#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 203 of 1
Like if E contained something not in F then that thing would be linearly independent of a generator for F so E would be dimension at least 2
Yeah, so you've shown that finite field extensions are "noetherian" in this sense
You will run out of elements to add
Woah thats awesome
Oh no, wdym?
No just like cool connection
I think the "finite" part here ought to make it less wow inducing
Actually nvm that, "noetherian" goes too hard to not use it
Ah like, when F is finite extension of E, then F is Noetherian module (vector space) over E
In G = (Z/nZ)^×, consider subgroup H generated by some primes p1, .., pk. For integer c, What is a minimal representative of c H, when projected back into Z?
If possible, I would like to reformulate this because "minimal representative when projected back into Z" part is not particularly clear.
Yes
But, minimal in the sense of absolute value of Z
Which.. is not ideal, I admit.
Idk what else it would mean
I'd almost go so far and ask for a canonical representative from Z. Like how you usually think about Z/pZ as 0,1,...,p-1 (in my case we put a bar over it)
Hmm
Anyway I would like a way to estimate such minimal n
Given some criteria to (c, n)
Uh... so what exactly is H here
H is a subgroup of G generated by p1, .., pk.
Oh, I mean the generators are p_1, ..., p_k, certain numbers
Also G = (Z/nZ)^×, the multiplicative group
So H contains 1 vacuously.
Vacously?
(Sorry that the question is not well-structured, I am still figuring out right statements for this)
1 is identity of the group
I know but usually that refers to making universal quantifications over the empty set
True, I am.. idk, bad at English(?).
Trivially seems appropriate there ig
Shouldn't it be some relatively prime part of your c?
What do you mean by "relatively prime part"?
Like, if the p's were say primes you'd keep dividing c with them and the remainder is minimal
And analogously for more general p's
Btw let me give some examples, maybe it might help
For n = 13 and p_1 = 3,
G = (Z/13Z)^×,
H = {3, 9, 1}.
So c = 1 then minimal m = 1
For c = 5 the minimal m = 2
How would you get m = 2 from c = 5, given n = 13?
Because 2 * 9 = 5 on (Z/13Z)^×
9*5=35 was lowkey a bit off on my end
Okay yeah, in this case you get it by taking your generator times your c mod p
Yep (it's mod n in my notation, btw)
Right
Have you checked this for more generators?
Perhaps mod the ideal generated by your generators
When n = 13, any subgroup of (Z/13Z)^x is cyclic
So you won't get much difference
I guess n = 15 will be different?
Since (Z/15Z)^x is isomorphic to (Z/2Z) * (Z/4Z)
H = <4, -1> <= G
Then there are two left-cosets H, 2H.
Anyway, thank you Kerr! I will try to refine this further.
You're welcome! (What did I do)
Are there zero divisors in set of all 2 by 2 integer matrices ?
To show it’s not an integeral domain, i suppose I need to choose a non zero element ‘a’ and show the existence of a non zero element b, such that ab=0
The ring M_2(Z) of 2 x 2 matrices over the integers is not an integral domain.
I’m trying to understand this ^
you should be able to find a simple example using matrices that have only one nonzero element
For A= \begin{pmatrix}
0 & 1 \
0 & 0
\end{pmatrix}, i can choose B= \begin{pmatrix}
1 & 0\
0 & 0
\end{pmatrix}, so that AB=0
what’s TeX error in this?
I'm not sure if anyone minds if I ask this here or not, I asked in "advanced-algebra" earler. I'm studing Knot theory and was wondering if Knot's form a specific group name, other than just "Knot group"?
Like it's classification among other groups, like dihedrial and such.
.doc
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for more information.
(You may edit your message to recompile.)
@chilly ocean the groups associated to different knots needn't be isomorphic, so your question doesn't make a lot of sense
It would make sense to ask what groups occur as knot groups, but I have no idea tbh
In mathematics, a knot is an embedding of a circle into 3-dimensional Euclidean space. The knot group of a knot K is defined as the fundamental group of the knot complement of K in R3,
π
1
(
R
3
...
Key word: fundamental group
This is brtter suited for #point-set-topology I think, ask there if you have questions
How do I know if Z/aZ x Z/bZ is isomorphic to Z/abZ?? It only happens when a and b are coprimes??
use chinese remainder theorem
$x \bmod a b \mapsto (x \bmod a, x \bmod b)$ is an isomorphism if $a$ and $b$ are co-prime (by CRT).
klmn
That provides one half, to show that they aren’t isomorphic when an and b aren’t coprime is done most easily by showing Z/aZ x Z/bZ doesn’t have an element of order ab
If L/K is P, where P\in {finite, algebraic, separable, Galois, etc.}, then L(x)/K(x) (function fields) is P as well, right?
Hey I'm trying to understand the proof for the division algorithm for polynomials.
nvm
Someone responded to my help channel
Hey, what's the argument for why R_p (the localization of R) is flat as a R-module?
Probably use that R_p\otimes_RM\cong M_p?
Oh right, use the exactness of localizing
HausdorffT1
Oh god, I didnt realise about that, thank u so much
I believe preserving lines and cross ratios is enough. And in the case k>1 preserving lines should be enough.
In any case, lines and cross ratios is structure to preserve
@long obsidian
@rotund aurora Thanks, that makes scnse, certain knots form certain groups.
If anyone is free and wants to help, could you help me check my proof and give me some feedback?
I have checked it a couple of times, so hopefully there are no typos or anything 
Looks good
Alright, thank you! :D
The Gram-Schmidt algorithm works and can be used to construct an orthogonal basis for any anisotropic symmetric bilinear form of a finite-dimensional vector space over a field, right?
yeah that looks good
thanks
I wonder what the generator of <S> is
Infinite product in the denominator? What is q_i for i > n?
Also super clean love it other than that
oh, yeah good point
yeah I would just write \frac{1}{q_1 \cdots q_n}
(Another fun exercise: prove there are uncountably many additive subgroups of Q)
(Another exercise: Classify all subgroups of Q. Prove that your classification is complete)
Ahh sorry! I meant to n 😅
Okie thanks ryx for the exercises
Thanks everyone for your help! 
Yayy thank you!
The "gcd" of the elements.
More precisely, if the elements of S are written with a common denominator, then the gcd of the numerators with the same denominator (this doesn't depend on the common denominator because gcd(k a_1, …, k a_n) = k gcd(a_1, …, a_n)).
yeah that was my guess
(not insanely difficult, but hard and definitely quite involved. It took like 3-6 pages handwriten for me to do? and I think that was kinda just a sketch? and I think it was correct perhaps even???)
||Scalings of localisations of Z||, right?
Nvm
Oh yeah I guess that should work lol
You can do it more explicitly with just elementary number theory and basic group theory which is what I had in mind
I stumbled upon (roughly) this while trying to classify intermediate rings/R-modules between an integral domain R and its field of fractions (you get the best answers for R a PID).
/that's what I did because I was a wee lad who didn't know much about rings lol
I imagine it should be similar for an arbitrary PID?
Or the same or something
Or uhh wait that might not be right, how would you get something like {a/2 | a in Z}?
That's why I had to add scaling to the statement.
OK, here's what I got more precisely:
- If R is a UFD, any subring of Frac(R) containing R is a localisation of R obtained by inverting some set of irreducible elements of R (and the set is uniquely determined as the set of irreducibles whose inverses are in the subring).
(IIRC existence of factorisations gives existence and uniqueness of factorisations gives uniqueness.) - If R is a Bezout domain (any two elements have a GCD which is a linear combination of them - i.e., a Bezout identity), then any R-module of Frac(R) containing R is generated by elements of the form 1/r, r in R.
We may assume that the set of r used is closed under reverse divisibility, i.e., if s | r and we use 1/r, use 1/s. Once we do this, the set of r used is uniquely determined (namely as {r | 1/r in the R-submodule}).
Now, for a PID, the non-zero elements are all products of prime powers, and by CRT we can just look at which prime powers have inverses in the R-submodule.
