#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 207 of 1
By using this result I will have an element xN which is not contain in any conjugation of H/N
My doubt is here H/N is proper subgroup of G/N ..... How?
And what is Normal subset of group G?
Is this the statement you're trying to prove?
This result is just a rephrasing of that
Yes
Yes but I used this to prove given statement
a normal subgroup? idk what else it could mean. do you have the original question at hand
The coefficients of a polynomial are exactly the elementary symmetric polynomials evaluated in the roots. And the elementary symmetric polynomials are an algebraic basis for the symmetric polynomials.
Is that be tautological tho 
does anyone know of a neat way to order the permutations?
If H1 and H2 are cyclic Subgroup of a finite group G then if gcd( |H1|, |H2|)=1 , then is it correct that only element that belong to intersection of H1 and H2 is e?
Think about what the order of a common element could be
Okay got it..... if I am correct if there is any element which belongs to both set H1 and H2 then it's order also divide the order of H1 and H2 thus order of that element is 1 which is e
yes
If G is infinite and H is non-empty finite subset which is under closure operation.....is H subgroup?
take any finite field and its algebraic closure
wait
are you asking if ONLY the closure is guaranteed, then it is a subgroup?
Yes
or are you asking if an infinite group can have a finite subgroup
Any counter example
its true
if its closed under closure then every element has finite order
so we have inverses and identity
had a brainfart there
Okay thank you
i mean ye, but I'm trying to show that fact i mentioned of S(x_1,...,x_n) being some polynomial expression on the coefficients without using what you said
namely, i want to understand that statement highlighted on the wikipedia page
that S(x_1,...,x_n) being a polynomial expression on the coefficients is a consequence of the fact that the fixed field of a galois group is the galois group itself
Torsion subgroup of Z×(Z/nZ) is (0,Z/nZ) ?
Yes
Hello. Where can I find a full proof for this formula. The number of distinct necklaces with n beads and m colours for each bead.
I know it is an application to Burnside's orbit counting lemma and I did the n=8, m=2 case without this formula
F2 is the only finite algebraically closed field right?
nope, all alg closed fields are infinite
in general if k is finite, then the poly f = prod_{a in k}(x - a) + 1 has no roots
for F2, x^2+x+1 is a standard irred poly to construct F_4 
Yea
have you tried proving it yourself? What if n is prime?
There is an action of S_n on Q(X_1, …, X_n) by permitting the variables, and the fixed field is Q(Y_1, …, Y_n) where the Y_i map to the elementary symmetric polynomials in the X_i
So this is a galois extension of degree n!, it’s the splitting field of the polynomial \prod (T - X_i)
these are theorems of Newton
they are asking about c_1 and c_2 arbitrary
so it’s good to break it up between c_1 = c_2 and c_1 \neq c_2
two cases
if it can be like c1 contains interval between [0,0.4], c2 contains interval between [0.6,0.8]
c_1 and c_2 are points
They don’t contain anything
I am considering it maps from interval [0,1] to 0 for Ic, so how will Ic1 and I c2 possibly look like, if we can say Ic1 maps from [0,0.4] to 0 as an example?
Do you mean we can give examples like like c1=0.3 and f maps from c1 to 0 in I_c1? and c2=0.5 and f map from c2 to 0 in I_c2?
I had a dumb moment lol
can you share why you thought F_2 would work but not F_3?
It’s also satisfied in F_5!
oh true
I'm curious where you got this
Did you read that meme proof?
there was a blog post like for april fools a few years ago with this proof
It equates the 0 polynomial and a polynomial that equates to 0 on all elements
Breaking news: local mathematician proves that F_p[X] is finite
for part b, can someone tell me how will I_c1 look like as an example?
Idk what you mean 'look like' here, or what you're looking for. There's not any better way to describe I_c other than the definition given in the question. Maybe just draw a few functions in this ideal to make yourself happier with its elements.
I mean lfor arbitrary I_c1 and I_c2, if both of them are different, then can I have the case when Ic1 describe a map f between an interval [0,0.4] and 0. And I_c2 describe a map g between an interval [0.6, 0.8] to 0? Since Ic describe a map from interval [0,1] and 0 such that f(c)=0
I have no idea where you're getting this from
I_{c_1} := {f in R | f(c_1) = 0}, nothing has changed about the definition.
I have nothing to add here.
it seems to me that I_c1 and I_c2 are the same set? then where is the difference between I_c1 and I_c2?
c_1 and c_2 are real numbers in [0, 1]
They may be different real numbers.
Is that clear?
OK, now it is clear, really appreciate your response
Is the last part a typo?
I don't see how nZ[x] could be an ideal of Z?
Or are we talking about (Z/nZ)[x]?
Yes they mean (Z/nZ)[x]
I wouldn't really call it a typo, but it is suboptimal typesetting for (Z/nZ)[x] yeah
Yeah, it wouldn't kill to add parentheses lol
Sure, parenthesis might help, but is should also be clear from the context of what you said that it can't be that nZ[x] is an ideal in Z, so it must be (Z/nZ)[x]
Crazy, I was literally just using this in my work
It is a consequence of polya enumeration...which is a very powerful and interesting generalization that works in tons of different scenarios.
A proof is on this page https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Pólya_enumeration_theorem
The Pólya enumeration theorem, also known as the Redfield–Pólya theorem and Pólya counting, is a theorem in combinatorics that both follows from and ultimately generalizes Burnside's lemma on the number of orbits of a group action on a set. The theorem was first published by J. Howard Redfield in 1927. In 1937 it was independently rediscovered b...
You could consider this a big Burnside generalization. The "weights" idea is very flexible
I have never seriously studied counting before...and find this theorem very exciting
Is there any H subgroup of order>2 which is not in Centraliser of G but Normalizer of H in G is exactly G?
Yes
If you just started naming all groups ordered by size you would immediately find an example
S3
Indeed, the smallest non-Abelian group provides a counterexample.
S3 always good to check
is there anything wrong with this argument?
good to know -- most other approaches i saw felt a little more involved to me so i wondered if this was off. thanks!
yeah, altho a minor thing
okay maybe major - G is not commutative
(abc)^p = a^p b^p c^p is generally false. But (yxy^-1)^p happens to be yx^p y^-1 (verify this)
oh yeah, that does seem pretty significant! i'll play with that -- thank you
I figured you must've known this 
So you said “nope” sarcastically?
To a person asking if there was anything wrong with their argument?
things heating up on the groups and rings channel 🍿
Oh shoot, I just now noticed y^q and y^-q! I parsed this as y and y^-1.
yeah, all good
But if you want to prove an exercise related to this you can show that if n is the order of x, and m is the order of y and gcd(m,n) = 1 AND most importantly xy = yx, then the order of xy is m*n
This has the following consequence: If g is an element of maximal order n in a finite abelian group G, then for any other g' in G, |g'| divides n
ooh that's the next one on my list
Oh awesome
Almost accidently spoiled that one glad i didnt lol
That exercise shows up more than you would think
its pretty essential to know tbh
Agreed
poor mans structure theorem
i'm speedrunning trying to pick up enough to learn some baby projective geometry and invariant theory stuff for a research project, so trying to pick problems that seem important/useful but not spend too much more time than i need to
Hello, I'm new here. How are you? Is it possible to ask any questions here or just in the help forum?
