#groups-rings-fields
1 messages Ā· Page 205 of 1
oh yea
I think they mean modular arithmetic
barely
our professor always says when we do rings we have a ring containing elements of blue giraffes bro thinks he funny

I have a certain feeling they arent spending much time on modular arithmetic
yea
we just skipped through that and got to rings
It's a weird pedagogical decision but I don't think vector spaces are per se easier than rings to introduce
Both are easy to motivate
real
Yeah idk this might be a professor taking a very liberal approach that vaguely fits into the criteria of the course
but non-commutative and non-unital rings?
yea so
Commutativity is a prison of our own creation
you guys what does it mean when there is a ring R and there is something like this R/I
anything non-commutative and without one ie like putting pineapple on pizza
you can do it but you're crazy
Quotient rings (quotients by ideals)
If you forget the multiplication everywhere then it is just the normal quotient group
Then you put a multipliction on it in the only way that makes sense
Non commutativity is everywhere in nature
pineapple as well
yo can sombody help me with this problem i dont even know what im supposed to do here
non-unital on the other hand.....
I and J are ideal comutative ring R and f:R->R/I x R/J deffined as f(r)=(r+I,r+J),r from R proov that f is homomorfism of a ring wich its core is I intersection J
homomorfism
chase the diagram definitions
the translation is kernel
das me
we say it kernel here also but i think english its core
Bild(f) is worse than Im(f) imo
no it's kernel in English
Although only slightly, but aesthetically ker(f)>>>kern(f)
oh
die image, natürlich
is ker where all elements are paste into 0
well i found this here
who decides this
yes this is correct
r u a native german
I just went off vibes for das tbf
it would be die if it weren't pronounced french ig lmao
lol imagine if it were like
der Image, den Imagen
so in german the rule is gender(english word) = gender(translation into german) in 99.9% of the cases
i dont want to imagen that
portemonnaie is a german word if u ask me
i assumed it's an older french one
ah sure
schlechtes image
thank
btw do you also find most german versions of math terms being way less cool than the english version
No
personally i find the german names cooler lol
yo did you guys start with groups or rings
groooops
garben, halme and keime make me think I am about to buy 40 eggs and a sheep
Hauptidealsatz, Hauptvermutung, Nullstellensatz, usw.
thats too real
Like nice snappy names
Aaron Pfister Hauptsatz
Lol
say that twenty times in a row while doing a handstand
Die, die die, die die deutsche Wƶrter prƤferieren, hassen, sind kringelig
sag das 20mal
took me a solid 30 seconds to understand the dies
i am allowed to count with my fingers
zehn zahme ziegen ziehen zehn zentner zucker um zehn nach zehn am zehnten zehnten
this has made me now wonder the difference between bevorzugen and vorziehen
cause we were taught bevorzugen but i'd instinctively say vorziehen more commonly lol
bevorzugen = to give someone an advantage
vorziehen = to put someone before someone else (e.g. in a queue)
yes thats the same
but jemanden
i mean in the sense of preferring something
bevorzugen vs jemanden vorziehen is different
but sure yes makes sense
i wasn't actually aware of that 2nd meaning of vorziehen
though it is very literal i guess lmao
yeah
i cant remember having heard vorziehen used in this literal sense in forever
lol
if you mean this use case, then they have the same content, altho slightly different connotations
the former expresses a general preference, whereas the latter id interpret as a weaker preference or a preference that emerges from a provided choice
maybe we are algechillng a bit too hard hm...
wir mussten den patienten vorziehen da sein zustand sich stark verschlechtert hat
i can only think of discriminatory examples for this rn lol
der schüler wurde aufgrund seiner herkunft bevorzugt
=> er hat bessere noten bekommen
That's just because you haven't "lived" with the equivalent English terms, I'm sure Americans/Brits feel the same way about sheaves and stalks.
yeah probably
prƤgarben š š š
ah okay so like advantages as a result sure
prƤ goes kinda hard dont lie
prƤ ist ein schlechter prƤfix
I think sheaves and stalks are used/mentioned so infrequently in everyday life (at least for me) that they sound cool to me lol
(as a Brit)
my condolences
Maybe farmers think about it differently lol
at least sheaves are sometimes used in other concept, like a sheaf of papers or clothes lol
Uh I have never heard anyone talk about sheaves of papers or clothes
Lol
Literally only example is a sheaf of wheat to my mind
IDK, can't speak much for the English terms, but in Russian they sound just as agricultural.
maybe i was thinking of a heap
Dunno about clothes, but "sheaf of papers" is a perfectly mundane expression I think.
the founders of AG were too hard into cottagecore aesthetics it seems
Mwah, the French~~
germans must feel scammed
grothendieck being a native german but saying fuck you after ww2 and just using french
that would be much easier than french
agreed
did you know you can actually visit his house in Berlin š¤£
did you know you can visit my house too
like not go in but there is like a sign and all
do you have pizza
I live right next door to a pizza place
ive never been to berlin
well your house is superior to grothendieck
its not worth the visit dw
i only went there for the plot
and it was disappointing
idk what i even expected
the plot?
barely
Yeah my french is terrible
https://www.instagram.com/reel/C035SogIbVT/?igsh=MTl6enlmaGR1cjBsMw== this is my level of french
just to be sure im not being stupid, if I have a quotient of G by a compact subgroup H, then the preimage of any compact subset of G/H is compact right?
just cause itll look like KH which is a product of compact sets and thus compact?
why would it look like KH?
for locally compact hausdorff spaces, a map f : X --> Y is proper iff f is closed and each fiber is compact iff inverse image of each compact is compact.
Is your G compact?
Right I see my mistake
Okay I can still work with this I didnāt know that criterion
Whatās wrong with this argument though? Take an open cover of p^-1(K), quotient it via p which is an open map to get an open cover of K, extract a finite cover and take preimages for a finite cover of p^-1(K)
Itās naive and must be wrong im just not seeing it
Nvm I see
Stupid argument
The point is I wanted to show PSL_2R -> PSL_2R/PSO_2R is proper and thought I could get away without really using too much about those specific groups
But I guess Iāve got to work for closedness of the map
And your fibers should look like the compact subgroup so should be compact
Oh yeah it is a submersion
Fair enough then closedness is trivial
Perf thanks a bunch
Can someone provide me with some ideas or hints for this one?
Well, do you think the statement is true or false?
(Either way, try plugging in some small values of n and see what happens)
yeh!
do some small computations and determine some pattern, that will give u a intuition. That's the best idea for any elementary number theory problems, but may not always work in advanced number theory (like algebraic or analytic).
and they try to prove that the pattern holds everyone, which shouldn't be that bad
that is only if you are sure that it is true
Is it correct that this is the case iff a) 0 < k < n and b) k > 0?
you could also use tube lemma to get closedness, if K is compact and X is closed in G, then need to show G \ KX is open, pick g in G \ KX and notice K^-1g ā© X is empty. So under the map G x G --> G given by (a, b) --> a^-1b, K x {g} maps inside X^c. so by tube lemma we can find U containing g such that K x U also maps inside X^c, i.e. K^-1U ā© X is empty, so U is in G \ KX and contains g.