For each prime p, either p^{-k} is there for all k (in which localise at p), or there is a largest k such that p^{-k} is in the R-submodule (in which case scale by p^{-k}).
IG 1. isn't needed for this.
Also, I might be misremembering a few details here (especially the uniqueness parts), so you might want to check it. Broadly, it should be correct though.
Okay now I think I agree with 2 here... From what I remember that works out to be what I got for Q and that was using nothing more than Bézout's identity and I guess maybe something about PIDs, so that should hold in that generally
Been a while since I did it lol
But it's a fun exercise to work out on your own
And then the rescaling bit is to correct from "submodule of Frac(R) containing R" to all submodules
Well, not exactly.
You need the scaling even if the module contains R, to get something like (1/r) R.
That requires only scaling by inverses of elements of R.
Adding scaling by elements of R as well (i.e., by any element of K) is precisely enough to get all non-zero R-submodules (proof: any non-zero submodule M contains some r, then M/r contains 1, so it is S^{-1} R / s for some set of primes S, so M = (r/s) S^{-1} R).
Also
bump
kek, how'd you make that emote into the end of proof sign?
I think the characteristic had to be \neq2, but iirc that's enough. I don't think you even need the form to be anisotropic (what even is an anisotropic form, don't you mean non-degenerate?).
\newbox\eeveebox \setbox\eeveebox\hbox{% \raisebox{-5pt}{\includegraphics[height=3ex]{./figures/iibui.png}}% } \def\eeveeKawaii{\copy\eeveebox}
Full credit goes to detto 
this was also drawn by them
You guys usually overdo it with that emote spam, but I gotta admit that's cute.
You're goddamn right (the cute part :hehe:)

Anistropic: <v, v> is non-zero unless v = 0.
You do need this for Gram-Schmidt as I know it.
(I do believe that it is true that symmetric (even degenerate) bilinear forms have orthogonal bases even if they're not anisotropic in this sense, but Gram-Schmidt doesn't always suffice.)
And for all of it, I either never read up on the proofs or don't want to check the details to see what fields and conditions on the form are required.
I should probably just do that work though.
Oh wait, did you ask about orthonormal bases? Because what I said was about orthogonal ones. You need anisotropicity for the vectors to have norm 1, if you just want them to be pairwise orthogonal you don't need this.
Orthogonal
Then you need absolutely nothing beyond the characteristic not being 2.
Oh?
Let <v1, v1> = 0.
How do you compute v2 - <v2, v1>/<v1, v1> v1?
Any idea what characteristic not 2 is needed for?
(Or is it superstition against bilinear forms working well in characteristic 2? That's very relatable.)
Ah, wait, you want to compute them with Gram-Schmidt, my bad. An orthogonal basis exists, but by induction on dimension, not GS.
Yes
Otherwise I have to look up/figure out the more general procedure
Which again I should just do
How do you do this, my LA class was too flimsy to cover this.
Assume the form is non-zero (nothing to prove otherwise), by the polarization identity (here's where you need the characteristic to be \neq2) there must exist a vector x such that (x,x)\neq0, then V=Kx+(Kx)^c (this is the hardest step of the proof), where (Kx)^c is the orthogonal complement. By induction there is an orthogonal basis in (Kx)^c, add x to that.
Nothing hard about it, see above.
Never seen that way of doing GS before
Ah, so having one x s.t. <x, x> /= 0 is enough
Take some random vector v, normalize it. Then take another vector w and subtract <v,w> times w from v. Then normalize the result. Repeat this by subtracting the two weighted vectors
Well, this is Gramm Schmitt, isn't it? I think this fails when <v, v> = 0 (which was the point of the question of Raghuram above)
Isn't that the case when v is the zero vector
It's not "enough", this isn't some special assumption you have to make, every non-zero symmetric form in characteristic \neq2 has such a vector.
I mean it is enough ofc.
It's just not some special restrictive requirement.
Do not leave characteristics 2 off the picture, then it is reasonable to say 'enough' >.>
It actually is reasonable to say "enough" because afaik characteristic 2 bilinear/quadratic forms is a special and thorny subject completely apart of all else.
Ok
Consider x = (1, 1, 1, 1, 1) over F_5. <x, x> = 0
I see. Thanks.
Not really, you also need it to hold on the orthogonal complement.
So the condition would be more complicated.
Let R be a ring with n^2 elements and n zero divisors. Show n is a prime power.
Let m be the characteristic of R. Since R is a Z/m module, it must have order dividing m^r. So if n is not a prime power, then neither is m, so m = ab for relatively prime a and b. Since Z/m = Z/a x Z/b, R has central idempotents so R = AxB where A has characteristic a and B has characteristic b.
Thus |A| and |B| are relatively prime with |A|*|B| = n^2. Then it must be that either |A| or |B| is bigger than n, say |A| > n.
But AxB has at least |A| + |B| - 1 zero divisors given by (x, 0) and (0, y), and |A| + |B| - 1 > n
Is there a term for a set of generators S such that there is no s in S such that <S\{s}> contains s? Similar to linearly independent sets for a vector space
Minimal-by-inclusion
(As opposed to minimal-by-cardinality)
I see, thanks
In my class we called this a minimal set of generators
Exercise: show that every minimal set of generators need not have the same cardinality
Second exercise: show this is true for p-groups (VERY HARD)
<1/2, 1/3> = <1/6> in the set of rationals

Wait wdym exactly by that
If G is a p-group, then every minimal generating set for G has the same cardinality.
Ah
The proof feels a lot like ring theory. Dealing with maximal subgroups and chains of subgroups.
can someone real quick give an example and explanation for a question on groups and rings that may come on an exam? normally i would have enough time but i legit had 2 exams today and 2 tomorrows so there are parts i literally can't understand
like for example:
Assume that the equation xyz = 1 holds in a group G. Does
it follow that yzx = 1? That yxz = 1?
Yes it imply yzx=1
Yes to the first (multiply both sides by x' from the left, then by x from the right), no to the second (take any two non-commuting x,y in some group, take z=(xy)', then if yxz too it would follow yx=xy).
thank you!
so kinda like theortical computer science in a sense got it
my mind isn't even a mind anymore sorry if i don't make sense since i legit have no way to explain my thought process but it makes sense in my corrupt brain
You need some
bro
i do, but i can't lol
Hello everyone, today in class my instructor said that (t) is a prime ideal of F_p(t). I’m not quite sure how to show this.
Hmm now I’m confused
Hold on
Are you sure they didn't say that it was a prime ideal of F_p[t]? F_p(t) is a field so has no nontrivial ideals.
He was trying to show us that not all field extensions are separable by showing that X^p - t is irreducible in F^p(t)[x]
By applying Eisenstein
Yes, (t) is a prime ideal in Fp[t] so the polynomial is irreducible over Fp[t], and since Fp[t] is integrally closed (like all UFDs), the polynomial is also irreducible over Fp(t)
Alternatively, if you don't want to deal with all that, it's not hard to see that the polynomial has only a single root. So the minimal polynomial of said root can't be seperable.
Thanks ! He didnt mention anything like this at all lol
Hm random. Let A be an R-algebra and everything be commutative. Is there a nice description of Hom_R(R[[x]], A)?
well pointed out lol
But yeah it's interesting, like we can view this set as a subset of Hom_R(R[x] ,A) = A (since any map here is determined by its value at x)
Is it left-adjoint to the map from R-algebra to group of units
Uhh are you thinking of group rings
Is this be group ring
I'm just confused like I don't have any functors out of groups here
So they can't be adjoint to the group of units functor
Oh it be group ring
Your thing ig
R[[x]] = R[Z] no?
Oh wait I read this as Laurent polynomials
Oh
For that I agree with you that there is a bijection between Hom_R(R[x,x^-1], S) and set of units of S
But that isn't an adjunction
Or do you mean smth else
Hm I wonder if there is something similar for "monoids where each element has finite factors" → R-Alg
Tho you probably need some proper map condition for morphisms in the first category
Left adjoint? As a functor taking R to R[x,x^-1]?