Feel free to ask here too
No, this channel requires a vow of silence
do you have a non-math background?
bruh
alright, thanks
nah i'm doing pure math but i'm a little weird. like i've taken mostly analysis, like the full undergrad and graduate analysis sequence at my school, and complex analysis. i'm an undergrad technically but mostly i just take grad courses or stuff that seems interesting/relevant to my research
algebra is the last class i have to take
not aggressively trying to graduate cause i'm doing all this part time, got a full time job and busy life
U gonna do Ph.D?
In my undergraduate I lived a same situation
more of an algebro so I have no idea how you dodged it this long lol
Especially since you usually should take the courses in sequence which means you gotta fill the rest of your semester with something
okay the full time job hypothesis enters here lol
yeah 🙂 and i'm not getting financial aid, just self-paying at a cheap school. fewer constraints as an undergrad, like don't have to take qualifying exams within a set amount of time and don't have to meet credit hour minimums. might do phd, not sure
Would Q(zeta_4) be considered a trivial subfield of Q(zeta_8)?
Wdym trivial?
I just kinda made it up but is there a good word for when a field extension and it’s subfield are equal?
You can just say it's equal?
Or you could say it's of degree 1.
Alternatively you could say that the extension is trivial, rather than the subfield.
Sometimes I've seen inclusions K < L where K is strictly smaller called a proper subfield.
Lmfao
Sorry I meant Q(zeta_8) = Q(zeta_4), if it’s true.
But it's false
dang alr
Q(zeta_n)=Q(zeta(2n)) is only true if n is odd
If you just picture zeta_4 and zeta_8 in the complex plane it's also quite clear imo
Lmfao
Ig it does require you to know that zeta_8 is an irrational point, oh well
Logically, a line inclined at 45 degrees and the rational circle never intersect! 
Hey hey, it's intuition not a proof
Draw a picture 
Hi chmonkey
I'm not sure why this is supposed to be helpful (to Saphire gaming), what if you picture zeta_3 and zeta6, what's the difference
No tubu got stuck in bed 
Because they're obviously the negative of each other
Time to eaty
(For a particular zeta_6, but no matter)

Q(zeta4)=Q(zeta8) is obviously false but Sapphire didn't notice
Your point being?
If you picture the roots, imo it becomes clearer.
This is why.
that "just look at it" isn't a good hint, I think
OK
Q(zeta4)/Q(zeta8) = 4/8 = 1/2
can i get a hint for this?
i got what when Z subset H we have |G:Z|=|G:H| * |H:Z| so then half the size
idk for the other case
the hint is 2nd iso thm
Shouldn't you proceed similarly for that case as well?
how? Z isnt a subgroup of H in this case
and the text suggets using 2nd iso
also, one more question:
this is a proof of cauchy
is this proof right: the number of elements with order p is -1=p-1 mod p thus the number of distinct subgroups is p-1/p-1=1 mod p?
Well you may seek for another 
It is yeaa but
this dosent work though, since i need to know what G:Z is not G:Z_H
Yeah, now you recall the hint?
This
Why wouldn't it
Are you in some trouble
This made me concerned a bit
ok lol
If Z_36(written multiplicative) generated by x so for which integer a , the mapping from Z/48Z to Z_36 define by 1->x^(a) be group homomorphism?
Does it work for a=1? Why/why not?
I think it's work because of laws of exponent
But if it's from Z_36 to Z_48 it will not work but I don't know how to state that for Z_48 to Z_36 it will work
i had a stroke trying to read this
What is x^48, and what would it need to be for this to be a homomorphism?
x^(12)?
Indeed, and what should f(48) be if f is a homomorphism from Z/48?
x is generater of Z_36 so take x =1 so it will be f(48) =12?
Yes, but can there be a homomorphism that maps 48 in Z/48 to 12?
Like what do you know about the group Z/48?
For homomorphism 48 map to 0
Yeah, and 12 is different from 0, so that can't work
Well, how can we avoid the problem we just had, about 48a not being 0?
map 48 to 0
1 map to 6
6 would work yeah
1 map to 3n
Yeah, you got it
Thank you
But 1 map to x^(a) and x is generater of 36 so x can not be multiple of 3 so there is no a ?
I'm not sure what you mean
If 1 is mapped to x^a, then there clearly is an a involved
If I want to map 1 to 3 and x=1 then what my a?
I'm not sure what you're saying. x is your notation for the generator in Z/36, so what does "x=1" mean? x isn't equal to anything that's just notation.
Like you're representating the elements as
x, x^2, x^3, ...
and you going that when 1 maps to x^a, then a must be a multiple of 3
If you're using additive notation, sure
Yes
Let R, S be domains and f : R → S be a homomorphism. Prove that either f (1) = 0 or f (1) = 1.
am I wrong by saying that you dont really care about if R is a domain here
or am I missing something obvious
homomorphisms that don't preserve 1? 
Rng homomorphism 
That's right, only the condition on S is relevant. And even then you can prove the same thing with much weaker assumptions than S being a domain.
The quadratic formula fails for field with characteristic 2 because the bottom number is 2a=0.
Is there a quadratic formula for field with characteristic 2?
there is but it's quite complicated
Solved just after posting 
no I posted in the wrong channel
I meant to post in #advanced-algebra so I deleted here and posted there
The preimage of a subgroup is a subgroup under a group homomorphism but why isn't the image of a subgroup also a subgroup?
I'm unable to see why the same argument doesn't work for the other case.
The image of a subgroup is a subgroup
Who says it isn't?
No, you don't.
On the other hand, the image of a normal subgroup isn't necessarily normal
But surjectivity does guarantee this.
Is that perhaps the confusion?
Oh I see
nice
the nilradical of Z/m is just 0 correct?
or would it be (p_1 * ... * p_n) where those are the primes without their p-adic valuations of m.
Well remember that the nilradical is the intersection of the prime ideals, and recall the prime ideals of Z/m
But a specific example may help with understanding the nilpotent elements
pZ/mZ
For example, what are the nilpotent elements of Z/8Z?
Think about how this generalises.
well the only thing im confused abt is that my proof works for both (m) being the nilradical and (p_1p_2p_3 ... )
so then these coincide?
Well again, what's the nilradical of Z/8Z
This should answer your question
If you want us to check your proof, then share it.
sure i will do finishing touches and then that would be awesome
yeah the nilradicals should be (2).
ok well I will share both proofs and if you could clarify where I am going wrong for (m) that would be awesome.
I am having trouble showing r^a \in (p_1 p_2... p_n) implies r \in (p_1 p_2 ... p_n) because this ideal is not nessecarily prime.
Is there something I am missing?
r | r^a
Look at the integer factorisation in Z. You can lift this question about elements of Z/m to a question about elements of Z.
yeah so r | r^a in Z.