We would need to know what the action is from the "previous 2 exercises"
I imagine it would just be permuting the subsets in the obvious way
Exactly, it's just the trivial action
Well no itās not the trivial action unless n = k lol
Ļ * {a_1, ..., a_k} = {Ļ(a_1), ..., Ļ(a_k)} and same for tuples
Oh yeah sorry I meant "the action obvious from the context", my bad
No worries I was being nitpicky
I guess that establishes that at least it's not faithful when k = n ;)
For a)
I think both your answers are correct though
My reasoning was that for a), if 0 < k < n you can always write some {i} as the finite intersection of k-element subsets, so if Ļ(A) = Ļ(A) for all k-element subsets A then Ļ(i) = Ļ(i) for all i, and in b) well you can just look at the first index so the permutations have to be the same
guys can sombody help me with this proove that there exists an non abelian group G s.t. 2 consecutive natural numbers i,i+1 holds that for every element a,b from G , (a*b)^i=a^i * b^i, (ab)^(i+1) = a^(i+1) * b^(i+1)
What's your go to example for a nonabelian group
Yeah those work if I understood the question correctly
but listen you can do this by hand go trhoug all the groups maybe to the 10 like power idk what to call it
and i did it like that by hand
but i want algebraic
When is (ab)^n=a^n b^n true, generally?
10 cyclic
what
This doesn't hold for the free group on the generators for example
yea its no problem to go through group of permuations and finde example
but can this be done like algebraic
Yes
Maybe you should consider reading a bit of a proof book on the side, you seem a bit rusty
who me
Yeah
No me
Tbf I probs suck at trig now lol
Whenever some acquaintance asks me to help with proof stuff I am happy to help
Unless it's geometry class
so is there a way without going trough and checking manually
Yes
so how
Not sure what hint to give hm
This has an easy and stupid solution, but I think it's better if you try to find a more interesting example
I suggest you consider any theorems in group theory u know
As there is one that makes this 1 line
I assume Kerr has the exact same idea
So like, start playing around. Again, what is a condition that gurantees (ab)^n=a^n b^n generally?
i actually think it might not be true since I have tried it, like n=4, n=6, but at least I can not factorize it into reducible over Z pattern?
The finite group nuke argument
n = 4 is a counterexample, yeah
Not sure what you meant by the end though
I mean can you factorize this polynomial, I fail
fail to factorize it into product of Z[x]
But I dont like your solution potato tbh
x^3 + x^2 + x + 1 = x^2(x + 1) + (x + 1) = (x^2 + 1)(x + 1) 
its very olympiad-y, one trick that you either see or dont
wait you guys did it
There are several ways to do it, altho more important is that you find something that gives you practice with problem solving here
ok enough yappin sry
what have you tried so far
we only did lagranges theorem
Bingo
what does that have to do with this doe
well, when is (ab)^n = a^n b^n no matter what? Which one n value
and for finite group there are more n's
hi
kerr
me
why does that hold
remember the argument you used yesterday?
yea
or a slightly different hint, what are the "simplest" (sub)groups?
how do you mean simplest
the way you'd use it
Spamakinš·
When solving a system of linear equations we can eliminate the variables by adding or subtracting
is it something thatās is only possible if the algebraic structure is a field
why should it
This is my guess
say 2x+ 3y=10
-2x + 7 y=3
eliminating a variable is same as adding the same thing both sides
2x -2x +3y+7y= 13
3y+7y=13
the only issue arises when you wanna divide
It should be atleast an integral domain?
every non zero element is invertible => ur working in a field
yes
this must be the case for me to have a solution for linear system of equation right?
not necessarily
I am wondering why we can not have unique remainders in Eulicidean domain, since I don't see any real difference between this one and a field with division algorithm?
Thereās no ācanonicalā choice
If you think of Z as a Euclidean domain then negative numbers can also be valid remainders
If you restrict to only positive then itās unique
how can i proove that a factor ring is isomorfic to another ring
Only if one of them contains the other
why is that
I think you should try proving it, it's a simple enough exercise and you will gain some intuition.
ty guys i wouldve just said this holds but it doesnt
This is also false at a higher level of generalityāfor subgroups N,H of G N cup H is a subgroup iff one contains the other
So you can just apply this to these ideals since they r abelian groups under addition
but we do rings before groups
I am looking for a calculator.
Input is 2 permutations.
Output is number of elements in the group generated by the input.
example
input 1=(1,2)
input 2=(2,3)
output=6
use sage
Mathematica would also work well (& easier to use) if you have the money.
sage š¤©
Sage fun 
baby question about group generators: I'm trying to prove that the closed interval A := [-2, -1] generates R^*, i.e. the real multiplicative group. Intuitively I can see that A isn't closed under multiplication, and given some x in R\{0} we can factorize it in terms of some elements from A -- but I'm not entirely sure how to show this, or if this is what I need to show here. Also: I'm guessing there's nothing "special" about this particular closed interval, and that any closed interval in R\{0} would do?
The definition of generator I'm working with is that, given a group G and a subgroup X, Gen(X) is the smallest subgroup of G that contains X, i.e. it's the subgroup K such that X is a subset of K, and if Y is any subgroup containing X then K is a subset of Y. The only other fact I've shown already is that Gen(X) = Gen(X^{-1}) where X^{-1} is the set of inverses of elements of X
so the goal would be to show that for any x in R^*, as you said, thereās a āfactorisationā in terms of elements in [-1, -2] - perhaps try some concrete examples with x and then working from there? (say, 2, 3, 4)
if you have a raspberry pi you can get it for free i believe
You can show that you can get all of [1, 2] then all of [1/2, 1] then all of [1/4, 1/2] and so on until you get all of (0, 1]
Then think about how x -> 1/x works and see if you can get everything in R_>0
Also you are likely right about any interval using the same tricksādividing by the upper limit first then continuing and getting all of (0,1]
For a communitave Ring R that is non unital if we introduce a multiplicative identity 1. Then define 1 + 1 = 0 and define a + 1 just to be a new element does this give rise to a new ring?
In the homework I was doing apparently the trick was to look at Z x R but are these similar?
Remember that multiplication should distribute over addition.
So think about what (1+1)*a would equal in this case
unit quaternions, I think you mean
unitary groups are implied to be matrix groups over the complex numbers, usually
I guess unitary matrices over quaternions aren't much studied, so they don't get their own special notation.
well I mean we can look at them from either perspective
well yes that's what an isomorphism is? I'm confused now
the group of unit quaternions is denoted H^1, which is isomorphic to SU(2)
as sets they're different
I'd write it as C^1 but S^1 is more common (cause they're a circleeee)
sorry let me correct myself lol
Guess there's two different definitions of unit floating around here
yeah I realise that now which is probably my source of confusion
yeah, just extend the domain of the isomorphism to GL(2, C) or GL(1, C) by composing with the inclusions SO(2) -> GL(2, C), U(1) -> GL(1, C) if you want to make it explicit
Careful, the word "representation" has a formal meaning in group theory, usually meaning a vector space with a group action.
