#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 201 of 1
i have another question
they didn't say that the binary operation is multiplication
and this can't be valid on other operation but multiplication
It is standard to use a^p to represent any repeated operation.
Except those which are written additively.
so its like (aaaa)(aaaaaa) ?
i mean this
Yes.
I explained here
just started rings, can I say the fundamental reason why minus times minus is positive is because integers form a ring under addition and multiplication?
more precisely also a consequence of distributivity of integers axiom
Idk if that's the fundamental reason per se, but it does mean that it is a consequence of requiring all the other nice properties of rings that we want.
It is not just a consequence of distributivity!
I mean, it just looks impossible without distributivity
definitely we require ring axioms to prove it
Yes but it is equally a consequence of all the other ring axioms
I was actually looking for an answer to this question from a very long time, say 9th grade
I mean without it you could just glue on an idempotent monoid onto your abelian group
all i saw all these years was just unnecessary analogies
Distributivity + abelian group structure imply (-1)^2=1
Idk?
a=1a=(1+0)a=1a+0a=a+0a -> 0=0a
you need to show (-a)(b)=(a)(-b)=-ab right?
Then 0=0(-1)=(1-1)(-1)=(-1)+(-1)(-1)
So the the first uses the cancellation property and uniqueness of inverses and the second uniqueness of inverses
makes sense
What are some ring structures contains objects which aren’t numbers? Eg: Matrices
set of all real valued functions right?
for example
under pointwise addition and multiplication
is there somemore you can recall
i just wanted to see this notion of (-a)(-b)= ab in those contexts
We been dealing that with integers for years
Z/nZ is very numbers
endomorphisms of an abelian group for addition and composition
I’m unaware about the term sorry
i’ve seen group homorphisms and isomorphism
an endomorphism is a morphism from G to itself
sort of like automorphism ?
not surjective ?
an automorphism is an isomorphic/bijective endomorphism
this is any structure preserving function into itself?
it's a morphism from G to G which is bijective
Morphism is a generalization of stuff like homo, homeo, diffeo, etc. -morphisms
Endo always means the domain and target are the same
Is the signature of a 3-cycle 1 or -1?
I don't understand, there are sites that tell me 1 and others - 1
it would a nice exercise to check yourself
check the definition of your textbook and then try to see how many inversions a 3-cycle decomposes to
There is no need to do this
why would that be
the definition for a k-cyles is just (-1)^(k-1)
well apparently those sites use differing definitions, so the rule of hand of (-1)^inversion=(-1)^(k-1) would depend on those definitions
I'm confused how the signature could differ
All definitions I've seen are equivalent
Oh lol
?
Where do they say that?
the justification is that: (because there are n − 3 orbits reduced to a singleton and an orbit of size 3, by definition of a 3-cycle)
So the sign of a 3-cycle should be 1. So I guess were do they say it's -1 is a better question
except that I don't understand the result
an incorrect one
jagr says it's correct, you incorrect, i'm lost
I mean n - (n-2) is just 2= 3-1, but I'm not sure why they're writing it like that
Either way you get 1...
but if you plug n = 2 in this says that 2-cycles are even, which is nonsense
Like the formula could depend on more than just n, but without any context you can't really say what formula they're using
I give you the complete correction
Lemma 1. The 3-cycles generate the alternating group An (when n ≥ 3).
Demonstration. The hypothesis n ≥ 3 ensures the existence of 3-cycles.
The signature of a three cycle is (−1)^(n−(n−2)) = 1 (because there are n − 3 orbits reduced to a singleton and
an orbit of size 3, by definition of a 3-cycle). So the set of 3-cycles is included in An.
Every element of An is the product of an even number of transpositions. (Indeed, the transpositions
generate Sn and as the signature of a transposition is worth −1 (because we have (−1)^(n−(n−1)) = −1, all
the elements of An are written as the product of a transposition number which must be even for
obtain the correct signature.