You're familiar with the p-adic valuation – use it
what property were you suggesting
p_i | r^a so p_i | r.
I thought maybe if you saw this as a property of ordinary primes it would be more obvious.
You can also just see this as (p_1 p_2 ... p_n) = (p_1) (p_2) ... (p_n) in a more algebraic way.
ah I see
thanks for the help this is it for the most part.
So showing the inclusion for $(m) \subset N(Z/m)$ is trivial, but what goes wrong on the other hand?
brayden letwin
If $r \in N(Z/m)$ then $r^n = 0 (m)$.
Considering (m) = (0), I should hope it's trivial!
brayden letwin
$m \mid r^n$
brayden letwin
$r^n = k m \implies r^n \in (m)$
brayden letwin
ah I see but then we dont get any further
I really don't know what you're asking exactly. What goes wrong is it's false.
There are other nilpotent elements other than 0
right yeah I see now, was just confused cuz I thought I saw a way
but it was wrong
well thanks for the help
and clarification
Im working through Dummit and Foote and am confused as to how they came to the conclusion this group has order at most 6 just from the generators and relations presentation https://gyazo.com/974a28cb91654a0a5bdd3a6d8ae3985b
Is this supposed to be obvious?
Also a similar statement is made here without much explanation
well, you have this commutation relation, which allows you to "separate" an arbitrary element (maybe you'll accumulate extra "powers" of x and y along the way), from that you get a process by which every element can be written as x^m y^n for some m and n, then you know that x^3 = y^2 = e, so there are at most 3 * 2 = 6 elements
Something here doesn't make sense or i'm going crazy, if x^3=1 for any n, doesn't it follow that n is either 1 or a multiple of 3?
how come you need the commutation relation in order to say that you can write any element in the form x^m y^n
the two dont seem to be related to me
well how are you going to switch them and still be able to say you have the same thing otherwise?
it's a free group
so $x^m y^n \neq y^r x^s$ without it
smay
i mean it's a way of "physically moving" letters right/left
but let's say x^2 is an element in this group, can't we write it as x^2 y^0 without considering the commutation relation?
yes you can
that's what my confusion is as to why the commutation rule matters when writing an element in the group in terms of x^i y^k
oh
without it the order of the group is infinite!
so if we did not have the commutation relation, we would not be able to reduce this to be equal to some element already in the group?
yep
ah
well
"some element already in the group" meaning "something that we are familiar with" or "in a nice form"
x^m y^n x^s is already in the group
im still confused how x^3 = y^2 = e tells us anything about the order
it just seems that we found another way to write the identity
well what are the most elements possible
well you can't have like, x^4 for example
that's just x, which we would have already counted
right
and anything about x^4 will also be equal to something we already counted
x^5 = x^2
and so on
okay, so if we have a word, then we reduce it to our x^m y^n, and then that's equal to x^(m mod 3) y^(n mod 2)
i see
so we have x, x^2, y, 1, xy, x^2y
that would be true for any n
therefore the group will have order at most 6
yeah these are the only elements
well we didn't start with the assumption that x^3 = 1
Yea but you deduce it independent of n
yes
what do you mean that it can't?
Because it follows the order is at most 3, so either n is 1, 3 or greater than 3, in which case the order is 3, and since x^n=1 we have 3|n
The order of x
well they make a note that further collapsing can occur
the remark was that the order of the group was at most 6
How can I show that additive group of rational number is not cyclic? If I assume if Q is generated by integer x then it probably not work and if I assume Q is generated by rational x then first I thought I will show contradiction by taking x^(a)=2 for positive integer a then it will contradict x is rational but what if a is negative? Any other approach
What if you took a generator then showed half of it can't be generated by the generator
Or by doing some case work if I show generater can not be in form of 1/x where x is integer then I will use when x=p/q then contradict
Is there an obvious way that the field of fractions of nested integral domains behaves?
Say $S \subset R$ is it still the case that $\hbox{Frac}(S)\subset \hbox{Frac}(R)$? This is obvious right?
HausdorffT1
No, Frac(S) contains equivalence classes of pairs of elements of S, and Frac(R) contains equivalence classes of pairs of elements of R, so if S is strictly smaller, they will not be subsets of each other. Although there still is an injection Frac(S) --> Frac(R) that's easy to write down.
This one has caused many an L, like embedding things in themselves
Wait, so we're all working in HoTT now, and assuming there's no higher types?
Categorical formulation is often quite clean
Is it possible to tell the degree of a field extension of something like $\mathbb{Q}(x)\subset \mathbb{Q}(x^{\frac{1}{2}})$ so the superset contains stuff like $\frac{x^{\frac{1}{2}}}{x^{6/2}+3x^{5/2}}$
Woops
HausdorffT1
Yes. Observe that the polynomial t^2 - x in Q(x)[t] is irreducible, hence the extension Q(x)[t] / <t^2 - x> \cong Q (x^{1/2}) has degree deg (t^2 -x) = 2.
Ohh okay it's basically gonna be the same case for 1/3. Thank you!
Got it, thank you
Isn't the definition of a transcendence basis that F/K(x) be algebraic, why must it be finite?
dumb thought. Suppose we take the set of all logarithmic functions, that is, the set L= {f: R+ -> R | f(xy)=f(x)+f(y)}. We know that these functions have an interesting relationship, specifically that they are all the same function offset by a constant, that is, we may arbitrarily choose some function ln such that log_a = ln/ln(a). I've been reading about quotient groups in this latest chapter I'm working on, and it spawned a question: does there exist some operation which groups this set L?
I suppose that would necessitate that there is some "identity element" in this set, though there is not an obvious choice for which element to identify it as beyond the "wouldn't it be nice if it was ln?" idea.
@rocky cloak I found out that the number of elements of the rings is divisible by 16. (For the problem with the finite commutative ring with at #idempotens=#nilpotents=#invertible elements if the number of elements >4 )
Is that right?
Even if one little ring in the ring product is isomorphic to F2
are you sure they are the same function offset by a constant?
offset, scaled, same thing really (joking)
It's not true
I should have said scaled. The change of base formula applies to arbitrary logarithmic bases (at least real valued ones), it doesn't need to be log_e
There are many other functions besides logs that satisfy that functional equations
like....?
you can put it in the form f(x+y)=f(x)+f(y) if you wanted
f(e^(log x+log y)=f(e^log x)+f(e^log y) so if you set g(x)=f(e^x) then g(log x+log y)=g(log x)+g(log y). Log is surjective anyway, so you just get g(x+y)=g(x)+g(y)
but that's not the same equation. I'm not talking about arbitrary addition and multiplication, I'm talking particularly about real number addition and multiplication
well, you do need continuity here
there are non-linear solutions to the cauchy functional equations, and given any such solution F you can construct f as F(log(x)), then f(xy)=f(x)+f(y) but f is not a logarhitm
I suppose, yeah. Otherwise choice can bite me in the ass
"which groups this set" ?
under which the set is a group
there are some natural choices
Mostly because you can associate the logarhitms with their bases
yeah, that's what I'm thinking
so I suppose if I could find some structure which holds for the bases as numbers I could then associate that to the logarithms through some homomorphism
Perhaps it becomes finite extension with a suitable choice.. wait how does this work
Question
An example of a finite commutative ring with 2 idempotents, 4 nilpotents and 4 invertible elements?
isnt it being a finite extension part of the definition
Yes, but it's not stated. That's Ocean's point I think
If it has idempotents, that means it is a product of rings
It has only 2
2 without counting the identity, right?
why would you mention that then lol
I just wanted to know an example of finite commutative unitary ring with 2 idempotents, 4 nilpotents, 4 invertible elements.