In that case, I don't see how it could be true. Like I said, SO(2) isn't a vector space.
They're isomorphic as Lie groups though.
So, you can get representations of one from representations of the other.
Definition: Let G be a group. A representation of G is a pair (V, p) where V is a vector space over some field k, and p: G --> GL(V) is a group homomorphism where GL(V) is the group of invertible k-linear transformations of V.
So, yes, part of the definition involves a homomorphism from you group, into the group of linear transformations on a vector space.
If the above definition is too abstract, you here's the following simplification which is a special case of the above, and the case one usually studies first:
Let G be a group. A finite-dimensional complex representation of G is a homomorphism G --> GL_n(C) where GL_n(C) is the group of n-by-n invertible complex matrices.
R^2 (with the usual action) and R with trivial action would be two (real) representations
The isomorphism SO(2) = U(1) also gives a 1D complex representation.
Which is really just the same as the R^2 one in disguise
Can you suggest me lecture on yt about splitting field
Given that this conversation spawned from them being confused about this isomorphism is and the definition of a representation, you should parse what you're saying for them.
They didn't seem confused to me
Check out Matt Salamone's channel.
Seems they understood it pretty well
Trivial meaning acting by doing nothing (every element acts like the identity)
The usual is how 2x2 matrices usually act on 2d vectors, matrix vector multiplication
So to conform with the definition I gave you above, for the usual action let V = R^2 realized as column vectors. Then, I define the homomorphsim
p: SO(2) --> GL(V) by sending the matrix X in SO(2) to the linear transformation
v --> Xv for all v in V = R^2.
For the trivial representation, let V = R. and define p: SO(2) --> GL(V) to be the map sending everything to the identity in GL(V).
if there is an ideal (d), and a is in (d), can I say (a) is the subset of (d). I am considering in this way: we can have a=dp where all p is in ring R, for all t from R, we have at=(dp)*t, therefore all elements from (a) is in (d)?
Yes
Also like (a) is the smallest ideal containing a
So since (d) contains a it contains (a)
can you provide your thoughts on combintronics..i have doubts if i understood it correctly
or what would be the appropriate channel to discuss about it
can you provide your time for discussion about this #groups-rings-fields message
Spamakinš·
so those computations seem to imply the claim in the last sentence of the question here ^ is wrong
so I must be misinterpreting the question but I'm not sure
Ah so a + a should be zero, but then nessexwriky means we could be introducing new in verses.
There is a different combinatorics channel https://discord.com/channels/268882317391429632/576511723574525962
what is the factor ring R/I where I is the ideal of R and R is the set of matrices (a b 0 c) where a,b,c are real numbers , and I is matricies (0 b 0 0) , b is from real numbers
how do cosets look
It's often the case that the first isomorphism theorem helps. If you can think of a surjective homomorphism to another ring that has your ideal as the kernel, then the factor ring is isomorphic to the codomain.
To think about what the codomain could be, you can get some intuition by thinking of all the things in the ideal as "collapsed" to zero, as if you've imposed a set of relations on your ring.
Short answer: yes.
Long answer: Technically you need to first define what you mean by "unitary matrix over the quaternions". Recall that over C, unitary matrices are defined to be those that satisfy XX^ = I, where the ^ means conjugate-transpose. Of course in the quaternions we have a notion of conjugation, but I highlight this because for matrix groups over other fields (or division algebras, meaning they have multiplicative inverses but need not be commutative, like the quaternions) we might not have such a notion.
However, if your field F has a quadratic extension, there is a way to make sense of U(n, F). So yes, U(1, H) is isomorphic to the group of unit quaternions H^* which is isomorphic to SU(2, C).
I am wondering why we can have R[x]/(x) is isomorphic to the integral domain R?
Like most times we show that a factor ring is isomorphic to something, we use the first isomorphism theorem. Try it
Also like think about what elements of R[x]/x look like
can we just say that (x) is the kernel when we construct a ring homomorphism between R[x] and R?
since it seems that R[x]/x is of the form r(constant coefficient), when all r is in R?
it should be of the form r(constant coefficient) when r is in R, and is it convincing to say that (x) is kernel when we construct ring homomorphism between R[x] and R?
Well, what is the kernel of the R[x]->R sending x to zero?
only pick 0 from R[x]? or picking a constant coefficient a so that a is in R(since R can only contain elements of the form a?)
You can certainly say it, but it's up to you to construct such a homomorphism and prove it has kernel (x).
Maybe I need to ask a similar question, if there is a mapping from Z[x] to Z, then how will you state that (x) is the kernel of this ring homomorphism?
it's best illustrated in two steps. -1 via multiplication represents getting the additive inverse, and taking additive inverses twice corresponds to doing nothing
the latter part is really a statement about abelian groups
hence (-1)(-1) = -(-1) = 1
I think you should try discover the answer to this yourself. Write down a few mappings from Z[x] to Z, and see if the kernel is (x). A good way to begin to check if the kernel is (x) is to see if the kernel even contains x.
account deleted
another victim to discord message wormholes
what does that even mean..."makes sense outside of university math"...like, applicable to the real world?
People who have had no experience with math at an university level
Clearly an impossible task. How could anyone understand even + odd = odd without years of study?
those are nice ones
Things like bezouts theorem can be understoof pretty easily
Even tho they require a lot of machinery to prove
2+1 = 3 which is odd, 4+3 = 7 which is odd⦠yep weāre good, itās true
I cannot tell you how many papers I grade look like this
Division algorithm too
intro to discrete math, we have compsci students take it
Lmaoooo
2 of my friends r CS students and they TA the intro to proofs class for CS and they say the same lol
it's so bad...it's one of the few times when I'm just like "it is what it is"
when it comes to teaching
My friend showed me one combinatorics example that would be good to keep in mind
The pattern of something was like powers of 2 up to like n = 4 then the next one is just 31 outta nowhere
Something related to diagonals of an n gon
2 + 1 is odd.
2 + 3 is odd.
3 + 1 is odd.
The rest of the proof is left to the reader as an exercise.

Hahah that's nice
Yep when in doubt look it up lol
spotted
!status
What step are you on?
1. I don't know where to begin.
2. I have begun but got stuck midway.
3. I got an answer but I was told that it's wrong.
4. I got an answer and would like my work checked.
5. I have a question about someone else's work/solution.
6. I have completed the problem and don't need help anymore. Thank you.
7. None of the above
7
if you want a challenging problem from a non-mickey mouse 335 tho I can show u one from basedrian
This is more appropraite for #multivariable-calculus
Hm, maybe it only works for small numbers?
you wouldn't know about that
1001+2=1003
1005+8=1013
Hm..
maybe it only works for numbers involving a 1 or a 3?