A product of two transpositions is either a 3-cycle or a product of 3-cycles:
(i, j)(k, l)=(i, l, k)(i, j, k)
(i, j)(i, k)=(i, k, j)
What concludes the proof
(-1)^(n-(n-2)) is always 1, this seems like nonsense
what's the full formula for signature, not just 3 cycles
I don't know what n is, and thus I don't know what you're confused about
although considering the fact you're talking about An I'm presuming it's just the sign of the permutation
So it appears they raise -1 to the power of n - #oforbits
So that's the formula they're using
Interesting formula, but I guess it works
ok sure, I think I can see it
I still don't know where the problem lies. it says clear as day in the proof you've provided that it's 1
way I will use the formula (-1)^(k-1) and for a 3-cycle I replace the k by 3
But if we had found that the signature is -1 we could not say that the set of 3-cycles is included in An?
An is the kernel of the signature homomorphism, so a permutation is in An if and only if it's signature is 1
if R is a ring, and A is a set, then what is the distinction between $R^{\otimes A}$ and $R[A}$
Hello1
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for more information.
(You may edit your message to recompile.)
if you let j:A->R^A be j(a)(x)=1 iff a=x then everything in R^A is just r1j(a1)+r2j(a2)+....
what do you mean by R^(⊗A)?
if A is finite, this should mean R⊗_Z ... ⊗_Z R
the description you're giving fits more to R^{⊕A} as a Z-module. (it's no longer a ring if A is infinite, since it won't have an identity)
set functions from A to R that dont vanish on finitely many a \in A
[comically loud blink]
yea that's usually called R^{⊕A}
⊗ is something totally different

Hey
oh, is the only difference the constant terms?
remember to ask your question
for example if A = {x} is a singleton, then R^{⊕A} = R*x
but R[A] = R[x] = R⊕Rx⊕Rx^2⊕...
oh yeah, I zoned out for a bit xD
I'm having some trouble with this;
Let $A$ be a commutative noetherian ring, $M$ a maximal ideal and $Q$ a $M$-primary ideal ($\sqrt{Q} = M$). Prove that there exists $n\ \in \mathbb N$ such that $M^n\subseteq Q \subseteq M$.
Eduardo
does anyone have any idea how to solve this?
say M = (m_1, ..., m_r), then for each i we can pick n_i such that (m_i)^(n_i) lies in Q. what if we take n = n_1 + ... + n_r?
(also avoid asking questions is multiple channels >.<)
I know, I asked at #advanced-algebra but then @daring nova pointed out that this channel would suit this question better. my bad
I don't know the topic, I just redirected to what's basically a 50/50 to me
Either way, it's more appropriate than a help channel
but yeah, should have mentioned #advanced-algebra and let him choose
I also think it should be in #advanced-algebra tbf lol
I mean it's a standard comm alg problem and comm alg is meant for advanced alg generally
.<
because it said commutative noetherian ring ?
Primary ideals, noetherian rings, etc
This is a standard thing for studying primary decompositions
which is firmly in comm alg
My abstract algebra exam is next week and I've been using this server to get help on some exercises. I always have trouble figuring out if a question is more suited to this channel or to the adv-algebra one xD
ask in either one 🙈 (e.g. whichever one is inactive
)
I guess I'll just go with
Looks complicated and definitions I never seen/don't remember -> #advanced-algebra then
I guess I just progressed
also, why do you think my question is not appropriate for the help channels?
Advanced helpers don't frequent the help channels as much
So you have low visibility for the relevant helpers
that's nice to know. Thank you
and @rustic crown @south patrol thank you for your help!
is this ideal even in R? since it has infinite sums
Who says it has infinite sums?
The ideal generated by a set of elements is, by definition, an ideal
This is all finite sums of the elements x_i and their multiples
(x1,x2,...)=(x1)+(x2)+....=Rx1+Rx2+..... which contains eg x1+x2+x3+....

An infinite sum is typically undefined for a given ring. A binary operation only defines finite combinations of elements!
something something transfinite induction. Watch me go.
maybe someone should invent some kind of maths that deals with this problem, making infinite sums rigorous if they get close and stay close to some element of the ring
it's probably not possible...