Z/8Z ?
Yes, that's right. The number of idempotents is a power of 2. If there's only 2 idempotents you can show that the ring must have 4 elements.
If there are k >= 4 idempotents, then besides 0 and 1, idempotents are never units or nilpotent, so you will have at least 3k - 2 elements
F2[x]/x^3, Z/8, F2[x, y]/(x^2, y^2, xy), Z/4[2x] are some examples.
I would guess this is all of them.
Let G be a group such that for all a ∈ G we have a ∗ a = e. Show that G is abelian
Any ideas?
(ab)^2=e so ab=(ab)^-1=b^-1a^-1 but a^-1=a and b^-1=b so ab=ba
ok I got it! Thanks
I actually had it done another way so I just wanted to check...
(a * b) * (a * b) = e
Implying (a * b) = (a * b)^-1
(a * b) = b^-1 * a^-1
(a * b) = (b * a)
How can you check if this is associative? There has to be a better way than to check every possible option right?
no
well you can take some shortcuts
but at the end of the day its just checking every combination
I'd start by noticing that C seems to do nothing, so you can redo the rows and columns by putting C first in both rows and columns. This gets your identity element out of the way, then you can check all non-identity elements for associativity
I guess you can recognize that this is isomorphic to C2xC2, which is a group
What background needed for Category?
For category theory? Not a lot of background is strictly needed, but it depends a little on your motivation for learning.
Knowing some basic algebra and algebraic topology is a good source of examples. If you want to actually use the tools you're learning for something you might want to know some representation theory, homological algebra, algebraic geometry or algebraic topology.
My background involve basic Algebra groups, rings , field so now on which topic I should focus on?
Well, what do you want to learn?
Not specific but I want good background in algebra
Mike Hawk
Well you may want to learn some Galois theory if you don't know that. You could also learn the basics of modules and representation theory, maybe even learn about characters of finite groups.
Once you know a little bit about modules you could learn some homological algebra, at which point you might also want to pick up some category theory. After that maybe some commutative algebra.
Okay thank you I will do Modules first
actually also deg(q)=n
Let y be a root of q in an algebraic closure of Z/pZ, then K=Z/pZ(y) is an extension of Z/pZ of degree n (if you don't know what the notation Z/pZ(y) or "algebraic closure" mean, then just let K be the quotient ring Z/pZ[x]/(q), this is a field because q is irreducible and q has a root y in it). The field K has p^n elements (as an n-dimensional vector space over a field with p elements), which implies its every element satisfies a^p^n=a (the size of the multiplicative group is p^n-1, so a^{p^n-1}=1 for all non-zero a by Lagrange's theorem, multiply both sides by a). Thus y is a root of x^p^n-x, so q divides it (as the minimal polynomial of y).
thanks
If f and g are non-zero divisors and they are contained in each others radical ideals, does it follow that f and g are associated?
No. Take f = p and g = p^2 in Z for a prime p.
Real
Right, weird
(V(p) and V(p^2) both give an effective cartier divisor of spec Z here or am I trippin? I just need one affine cover and taking the trivial cover works fine)
nlab differentiates between a norm on a field and an absolute value, by saying that an absolute value is a multiplicative norm, and that a norm does not need to fulfill |fg| = |f| |g|
other texts define norm == absolute value tho
so why does nlab make the distinction
The operator norm is a good example of a norm that isn't multiplicative. If you don't have a distinction you would need to come up with a new word for what the operator norm is.
I think this is pretty standard terminology from nlab
though you can also call the absolute value a multiplicative valuation and other things ig
I mean ok say i is the inclusion S -> F(S) where S = {a, b}
so then apply the universal property the function S -> F(S) taking a to a and b to ba
the universal property says there is a unique homomorphism F(S) -> F(S) such that a maps to a and b maps to ba
actually I think I got it I was way over thinking it
How many pair of elements of D8 generate D8 .... is it 8?
i’m not sure what you mean by pairs, but D_n is always generated by two elements, r and s
where s has order 2, r has order n, and rs=sr^{-1}
a "spinny" and a "flippy"
one thing i’ll keep ruin is be careful with what you read on dihedral groups. it’s not really a convention one way or the other to use D_n or D_2n
Yes but can it generates by r^(3) and s ?
well i jus told you it can be generated by r, an element of order 4, and s, so see if you can figure out how to get an r from those and you’ll have your answer
Yes if I can write sr^(3)=rs then I will get r
Question number 4 ....what question want?
In the lattice, the subgroup generated by two other subgroups is their lcm in the lattice. So if you just look at the subgroups generated by a single element you can see which pairs generated D4. (Also remember that (r) = (r^3))
If we have a field extension K -> L such that [L : K] = n is finite, does it follow automatically that L = K(a_1,...,a_n) where these a_i's are the roots of some minimal polynomial? That is is every finite field extension given by adjoining roots of a minimal polynomial of degree n in L?
Yes, you just keep adjoining a new element until everything is included
Does the minimality of the polynomial play a role here?
Oh you meant like using a single polynomial for all ai?
So is there total 8 pair?
I count 12
(r,s) (r3,s)
(r,sr) (r3,sr)
(r,sr2) (r3, sr2)
(r,sr3) (r3,sr2)
Now you're just missing those pairs that don't contain r or r^3
(s,R2)?
No, that don't give you all of D4
Yes
Yeah I meant like an n degree polynomial with roots a_1,...,a_n
I'm not entirely sure what you're asking, but if you have an irreducible polynomial of degree n, and you adjoin all the roots to K, you won't necessarily get a degree n extension.
For example adjoining all roots of x^3 - 2 to Q gives a degree 6 extension.
If you however just adjoin one root, you do get a degree n extension.
It is however not true that any finite extension can be described as adjoining a single root of a polynomial. You may look into the primitive element theorem.
I'm trying to understand what is meant by saying that all finite extensions are algebraic. Can you elaborate on "If you however just adjoin one root, you do get a degree n extension."? If I have a field extension K -> L with [L : K] = n, the can I always find a polynomial (possibly minimal) such that adjoining one of the roots say a of this polynomial in L I'll get L = K(a)?