I mean, it illustrates how to show it
You can get all the combinations by adding 2 on each entry
Good point
maximum number of parts you can divide a disk into with n chords
even a 3b1b video on it https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=YtkIWDE36qU
An apparent pattern that breaks, and the reason behind it.
Summer of math exposition: https://3blue1brown.substack.com/p/some3-begins
Learn more at https://some.3b1b.co/
Help fund future projects: https://www.patreon.com/3blue1brown
An equally valuable form of support is to simply share the videos.
For the long-time viewers among you, if this s...
Awesome
Riku
If I do not assume this map is a ring homomorphism, can I even continue to extend this map to the whole ring?
I am asking this because we have been asked to prove this as an isomorphism (automorphism, to be precise.)
K is a field here.
What makes you say it's not necessarily a homomorphism?
Considering it to be a set map, we have no useful relations to define the map for other polynomials at all
Sure you do: x is a generator for the whole thing. You only need to know it for x.
That is true
Polynomial rings always work that way: choose where to send x, and it can be extended to the whole ring
Ok so, x is a generator, so x^n can be determined. How exactly we do it?
x^2 maps to the square of the image of x right?
and after we determine each x^n in the format, we can scale it using any scalar from the field, and also we can add the images.
All of these are properties of homomorphisms
My question is, if we do not start with these assumptions, how can we arrive that this is naturally true for this map?
This is a good question
Exactly.
Polynomials are the "free" rings. They have the special property that if you send their generating set somewhere (anywhere at all, it can be an arbitrary set map), you can uniquely extend that map to a ring homomorphism.
Wait, actually?
This is like in linear algebra: if you choose to send your basis elements somewhere, then you can automatically extend that to a linear map
You just construct the map according to the rules of homomorphism
This answers my question.
I have to show {(ax + b)^n | n \in {1, ..... N} } is linearly independent in K[x] over K.
a and b are fixed elements of K, a not zero.
I thought of doing induction, but now I am stuck at the inductive step
Showed the case for n = 1 and 2
If K was R I'd use the continuity of polynomials but we don't know that for any arbitrary field
Never mind, I did
Okay so, I used the linear indepedence to show this map is injective.
Now I have to show this is surjective
This seems to be difficult though.
Because the map x |-> (x - b)/a doesn't seem to work as an inverse
This gives back x when applied to ax + b
But fails for (ax + b)^2
(ax + b)^2 = ax^2 + 2abx + b^2, and now if you put (x - b)/a in place of x, it doesn't give back x^2
Oh my god.
Ignore me
I saw the mistake
Also, now I realize this map itself is the inverse and it would have been much easier.
U can do it more directly too
If they were linearly dependent a finite sum of them would be 0 with not all coefficients 0
Let a_m be the coefficient of the highest power of (ax+b)^n. But how can you kill the x^n when everything else has smaller power?
That's the exact inductive argument I applied
Assuming upto m -1 is L.I, then showing the coefficient for x^m has to be also zero, is sufficient
Ah yep that works
Was wondering if you could use that f(x) = ax+b is affine so an isomorphism somehow
Like is the image of the basis elements under an isomorphism still a basis probably I think this is what u weāre getting at
Yes, if I was able to use it I'd Just write this
Or rather the linear transformation fixing K and sending x to ax+b
Ahhh so u found an inverse it all makes sense now sorry
Nah it's okay, this is also a viable idea
Okay just confirming, if I have a group homomorphism f : G -> K and I have found a set mapping g : K -> G such that
f ⢠g = Id(G) and g ⢠f = Id(K). Notice the fact that g is a set mapping.
Is this sufficient to say f is an group isomorphism?
Yes. Why?
Or do I have to prove g is also a group homomorphism
No its true in general that if f: G -> H is a group homomorphism and bijective then f^{-1} is also a group homomorphism
I recommend you prove this fact if you dont believe it
Ah yeah something like that is assumed
This reduces my workload just a bit
Could someone tell me to follow the book "a first course in representation theory" by Fulton Harris, what are the prerequisites required?
I have gone through course in group theory although a basic one and courses in real analysis and linear algebra by axler
probably the only requirements are a first course in group theory and a good understanding of linear algebra
the book is pretty self contained
Is multilinear algebra required?
There's an appendix section on multilinear algebra in F&H, I believe
You'll probably want to be familiar with it one way or another
whats multilinear algebra
If we have a real vector space with inner product, $(V,g)$, and if we let $(V_\mathbb{C},g_\mathbb{C})$ be its complexification, where the inner product has been extended by complex bilinearity (i.e.\ \textbf{not} to a Hermitian inner product), then the Clifford algebra $\mathrm{Cl}(V_\mathbb{C},g_\mathbb{C})$ is canonically isomorphic to the complexification $\mathrm{Cl}(V,g)\otimes_\mathbb{R}\mathbb{C}$. The complex conjugation on the latter thus induces a complex antilinear map $c:\mathrm{Cl}(V_\mathbb{C},g_\mathbb{C})\to\mathrm{Cl}(V_\mathbb{C},g_\mathbb{C})$ such that $c^2=\mathrm{id}$. If we assume that $w_1,\dots,w_k\in V_\mathbb{C}$, so that the product $w_1\cdots w_k$ is an element of $\mathrm{Cl}(V_\mathbb{C},g_\mathbb{C})$, is then $c(w_1\cdots w_k)=\overline{w_1}\cdots\overline{w_k}$, where the conjugation on the right is the standard conjugation on the complexification of a real vector space?
gustavn64
multilinear algebra is part of linear algebra
who learns about linear algebra without bilinear forms and determinants?
I guess maybe from Axler
in a general ring, can there be an element a such that a^2 = -1?
Well, the ring of complex numbers is such an example 
take any ring R and consider R[x]/(x^2 +1)
you can force it to be the case
There's also the funn case of the trivial ring
what am i missing then to show this:
i have deduced that N(x) \in {+- 1} if x is a unit
a^2 + b^2 = 1, where a and b are in Z
without using order
Pretty sure that N can't be negative
Yeah but how do you show this without using the order on Z?
Or is this literally the way.
Yeah
Can someone help me think about direct limits of groups?
For instance if I consider a group A with the identity map on itself can we form a direct limit? A->A->A->A...?
I feel like this should be A where we just use the identity to get the commutative diagram and in fact A->A->A with the identity maps will commute with A->A with an identity map
Is this correct?
Yes
Do you always use this universal property? I saw something that made me think it was more natural to think of these as sequences (a potential example being the p adics).
A filtered colimit of sets / groups / modules etc can be explicitly described by taking the union and quotienting by the relation "a ā¼ b iff a is eventually equal to b"
Sometimes it's easier to work with the universal property, sometimes it's easier to work with an explicit construction.