Can someone explain why it states [Q(2^(1/3), 3^(1/4)):Q(2^(1/3))] is at most 4? it seems that we have (1, 3^(1/4), 3^(1/2), 3^(3/4)) as the basis for Q(2^(1/3), 3^(1/4)) over Q(2^(1/3)). so I am wondering if it is possible that Q(2^(1/3), 3^(1/4)):Q(2^(1/3))] is less than 4?
this is offensive to my eyes
The degree is given by the minimal polynomial with coefficients in Q(third root of 2)[X], so since x^4-3 has it as a root the minimal polynomial must divide x^4-3
So it has degree at most 4
I would accept it if it was written in comic sans
A finite commutative ring with at least 3 elements. Let a= sum x^7 when x is in A and b=sum x^8 when x is in A. Prove that at least one element a or b is non invertible
If I assume that a and b are both invertible I can look at their product which is also invertible
In that product sum there is at least an element y to the power 15
Idk how to manage this problem
Any hint
I've always wondered, do textbook writers actually keep a list of numbered theorems and lemmas next to them when they type out the proofs
latex should handle the referencing 
if u is a unit in the ring A, then show that (u^7 - 1) * a = 0 and (u^8 - 1) * b = 0. if a and b were invertible, show that this implies only unit in A is u = 1. ||With this, A is an F_2-algebra, and moreover, if x is in kernel of the Frobenius F : A --> A, then x^2 = 0, so 1+x is a unit. Show F is an iso, and thus b = F^3(sum of elements of A). since A is an F_2-vector space, it has size |A| = 2^n. and as F_2 is a proper subgroup, an individual coset looks like {x, x+1} which has sum = 1. Thus total sum = [A:F_2] which is even, and hence 0 since char A = 2. but then b = 0|| 
this was my first thought, so probably there are better ways
May I ask why? Is there a shorter way to do this?
I mean just look at it
Like is the LaTeX bad?? Bad spacing?? Notation and work looks fine to me..
Both
Ah
Looks super ugly
$cos(x)$ moment
The Ultimate Chad
I think basically all the letters are too tall and similar heights
Also the Q should be mathbb
Or at least mathbf
Also not nicely written imo
How so?
Idk just super dense
What's a Brauer pair 🤔? Is it a modular representation thing?
yus
You do reprtheory right?
maybe
Fusion
What, like dance?
Nah like cuisine
😋
I was recently reading a lot about the basics of modules over non-commutative rings (semisimplicity and such), but for some reason I find it hard to connect to the concrete problem of group representations, idk why. Not that I've done a lot of reading on that, just something that came up a bit.
every representation is in corrispondence with a module over the group algebra
the group algebra is commutative if and only if the group is abelian
||assuming you're doing R[G] with R commutative. If R isn't commutative I don't want to talk to you anymore||
R[G]
check out the solutions for Alexandru Myller 2010 (https://www.mategl.com/download.htm)
wew noncommutative algebra jumpscare
tf is a non-commutative ring
don't worry about it sweaty
I would guess it is an empty set joke if it wasnt non-empty by definition
okay pookie
Even when we are only dealing with commutative algebras, noncommutative rings somehow appear and demand to admit their existence
"Non-commutative polynomial rings aren't real, they can't hurt you"
Non-commutative polynomial rings: https://link.springer.com/article/10.1007/s00037-018-0171-9
polynomials over the free non-commutative polynomial ring
Learned about this in a special topics course I took last spring
Guys, what is the difference between the generator in line algebra and in a group?
In a vector space, the generated subspace of a subset S is the collection of linear combinations of elements in S
In a group, the generated subgroup of a subset S is the collection of products of elements in S and their inverses
Both can be described similarly:
The subspace generated by S is the minimum subspace containing S, and also the intersection of all subspaces containing S
The subgroup generated by S is the minimum subgroup containing S, and also the intersection of all subgroups containing S
(This is usually what "generated" means in broader contexts)
Hello
Suppose that G contains a product σ := (ab)(cd) of two transpositions with disjoint supports, and let e be the element of {1, . . . , 5} which
is not in {a, b, c, d}. Calculate (bde)σ(bde)^(−1) σ^(-1)
Solution:
I can't understand the calculation steps, can someone explain it to me?
If you conjugate a permutation, the result is given by relabeling the elements.
I.e.
s (e d b) s^(-1) = (s(e) s(d) s(b))
This is the last step that I don't understand
(bde)(eca)
on the other hand, what you wrote is not what was written in the correction
you wrote : s (e d b) s^(-1) = (s(e) s(d) s(b))
.