No
For instance adjoining a cube root of two to Q doesn't get you all the roots of x^3-2
Any finite simple (adjoining by one element) extension is of the form K[x]/P(x) for some irreducible P, which is the minimal polynomial
But not all finite extensions are simple
An algebraic extension is one where for any element x in the extension, there is a finite simple extension K → K(x), i.e. x has a minimal polynomial
But it may not be possible to get all the elements using just one such extension
In most cases you come across L can be described as adjoining a single root of an irreducible polynomial, but there are a few exception.
The simplest exception would probably be to have K be the field of fractions F2(x, y) over F2 with two variables and have L be F2(sqrt(x), sqrt(y)).
Then L has degree 4, but any element in L generates an extension of degree 2 (or 1)
Hm that gives me some curiosity, is there a statement about cardinality of algebraic closure?
The algebraic closure of an infinite field has the same cardinality
And the algebraic closure of a finite field is countable
By just enumerating the polynomials
Is there no case where the closure is finite?
I wonder why is this.
No and you get this by showing an algebraic closure would need to contain F_p^n (i.e. the splitting field of x^p^n - 1) for every positive n
Wdym
For finite fields there is so much structure that every finite field is F_p and every finite extension is F_p^n
I mean cardinality of algebraic closure being so simple
Ah
Wait are you be in model theory reading group
It's probably mentioned there somewhere
If M is a module and U is a submodule of M. It exists an isomorphism from M to U. Can you conclude U=M? Does this differ if it isn't a module but a group, ring, vector field?
2Z is a submodule of Z
That's what I thought as well. In this proof I am trying to understand they conclude somehow from M and U being isomorph that they are the same.
the premise being a bit more complicated though. not sure if this is a the right channel for it. K is a field and K[t] is the polynom ring. M is a finitely generated K[t]-module and and M_tor the torsion-module of M. To proof is that dim(M)< infinite being equivilant to M=M_tor the proof basically gets to the point that we know M is isomorph to M_tor and they conclude M=M_tor
In the proof the they just casually say M=M_tor. I feel like I am missing something crucial that is super obvious but I just dont see it
Every element of M_tor is torsion, so if M is isomorphic to M_tor then every element of M is also torsion
How is the hint supposed to help? Can't you just show that the number of Sylow 13-subgroups is 105 and through a few more computations show that G would contain more elements than it does if it were simple?
Honestly proving the hint was way harder than the problem
I know next to nothing about transcendental extensions, anyone got a good reference for their basics (stuff that gets used in number theory/AG all the time)? One thing I'm interested in learning in are separating transcendence bases, e.g. I've read that if L/K has trdeg 1, then x trans can be chosen so that L/K(x) is separable.
anyone know of a abstract algebra textbook in the manner of Viro’s Elementary Topology?— in that it sets up everything for you to work out all the proofs yourself, mwahaha
Does anyone know how I am meant to prove that if the order of a in a group G is n, then the order of a^k is n/(n,k)
Or rather
How am I meant to show that it is the smallest
Number that behaves like the order
I proved the first part but I can’t prove it is the smallest
Wait can I just say nk/(n,k) is the smallest multiple of n and k?
Thay doesn’t feel like it really proves it tho
If a^x = e then n|x right so then n should divide the order of a^k
And nk/(n,k) is the smallest multiple for that is true right
By definition of GCD
If you squint hard enough, it does
K thx
If m is the order of a^k then a^km=e, so km must be a multiple of n. Furthermore if p is a multiple of n trivially a^p=e. From here it should be clear, no?
🐸🐸🐸🐸🐸
Yeah, just assuming that none of the sylow subgroups are normal and counting the number of elements you get should overshoot the number of elements in G.
yep that was ... kinda obvious. I always miss those conclusions. Thanks a lot
This sounds false? Like consider A=K(x^p, y^p,....) below B=A(z,w,...)/(z^p-x^p,w^p-y^p,....) and B(T)/A where T is an indeterminate
And K has char p
Elements of Abstract Algebra by Clark is exactly this
There is an equivalence between varieties of some kind of dimension n over k and finitely generated field extensions of transcendence degree n over k. So the study of such transcendental extensions is the content of algebraic geometry. I know books that focus on n=1 from the field extension perspective (Rosen is fine), but idk for higher dimensions. But I guess the translations are most of the time quite explicit.
This is true in general if you replace separable with algebraic. If you look at the property that a subset of L/K be algebraic (i.e., dependent) or transcendental (i.e., independent) you get a matroid, which basically formalizes the notion of independence of a vector space. So you can show that transcendental bases exist and they all have the same size (if infinite, this requires AC), and the proof is the same as in the vector space case
I'm sure you already knew this, but just in case
why tau to the power 25 equal to the other thing? I know the order of the part they added is 5, and so it should be something divisble by 5, but i dont understand why specifically 25?
also sigma is equal to (3 11 7 6)(8 2 5)(1 4)
wonderful, thank you
Uhm.. aren't both relations completely equivalent
Also if you just gave y^2 = 8 mod 37, I don't think any solutions exist
yeah i'm trying to understand why not solution exists
y^2 - 8 is irreducible in F_37 [y]
That means it cannot have a root in F_37
I think that is enough to see it
in general you can use eulers criterion to check if something is a quadratic residue mod p
That's also there yes
I completely forgot about that, too engrossed in Rings and Fields i guess 💀
before the edit it said mod 27 and i was so confused and had to double check that 27 isnt prime 🤣
😭
yeah sorry
I mean you can work with non primes but as far as my experience with elementary number theory goes it's pain
I think you can extend it to cases of Z/p^nZ
Like here 3^3 = 27
It has to be prime powers
I'm not sure how exactly it works though, I have to work it out
thanks for the help
You're welcome 
That brings me to a question
But it's about Field theory
Let C[t] be the polynomial ring over C on a single variable, and let C(t) = Frac(C[t]).
Let G be a subgroup of the group of C-algebra automorphisms of C(t), such that it is generated by t -> 1/(1-t), and t -> (t-1)/t. I have to find Fixed field of G wrf C(t).
If the first automorphism is sigma and the latter one tau, we see tau = sigma^2 wrt composition, and hence this group is just the cyclic group of order 3.
But after that I'm completely confused on what to do.
Fixed field of G wrt C(t) = C(t)^G = {k in C(t) | sigma(k) = k for all sigma in G}
so you just have to find 2 roots x,y that are in F_37 to show that a solution exists ?
Yes. If you can factor the polynomial into linear ones, the constant terms in each factor is your root
for x=3, it shows that 3^3+7(mod 37) has y value of 16 but i don't get why
oh i get it
it's because 16^2 mod 37 = 34
so real for that
if 27 was prime, what would it be divislbe by? Certainly not 3, since then 57 = 27 + 30 would be divisible by 3 too
Notice that if f is any rational function, then
r(f) = f + tau(f) + tau^2(f)
Is in C(t)^G.
Then just checking that t has degree 3 over C(r(t)) gives you that C(t)^G = C(r(t)).