Where "eventually equal" means they get mapped into the same element in some group
Ohh okay I didn't know about the eventually language that is helpful. I also forgot it was an equivalence relation to the union thank you.
that's mutlilinear algebra? i thought its just linear algebra lol
You usually can do it with any colimit, the filtering condition just means the quotient is significantly easier. Also, being able to consider cofinal families makes them much more friendly objects
I think in general you take coproduct instead of union?
I thought that was what you meant with union?
Setwise that's what they are
I am not sure why you would want to pass to the union description instead of working with the coproduct itself?
It's usually the nicer object
Yeah?
You can do much arguments by taking representatives
Cuz is quotient of disjoint union
I never had a situation where there being a disjoint union helped with the stalk arguments
You mean that you can take sections of some neighbourhood in the pre-image of a germ?
Or wait, do you mean that you can talk about germs in general?
Due to the coproduct/coequalizer construction?
Well like whenever you take a local section as a representative
You're using the fact that the elements of the stalk are represented by local sections
Yeah I get what you mean now
I suppose it clearer if you go the setwise colimit -> equip it with extra structure route for stuff like rings/modules/abelian groups that any germ always corresponds to some local section so you can pass over to them, like when making - say - the argument that being integral passes over to staks and vice versa
That fact should be true in any āreasonableā āalgebraicā category and is helpful for explicit computations when coproducts are not so simple (e.g. in the category of groups or rings).
Like, words are fine, but union is better.
I think.
for groups it is not the disjoint union
Products and limits in algebraic categories are the same as those in set, but coproducts and colimits are usually unrelated
Yeah I was thinking abelian groups
even in abelian groups the coproduct is not the same as disjoint union
Itās the same as the product in set in some nice cases but that is basically an accident
Hm... so the constructiong does require the filtered assumption somewhere in order to construct the colimit step by step as first a disjoint union with an equivalence relation and then equipping it with the right structure?
In which content
I am refering to exercise 1.4E (page 43/44) in this here
https://math.stanford.edu/~vakil/216blog/FOAGjul3123public.pdf
does "here" extend further than modules and maybe rings?
Apparently it should be for most like equational algebraic things but not sure
non-abelian group feels like they would be too cursed for this
The āforgetful functorā of any monadic adjunction preserves all sifted colimits
and sifted colimits are basically all filtered colimits and mutually split coequalizers, and the colimits they generate
non abelian groups would also work
basically any algebraic structure built out of a set which admits a āfreeā functor would work
Consider a permutation $\sigma \in S_n$ written in disjoint cycle notation as $(1, 3, 6)(2, 4)$
If we consider $\tau = (1, 3, 6)$ and $\phi = (2, 4)$ as two separate permutations, is it a coincidence that $$\sigma = \tau \phi$$ or is there a reason for this?
BlazingSaber
0 coincidence
That's the definition of the operation of S_n, which is composition
Remember these are just bijections [n] ā [n]
And what you've written there is how that operation is reflected when you express these as cycles
Having a tough time wrapping my head around this, maybe because the book I'm following taught me how to write in disjoint cycle notation given the two-row notation, as an algorithmic procedure
I understand that the definition for how these cycles are written is motivated by function composition, but trying to see how/why exactly
Okay, the fact that these cycles are "disjoint" helps make it a lot clearer
Given that $\tau$ and $\phi$ are disjoint, they share no common elements and so you can first apply the action of $\phi$ and then $\tau$, which can essentially be done as a single permutation $\phi$
BlazingSaber
Let I be an open interval in R and (I,ā¢) commutative group with the property that for every a,b in I with a<b and for every x in I we have xā¢a<xā¢b. a) Show that e is between b and b^-1 for every b in I-{e}. b) If Hā {e} is a subgroup of (I,ā¢) with the property that for every sequence (x_n)n>=1 with numbers from H and for every b in I with b>e, the set {x_n | n>=1 } intersected with (b^-1,b) is a set with no elements or a set which has a maximum, show H is cyclic.
a) is trivial
b) is interesting
if I look at e<h with h in H-{e} we get e<h<h^2<...<h^n
and take the sequence x_n ={h,h^2,...,h^n}
and take b>h^n. If b^-1<h^n we get S=(b^-1,b) intersected with {x_n} has elements so S has a maximum but thats false because of the open interval. So b^-1 > h^n. But h^n>...>h>e. And because b^-1<e<b we get something false
Can someone explain where is the problem
Is this result incorrectly stated? Did they mean $ab^{-1} \in H$ instead $G$?
I tried proving the theorem with the current hypothesis without any luck, so I'm wondering if they meant H instead
yes should be in H
BlazingSaber
also "for all a, b in G"
should be "for all a, b in H"
we don't care about elements outside of H
I have a field K, where K(t) = Frac(K[t]). Let u \in K(t)\K, such that u = f(t)/g(t) for non zero f, g \in K[t] and gcd(f,g) = 1.
Gcd is defined as K[t] is an Euclidean domain
I have to prove that h(x) = f(x) - ug(x) is irreducible in K(u)[x], and t \in K(t) is a root of h(x).
The latter part is very obvious
But how do I show irreducibility
Is K(u)/(u) iso to K? Maybe Eisenstein?
Are you familiar with localizations? Maybe how they commute with quotients?
Ofc if K didn't contain u in the first place.
The straightforward path is checking the map sending u to 0 and making sure the image is exactly K
I mean, u is a unit
Ah shit ur right
if it's K[u]/(u) then agreed
im just confused by this definition
what is F? (wasnt mentioned before)
for context, E is a field extension of k
u can't be in K by the question. u is taken from K(t) - K.
F is a subfield of E, containing the field k and the elements in S. If you gather all such F and take an intersection, you get k(S), which is the smallest of all such fields
ohhhhh
This notion is very common
its all F such that F contains k and S, i see
ill keep that in mind lol
Sadly I'm not. I was thinking of reading about what localizations are in my spare time but we formally haven't had any course on Commutative Algebra yet.
yeah that first bit is kinda weirdly phrased
follow up question
lets say I have it set up as k subset E where k is my field and E is my extension
is k(S) as denoted above
equal to all linear combinations of elementsof S with coefficients in k?
analogous to a vector span
It doesn't have to be I think
oh, unfortunate
I'm new to field theory as well and up until now this is how we define it
I think for particular fields and particular subsets you can calculate that to isomorphism
ah fair enough
I suppose then theres probably no real general case
but in "nice" fields one can compute it
In general, you'll need to consider linear combinations divided by nonzero linear combinations to also have inverses
Finite extensions (deg(E) < ā) you have a basis however, so you can always write things in terms of that
(or uhh deg(k(S)) < ā here)
Oh right, yes, my bad
This you can do
. Btw, may someone help me here? I have been stuck for hours š
This is the original text if anyone needs
t is a root that is very easy to see, you just plug t in there
But that kind of also means t isn't in K(u), because otherwise h(x) won't be irreducible
I'm also confused on how different f(x) and f(t) is. At start it is also an indeterminate variable
Riku
Does that also say we are welcome to try contradiction, that is, assume beta is a root of h(x) in K(u). This extension (K(u) over K) is finite and has the degree as the degree of some minimal polynomial having u as root (for the time being I don't know what it is).