No like G → R[G]
Say all fibers are finite
Is M → R[[M]] left-adjoint to S →
M a module?
Monoids where each element has finitely many factors and morphisms have finite fibers → R-Alg
Nvm infinite sequences be bad
Hmm, what is 'S →' ? Hom(S, -)?
It assigns to every S
Hi, I'm wondering could I get some suggestion on this problem? I'm not sure how I should think about this.
When you take a group presentation, is there any way to show that it will get "reduced" to a trivial group?
Like, how can I definitely say "No, you cannot shuffle these relations around anymore to reduce this group any further"?
(a) Consider an element in both K1 and I1. Then it is the image of some element, what does that say about K2?
(b) The equality is saying that for any x there exists a y such that f(x) = f(f(y)). What does that say about x - f(y)?
(c) Kn is an ascending sequence, now think about (a).
(d) Use (c) to conclude something about Kn and f^n
sorry why is (b)? Why does it imply that
if I1 equals I2, then any element of I1 is contained in I2
So f(x) is contained in I2
If anyone has time and wants to help, could you help me see if these (relatively similar) proofs are alright, and provide some feedback?
https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Word_problem_for_groups This may be of interest
In mathematics, especially in the area of abstract algebra known as combinatorial group theory, the word problem for a finitely generated group G is the algorithmic problem of deciding whether two words in the generators represent the same element. More precisely, if A is a finite set of generators for G then the word problem is the membership p...
Thanks, I'll return to it once I have a bit more experience under my belt, when I can understand a bit more.
You can't
Consider the cyclic group Zp under multiplication modulo p, is it easy to find the generator of this group? (aka primitive root)
Okay, you can in a lot of circumstances. But we have mathematically proven there exists no "algorithm" to solve the problem. You will need tricks and strategies that only work for some
Alright, thanks. I re-read through D&f, and missed a part where it said that representing D2n as the changes in a polygon is what gave it a lower bound. So I guess the stretegies and stuff mean these kinds of stuff.
That isn't a group
Well
Unless you are using odd notation
With what operation?
multiplication modulo n
Unitary group
mb
I assume you mean like
U(n)
Hm it is sorta nontrivial that primitive roots even exist but often trial and error will work quite quickly
I'm unsure if there is an algorithm or anything, I'm sure there is
Are there isomorphisms from multiplicative group to additive group?
Yes, multiplication and addition are just notation
Well that is impossible
I guess you mean Z_(p-1)
Not really
I’m trying to see, if there a multiplicative group with prime number of elements
so it’s going to cyclic by lagranges theorem
nahh it’s impossible
Euler totient function is always even
Yes
It’s the cardinality of U(n)
Do you mean a group of units with prime number of elements
yes
There are multiplicative groups more generally
Impossible right?
Yeah
Suppose U(n) has a primitive element
then U(n) is cyclic right?
which makes it isomorphic to Z_phi(n)?
2 is a primitive root mod 5, so is U(5) isomorphic to Z4?
@south patrol
I assume by "isomorphism type" they mean the archetypal group, like Z8 for the rotation subgroup?
Yeah basically this means describing the "equivalence class" of the group under isos, so yes try to give the simplest possible description
been burned by formal language and natural language mixups too many times, and had to check 😅
cool, so <r> is congruent to Z_8, and both <s,r^2> and <sr,r^2> are congruent to D_8. working with lattices makes this so much easier.
(yes I did do my proper diligence and ensure that it wasn't just lattice matching, there was already a problem about non-isomorphic groups with identical lattices)
C_p for two different primes :uponthewitnessing:
in this case it was Z_2 x Z_8 vs M_16
Can we prove that for the binary operation subtraction on $\mathbb{R}$, there exists no identity element?
This is my attempt at a proof, but I'm not sure if it holds
Assume, for the sake of contradiction, that $\exists e \in \mathbb{R}$ s.t. $\forall a \in \mathbb{R}, a - e = e - a = a$. Then, $2a - e = e$, and hence $a = e$. But, $e$ is a fixed element in $\mathbb{R}$, and so cannot depend on $a$. Hence, there exists no identity for subtraction
There are 2 problems with this proof I feel. One, I've used addition on real numbers, and even though it is a valid operation, I'm not sure if I'm even allowed to use it since I'm just considering the binary operation subtraction on $\mathbb{R}$. Two, the logic "$e$ is a fixed element" doesn't sound very rigorous, so there might be a flaw here
BlazingSaber
The first problem is not a problem at all, I don't see why you think it is. The second problem is resolved by seeing that you mean that this would imply e = 1 = 2, for example.
Shorter -- but fundamentally equivalent -- proof: if $e$ is an identity, then $1 - e = 1$, so $e = 0$. But then $e - 1 = -1 \neq 1$, contradiction.
Boytjie
Right, this is a nice proof
The reason why I thought the first problem is a problem is becasue I assumed that I wouldn't be allowed to use any other binary operation when I'm considering just one (subtraction), but you're right, there shouldn't be any reason why I can't use another operation
This also now makes me curious about what addition on real numbers fundamentally even means
One way to construct the real numbers is as equivalence classes of Cauchy sequences of rationals, and addition is just pointwise addition on these sequences.
But this is besides the point.
Like, per definition, I'd define
$+:\mathbb{R} \to \mathbb{R}$ as $+((a, b)) = a + b \forall x \in \mathbb{R}$, but that'd essentially be using the definition before I even define the concept lol
BlazingSaber
interesting, so implicit in that would be the definition of addition on rationals, right?
And I'm assuming that could potentially be based on the definition of addition on integers, which is further more fundamentally defined?
Yes, and we can define addition on the rationals in terms of the integers, then the naturals, where we define addition purely in set-theoretic terms. This is really quite besides the point though.
I remember seeing some S(0) = 1, S(S(0)) notation in a video some time ago
If you want a book that guides you through this, see Tao's Analysis I.
This is super interesting stuff!
There's no need to speculate either. Here is the wikipedia page on the construction of the reals.
Thanks for the link
But yeah you're right, it's way besides the point now 😅
A remark that is more on-brand for this channel: the reals are just a quotient of the ring of Cauchy sequences by the ideal of sequences that converge to 0.
Absta
I have a problem
And I thing it is wrong
A finite ring, the number of invertible elements is equal to the number of nilpotent elements. Show that x is invertible iff 1+x^m is nilpotent for every m non zero natural number
I think they wanted us to show that x is nilpotent iff 1+x^m is invertible for every m non zero natural number
that would make more sense
It may already be known (or a similar statement, I don't quite remember) from linalg
And the condition that the number of invertible elements is equal to the number of nilpotent elements is to show the "<--" case I think
Like for det(A+I)=1 A nilpotent?
that if N is nilpotent, then I + N is invertible
Yes and that
is quite easy to see
This can happen for F2
yeah that's the one case I had in mind
in which case the statement is remarkably trivial
For n>=3
We have at least one zero divisor which is not nilpotent
Idk if this problem is wrong
Or not
2 is not invertible
Because phi:N(A)->U(A) bijective phi(x)=x+1
And if 2 is in U(A) then there is a nilpotent with a+1=2 a=1 false
Interesting
MasakaBakana
So I was working a problem that asked me to prove that $$\mathbb{R}[y]\cong \mathbb{R}[x,y]/(x).$$ I ended up doing this by having $$\varphi:S[x]\rightarrow S$$ defined by $$f(x)\mapsto a_{0}$$ where $S$ is a (commutative) ring and then proving this was a surjective homomorphism with kernel $(x).$ Then when you use $R[y]$ as your ring you get the desired isomorphism. I'm thinking with this I should be able to generalize out to prove results such as $\mathbb{R}[z]\cong \mathbb{R}[x,y,z]/(x,y).$ But for some reason I have a hard time wrapping my head around this I feel like it should be relatively simple.
Kenshin
I have a question, if i is a subring, can I say since it is abelian under addition, then it satisfy subgroup?