For the last step you just compute the composition
Where does b map, it maps to d, where does d map it maps to e, where does e map, it maps to c, where does c map it maps to a, where does a map it maps to b
So that's the cycle (bdeca)
Why does e map to c? Forget the correction. Act like you didn't see the answer.
you have that
where do you see "c" here?
sigma(d) = c
Yes it's written in the correction
but what makes you say that when looking at this line
Lagrange theorem in group theory says that let (G, * ) be a group and ( H, * ) a subgroup of G , then o(H) divides o(G) , ... i'm condused here, i felt like its missing details
Alright, I have no idea what you don't understand, so let's just start from scratch.
You want to determine what
(bde) s (edb) s^-1 is
This is a function mapping the letters abcde to themselves. So let's investigate where c is mapped.
To compose functions, what you do is apply one after another. So first apply s^-1, s^(-1)(c) = d.
Then apply (edb), that gives us b. Then apply s, that gives us a. Then apply (bde), that just leaves a. So the function maps c to a
If you do the same for the other elements, you can determine the entire function
In fact I have the impression that something important is missing in what you say, it is that in the statement they say that:
σ := (ab)(cd)
and I don't see that you mention it unless I'm wrong
That's the definition of sigma, given yes
Did you mean for sigma to be something else?
And I think that to do the calculations you have to use this definition
Yes, you have to use the definition that's given
What kind of details did you have in mind
So are you confused why sigma maps c to d and d to c for example?
σ = (ab)(cd) this means that σ sends a -> b | b -> a | c -> d | d -> c
Let us calculate σ(bde):
bde sends b -> d | d -> e | e -> b
σ(bde) = σ(bd)(de)
no I don't understand, too bad,
let's forget, thank you
We can forget it if you want, but it's like you said
(bde) sends b -> d
And sigma sends d -> c,
So the composition sigma(bde), send b -> c.
b -> d -> c, b ends up at c.
σ(bde) sends b -> d -> c | d - > e -> b -> a -> b | e - > b -> a -> b -> a -> b .... ?
d is sendt to e, and then sigma just sends e to itself, so
d -> e -> e
ok actually I understand, there is no need to worry about sigma(bde)
it's simple and short
σ = (ab)(cd) this means that σ sends a -> b | b -> a | c -> d | d -> c
σ(edb) = σ(e)σ(d)σ(b)
For σ(e) : e-> e
For σ(d) : d-> c
For σ(b) : b -> a
Finished.
The only things need to know here are:
- σ c σ^-1 = (σ(a1)....σ(ap)) if c = (a1....ap)
- σ = (ab)(cd)
Can you explain evaluation homomorphism? and why do we study those?
rather it’s importance
Do you mean for polynomial rings? @grizzled crane
it has to do with the fact that your “cosets”, i.e sets of the form xH partition or split your supergroup into a number of cosets. All the cosets are the same size, so the subgroup order divide the order of the main group in order to split the supergroup up. the quotient of the |G|/|H| is the number of cosets, i.e the index
i mean it kinda just evaluates the polynomials by setting them to their output. It’s a homomorphism
Very similar
name of book ?
Fraleigh
for example n = 3
3Z is a subgroup of Z
3Z is a subgroup of Z
3Z = {0, 3, -3, 6, -6, 9, -9,...}
we don't really know what you're looking for here
i'm just looking for this
thank you
well there you go then 
what about 0Z
0 is in N sweaty
he said a whole number i think 0 is not a whole number
but still
why cant 0 be a subrgoup
well 0 is definitely in Z so
0 is a whole number.
it is
{0} is a subgroup
it is a subgroup
by whole number they mean natural number
0 = 0/2 so its a fraction
i presume
the set is a singleton but that doesn't mean it cant be a group
1 = 1/1 so it's a fraction. What an asinine statement
what does Z/2Z represents
let’s agree to disagree
i think zero is not a whole number
Perhaps Z^+
fine, but only because you're transparently baiting
mmh what if 0 was an invention of the devil to make mathematicians waste time discussing whether 0 is natural or not
in french system 0 belongs to N
roughly speaking, arithmetic of integers if 2=0
but idk about other systems , i think they disagree with us
in french 0 is both positive and negative
dont listen to those weirdos
modular arithmetic
Have you seen quotient groups yet? If you haven't, then do not worry about this yet.