From there can we reach somewhere
Oh wait this assumption is also only true if u is algebraic over K
we can show without much work that matrix multiplication is associative. but if we instead show that matrix multiplication is the same as composition of their corresponding linear maps, then does associativity come for free since function composition is associative?
if so, can we generally show some operation is associative by treating its inputs like functions and the operation as composition?
Yeah you can do that, but finding a set of functions to work with is usually harder than just proving associativity directly
This is true because of the obvious isomorphism between the groups of matrices over a field K under multiplication and group of linear maps over a field K under composition
But yeah in general the corresponding functions would be hard to find unless it's something like this
do we know any other examples of proving associativity by treating objects like functions
Sometimes the definition of your object just happens to be closely tied to functions
and it's easy to do this
ya ok that makes sense
Unfortunately no, I cannot
From here, if I assume beta is a root of h(x) that is in K(u), I can write u = f(beta)/g(beta), provided both f(beta) and g(beta) is non zero
And we already know u to be f(t)/g(t) with gcd 1 between f and g
Both f(x) and g(x) are in K(u)[x] so evaluated at beta f(beta) and g(beta) both should be in K(u)
From here I am unable to proceed anywhere
Ok anyways this doesn't work for degree more than 3 so this shouldn't work in general
I think the problem boils down to the fact that f(x)g(t) - f(t)g(x) is irreducible in K[t, x]
Which would be true iff the same polynomial is irreducible in K(t)[x] and coefficients have to have gcd 1, Gauss's Lemma
Now how to show this š
I have given up and raised a stackexchange post.
Let I be an open interval in R and (I,ā¢) commutative group with the property that for every a,b in I with a<b and for every x in I we have xā¢a<xā¢b. a) Show that e is between b and b^-1 for every b in I-{e}. b) If Hā {e} is a subgroup of (I,ā¢) with the property that for every sequence (x_n)n>=1 with numbers from H and for every b in I with b>e, the set {x_n | n>=1 } intersected with (b^-1,b) is a set with no elements or a set which has a maximum, show H is cyclic.
if I look at e<h with h in H-{e} we get e<h<h^2<...<h^n
Can someone help me
I'm actually not sure what is the operation supposed to do.
It certainly doesn't seem a subgroup of R
Or is it the multiplication
If it is, the open interval cannot contain zero
This group is isomorphic to (R, +)
Ok I understand
So the problem is wrong?
?
@boreal inlet said H doesnt look like a subgroup of R
(I, Ā·) is not a subgroup of (R, +) with the standard inclusion I ā R
But (I, Ā·) is isomorphic to (R, +)
Well any subgroup of (R, +) s.t. all bounded sequences have maximum is cyclic
Or perhaps (?) the same argument for proving this can work directly on I
The easiest way to prove this is probably: Find all the integers, find all the rationals, find all the reals
Tho I think this works actually
Where can I find the proof of this
Consider the infimum of elements in H larger than the identity
I'm trying to prove that the subgroup $H = {a^n : n \in \mathbb{Z}}$ of a group $G$, for some $a \in G$ is the smallest such subgroup containing $a$
Is this a valid argument by contradiction to show the same?
BlazingSaber
Wait, so the dot is multiplication?
(\psi: (I, \cdot) \to (\mathbb{R}, +)) s.t.
[
\psi(a \cdot b) = \psi(a) + \psi(b)
] is an isomorphism?
Riku
Not enough information
For the first part, compare e and b, then multiply by b^-1.
For the second, call an element positive if it's bigger than e. Then you want to show that H has a minimal element and is generated by its minimal element.
Assume H doesn't have a minimal positive element, then let xn be a decreasing sequence, such that any positive element is eventually larger than xn (we know such exist because every well ordered subset of R is countable). Then consider b(xn)^-1 in (b^-1, b)
The sequence xn has all the terms positive?
Yeah, xn positive
Can you explain more the part with the existence of the sequence and how this proves H is cyclic please?
In the proof of this theorem, it isn't clear how they arrived at the highlighted conclusion.
Is it because in any nontrivial subgroup of G, we must have an inverse for every element, so for every positive power of a, we must also have a negative power of a, and vice versa?
So we can be sure that there exists a power of a that's present in H if its nontrivial
What it's proving is that H has a minimal positive element. After that you should try to prove that H is generated by this element.
Remember your hypothesis says that b(xn)^-1 has a maximal element inside (b^-1, b), how can you use this to get a contradiction
That's right, if a^n is in H then also a^-n will be there
If A finite ring isomorphic with A1ĆA2Ć...ĆAk and the number of nilpotent elements of A is 2^k then the number of nilpotents of Ai is 2?
If each Ai has 2 idempotents
And A has 2^k idempotents
If some ring Ai has only one nilpotent then there must be a ring Aj which has 2^r nilpotents with r>=2
The image of each projection is nilpotent (why?), go from there
Ik that but then?
Yeah this is a property
I used this to show A has 2^k elements because each Ai has 2 idempotents
So if some A_i has only one nilpotent then there must be some A_j which has more than 2 nilpotents (2^p where p>=2 because the product it must be a power of 2)
In that ring A_i because it is finite there is some n s.t. a^=a^(2n) for a in A_i so a_i idempotent so every element must be invertible or nilpotent
And because A_i has only one nilpotent that means A_i is a field with only 2 idempotents
It is commutative
A_i can be iso to Z/2Z for example
So can we have an A_i that has only one nilpotent?
@slim kayak so each A_i must have only 2 nilpotents or not?
Fields have no zero divisors, so the only nilpotent is 0
Yes. A_i has only one nilpotent
This is what we supposed
Oh we cant have
That
In the problem we also have that A has 2^k invertible elements
Or can we have such an A_i? We will get that A_i must be iso to Z/2Z
How do we justify that the only subgroups of $\mathbb{Z}$ under addition are $n \mathbb{Z}$ $\forall n \in \mathbb{Z}$?
BlazingSaber
You can find a smallest element in it
My guess is that we know that the subgroups of any cyclic group are also cyclic
Since $n \mathbb{Z}$ are the only cyclic subgroups of $\mathbb{Z}$ under addition, they're also the only subgroups
BlazingSaber
And given any larger element, this smallest thing must divide it.
Smallest element in which set?
Subgroup ofc
which subgroup tho, I mentioned all the subgroups nZ of Z
Any
@slim kayak I am trying to figure out if there is such an A_i with only one nilpotent. If it is true, then there must be A_j with 2^p nilpotents with p>=2 (so at least 4 nilpotents). Because A has 2^k invertible elements we know that A_j has 2^q invertible elements with q>=0. We also know A_j has only 2 idempotents (0 and 1) and the fact that A_j is finite and commutative.