What
I heard someone get this conclusion, but I don't know why it can be true
When you take a quotient you should be imaging it’s like setting the thing quotienting by to 0
f(x) is a polynomial in S[x]
What?
Like quotienting out by (x-1) you should think of that quotient is setting x = 1
Oh I see yeah I get that but I don't see how that helps me generalize this out to n variables
What could be the finite rings A with the number of idempotent elements equal the number of invertible elements equal the number of nilpotent elements
Or what property this type of rings have
Just for curiosity
I know we can make bijective maps between, U(A), N(A) and I(A)
2 must be a zero divisor
Subrings are closed under addition, so they are also subgroups
A (commutative) ring is a product of two rings if and only if it has a non-trivial idempotent. So given such a finite ring A, you can break it as A = A_1 x ... x A_n where each A_i has exactly 2 idempotents, namely 0 and 1.
also notice that units and nilpotents behave nicely in products, so it reduces to finding rings A which have exactly 2 units, nilpotents, idempotents. If ε is a non-zero nilpotent, then the nilpotents in your ring are exactly {0, ε}. But now ε^2 is also a nilpotent, so either ε^2 = 0 or ε. we can't have ε^2 = ε, as that implies ε^k = ε for each k > 1, and so ε= 0. Thus ε^2 = 0.
Now the units in the ring should be {1, 1+ε}. Since 1-ε is also a unit, 2ε=0. Take two cases, if char A = 2, then {0, 1, ε, 1+ε} is a subring which is iso to F_2[x]/(x^2). If char A != 2, then 1+ε must be -1, so ε = -2 and we have 2ε = -4 = 0. So Z/4Z is a subring.
So the ring A is either a finite Z/4Z-algebra or a finite F_2[x]/(x^2) algebra. I haven't thought more, but probably you can make more deductions from these. But anyway this already gives you lots of examples, for any pair n, m of naturals the ring
A = (Z/4Z)^n x (F_2[x]/(x^2))^m is an example of such a ring. It has 2^(m+n) units, nilpotents, idempotents.
Pushing this a little further, since the ring is finite it's artinian, and any connected commutative artinian ring is local, with nilpotent radical. So every element is either invertible or nilpotent. Since we have two units, there must be exactly 4 elements.
So Z/4 and F2[x]/x^2 are the only examples.

I wonder what happens if you drop the commutativity though
Hmmm, so consider the ring of upper triangular 3x3 matrices with coefficients in F2 for which the diagonal is constant.
This ring has 16 elements, 8 units, 8 nilpotents and 2 idempotents.
So taking the product of this ring with (Z/2)^2 shouldn't add any units or nilpotents, but bring us to 8 idempotents.
Wait, this also works in the commutative setting. F2[x]/x^3 has 4 units, and 4 nilpotents, but 2 idempotents.
So F2 x F2[x]/x^3 works
So each factor satisfying this is sufficient, but not necessary
Yeah, cause you always have more units (or equal)
so each factor is a finite local ring with residue field F_2. can we say more?
(and that total units = 2^number of factors)
So you have a local algebra with residue field F2 and 2^k elements. Then it will have 2^k-1 units and the same number of nilpotents.
After that you can just go haywire and pad the product with enough copies of F2 to get enough idempotents
I know that, and it can also be verified by a-b in subrings when a and b are both in subrings
HausdorffT1
Well
You can sneakily get around it by showing if you're not in V(I) u V(J) then you're not in V(IJ)
But I don't know how direct you want lol
How does it follow from your proof by contradiction that P contains all of I or J?
I'm assuming it's not true and hence such a and b exist. But then ab in IJ but by assumption P contains IJ as a subset and so it should contain ab. But then this contradicts P being a prime. Maybe I didn't explain this enough not sure.
Actually I like the contrapositive more than a contradiction. Thank you this works
Sure, but the way you phrased it seems like you could have half of A sit in P and a complementary of B sit in P
the hypothesis you would is assuming there exists an a in A (wlog) which isnt in P and go from there
Anyone who's read Artin's Algebra:
Can you read Rings Ch.7 after reading Ch. 2 (Groups) but skipping 3-6 entirely?
idk, tell us what said chapters are
Yes
thanks
I'd read 6 since the symmetry stuff is pretty cool imo
Yeah I'm actually planning on reading all it's just I have a time deadline that requires me to cover rings asap if possible xD
So I have a question, in Hungerford when they describe a category they talk about as a class of objects with a class of disjoint sets (hom(A,B)) whose elements are the morphisms between a pair of objects in the category so are these morphisms considered to be part of the category?
Yes
The data of a category is a class of objects Obj and the sets (or classes, if we allow such categories) Hom(A,B) for A,B in Obj satisfying blah blah whatever laws. You can also define it as a class of objects Obj and a class of morphisms Mor, where each f in Mor has a specified domain A and codomain B (written f: A --> B) satisfying blah blah. Both are equivalent (altho there are a multitude of reasons to prefer the first one). In either case, the morphisms are essential parts of the data of a category.
The name is very appropriate lol. What do you mean by data exactly, also is there a specific definition for class? I've been just treating it as a set of things with a shared property but wasn't sure
Its just a placeholder word more or less
yeah both are meant fairly informally here
They are usually sets with extra structure, or categories. Sometimes data structures in CS
really whatever makes sense with the axioms
Data = what kind of information it holds. e.g. the "data" of a group is a set + a binary operation on that set which is unital, associative, and has inverses
Class = collection of things with a shared property. What is a collection vs a set? Well idk enough foundations to give a full answer in ZFC (usual foundations in math), but think of the distinction between a collection or class of all sets {x | x is a set}. This cannot be a set by Russell's paradox, so it would be incorrect to call it a set.
I see that's a good motivatoin behind class
Class also includes sets though. Using this kinda informal notion, given a set S consider the class {x | x in S} = S
Sets are usually distinguished by them having the set membership relation "in"
This is ultimately the answer and the secret is that 95+% of the time it doesn't really matter what precisely is meant by "class"
I thought class be NBG 
Classes are just something you want to put next to your quantifier and to sound serious while doing so
That's one approach to formalize what a class is
a category is a tuple (Obj, { Hom(A, B) | A, B in Obj)
if u dont wanna use symbols u say "the data is ..."
Calling it a tuple is bad
or whatever
Yeah, thats a pretty funny way to describe it
Because that would in a sense force Obj to be a set
Ultimately it doesnt really matter what the definition is, after a little bit of toying around in 1-2 examples you ought to know what a category should be
Not sure how common NBG actually is for working with categories (I've never seen it explicitly used). More common nowadays is the use of Grothendieck Universes when necessary. Small (/set) = a set in the universe, large(/class) = a set not in the universe
If you want to define what a tuple is set-theoretically, I think so.
yeah using just NBG with sets/classes causes issues in general
you want universes/large cardinals and then it's fine
(which, again, in practice doesn't matter because you can throw the assumption of a universe at it)
I was just trying to make sure I understand for when he introduces equivalence because says in a category C a morphism f:A->B is called an equivalence if there is in C a morphism g:B->A such that g(f)=1 so I was just trying to understand if this was abuse of notation or if we actually consider these morphism to be a part of the category
(and fg = 1)
I mean, you would end up making a set which either all the things your mentioned or sets that contain them.
yes
its a class
And within ZFC I dont think you can have a proper class be on the left of an in symbol
you are considering the morphisms as part of the category yes
a category has objects and morphisms and a composition operation between morphisms satisfying certain properties
No this is allowed
if it wasnt then category seem pretty useless
probably you want to write something different than g(f) if you mean composition
g\circ f is good
Actually, your definition of a category should talk about composition of morphisms
he uses circ but I couldn't remember it
okay then that's great
It does yes
Yeah so you can freely talk about elements of the hom-sets and their compositions
This is a very rough drawing of how I was thinking about a category
yeah this is a silly way to draw it I think
I mean you should be thinking of morphisms as actual arrows between the objects
engage your supressed mind map creation skills from HS
What's a mind map
How do you think of Hom then?