So given $e_1 \wedge e_2 + e_3 \wedge e_4 \in \bigwedge^2 \mathbb{R}^4$. How can I show that this is not elementary. I am a bit confused how to proceed at all
ℝ
The bigwedge thing doesn't quite look right but idk how to properly do that so sorry
So I know that if it is elementary I could write it as $v_1 \wedge v_2 = e_1 \wedge e_2 + e_3 \wedge e_4$
ℝ
(if I am not mistaken)
Not sure what channel this is for but it’s not this one
Maybe try #diff-geo-diff-top
Amazing. I'd have never thought of this.
Checking degree 3 I can do by a certain exercise. This element r(f) is not in C but in C(t), and definitely can be written in a form g(t)/h(t) wherw both h(t) and g(t) are non zero non constant polynomials where gcd (g,h) = some unit in C.
I have proved a result before which shows that the degree of C(t) over C(r(t)) is maximum of degree of g and h, which I can manually calculate to be 3
The first part is easy to show, I just show image under sigma and tau
After this, I see that
C(r(t)) \subset C(t)^G \subset C(t)
So
[C(t) : C(r)] = [C(t) : C(t)^G] [C(t)^G : C(r)]
As 3 is prime
[C(t)^G : C(r)] is either 1 or 3
Actually wait now I'm not sure how to proceed. Do we know for sure C(t)^G can't be same as C(t)? For that we need to show an element which is not fixed. Oh wait that's trivial lmao
Yeah we are done
Thank you very much
I wonder how it happens that permuting roots are this hard
my condolences
Let $R$ be a ring and $I$ a left ideal of $R.$ Let $A$ be a left $R$-module and $S$ a non empty subset of $A.$ Define $IS={\sum_{i=1}^{n}r_{i}a_{i}: a_{i}\in S, r_{i}\in I, n\in\matthb{N}}.$ I'm trying to prove that $IS$ is a submodule of $A,$ but I'm missing closure under addition
Kenshin
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for more information.
(You may edit your message to recompile.)
Closure under addition is the more immediate thing, since I is closed under addition
Really I thought everything else seemed obvious
Is ring of continuous function on the interval [0,1] integral domain?
It is not, try to find a counterexample
hey guys, stupid question: wouldn't that "subfield" in theorem 27.19 rather be a "subring" or I am loosing something there? (btw the book is a first course in abstract algebra, by fraleigh)
Subfield seems fine since Z_n is a field when n is prime
Zp is field , when you map T: Z to F then Zp is isomorphic to image of T and because Zp is field so image will be field
oooooooh I knew it was something basic that my mind wasn't taking into account lmaoo
thanks!!
IS is by definition a sum of stuff. If you have one sum of some stuff, then add another sum of some stuff you get a sum of some more stuff.
But yeah, everything is pretty immediate here.
Let G be a subgroup of C-algebra automorphisms of C(t), isomorphic to Z. What should be the fixed field of G?
This G is generated by the map which takes t to t + 1
One thing I'm sure is that C is contained in C(t)^G
So it sends f(t) to f(t+1)?
Yes
Yeah, solve f(t) = f(t+1)
You mean determine coefficients of f(t) where this happens?
Yeah, maybe hard to show directly but doable imo
Another way to see this is that f(t) - f(t+1) = 0.
Will keep this in mind.
Before that I reached that if some f(t)/g(t) is in the fixed field, then
f(t+k)g(t) = f(t)g(t+k) for all natural numbers k
Well i thought this kind of shows it obviously but well, still need to see it is zero polynomial
Meanwhile I can indeed handwave it like, since f(t) = f(t+1) as a polynomial, f(0) = f(1) = f(2) = ... (by applying the evaluation map)
Can this happen?
Holy shit I completely forgot about this one
It is quite difficult to recall & remind this
Esp., as you see, since polynomial we are dealing with now is abstract structure
By the way, wait, does this suffice? I want to determine if something larger than C is the fixed field here
You can do the exact same with rational functions here.
That is, f(t) / g(t)
(C(t) is made of rational polynomials, right)
Yes
Which reduces to this case. This doesn't happen for all polynomials btw, because x and x^2 directly contradict it.
I think iff the degree of f and g are equal this should hold.
Atleast for degree 2 it holds
Have to check if it's true for other degrees
Evaluation should still work for rational functions as well
You can regard this as an classical algebraic geometry exercise btw
Starting with f(t+k) = f(k) gives me this
You can just use third iso to prove that G'/G''' is the direct product of the other two quotients and hence abelian right?
Does that work?
hello everyone
can anyone recommend me a channel for absrtract algebra
would really appreciate it
what do you mean recommend you a channel
this is the channel for abstract algebra lol
#❓how-to-get-help to get a help channel

haha
thanks matye
are they good?
also what about discrete math
i barely follow math youtube, ive just seen other people recommend these channels here before and i don't know about discrete math. try asking in #discrete-math
alirght thanks!
no
third iso just says that G'/G'' is the quotient of the two quotients
It needn't be that it's the direct product
I am unable to see what to do after this.
How many zeros does f(x) / g(x) = f(0) / g(0) have, in this case?
I mean, is f(x)/g(x) a polynomial? I don't understand what do you mean by zeroes of f(x)/ g(x).
So suppose a rational function was invariant under t \to t + 1. What can you say about the set of roots?
If by rational functions you mean the elements of form f(t)/g(t), then the roots of h(t) = f(t)/g(t) is precisely the roots of f(t)
And in that case f(t) and f(t+1) have the same set of roots
where do i study abstract algebra from
is there something like videos
You might try out Richard Borcherds' lectures
Any functions can have zeros
Oh I worded it confusingly
I mean zeros of "f(x) / g(x) - f(0) / g(0)"
Oh okay
So you can say something about its set of roots
(Or, zero sets)
This might be quite a vague question so sorry if it’s hard to answer, but my course notes have just defined the evaluation of a polynomial as a mapping
$$R[X]\to\text{Maps}(R,R)$$
For a commutative ring R. I’m perfectly happy with that, but below it is an exercise to show that mapping isn’t injective if $R=\mathbb{F}_p$for prime p, again fine with this
But as a note to the question the notes mention “this means that in general, even over fields, a polynomial is not just a special type of function!”
Could anyone elaborate on that? Are they just trying to emphasise the POV that polynomials should be viewed as elements of a ring which can be evaluate rather than a function in their own right?
Nope
But.. but one can refute functional extensionality
What is functional extensionality? Never heard of that before
Well I was just talking in terms of constructivist math
I think it basically means that equality for polynomial is not equality of it as a function, so you cannot regard polynomials as a subset of 'space of functions'
About extensionality: https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Extensionality
In logic, extensionality, or extensional equality, refers to principles that judge objects to be equal if they have the same external properties. It stands in contrast to the concept of intensionality, which is concerned with whether the internal definitions of objects are the same.
That I got.. but what do I get from it?
Only thing I can think of is this the following:
The following?
(\prod_{i = 1}^n (t - \alpha_i) = \prod_{i = 1}^n (t + 1 - \beta_i))
Riku
Which would say each root beta_i is (alpha_j) - 1 for some j
This I can write because C is algebraically closed and hence both f(t) and f(t+1) splits over C
Hmm, what is alpha and beta?