dude is going to shit himself learning about groups
lmao
Kernel more like colonel of satan
OK let me tell you now: 0Z = {0} is a subgroup of Z. I don't care about various other conventions for the natural numbers, but this is simply a fact.
whole numbers = ganze (Z)ahlen in german. thats where the Z comes from. as a fun fact
i found it in an exam exo, i have to know it but its not in my lecture
i always hated this explanation because i didn’t understand modular arithmetic until after i learned about subgroups and subrings of Z
same
multiplicative groups and rings
i did programming before math so modular arithmetic was something i was aware of
When subring of Z
modular arithmetic is more ring theoretic
principal roots of unity and ring theoretic fourier transforms
thanks mizalign, that was a very helpful reminder
de nader
they are kinda fun to throw images in shit into, then just compress them, then undo it
i will try to translate this, i need to understand the set i will be working on
- is the addition between two equivalent classes of Z/2Z ( how does Z/2Z look 😭)
Z/2Z is the integers mod 2
I don't know, I know a little Portuguese, but it says a body ?
thank you so much
Statement : Suppose that G contains a 5-cycle τ := (abcde). Calculate(cde)τ (cde)^(−1) τ^(−1)
Correction :
I want to know why (de)(ed) cancel each other out?
- is the addition on the two equivalence classes of Z/2Z
× is the multiplication on the two equivalence classes of Z/2Z
1a) Why is (Z/2Z, +, ×) a division ring (field?)?
b) Draw the addition table of Z/2Z.
(*I think corps is division ring and corps abélien is field)
Is it clearer if I were to point out that (de) = (ed)?
typo
even if you say that the two are equal I still don't understand how they cancel each other out
Is it clear why (1 2)(1 2) is the identity?
yes
So...
okt hank you
so Z/2Z = { -2, 0, 2 , 4, 6, ...} ?
no
That's 2Z
if yes then its the same thing as 2Z
Or you can imagine taking Z and doing
… = -2 = 0 = 2 = …
… = -1 = 1 = 3 = …, so that there are only 2 elements
And addition/multiplication works the usual way
This is something called a quotient ring (quotient of Z by 2Z)
I find it disquieting that you are expecting to be able to answer questions about things you don't know the definitions of!
we can say that Z/2Z consists of two sub sets , one which contains even numbers and the other odd ones rihght ?
Ye
have I been blocked or something
Those are the elements of Z/2Z
You are confusing subsets with elements here
i'm not trying to prove anything, i'm trying to understand

sorry, a lot of ppl are typing and i only take one message and try to understand it
yes then this is true so for example Z/3Z it contains 3 subsets 3k , 3k+1, 3k+2 ?
In a commutative ring, how does one prove that if $b\in (a)$, then a divides b? This is part of an equivalence.
jaspreet.sidhu
You should recall the definition of (a), after which it should be clear.
mfs type too fast
Get fucked you slow typers,

jk love u guys
you have a space bar tbf
Wait, how? Isn't the definition just (a) is the smallest ideal containing a? It would be nice to have the other characterization using linear combinations.
(a) = {ra : r in R}
Note R is not unital.
well now I leave
I wish you had stated this previously!
That's, you know, important context!
Yes I suggest you think about other possible characterisations.
It should be something like (a) = {n.a | n in Z} u {n.ar | n in Z, r in R} (typo)
I stated that R is a commutative ring. Sorry, did not know if that needed to be stated separately 🙂
Stating that R is nonunital is important.
You will also need to state your definition of divisibility, because it's going to be weird too.
You still have {ar : r ∈ R} ⊂ (a) tho? 
Another question, why do people assume a commutative ring is unital? Is there something in the terminology like ring vs rng?
because almost all rings encountered are unital
Is there something in the terminology like ring vs rng?
my brother in christ you just stated the difference in terminology
simmer down chat...