it's the set of all morphisms from one object to another
or concept map
Right that's why I had the morphisms in the Hom circle
I mean sure you just want to picture them as actually sitting between objects, not just some diembodied thing on the side
Oh I see yeah
Why did you learn this in highschool?
so that we could proof that adjoints functors preserve (co)limits and other trivial but useful results I am talking about when you were asked to make a diagram of concepts and how they interact with other things
Right I never did that or I skipped those days LOL
regarding size issues, the notion of "class" is kind of a silly one and you run into technical issues in general trying to think about things like this
you can really think of everything as a set here if you add a bunch of large cardinals on top of ZFC
So something like Set becomes the category of sets not on the naughty list (smaller than some large cardinal)?
yeah exactly
fair enough
you would have some sequence of large cardinals \kappa_1<\kappa_2<... and then you can talk about "\kappa-small" sets for \kappa one of these large cardinals
\kappa_1-small would just mean set in the usual ZFC sense
makes sense, you want your category to be somewhat nice after all
maybe like \kappa_2-small would mean class in the usual NBG sense if you're doing things in a smart way that avoids issues
So what is kind of the motivation behind this he gives a few examples but they don't really motivate the subject very well?
behind categories?
most objects in mathematics can be organized into categories in this sense
and then there are general constructions one can do within categories, or between categories, that reproduce lots of more concrete constructions for particular examples of categories
Yeah he shows like you put all groups in a category, all sets, etc but he doesn't really show how or why you'd want this I feel
The real answer is functors and universal properties, you just gotta go through the groundworks for a bit until you can get to the interesting bits
like products of groups, products of rings, products of vector spaces, products of sets, these are all the same universal construction in different categories
Ah yeah he does that in the category chapter I believe (replying to Kerr)
Yeah the category whose objects were all morphisms from another category was pretty neat
there are certain useful constructions in mathematics that are kind of impossible to think about without using a bit of category theory
I mean, if you I just told you for the first time what sets were you probably wouldnt think much of them. Although they are conceptually simpler at least
But you still have to learn what they are to do interesting math, unless you are part of the number theory subreddit
functors, natural transformations, (co)limits, and adjunctions are the kinda main objects of basic category theory and as you learn more of them the motivation for categories will become clearer and clearer
Whats are non-basics cats?
And imo a good way to view basic category theory is that it's a way of talking about universal properties as Kerr mentioned
Like, non immediately useful to most mathematicians?
Like something you wouldn't see in a "first course" on category theory
Enriched categories, model/infinity categories, maybe monoidal cats fall somewhere between the two, ....
idk something like the effective topos is useful for computability theory but is also pretty obscure if you're not studying that sort of thing
Presentable/accessible cats, various types of topoi, ...
there are all sorts of pretty obscure structures/properties for categories in the same way that there are all sorts of obscure algebraic structures you can study
My cat doesnt like visitors much, not very accessible either most of the time tbh
sotrue
for the most part these are all invented for some reason or another
like why on earth would anyone invent this? there are good reasons for it and they come up naturally in certain places of mathematics
this looks like physicist stuff
indeed it is
all sorts of bizarre algebraic/categorical structures get invented to meet the demands of mathematical physics for instance
incoherent rambling-algebra is useful to study some obscure scenario, probably
a lot of times without the proper context it's like "why on earth would anyone study this" but sometimes these things just naturally come up and it's like "oh well this is exactly the algebraic gadget I need to organize the thing I'm studying"
I guess I'll finish up this section do some exercises and split some of my algebra time between the category chapter and the module stuff
they literally make us do mind maps ALMOST EVERY SINGLE LESSON
ITS SO ANNOYING
subconscious category theory indoctrination programme
My guess is "I expect my particle to operate in this quirky way. Let me write down the rules they seem to follow and lemme pretend this is still an algebra"
it's literally "what structure do I need for the quantum master equation to make sense structurally"
A bit ballsy how often it seems to work out
How does that work 
Is it useful for like enabling axiom of choice or sth
Universes and large cardinals?
no it has nothing to do with choice
But what are the advantages as opposed to doing NBG
I mean NBG doesn't have enough control over size
are you a secret NBG salesman 😭
it just distinguishes between "small" things (sets) and "big" things (classes)
but for certain things to make sense you really need like, an entire hierarchy of size like this
like you can start with a "small" category and do something like taking the category of presheaves on it and end up with a "big" category
Classes can't live in classes.
okay well what if you want to do that again?
That's ultimately where the problem is I think
yeah
Idk about you, but a strongly inaccessible cardinal seems a lot easier to just accept

You havent cared about anything of that size before and now you can do all the categorical constructions you desire
a lot of these large cardinal axioms are pretty mild as far as adding axioms to ZFC goes
"pretty milk"
Are most of them like provably independent
I thought that was some obscure saying
literally any large cardinal axiom is independent of ZFC
Oh hmm
that's what inaccessible means, their existence is independent of ZFC, you can't construct them using the usual constructions within ZFC, they are "too large" for this to be possible
Oh, large cardinals work in consistency in a pretty funny way
if you add a large cardinal \kappa to your model of ZFC "by hand" then you can just talk about sets of size <\kappa, that will be a model of ZFC, and then anything you do within ZFC will never leave that universe
Yeah strongly inaccessible cardinals are like at the bottom in terms of large cardinal axiom strength (I have no clue how correct this is/how to formalize it but I think there's an ounce of truth here)
Is ZFC be inductive
they should work out more then
Compared to stuff like Vopenka's principle and whatnot, which are also used occasionally, this is not much more than a technicality.
Is there some notion in that the large cardinal axioms for stuff like groethendieck universe is just to make the formalism simpler? Like I could build an "open" universe up to some accessible cardinal and then just choose the cardinal appropiately large in order to perform whatever construction I wanted to do?
I think I'm seeing the power of diagrams now
Yeah? What was it?
If $(P,{\pi_{i}}) and (Q,{\psi_{i}}$ are both products of the family ${A_{i}:i\in I}$ of objects of a category C, then $P$ and $Q$ are equivalent
Kenshin
your $ signs are a bit lonely
Yeah I noticed lol should be all fixed now
oh, the classic unique to up to unique isomorphism
I don't know what you mean.
(Eventually you may see that this is an example of functors preserving isomorphisms)
I think Hungerford may be my new favorite Algebra book
assuming the existence of infinitely many inaccessibles is equivalent to assuming the existence of infinitely many Grothendieck universes. Both are needed if you want category theory to work without running into size issues
in practice you usually don't need more than just like, a few steps of this process
i vaguely remember hearing that Hungerford is clunky (with cats) at some point in this server but i don't remember exactly what
it's funny to me that Vopenka's principle was originally conceived as a "joke" large cardinal axiom with the intend of showing it was inconsistent with ZFC, but then the proof fell apart, and it turns out to be an important large cardinal axiom for certain parts of category theory
lmao
lmao
I mean if there are essential uses of groethendieck universes, like, you could, if you are only working with sets with cardinality at most x many applications of power set, do all the necessary constructions reformulate the theorems to hold up to objects involving that cardinality
Like, in principle
no, you can't really avoid this for certain constructions
Huh
Are said construction like in their own subfield or could it turn out that stuff like the weil conjectures are false in ZFC?