Another thing I see is that we cant have q=0 because of the function from the nilpotents to the invertible elements f(x)=x-1 (picking a and b distinct both nilpotents)
So A_j has at least 2 invertible elements
Another thing: because A_j has only 2 idempotents it means that every element in A_j is nilpotent/invertible
I understand this proof, but I don't understand where the corollary below comes from
We'd seen in a previous section that the subgroups $n \mathbb{Z}$ of $\mathbb{Z}$ are cyclic. But how does that imply that all the subgroups of $\mathbb{Z}$ are of the form $n \mathbb{Z}$? What if hypothetically we're not considering subgroups of $\mathbb{Z}$ which are not of the form $n \mathbb{Z}$ but are still cyclic (as Theorem 6.6 shows)?
BlazingSaber
I understood, never mind
Every cyclic subgroup of Z can be expressed as nZ
And since every subgroup of Z is a cyclic subgroup, it follows that every subgroup of Z can be expressed as nZ
Another thing: A_j has 2^q invertible elements and q>=p>=2 because the function f(x)=x-1 is injective
So this means that there must be A_t ring s.t. A_t has only one invertible element
This means that char(A_k)=2 because -1=1
So that means A_k has 2^m elements. But A_k also has 2 idempotent elements so every element is nilpotent/invertible. But A_k must have 2^s nilpotent elements with s>=0. so 2^s+1=2^m and this is only possible if s=0 so A_k has only one nilpotent, only one invertible element and exactly 2 idempotents so A_k is isomorphic with Z/2Z
Can you show that a ring that isn't the product of more rings can only have 2 or odd numbers of nilpotents?
Commutative ring?
If that's what you can assume here, sure
And how this helps me with my problem
Oh I see it
We will apply this for every ring A_i right?
The idea is that the number of nilpotents in A is just the product of all elements you can choose
Yes I know that
So if we can limit the prime factors of the nilpotents of any ring which can't be expressed as a non-trivial product of rings, then it follows
What do you mean
How do we know all the A_i's cant be iso to some non trivial product of rings
I know but I want to keep the property that all the A_i's have exaclty 2 idempotents
Oh
The property remains
Right, so split up the A_i's further into something that has nilpotents and something that doesn't, then move those without them to the side
Because 2 prime
Or whatever. If each A_i has r_i nilpotents, then the number of nilpotents of A are 2^k=r_1...r_k
So clearly each A_i has some power of 2 many nilpotents. Maybe you can show that the only possible values are 1 and 2
But if we Čplit some A_i into B1Ć B2 the number of idempotents of B1 Ć the number idempotents of B2=2 but every ring with unity has at least 2 idempotents so we cant split A_i into a non trivial product of rings
So that means all the original A_i's cant be split
yeah, go this route
no splitting there
If these are the only possible values, if we have some A_i with only 1 nilpotent then there must be A_j with at least 4 nilpotents and that is false. So the only possible value would be 2
So if all A_i's have more than 4 nilpotent elements the product will be striclty bigger than the number of nilpotents in A
To show why we cant have some A_i that has more than 4 nilpotents or all A_i's?
We we cant have any A_i with more than 2 nilpotents while still being a power of 2
How
I don't understand. How can we "choose" a generator to be positive?
Isn't what it means to be a group to be cyclic that it must contain an element whose powers represent every element in the set, but we need not know anything of the nature of the generator until we actually find what it must be?
You can if your group is ordered
If a is a generator, so is a^-1 or -a (depending on notation)
In other words, I know that a group $G$ is cyclic if there exists $a \in G$ s.t. $G = {a^n : n \in \mathbb{Z}}$
But we're only claiming that $a$ exists, we don't know the nature of $a$ until we find it, correct?
BlazingSaber
hmm, I see
Wish the book would've mentioned this
Not to be rude, but I think thats reasonable to expect to figure it out
Like (a^-1)^-1=a
Not sure if it's supposed to be obvious, but I don't know anything about ordering
Ah, yeah the ordering is inherited from Z itself
Without it you cant really talk about "positive" elements
No, I meant literally I don't know what ordering means
I don't understand the closure axiom for a group.
Let the symbol * be a binary operation on a set G. A binary operation means the calculation that combines two elements to produce another element. For example, addition 1 + 2 = 3 is a binary operation because it combines two elements, 1 and 2, to produce another element, 3. And the symbol * can be any binary operations including subtraction(ā), multiplication(Ć), etc.
what does the symbol * mean ?
Sure ya do, it's the thing the inequality symbol gives you
Yeah, thats as good as it gets without going into theory
Yeah I have a vague idea from analysis, but besdies the < symbol I literally don't know how to define an ordering
you have some method by which you can use < satisfying all the properties you know and love
A total order is really the exact thing you already know
Usually you just go "a < b iff a and b fulfill P" where P is some property
a relation basically
and then you can check that it mets the axioms of what an ordering is (it acts like the < sign from the real numbers)
Its a relation fulfilling some rules, yeah.
How can I prove this? Can you explain please? I just dont understand.
Idk, I was suggesting some different thing you could try to approach
We can have one A_i with 1 nilpotent and other A_j with 4 nilpotents and the rest of them with only 2 nilpotents for example and the product of the numbers of nilpotents would be exactly 2^k.
I proved that if there is some A_i with only 1 nilpotent, then there is an A_t iso with Z/2Z
wait how
Above
.
its a function f(a,b) with the property that f(f(a,b),c) = f(a,f(b,c))
you can forget the second half since it just says * is associative.
So the question is all A_i's must have exactly 2 nilpotents or there is a chance that some A_i can have only 1 nilpotent?
do you have a picture of the exericse?
It is not an official problem. It is just some problem I was thinking about. If A is a finite commutative ring with # idempotents = # nilpotents = # invertible elements, who is A?
And the idea with the product of A_i's is from @rustic crown . I think he said each A_i has 2 nilpotents, 2 invertible elements and 2 idempotents, but how? Cant we have one A_i iso to Z/2Z. This is what I understood. Correct me if I am wrong.
Commutative rings with unity?
Yes
so the idempotents are fixed to be 0 and 1. The invertibles must include 1, so we have some self-inverse a. And now we also have a single nilpotent element b
besides 0
From where did you get that has 2 idempotents, 2 nilpotents and 2 invertible elements
just looking around
Didn't you already ask this @cloud solar
Yeah but cant we have one A_i iso to Z/2Z, where A iso A_1ĆA_2Ć..ĆA_k ?
So now the problem is not only about finding the finite commutative rings with 2 nilpotents, 2 idempotents and 2 invertible elements. If there is some A_i iso to F2 then there must be A_j in that product where A_j has at least 4 nilpotent elements
So idk if we can classify this type of rings
Yeah, so what you do is choose A_i to be local rings with residue field F2. That will give you rings with the same number of nilpotents as units. But typically not that many idempotents, then you just tack on a few more F2 until you have enough idempotents
If you want to describe all local rings with residue F2, that will be a lot.
