the beginning.
Its difficult is based on how comfortable you are with groups. If you are very experienced, it's simple. If not, it is difficult precisely because it requires identifying several relevant facts.
Also I didn't help very much, so that shouldn't take away from what you accomplished.
Seems this is not quite right yet.
p^(2n-2) = p^(n-2)p^n, so is 0 mod p^n. You seem to have reduced the exponent modulo n, or something to that extent.
Hey I'm trying to show $\mathbb{Z}/ n \mathbb{Z}\otimes \mathbb{Z}/ m \mathbb{Z}\cong \mathbb{Z}/gcd(m,n)\mathbb{Z}$. I know there is a bilinear map $f:\mathbb{Z}/ n \mathbb{Z}\times \mathbb{Z}/ m \mathbb{Z}\to \mathbb{Z}/gcd(m,n)\mathbb{Z}$ defined by $f([x]_n,[y]m)=[xy]{gcd(m,n)}$. So by the tensor product universal property there is some $f':\mathbb{Z}/ n \mathbb{Z}\otimes \mathbb{Z}/ m \mathbb{Z}\to \mathbb{Z}/gcd(m,n)\mathbb{Z}$ such that $f'\circ \pi=f$. It's not clear to me why this map is injective. For instance I can consider $6([3]_4\otimes [1]_2)+5([2]_4\otimes [1]_2)\in \mathbb{Z}/4\mathbb{Z}\otimes \mathbb{Z}/2 \mathbb{Z}$ but $f'(6([3]_4\otimes [1]_2)+5([2]_4\otimes [1]_2))=6([1]_2)+5[0]_2=[6]_2=[0]_2$. Is this not the right tensor product?
HausdorffT1
6(3 \otimes 1) = (3 \otimes 6) = 3 \otimes 0 = 0 \otimes 0
5(2 \otimes 1) = 10 \otimes 1 = 0 \otimes 1 = 0 \otimes 0
of course 0 will map to 0
my hint for this is bezout's lemma
Ahh okay thank you!
[That's so wild](#advanced-algebra message)
Are you and TStepped in the same class or sth
ip logger MODS
🔪 I NEED THE IPs
oh you recommended bezout's as well lol
Extremely similar question, exactly the same hint
Haha yeah it should be p^n - 1 instead?
Thanks again
Wait what about $[1]_{12}\times [4]_8 \in \mathbb{Z}/12\mathbb{Z}\otimes \mathbb{Z}/8\mathbb{Z}$ is this actually zero 0?
Cause from that map $f'( [1]_{12}\times [4]_8)=[4\cdot 1]_4$ is this just another cause where it's actually zero
HausdorffT1
smokes crack and dies
at this point I'd just start working with things that look like a (x) b it makes my head hurt less
I think 1 (x) 4 = 1 (x) 3*3^(-1)*4 = 12 (x) 3^(-1) = 0
anyway, 3^(-1) is just 3 in Z/8Z, but I wanted to emphasize that it doesn't have to be calculated
Guess it's worth noting that this aproach uses that 3 (=12/gcd(8, 12)) is relatively prime to 8, thus wouldn't work if you wanted to show something like
1 (x) 6 being 0 in Z/12 (x) Z/18
I'm not really sure how to apply bezout. If I have something in the kernel $f'([a]_n\otimes [a']_m + [b]_n \otimes [b']m)=[a\cdot a'+b\cdot b']{gcd(n,m)}$ then all that tells me is that $a\cdot a'+b\cdot b'=k\cdot gcd(n,m)$. I don't see how bezout tells me anything or even how to apply it. Is it something like $l\cdot gcd(a,b)=k \gcd(n,m)$ then you have the division of integers $gcd(n,m)|gcd(a,b)$ then this is enough to say that the original $([a]_n\otimes [a']_m)+([b]_n\otimes [b']_m)$ is trivial since a and b being divisible by gcd(n,m) means each term cancels out? I genuinely don't know basic arithmetic or even gcds
HausdorffT1
What is the statement of Bézout's lemma?
This is not a trick question. I am asking you to recall the statement.
That if you have n,m integers there exists other integers r,s so that rn+sm=k gcd(n,m). Does this even hold for linear combinations with more terms i.e. kgcd(n,m,p)=rn+sm+tp
Yes it does apply to more terms, but this is irrelevant.
This is not the correct statement.
k has been added here for no reason
Woops
The statement is that for all n,m there exist r, s such that rn+sm= gcd(n,m). That's it.
Now I will tell you how to apply it: substitute rn + sm everywhere.
See what that gets you.
jayz
then is $a$ an m-tuple with elements in F_2?
jayz
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what do you mean?
It's not helpful to think of them as m-tuples
This is like
A good example is the construction of the integers. Technically integers are equivalence classes of pairs of naturals. Is that a helpful view? No.
this is why though they ought to be m-tuples since the matrix here is 2m x 2^m -1
fair enough
OK yeah sure I see why you'd say this.
F_{2^m} is, in particular, an F_2 vector space
So choose a basis for it. Tadah, you have an m-tuple of elements of F_2 describing some element of F_{2^m}
This is what's happening implicitly, I reckon.
OK I see makes sense
If I have a non-empty set X and G is a group then the set {f | f:X->G } is a group, right?
what is your operation on this set?
if you claim it's a group, give me an operation
and show the group axioms are satisfied
What is the significance of learning about PIDs, IDs, UFDs and EDs?
I can accept why we need to learn about groups, rings and fields, as they come up quite a bit in mathematics
but those domains? I am not sure. The only ones I can really come up with are either Z, or Z[X], or a subring Z(D) of a field extension Q(D)
f•g(x)= f(x)°g(x) where ° is a group operation of G.
Then if I want all x belong to X,
f•g(x)=f(x) then take g(x) be an identity element of G.( g maps every element of X to identity element of G).
Hence g is the identity element of the new Group.
Similarly, associativity comes from °, and inverse also.
For closure since ° is closure so new set will be closure under •.
Is it right?
looks fine to me yea
can you explain in more detail how you get an inverse
I don't know a lot, but you can learn from that how factorisation works, how the irreducible element and prime element are related to each other, how you can write an element of ring in terms of irreducible elements.
i don't think g(x) mapping everything to the identity of G is an identity element
actually no it is nvm
Since here my identity element is g which map every element to the identity element of X.
So let x belong to X for f(x) I take g(x) which is inverse of f(x) in group G so for all x belong to X I take inverse g(x) is inverse of f(x) in G. Hence, f•g is identity element of new group.
ok yea looks fine to me