take a small category C and look at the category PSh(C) of functors C->Set
In order for Set to be a nice category you can't really truncate the cardinalities you're allowed to look at, or limit the number of times you're allowed to take power sets, etc
PSh(C) is the "next size up" compared to C
constructions like this bump up side, in practice you don't ever do too many size increasing steps like this, but you certainly want to be able to do this more than once for example
Right, but that's sorta what I meant
then okay great you have to assume the existence of like, idk 2 or 3 universes for a lot of math to work
Well I mean ultimately you want "Set", whatever category of sets we mean here, to be bicomplete
but like if you want category theory to work well abstractly it's easiest to just assume infinitely many universes and that's that
Like, idk what niceness criterion you are looking but something like completeness, but in practice you could just guarantee that up to a certain cardinality limits do exist
that makes things shittier, not nicer lmao
idk what benefit you would get from doing this
The universes then just play a role in making the statement convenient
universes are the way to get around that in a nice categorical way (along with whatever other properties you want)
I mean ultimately all you're doing is like, shifting the issue onto keeping track of size issues within the category, rather than keeping track of size issues outside the category
which seems like a worse situation to be in
this is like trying to study groups where you're not allowed to apply the operation more than 1 million times
I don't really think there's a reason to try to avoid universes tbh
I am just trying to understand how much it depends on said universes being true or not
They are certainly sweep all headaches under the rug, just wondering how "essential" they ultimately are
they are essential unless you are okay with having to horribly fuck up categories/algebraic structures/whatever
can you still run a lot of proofs in this more fucked up setting? yeah probably
certain inductive arguments might break
there is almost certainly some part of "standard" mathematics that would break if you had to make limitations like this
anyways universes are such a minor thing to assume it's like, not really an issue worth worrying about
i just hate the word universe for this
yeah this is why I prefer just saying large cardinals
it feels so stupid to say
I am not arguing for the fucked up setting, just interested in seeing how much you can stay out of "this result is true if you assume this large cardinal axiom" range when working with those
MO/MSE might have some stuff on this if you go looking.
why would you want to stay out of this though
like I just don't see any argument for avoiding this
"I'm not arguing..."
"I just don't see any argument"
Yeah you're right you don't see any argument
If your goal is studying these things in themselves, sure. But if they get used to solve some conjecture/open problem I wouldnt expect them saying somewhere they are basing this off large cardinals
Like they implicitely used it but its whatever, just for convenience instead of having assumed an additional axioms to make things work out
I mean this isn't really an issue though
Probably. You saw something related?
nobody really mentions this because pretty much everyone has agreed that this is a completely benign thing to add to ZFC
great reaction speed wow
lmao
I mean there are a decent amount of skeptics
I think minimally many in relevant fields to where universes are used, but they're still there
okay and there are a handful of ultrafinitists who are also just like, wrong about lots of things
Fair.
imo not accepting universes basically makes you an ultrafinitist of a certain kind
yes
self-love, slay
Also noted in a few places (i think in here too?) that it's kinda a meta-theorem that in any specific application of a universe, you probably don't need the universe
E.g. mentioned there about FLT: It shouldn't be necessary to use universes, but it's so technically convenient that we might as well.
I am happy with this then
That's how I view Vopenka's principle (I have never used Vopenka's principle explicitly, fair warning). It's a technical tool which gives some nice properties in some categorical stuff (namely presentability results; here bounded = has a small dense subcategory)
lmao I just opened up the latest Analytic Stacks lecture from Scholze and he is defining analytic stacks and keeps having to mutter "up to set theoretic issues..."
Like, in any actual application you should expect that a category satisfying (ii) or (iii) is locally presentable (if it's not, then that's also meaningful since you'd have a proof that VP is inconsistent with ZFC)
Vopenka is equivalent to "Every subfunctor of an accessible functor is accessible"
which is like, reasonable enough I suppose
it's also a strong enough large cardinal axiom that people start to get uhhh
a little weirded out by just assuming that

And you should expect there to be a proof in ZFC of this fact. Using VP is just a shorthand for that
Yeah so take it with a grain of salt because it is definitely uhhh 
this is too complicated
Vopenka: obviously true for category theoretic reasons
anything stronger than Vopenka: probably straight up inconsistent with ZFC
I just assume 0=1 and ball it from now
Hm
The fact that this is equivalent to the rest of those statements is wacky as fuck
Is this a funny way to argue for universes: like
perhaps we should be maximalist with the zoo of sets lol
like be constrained only by consistency
:chad:
I'm kidding cause you could go in vrious differnet directions with that
yeah exactly
Tbf large cardinal axioms sometimes scare me
Someone start defining ordinals as certain graphs please
But it seems reasonable lol
the category of large cardinal axioms cannot be fully embedded into the category of ordinals
Hypervopenka
at that strength it might be inconsistent with itself
but then it implies its own consistency, woop!
here is a helpful diagram to guide your thinking
where is this from
me
Vsauce
Hm
lemme guess, the "huge" variety was made by a group of drunk mathematicians playing dare
veritasium
I find it potentially misleading when like
wikipedia pages say "if the [...] holds" for axioms
what is Woodin
like it is written as if we don't know whether it holds, when it is basically a choice
don't say it
hi timo
german hours again
I mean, if you think that assuming the axioms of ZFC isnt any different from assuming any other independent axioms, sure
In the mathematical area of braid theory, the Dehornoy order is a left-invariant total order on the braid group, found by Patrick Dehornoy. Dehornoy's original discovery of the order on the braid group used huge cardinals, but there are now several more elementary constructions of it
these are non-ZFC axioms
boy I sure hope so!
Yes
The choice is in assuming them but its kinda like faith, you may also not. No one knows
Wdym
as soon as you accept \aleph_0 you're in "magical thinking land" and anything else goes tbh
axiom of infinity is the real large cardinal axiom
There isn't a largest number. That's because there are no numbers!
Axiom: There are no axioms
Large cardinals just seem wacky to us because out puny little brains cannot comprehend the eldrich horrors of anything infinite.
broskie is scared of the natural numbers smh
zeilberger would actually write this
large cardinal axioms: I can accept the existence of infinities the mind cannot possibly comprehend
continuum hypothesis: dude I don't fucking know
I'd think most people would have some commitment that ZF is true for the most part (maybe reformulate 1-2 axioms), so in that sense you have a baseline under which independent axioms are a little bit mysterious and become increasingly mysterious if you climb up the large cardinal ladder ng posted
Wait, do large cardinals necessarily imply CH?
no
I don't give a shit if ZF is consistent. If it is, I get to prove stuff. If it isn't I can prove anything.
thats kinda funny
CH and other stuff are like, completely orthogonal to this
Some assumptions might but yeah they're very different flavors of assumptions
simply take the biggest large cardinal axiom
it would be nice if some "reasonable" large cardinal axiom implied CH or not CH but things are not so simple
"|R| is small" and "there are things that are huge" are pretty different, so it's no shock.
Just wanted to make sure
Knowing the existence of some cardinal that is completely unreachable by anything below and has wide consequences while meanwhile going "idk" if you ask if there is something between aleph 0 and 2^aleph 0 is a bit funny
Does the existence of 100 imply the existence of 1/2?
idk what i'm getting at either
I've run out of funny juice for today (i never had any)
like, it sounds a little bit like the discussy HSers talking about doing the homology exercises and then complaining how hard their history essay is
Real though
I don't blame them for that
Yeah I am glad i never have to touch my HS ever again
Out of homology and writing an essay, there's one I'd clearly rather do.
what about writing an essay about homology
Computing the homology of history
Some argue that history repeats itself i.e. is cyclic. In this essay we are trying to calculate homology of history by considering the boundaries of.....
Playing with braid diagrams when writing elements of Sn in terms of standard transpositions (i i+1) in a minimal way.
I think I've hit a eurika moment and understanding, however xD I don't have any texts/references/notes - curious if someone knew of a resource (even if it's a shitty Youtube video) that just runs through the idea so I can sanity check
Not sure if I should ask here or in #algebraic-geometry. Suppose you have a homogeneous polynomial f(x1,...,xn) of degree d over the complex numbers. Does there exist a linear transformation isomorphism T : C^n -> C^n such that f \circ T has the form x1^d + g(x2,...,xn) ?
Can someone point me to where I can find a proof of this
this is literally just a case by case proof
the case of finite simple groups of Lie type follows from a result of Steinberg
but for the sporadics you literally just check by hand that all of these are 2-generated
idk that there is a satisfying proof of this lol
do you want T to be invertible and some condition on g?
If there is one, it is not yet known
Ah, yes, of course T should be invertible. My bad. The only condition on g is that x1 doesn't appear in it and it's homogeneous on the remaining variables x2,...,xn.
i think you can map x_i to x_i + x_1
Or x_i + w_i x_1 for some weight w_i, right?