Wait how does one define divisibility if neither ar = b nor b ∈ (a)
That's what I was sayin'
the former would be strange for non-unital. you wouldn't always be able to say that a divides itself
Huh quick thought, there should be a left adjoint to the forgetful functor CRing → CRng right? Like if our rng is R, we could have the set Z x R with the operation (a, r) + (b, s) = (a+b, r+s) and (a, r)(b, s) = (ab, a.s + b.r + rs). Then it has unit (1, 0). In fact I don't seem to need to require commutativity here. Interesting! I'd have to check if it works as an adjunction and indeed as a ring.
could we not just append a 1 to our rng
Well yeah lol I'm working out how that would work
I get you want the adjointness but hmm
Free indeed sounds like ×Z
yeah
I'm gonna quickly check this is a ring, a functor, adjoint etc


Indeed it's pretty cute cause like
What is the difference between a q-Syllow and a p-Syllow ?
If we extend to like CRing -> CRng -> Ab (all the forgetful functors) then we know a left adjoint of the whole thing is given by sending an abelian group A to $\mathrm{Sym}(A) = \bigoplus_{i \ge 0} A^{\otimes i}$ and a left adjoint of the right hand side is sending to $\mathrm{Sym}{>0}(A) = \bigoplus{i > 0} A^{\otimes i}$
potato
So like in this very special case you are just adding in an extra copy of Z lol
But then that is true more generally etc
Context
(*Sylow)
But if p is a prime then you say p-Sylow etc
I imagine q is also a prime in the other situation
Boytije could u tell me what i should be familar with to start solving exos ?
You should read the definitions of whatever the exercises talk about, usually
I can't possibly describe everything you'd need to know to solve all exercises. That's just not feasible. Since you seem to be working from some set of notes, you should probably just read the notes.
Who knows we may see them again...
Whats a nice characterization of polynomials g(x,y) with the property that g(x,g(y,z))=g(g(x,y),z)) ?
how do you see that? Degree?
Ye
i dont really have a feel for them in multiple variables
is there like a mult and comp formula there still?
It works pretty much the same
Well if you consider degree of one of the variables, that is
actually does the degree behave as if I have a map R[x1,...xn] -> R[x] and just send anything everything to x?
all the x_i
Ye ig
okay yeah
hm did you arrive at it being linear that fast then?
huh, so R[x1,...,x_n] and the degree of x_k is the degree of f as an element of R[x1,...., skip x_k, x_n][x_k] yada yada
or like, treat the other variables as "constants"
x + y + cxy should work
Source: formal group laws lol
I can actually find the proof online of a characterisation like this
Oh I forgot xy has degree 1 in each var rip
cxy too
A_Z remains a group scheme 🥳
thank you
i love u
if u ever need a wife4let me know
as long as you are not mean to him
Uh I'll take that as a compliment, thanks
But ye I can find u the proof
If u want
Well it is for formal group laws which have more constraints than what you gave tbf
But the idea is that you can classify the fgls coming from polys
the fgls?
Formal group laws
ah
Yeah in my case I just needed something that played nice with the other choices for group object structure, from the name I take it they are related
Speaking of them, to show that Hom(X,G) has group structure for a group object G and any X I would need to know that X has a corresponding X x X with the appropiate diagonal map, no? The statement I have in front of me doesnt mention them
if in a UFD, x=u*i where u is a unit and i is an irreducible, how can i factor x?
you cant meaningfully, you basically described an irreducible element
if u is a unit, and u^(-1)a is a unit, then is "a" a unit?
You shouldn't need a diagonal map X -> X x X. Given two morphisms f: X -> G and g: X -> G, you get a unique morphism X -> G x G making relevant stuff commute, which you can compose with multiplication to get a morphism X -> G
of course it is
so this means if x is a unit times an irreducible, then x is irreduble
cool
Ah yeah. The induced map should behave just like (f,g) \circ diag_G so the argument ought to be the same
That's right, and the axioms for the multiplication morphism in the group object ensure that this multiplication in Hom(X, G) satisfies the group axioms
yeah I already checked them, just panicked a bit when I noticed i did an illegal move
May someone give me an outline or provide a different example on how to do this?
Have you tried anything yet?
Just start by trying to prove it
and if it gets hard, try to find counterexamples.
Ok thanks.
In general, I strongly suggest you give exercises a good try before asking for help with them. You don't learn if you don't try things independently, and it's a bit disrespectful to ask for someone else to just do it for you if you're not willing to put in the work.
how does a pullback of idk what relate to the the group structure on Hom(X,G) being functorial in X?
like showing the rhs is really straightforward I am just wondering what they meant
I mean showing that pullback preserves the group structure is equivalent to functoriality, so I'm not sure what the confusion is. Like to spell it out, pullback commutes with multiplication as we've defined it on Hom(X, G). So if you have a morphism f: Y -> X, then the morphism f*: Hom(X, G) -> Hom(Y, G) taking g to g \circ f is a group homomorphism.
are there divisible finite groups? I'm showing that there are no divisible finite abelian groups, but the track I'm looking at seems not to depend on the abelian property.