Oh uh alpha_i are the roots of f(t), and beta_i are the roots of f(t+1) if you consider t+1 to be a variable
As it's the same polynomial, then the set of roots are unique upto permutations
Yes
Let's keep it rather simple. Say, a is a root of f
Then can you trace what should also be a root of it?
Is it either-or, or both?
It can be both
Don't know if both always
Because let's say there can be repeated roots
a occurs maybe twice
a is also a root of f(t+1), hence, a - 1 is a root
but as a is a root, there should also be a root a+1 somewhete
Wouldn't that mean it is both?
Nah it's fine, I'm often slower
But wait doesn't that mean there are infinitely many roots
Yes
One polynomial over C has so many roots that you cannot count
Ye
Now we are nearly done
Wdym
No I mean by this, i can't start with a non-zero polynomial
Do you recall where we began as an assumption
...oh, right, we didn't say f(t) has to be nonzero. We only needed g(t) to be non zero
So this works
Wait does this mean C(t)^G is trivial?
Indeed
Wait is it only the non-zero constant polynomials?
On C[t], every nonconstant polynomial has a zero
oh my god how did I forgot about that.
Yeah so
I think this is good enough evidence to conclude C(t)^G has to be C
Or am I missing something
Exactly.
You’re welcome!
No you must have misread it I typed G triple prime
Honestly this blew my mind
yeah that's what I meant sorry
This problem has Algebraic geometry feeling, so def check it out!
Will do, thanks 
I still can't get over this solution why and how is it so good
It’s good because it’s geometric!
Just bumping this because i still can’t really work out what he was referring to with that comment
That's exactly what they're emphasising, you have a procedure that for every "formal" polynomial in R[x] (an infinite tuple of elements (a_0,a_1,a_2,...)) gives you a function R->R (map c\in R to a_0+a_1c+a_2c^2+...), but this procedure does not always output different functions for different polynomials, i.e. is not always injective. It is injective e.g. over infinite fields (if formal polynomials f and g take on the same value at every point, then they are equal as elements of K[x], i.e. as infinite tuples (a_0,a_1,a_2,...)), but over finite fields this is not true: over F_p, the formal polynomials 0 and x^p-x take on the same value at every point of F_p (because a^p\equiv a mod p for all a\in Z). So polynomials as functions R->R and as formal tuples (a_0,a_1,a_2,...) are not exactly the same (they are the same e.g. for infinite integral domains, in particular infinite fields).
Ah ok thanks that does make sense, I worked out the function wouldn’t have been injective by FLiT but I wasn’t 100% certain that this is what he was getting at
Really wish this wasn’t an LA course the ring theory section has been by far the best lol
I think thinking about basic ring theory through the lens of linear algebra is a very good thing
many people will go through the whole undergrad curriculum and not learn these things
I actually think we’re doing the opposite and approaching LA via ring theory, but yeah it’s not terrible but the full course is basically building up to the proof of the Jordan normal form which I guess just doesn’t feel like all that exciting of a result
But who knows maybe I’ll actually find it amazing when I get there lol
Well there is a nice proof of jordan normal form using ring/module theory which is cool
And more conceptual imo
Okay you view a vector space as a K[X]-module and fire some decomposition theorem on it, but i think it is also nice to work out the jordan canonical form using methods of linear algebra
JCF via LA is perfectly conceptual imo, it's the rational CF that's a bit awkward (at least the proof I've seen).
(D&F p71) What would be the intended way of proving this here? "Just doing" it, or is there some clever way with lattices (as this is the chapter)?
i love how abstract algebra is bombarding me with excuses to draw figures
mwahahaha
also how i can compute some of these symmetries just by looking at the object the symmetries act on haha
just casually folding a pentagon in the study hall
*insert jens duck dance*
possibly meaningless figures but fun fun
There's really not much to it, at most a line of calculation.
Yeah, just proving that s² = (r²)² = (sr²)² = 1 is enough right?
yes
rotation by 180 degrees commutes with reflection
Yeah
I was just wondering if there was some amazing way using lattices it wanted me to do, but okay!
there are lots of ways to do it because it's such a small group
Yeah that makes sense
In another question, I was asked to find the 12 pairs of elements which generate D8, given this lattice. I quickly found (s,rs), (s, r³s), (r²s, rs), (r²s, r³s) and also (r,s), (r,r²s), (r, rs), (r, r³s) because their only common supergroup (is that the term)? is D8 as can be seen from the lattice
Could someone give me a hint on how to find the remaining 4 ones?
The order of r is 4
it looks like it's order 8
Right, I thought this was an incomplete lattice lol
Mhmm, could it be that there are in fact only 8 and that the question is wrong?
From what I see, whenever you pair up two other elements, you always get something which isn't D8
I can't seem to see what the other four would be. The only common supergroup of the cyclic subgroups being the whole of D_8 is precisely the condition needed (as you have realised), and unless I'm missing something very silly there are indeed only 8 such pairs.
Quick check that I didn't misinterpret the question?
Not that I see.
Interesting, well, thanks for your time anyways!
I imagine there is a fun approach to showing this is sufficient using the action of D_8 on these pairs of generators, but I can't see how it would work without sifting through some details.
i hate this ambiguity, lol
r³ perhaps? 
Hello
Yeah, whenever I use D_n I do make sure to state it's of order n or 2n, it's a horrid place to be in but I guess this is the bed we've made :(
Say I am to write 1/[polynomial with some variable) without using anything but rational numbers in the denominator
if I know something about another polynomial of the same variable
Apparently it's to do with field extensions but the parts explaining that are missing from our lecture videos so I've no clue what's going on
then...?
(concrete example write 1/(α^2 + α +1) without using anything but rational numbers in the enumerator when I know that α^3 +2α^2 = -2)
what do I read to understand how to solve this
how to solve what
a question such as this
theres no question
it's true that this is illegible
but i think the question is something like
thank god im not going insane
kålrot
well a task
write \alpha^{-1} in the basis given by x, using only the expression of \alpha = \sum_i a_i x^i, and the coefficients of f
to write 1/(α^2 + α +1) without using anything but rational numbers in the enumerator when I know that α^3 +2α^2 = -2
i keep forgetting what is top and what is bottom in a fraction
I guess I can repeat it to get solutions for other exercises of this type but idk what I'm doing lol
enumerator doesnt exist
ah wtf sorry
im on 45 minutes sleep
I googled twice how to call the bottom thing and forgot it both times
is what tteg said what ur looking for?