Afternoon folks! Can't wait to be studying this field
Which field 
quick question from a noob in her first week of this course: if I'm given a set S and an operation, and I'm asked to determine whether some operation f is a binary operation on S, is it sufficient to check whether the operation maps any given element from S×S to S? My current understanding is that if I can show that there exists an element of S×S that maps to something outside of S under f, then it's not a binary operation
You are correct
thank you!

Problem 
Groups are quite far from Graphs
Ig until you talk about sylow subgroups of the symmetric group
But you have to go that far to find one
i dont have any intuition why rings are called rings and ideals are called ideals but for orbits there is a nice intuition
The orbit of a planet around a star is more or less the positions than it can take
The orbit of an element is the set of other elements it can get sent to under the action
You can imagine the orbit of a planet as the orbit under the action of (real numbers, +) as time
Ring is an old word for gathering or organization, which you can see in words like 'crime ring' or 'spy ring'.
So a 'number ring' is some numbers organized together.
As for ideals: in so-called rings of integers of number fields (for example Z[sqrt(-5)]) unique prime factorization can fail.
However, ideals factor uniquely into prime ideals. Kummer noticed this an introduced the word 'ideal number'. Because they behave the way numbers ideally should behave. Dedekind then defined ideals based on Kummers idea of ideal numbers.
Theory of Algebraic Integers (1996, p. 5), "Dedekind presumably chose the name 'module' because a module M is something for which 'congruence modulo M' is meaningful."
Haven't heard of this one before, but makes sense
hi i'm sure a bit low level for this discussion but revising my group theory stuff from uni and i'm not sure what the notation circled means, the lecture notes assume you already know it lol
n | m reads "n divides m"
alright ty
hey i have a quick question, that I think is right, but I just want to sanity check it here since I haven't rigorously studied this subject
so suppose i have a group, drawn out like a multiplication table
like this:
does swapping rows and columns give you all possible isomorphic tables?
Yeah
thanks!
Lol
saw it on reddit
The third?
Wait no
I suppose I kind of am a teacher, I was thinking the exact same thing
that this is a beautiful way to rephrase and teach group theory to young kids
So 1 and 3 are crewmates
||incorrect||
||1?||
is crewmate or imposter?
||sus||
||c o r r e ct||
I always knew there was something suspicious about the Klein 4 group
When the isomorphism class is sus
Can someone tells me why <x,2> is not PID in Z[x]?
You mean why the ideal is not principal? Because it's not generated by a single element.
Just think about what kind of polynomial could be such that both x and 2 is a multiple of it
2x?
so since <x,2> can not be expressed as <a> for some a in Z[X], SO <X,2> can not be principal?
So neither 2 nor x is a multiple of 2x, you may be mixing it with 2x being a multiple of 2
Yeah, that's the definition
You mean we can not figure out a common factor between 2 and x in Z[x] right?
so, if we have a common factor a such that <x,2> is equivalent to <a>, then <x,2> is principal?
An ideal is called principal if it is on the form <a> for some element a.
So if <x, 2> = <a>, then it's principal. Otherwise it is not principal.
oK, then in R[x], <x,2>=<1/2>, so it is principal in R[x]
Yeah, in R[x] it's just equal to everything, i.e. <1> or <1/2> if you prefer
||this < > notation hurts my eyes||
langle rangle
I found that some course use <> and others use ()
Yeah
I think every mathematician I've ever met uses ()
But I've had <> in courses
it happens in the textbook
Angled brackets is more consistent with generator notation for every other module.
i like ⟨ ⟩, helps distinguish things from other parantheses
Same
Same thing for inner products, using (-,-) inevitably confused me with iterated inner prods and normal parentheses mixed
any hints would be appreciated 
Which part is unclear/needs hints?
If you think of A as just a finite set {1,...,n} its probably clear that such functions act as a basis, since you can identify them with {0,..,1,...,0}
i mean any on the way to solution 
Pick any function from A to Z in F(A), it has only finitely x's for which it doesnt spit out 0, aye?
yes
Can you then use a Z-linear combination of f_a to create a function that spits out the same values for every x?
this sounds literally 1:1 like what ive read today
can you please share source? 🥺
i don't know, but i thought it can be somehow related to interpolation polynomials, isn't it? 😢
singular homology theory by jw vick
on one of the first 4 pages
Kind of, but I think you are overcomplicating it
Take some f in F(A). Then f is 0 outside of M. Since M is finite call it {x_1, ..., x_n}. You then start by taking f_(x_1) which assigns 1 to x_1 and multiplying it by the value of f(x_1)
actually yeah, polynomial interpolation with the lagrange basis. Same shtick you are right
lol i have been BTFO'd here
Hi everyone , I have questions about direct product presentations (Free Group)
G = H x K
where H has presentation H = <X | R> and K has presentation K = <Y | R2>
I can't proof that G = <X,Y: xy = yx (where x from X and y from Y) R1, R2>
can you help me?
Thank you!
Try to define a map into the direct product and then try to see if adding the yx=xy to R1 and R2 generates the kernel from <X, Y> to G?
If you want a stronger hints sequentially, if you haven't done much with words yet and want a way how to approach it:
||Clearly anything in the relations is in the kernel by checking the relations themselves||
||You can write any word w as w_1 .... w_n where wlog w_1 only has letters in X, w_2 only in Y||
And for completeness sake...
||Take any word in the kernel, in the image the the w_i commute and after sorting they correspond to (1,1) = (w_1 w_3 ... , w_2 w_4 ...)=(u,v). So uv lies in <R1, R2>, by applying the relations yx=xy you can turn uv into w. So w lies in <R1, R2, {yx=xy}>||
If A is a ring and x^4=1 for every x in A* show A is isomorphic with Z/2Z or Z/3Z or Z/5Z
Oh the polynomial x^4-1
Im so dumb
I’m trying to show that if x is an element in a group with finite order r, then the order of x^s is lcm(r, s)/s.
Clearly (x^s)^(lcm(r, s)/s) = 1, but I must also show for any 0 < k < lcm(r, s)/s that (x^s)^k = x^(sk) is not equal to 1
Any hints
What about an arbitrary product of such rings?
What about it?
Hmm I have a problem that says to find n>=2 s.t. U(Z/nZ) has all elements of order 2
Clearlry phi(n)=2^k
But what now?
It should also have that property, but would not be one of Z/2Z, Z/3Z or Z/5Z.
||By CRT, reduce the problem to n a prime power.||
n=p1^k1...pl^kl so phi(n)=phi(p1^k1)...phi(pl^kl). if p_i is 2 then phi(pi^ki)=2^(k_i-1). If p_i odd then k=1 and p-1 must pe a power of 2. So n is just a power of 2 multiplied by some fermat prime numbers
If anyone is free and willing, could you help me to check this short proof and give me feedback?
for the "conversely" part, you've shown that products of an even number of disjoint 2-cycles are in <S>, but not every element of A_n is such a product, e.g. (12345) in A5 is not
Ahh right!
This should fix it right?
[If the 2-cycles are identical, then (ab)(ab)=(abc)^0.]
A ring. How can I show the number of indempotent elements is even if the set of indempotent elements is finite
given a nonzero idempotent a, try constructing another
nonzero and non-1, i should say
the idea seems promising, but it's not true that (ab)(ad) = (acb)(acd), the left hand side is (adb), and the right hand side is (ab)(cd)
1-x
All that's left is to show that this always gives you a different idempotent, so that you can pair up idempotents using this map.
Ahh nuu, I made a silly mistake in the final line of my computation. But it should be correct that
(ab)(ad)=(ab)(ac)(ac)(ad)=(acd)(adc) right?
Though I somehow missed the most obvious thing you mentioned haha, that (ab)(ad)=(adb)!
Btw other than that, do you have anymore feedback you would like to share?