Under pullback I just picture the pullback of a fiber product
Oh, I think in this case pullback is just meant as precomposition
Oh
How would you define nG for G non-abelian. They’re not Z-modules
I have no idea what those are
How are you defining a divisible group?
why are cat theorists so extra sometimes 
Agree with this, and I was with you on the “what the fuck does this mean” train
a group is divisible, if, and only if, for all members g of the group, and for all non-zero integers k, there exists a member x of the group such that x^k=g
sure, but that doesn't seem to depend on being abelian
appreciated
I have this abelian component here that seems to matter else why mention it? but I don't seem to require a dependence on it.
I've typically only seen divisible groups in the context of abelian groups because it's relevant for homological algebra, but sure this definition works. But yeah, wew has shown that there are no non-trivial finite divisible groups as you've defined divisibility
yeah, it's a nicer version of the thing I was trying, but it just weirded me out that I was particularly proving abelian group properties when this seems irrelevant to being abelian by the definition given.
Sure, yeah. If you haven't seen modules yet then homological algebra may be a bit out of reach at the moment. But divisible abelian groups are relevant there and I haven't seen a particular use for non-abelian divisible groups so that's probably why the abelian condition is being imposed
well then I guess "no finite groups exhibit this property, therefore abelian finite groups definitely don't exhibit this property" is a good enough proof. Having the extra context for why we only care about abelian groups seems nice, but if they're not going to talk about it, it feels like the extra legos in the bottom of the bag.
yeah I don't know why you're talking about divisible groups at all then
I'm trying to understand this section of the lecture notes about quotient groups of invertible matrices and how the determinant induces a certain morphism:
Notations, though they're mostly standard
So we have GLn the invertibles, SLn the ones of determinant 1
k*, the field's multiplicative group, is also used to represent the set of homotheties/dilation since the isomorphism is clear
µn is the nth roots of unity
PSLn = SLn / µn, PGLn = GLn / k* are groups divided by (a subgroup of) the homotheties
That's fine, so is the injection of PSLn into PGLn, but I don't understand how the determinant "induces a surjective morphism from GLn to k* / k^{x, n}, of kernel k* SLn" giving the exact sequence at the bottom
the determinant outputs a scalar, so why is k* quotiented by whatever k^{x, n} is ? I assume it's either the vectors, or the diagonal matrices, but neither makes sense
Is it true that Z[i]/(x) is a field iff x is an irreducible element of Z[i]? Z[i] is the domain of gaussian integer, while (x) is the ideal generated by x. The professor taught us that it is true if i replace Z[i] with K[x], with K field, but intuitively it has to be true with Z[i] too, right?
yes, because the Gaussian integers are a principle ideal domain
the determinant gives you map into the units of k, so I guess you can try to work out in reverse what k^x,n is meant to be
more generally, R/I is a field if and only if I is a maximal ideal
Thank you
oh the invertibles
Yeah
Ahh I see, thats interesting
I'm sure it's meant as (k*)^n but idk how to interpret it here
Even tho we didnt talk about maximal ideals (I know what they are tho)
actually I'm not sure
fun exercise to try and see why
Ill try it then
probably the set of n-th powers of invertible elements in k. You'll have to see why quotienting those out gives you a surjective map
but the determinant is naturally surjective ?