idk we didn't get the field extension videolectures
but ur using it here
that's the prof solving the question on video
he referred to it as if it's something that we know but for some reason the field extension videolectures weren't uploaded so it made no sense to me
I looked up field extensions on wikipedia and that looked all fine but I didn't find anything relating to this
$\alpha*(\alpha^2 + \alpha + 1) = \alpha^3 + 2\alpha^2 + \alpha - \alpha^2 = -2 - \alpha^2 + \alpha$. If we add $\alpha^2 + \alpha + 1$ we get $2\alpha - 1$, so we see that $(\alpha + 1)*(\alpha^2 + \alpha + 1) = 2\alpha - 1$
kålrot
Now we want to find the inverse of 2\alpha - 1 which is simpler
so the question is literally "write 1/[polynomial with some variable alpha] without using anything but rationals in the denominator if you know [different polynomial with variable alpha equals zero]" sorry for the bad phrasing before
and like I jsut don't get wtf it is I'm doing
how can I even flip a polynomial like that
Okay here is an example:
or a non-polynomial into a polynomial I mean
suppose x^2 + x + 1 = 0
then we want to find 1/x
but expressed as a polynomial in x with rational coefficients
well x^2 + x = -1 thus x(x + 1) = -1 so we see that -(x + 1) = 1/x
so that's how we flip the polynomial 1/x
In your problem if x^3 + 2x^2 + 2 = 0
then you want to find 1/(x^2 + x + 1)
so uh it's
we find an inverse of the 1/something and an inverse of that that is a polynomial?
well this means that you want a polynomial p(x) = a + bx + cx^2 such that p(x) * (x^2 + x + 1) is a polynomial divisible by x^3 + 2x^2 + 2
to do this is an annoying linear algebra problem but it is always solvable as long as the original polynomial is irreducible (which is the case for your polynomial)
in your specific case it's easier because the degrees are small
so the system of equations you're supposed to solve is not terrible
ah I think I'm starting to get it a bit
I kept thinking of a general polynomial as a function and how we were supposedto flip it
yes, it's only possible to flip it once you impose the condition that x^3 + 2x^2 + 2 = 0
then you can flip any polynomial which is not divisible by x^3 + 2x^2 + 2
so I have 1/polynomial1
an I want to find a polynomial2 such that polynomial1 * polynomial2 = 1 ?
sort of
you want polynomial1 * polynomial2 = 1 + polynomial3 * (x^3 + 2x^2 + 2)
here there will typically be many choices for polynomial3

yes
okay, suppose we have a prime number p (say p = 7) this is the analogue of an irreducible polynomial
we had lectures on groups and rings/fields and stuff just this was left out so it came very out of the blank
then i can ask you find the inverse of 35 modulo 7
is this modular arithmetic with polynomials
1/35 mod 7 is a number n such that $n35 = 1 + m7$ for some $m$
kålrot
yes this question about inverses is basically about modular arithmetic with polynomials
anyway continuing with this
Now we want to find 1/(2\alpha - 1)
but the last part is 0
it's 0 modulo x^3 + 2x^2 + 2 yes
having in mind that such a polynomial is zero we're just finding polynomial2 such that polynomial1 * polynomial2 = 1 no?
well since if the zero polynomial comes up we can just poof it?
I guess that's just a rephrasing of what youd said
yep
my way just makes it easier to apply an algorithm
I feel
anyway the way to do with is to do polynomial division
using Euclid's algorithm
yes
pog I think I get what is wanted of me now
so if the zero polynomial wasnt irreducible we'd get a correct but a bit too big of a solution right?
err
if the two polynomials are not coprime then there will not be a solution
just like p does not have an inverse mod p
since 0 never has an inverse
ah
and if they're coprime then the solution will be too big but correct no?
but modulo its zero divisor it would equal the right smallest solution?
i don't know what you mean by too big
but if they are coprime it doesnt matter if one is irreducible or not
however if one is irreducible then it is easier to check that they are coprime
a power of the actual solution I guess
like we'd get a polynomial2 for which polynomial1 * polynomial2 = 1 mod polynomial 3 holds
but there would exist a polynomial2' | polynomial2 for which it also holds or something
here why dont you try this example
what is the inverse of x + 1 modulo x^3 + 3x + 6 = 0
like same as say with mod 3 it would be true that 16 = 1 mod 3 but 4 = 1 mod 3 also
ok will do thnaks
Think carefully about the subgroup generated by r
Oh lmao indeed it was something silly
@severe linden let it be put this way: <r> = <?>
<r³>?
U got it
OHHH
did it 2 different ways and got same results with both pog
it's starting to make sense nice, thank you so much
ig I still don't know the whole story regarding the field extension part of it or whatever but I will come back to that later
is there an easy description of the ring of real valued continuous functions as a ring?
no
i doubt it
some functions have square roots
there are a lot of algebraic relations
i don't think it's just generated by a bunch of algebraically independent elements
Ah I see what you mean
yeah I think it's quite tough, probably writing down some description would run into logical issues (maybe you need choice?) it's not reasonable to expect I think.
You probably need choice just to invoke a transcendental basis
If you write down a polynomial in many variables and look at its zero locus in R^n then every connected component can be parametrized by continuous functions lmao, so yeah very complicated
sry maybe not all of the connected component, you have some restriction because it ought to be a function. But some part at least
is there a group homomorphism for any m > n from Zm into Zn ?
no that can't be i must be very confused
there is no homomorphism from Z3 into Z2
Z/mZ is larger than Z/nZ, so idk what you mean by "into"
There are many examples
Suppose m is divisible by n. Then there is a canonical homomorphism Z/mZ-->Z/nZ
yes but not for any m > n, right
For any no, because m and n can be coprime
excellent, thanku
If we have a group homomorphism f : G → H and g in G, then |f(g)| divides |g| — the order of the elements.
So if you want a surjective homomorphism f : Z/m → Z/n you know something in particular
Firstly, that the image of 1 in Z/m generates the whole of Z/n — maybe this isn't totally clear so you should think of this.
Secondly, the order of 1 is m and the order of f(1) is n
So in particular, you must have that n divides m. This is a necessary condition for an 'onto' map to exist.
And you can probably see quite easily why this is also sufficient.
@hidden wind that should clear up any lingering doubt
If you didn't mean for the map to be onto (i.e. surjective, although I dislike this 'onto' terminology) then there are trivial maps that work.
thank thank i've embarassed myself plenty for good motivation to figure this out
*insert jens duck pray*
my continued confusion in elementary number theory is making abstract algebra much more FUN, mwahaha
I have the minimal polynomials found but I’m not sure how to proceed
If I could get a nudge in the right direction I would appreciate it
,rotate
Thank you
You need to find a polynomial such that f(2^1/4+i) - i =0
Yes
Maybe divide the minimal polynomial by like 1+x^2?
Possibly? I did an easier version of the problem for practice: express sqrt(6) as a polynomial of sqrt(2)+sqrt(3)
I got 1/2(sqrt2+sqrt3)^2 - 5/2 just by brute forcing it
But this polynomial did not seem related to the minimal polynomials x^2-6 and x^4-10x^2+1 in any obvious way
Not by polynomial division for one
I mean you could probably do something similar
Take this to the 4th power to get rid of the 2^1/4 term then use the minimal polynomial relation
Let me keep at it then, that’s what i was trying originally
Feels like there should be a better way though
Maybe not though this is like related to the proof of the primitive element theorem and that is hugely non constructivr
This was helpful thank you