But in question is not mention that R has unity
is the statement true if R doesnt have unity
Yes
Then how you define x-1
did you reply to the wrong person
i didnt define anything
Non-1
Okay
consider 2Z
0 is idempotent? Like only non-zero ?
yes, in 2Z, 0 is the only idempotent
Okay
so there is an odd number of them
Yes
in the unital case, 0 and 1 are idempotent, and i was suggesting to prove that there is an even number of other idempotents
Oh
(ab)(ad)=(ab)(ac)(ac)(ad) is correct, but (acd)(adc) is just the identity as (acd) and (adc) are inverses of each other.. i'm guessing there was a typo somewhere? Assuming you can fix this calculation, I don't have any other feedback - the general approach seems fine
ah i see what you were trying to do, I think you meant (acb)(adc)
but as you said, just noticing that (ab)(ad) = (adb) is sufficient
Alright, thank you so much!
Aluffi calls an algebra over a ring finitely generated if it is finitely generated as a module and finite type if it is finitely generated as an algebra
How prevalent is this convention in general?
The usage of "finite type" and "finitely generated" seem quite arbitrary in other sources
E.g.
yea that's super weird ><
for map of algebras A --> B, i see the words "finite" and "finite type"
for modules only one make sense
this is probably confusing if F was a qcoh sheaf of O_X-algebras
but then it corresponds to an affine map Spec(F) --> X
Find the dimension of the group (SO(n)) as a linear space. The group (SO(n)) is defined as the group formed by all (linear) transformations with unit determinant that leave invariant an ( (n - 1) )-dimensional sphere with respect to some (Euclidean) metric (g_{\mu\nu}):
[ S^{n-1} = { (x_1, x_2, ..., x_n) \in \mathbb{R}^n \mid g_{\mu\nu}x^\mu x^\nu = 1 } ]
nana
i've never seen such definition of sphere, can anybody pls explain how it came 🥺
It's just the normal definition, x is on the sphere iff ||x|| = 1
that's the same as [\angles{x, x} = \sum_{\mu = 1}^{n} \sum_{\nu = 1}^{n} \angles{\vec{e}{\mu}, \vec{e}{\nu}} x^{\mu} x^{\nu} = 1] in coordinates
Feuerzangenbowle

oh, in my wikipedia it was only just this 😦
So many ways to notate the same formula
this is the case for an orthonormal basis with respect to the inner product
Feuerzangenbowle
the formula here allows for non-standard inner products
although i personally prefer a coordinate-free description rather than that 
do you mean scalar product? 
Huh, what is scalar product
yes, inner product, scalar product, Riemannian / Euclidean metric, first fundamental form, so many names 
Ah, so that is the riemannian metric but with coordinates
so, $g_{\mu\nu}x^\mu x^\nu = 1$ is just $\langle x, x \rangle$?
sorry, custom preamble 

just use \langle x, x \rangle
Yes it is
If G is a commutative then AB is a subgroup of G when A and B are subgroups of G. Is it true?
What do you think?
How to show a connected commutative artinian ring is local?
it's a standard fact that any artinian ring A is automatically noetherian. if not you can pick the minimal infinitely generated ideal I, with annihilater Ann(I) = p. you can show that this becomes a prime ideal because of the minimality. and so I is an infinitely generated module over the artinian domain A/p = k which must be a field. But this is a contradiction because I doesn't have any infinitely generated subspaces by minimality.
I think it is true
Yeah but I am not sure therefore I asked
Have you tried already or you don't know where to start?
Yes I did it but want confirmation
Well, show your work then
I define AB={ab| a belong to A and b belong to B} now since A and B is subgroup so identity belong to AB then let any element ab belong to AB then their inverse b'a'=a'b' and A and B is subgroup so a'b' belong to AB and similar for closure
Right, or for a shorter proof you could use a characterization of subgroups
Hi, I'm wondering if anyone could help me understand this problem better? I'm confused about what the isomorphism should be, and I don't know how to define IA_S (the last expression).
sorry that I cut in
A subset is a subgroup iff it's closed under the operation taking x and y to xy'
after that you show that artinian ring has finitely many primes. say p_1, p_2, ... are primes, then they're automatically maximal since A/p_i are artinian domains again. in particular these are coprime ideals and so the sequence p_1, p_1p_2, p_1p_2p_3, ... is strictly decreasing, therefore must terminate by artin-ness. this gives finitely many primes. The prouduct of all of these is the jacobson radical J, and again by artininan assumption J^(N+1) = J^N. since J^N is f.g. by noetherian ness, Nakayama tells you that J^N = 0, and thus the coprime ideals p_i^N intersect to 0. So CRT tells you that
A --> prod (A/p_i^N) is an iso.
each A/p_i^N is a local artinian with nilpotent maximal ideal given by p_i/p_i^N.
so if this was connected, then there is only one factor in that product.
Yes
Is it characterization of subgroup?
Yeah
Oh
Here, shouldn't we be more careful and verify that $(b' * a') * (a * b) = e$ as well? Since the definition of inverse requires both $x * x' = x' * x = e$
BlazingSaber
I see, thank you! 
Can you help me to solve some problems
Since you are working in a group, the other condition follows immediately
I.e., if the set you are working in is already a group, xy = e is sufficient to conclude y to be the inverse of x
Since inverses are unique
Not really at the moment
Oh, I see
is there never a case that
$x * y = e$ but $y * x \neq e$, so we don't even consider $y$ to be the inverse of $x$ in the first place?
BlazingSaber
If x, y are element of a group with operation *, then that's never the case
Outside of groups there of course are such cases happening
I know that inverses are unique, so $x * y_1 = y_1 * x = e$ and $x * y_2 = y_2 * x = e \implies y_1 = y_2$
BlazingSaber
If xy = e, then multiplying both sides by y gives
yxy = y
Then multiplying by y^(-1) on the right gives
yx = e
Ok fair, that makes sense! 
The crucial thing being used here is that y has an inverse. In structures that are not groups, it could be that xy = e, but y doesn't have an inverse at all.
right
but since it's a group, every element is guaranteed to have a (unique) inverse
existence already implies uniqueness
Given that G is group of order (p^n)a where a and p is relatively prime then how this Lagrange theorem use here to conclude that order of AB is (p^n)b?
2.6.2 Algebra 1
Given a group with these axioms, I'm able to prove that a right identity element exists once I've established the existence of a right inverse
I was wondering if there is a way to proceed the other way, i.e. prove the existence of a right identity first somehow (wasn't able to come up with this) and then use that to prove the existence of a right inverse
Also, by symmetry, axioms about right identity and right inverse would exist, but I'm curious, can we have axioms about a left identity and a right inverse, or a right identity and a left inverse equivalent to the standard group definitions?
No, you cannot prove this. Find a counterexample.
Well, you need an identity element to even talk about inverses so if there's no identity it does not make sense to talk about inverses
You can always define a' as the inverse of a iff
a'ab = b for all b.
If course then it follows that a'a is an identity element.
So an integral domain contains no zero divisors
Doesn’t that mean if there was an integral domain subset of some ring R, that the integral domain would contain only units of R? May or may not be all of them
bumping this
x^(sk) = 1 iff sk is a multiple of r, by definition of the order
mhm so sk would be a common multiple of r and s smaller than lcm(r, s), contradiction
Nice
so you want ||lcm(s, r) | sk|| so ||lcm(s, r) / s | k||
No, an integral domain has no non-trivial zero divisors
Wait I meant it contains no zero divisors
No, Z is an integral domain so let the subset be all of Z. 2 is not a unit
you can have all the zero divisors, just get yourself an integral domain
(for legal reasons I am joking)
So in a ring there are zerodivisors units and elements that are neither?
Something not being a zero divisor does not mean it is a unit
Yes, put simply.
Yea that’s what I’ve though before
So it’s an if then
What is an if?
If unit then not zerodivisor
Yes.
But not iff
Okay thanks
So the only thing being different from fields and integral domains are those elements that are neither zero divisors and units
Yes
For Zm rings tho do those elements that are neither exist?
Because don’t I have gcd(a,m)=1 implies a is a unit
OK, we usually write that Z_m or (much better) Z/mZ, just fyi.