Things like F2[x, y]/(x, y)^2 and also Z/4Z, but also things like Z/4Z[2x] and a bunch of crazy stuff
the group operation
so when you define a group, it's a set + this operation satisfying certain conditions
so if G is the integers, then that dot could represent addition of two integers
or if G is a vector space, that dot could represent addition of two vectors
or if G the set of invertible 2 x 2 real matrices, that dot could represent multiplication of two matrices
etc etc
those are all examples of groups
I see
Could you define your own operation ?
or does it only have to be addition and multiplication
well you'd have to show your operation satisfies the other conditions
but yes, in theory it could be anything
I just gave examples you are hopefully familiar with
i see okay thanks
Note that this should be clear from the definition of a group!
You should take this opportunity to reread the definition.
(I think this is the definition lol)
There should be a line saying something like "a group is a set G with an operation . such that ..."
like I'd bet right above that screenshot is a sentence along the lines "A group is a set G with an operation * satisfying the following axioms"
lol
ew no
Anyway, notice how the paragraph above your screenshot also answered your question.

So based
I am trying to prove that the set of integers modulo 13 form a group with respect to addition
is there any association between prime numbers and it forming a group with respect to addition ?
Looks good to me
thank you
G is an abelian group
How to prove that for every n>=1 there is an unique subgroup H with n elements?
I was thinking using the fact that a matrix A is in subgroup of order n if A^n=I2
what is R
And then using the binomial expression
The set of real numbers
If $G$ is a cyclic subgroup, does it make sense to define the order for every one of its elements, or only for the element $a \in G$ s.t. $a$ is a generator of $G$?
BlazingSaber
Each one
You define the order of an element a in an arbitrary group G as |<a>|
For example the order of 5 in Z/15 is |<5>| = |{0,5,10}| = 3
Right yeah fair
I forgot that <a> exists for every element of a group
I thought only those elements which generate the entire group have <a> defined for them
If H1, H2 two distinct subgroups of order n, because G abelian H1,H2 are normal so H1H2 subgroup of G and ord(H1H2)>n (idk if this helps)
@rotund aurora I see you're back to being a croq.
A1 is also redundant lol
bump
Hey I'm confused about the terminology of normal rings versus integrally closed rings. Are they exactly the same thing?
Depends on who defines it, normal rings on stacks are the same thing as integrally closed rings
What wikipedia defines as normal rings is that the localizations at all prime ideals (not just (0), if R is a domain) are integrally closed rings
I know I am out of nowhere but; Thanks Kerr, now I do not have to look up wikipedia/hartshorne to learn what normal rings are
Let G,H be solvable groups. Show G x H is solvable
Can i do this constructively
<@&286206848099549185>
Do you know that G is solvable if and only if for all normal subgroups K, K and G / K are both solvable?
if not, that would be worth proving and using that
maybe there's a more direct way but idk
I have the book "A First Course In Abstract Algebra" by Fraleigh. Im wondering what sections/chapters of this book might be found in your average introductory undergrad course. Im essentially looking for a knowledge base that goes deep enough to advance my studying in Topology and Diff Geo.
Here is a breakdown for the high chapters
-Groups and Subgroups
-Permutations, Cosets, and Direct Products
-Homomorphisms and Factor Groups
-Rings and Fields
-Ideals and Factor Rings
-Extension Fields
-Advanced Group Theory (maybe this ch name is a bit too vague)
-Groups in Topology
-Factorization
-Automorphisms and Galois Theory
undergrad courses tend to be paced fairly differently from school to school
i'd consider fraleigh to be roughly the contents of a two-semester introduction to abstract algebra
some schools might do it in one semester but that'd be fast paced
that'd be a fast one sem IMO
I see. So maybe like the first half is roughly the "bare basics"?
kinda? but like
although I'm curious what makes factorization come so late
i'd expect many schools to instead group the chapters by subject
and what is "advanced group theory" lol
i.e. there might be a group theory course that does the first 3 chapters and then the last 4, save galois theory
and then a ring/field theory course that does the rest
I can send some pics to get into specifcs š
If my first abstract algebra course was just group theory
I would not have done a second
Idk, maybe group homology stuffs?
no way homology is appearing that early
anyway
as for what you need for topology
you mostly just need the group stuff
to get started
ring/field theory are relevant later but initially you just need comfort working with groups
@scarlet estuary cool! well that is definitely helpful!
I didnt want to spend TOO much time going off on a tangent with this book, but maybe starting with just groups to start is a good idea š
yeah so like for context my undergrad did 1-3 and 7 in a dedicated group theory course
4-6 and 9-10 in a dedicated ring/field theory course
and then 8 in introductory algebraic topology
(actually i think at the end of general topology, but same diff)
Idk, an algtop prof said that homology is the easiest thing possible in math
I did plan on going through Lees Topological Manifolds book... so maybe that should cover chapter 8 of Raleigh š¤·
for general topology you dont really need anything besides basic familiarity with the properties of common fields (namely ā)
for algebraic topology, you need group stuff to start and further topics in algebra are gradually introduced as you develop the machinery to study them
I have some familiarity with basic Topolgy via Apostols Real Analysis book
for differential geometry, you only need algebra insofar as you need comfort with vector spaces
so a bit of field theory is helpful but not super necessary
Yeah, im going through an intro diff geo book (not Lees) and I havent really needed any algebra
Well thanks for the input! I do appreciate it 
Fraleigh mentions in the preface how he covers the material across two courses and what he includes/excludes. And, there should be a chart of topics as well there.
Actually he tallks about only one intro course. In the 8th edition, Neal Brand talks about the two course split. If it helps you I can post the snippet here...
Sure, that would be awesome! š
This is Neal Brand's take btw.. for Fraleigh's you can look at your edition's preface
oh wait the section numbers are going to be all different š
Ah right. No worries, let me look a bit harder at the preface. I didnt initially see a breakdown for what Fraleigh thought was a good breakdown per semester
ok so the instructor's preface and the ToC are available on amazon.com as samples.
Can anyone else help
Did you consider what spamakin said?
If N is a normal subgroup of G and both N and G/N are solvable, then so is G. This should actually be immediate from the definition, so try carefully writing down what the definition of solvable entails.
I think Q is an odd choice to name a group, I thought for a moment you were talking about the rationals!
Why not G? :)
I'm thinking about the question still, I do think you should be able to conclude it is Abelian but I would like to double-check
I believe the dicyclic group of order 12 is a counterexample to this claim.
Z/6Z x Z/6Z?
No.
A presentation for the dicyclic group of order $2n$ is given by $\langle a, x \ |\ a^{2n} = e,\ x^2 = a^n,\ xa = a^{-1}x\rangle$.
Boytjie
The subgroup $\set{e, x^2} = \set{e, a^n}$ is the centre, according to GroupProps.
Boytjie
Then evidently the quotient is cyclic of order 6, and the dicyclic group is not Abelian.
hmm
Typo! This should be of order 4n not 2n.