Why would we quotient anything ?
its naturally surjective on GL
the determinant is different here, but they use the same thing
it's the factoring through the quotient by k^{\times}, I imagine
so he typoed and meant PGL ?
the main reason I can see behind quotienting out by that is the fact that if you take a multiple of the identity matrix, say 2I, then in GL_2 this has determinant 4
but in PGL_2 we want this to agree with the determinant of just I
so we have to quotient out by 4
so on for all x, we have to set x^2 to 1
Typo where
2nd to last line, when he says GLn(k) -> k^x / k^{x, n}
I'll draw the diagram
As in, the kernel of GL->PGL has imagine contained in (k^x)^n
cause it's just the homotheties
So isn't it actually an equality ?
what's "it"
the kernel Kerr just mentioned
my main issue is that (k^x)^n isn't a subgroup so what are we actually quotienting by
if it's the nth powers it is a subgroup
it being in french is really messing with me as well
actually, PGL doesn't have a nice set of representants does it ?
each coset is just matrices such that one is a (scalar) multiple of the other, but you can't favor one easily
oh
I might be wrong on that, I just don't buy that it's a subgroup
something very very wrong with that claim to me
the nth powers ?
holds for k finite by fundemental theorem of f.g. abelian groups
yeah, k is abelian
btw
wait so like why isnt it a subgroup?
it's a nth power iff the numerator and denominator are, once reduced ?
x^n y^n = (xy)^n
1 = 1^n
(x^n)^-1= (x^-1)^n
is very subgroupy to me
I'm thinking of like, amego groups here
continue on without me anyway
ok so let's go back here
he didn't make anything explicit,
do you even know what PGL means 😭
I'm guessing A -> A k*
it's defined on top, as the quotient by homotheties
thats pretty dry. Homtheties?
which amounts to this
diag(a, ..., a) for some a
I'm being doxxed.. modddsss
then det(A k^x) = det(A) {det(diag(a, ..., a)} = det(A) k^{x, n}
So I see why it works with PGL as domain, not GL
yeah so with det = a^n for the elements in the kernel this becomes pretty standard quotient stuff
but ker(pi) = k^x is not a subset of ker(det) ?
this is essentially what I wrote up here lol
I believe it's a subgroup now, I forgot that the multiplication map A^n -> A restricted to the diagonal subgroup was a group homomorphism for abelian groups lol
huh?
the homotheties (dilations if you prefer) don't have determinant equal to 1
oh i shouldnt have written det, pretend its det star or det bar. Det tilde if you are 💅
which is ?
anyways the kernel of pi is just the the matrices diag(a,...,a). Those have determinant a^n. The kernel of the det in my pic is any matrix whose determinant has the form a^n. So the former is deffo a subgroup of the latter
the actual map is det and then the quotient map k^x to k^´x/(k^x)^n
which is A -> det(A k^x) ?
It sends A to det A (k^x)^n
I mean, it also sends other matrices to the identity
we didn't say it's injective
its kernel is k^x Sln
which makes sense to me as they have det x^n for some x
hm, right. You will have to check that the kernel of the induced map is PSL_n(k)
But I think that ought to be no trouble
the kernel is the A such that det(A) is a nth power
so for PSLn, det(A µn) = det(A) = 1 so it's entirely in the kernel
if A k^x in ker(det), then det(A) = a^n for some a, so A/a is in SLn, so A k^x is in PSLn's image
right
your notation is a bit weird but that should be the idea, yeah
keeping to SL and GL the kernel of the induced det are those matrices which decompose as diag(a, ..., a) times a matrix from SL. But PSL are exactly those matrices under the equivalence relation of being multiple of diag(a, ..., a)
Was told to repost this from help channel:
I would greatly appreciate if anyone could provide some insight on this (and pls ping me when responding)
What they mean here is K:=ker(...) is a subrepresentation. The elements of K are mapped back to K by all pi(g), so (pi,K) is a representation in its own right.
Hmm yeah
Oh wait so here
Saying that some vector space V is a representation is really just an abbreviation for saying that (pi, V) is a representation right
This prob sounds slightly pedantic but I just want to make sure I have all the terminology right lol
Yes, it's standard practice in math to omit words/symbols whenever possible.
Got it thanks!
Quick sanity check: if A,B are groups and f:AxB->AxB is a map, then to show it's an automorphism it's enough to show its restrictions to Ax1 and 1xB are its components f_1,f_2 are, right (where f(a,b)=(f_1a,f_2b))? Never mind, this doesn't make sense.
Yep you figured it out. You could do something where you take B = A and swap the factors and that’s an automorphism I think
Weird stuff can happen with the direct product
But you get this really nice theorem: if gcd(|A|, |B|) = 1, then every subgroup of AxB is of the form CxD for C <= A and D <= B (NOT true in general!!)
I need some help with the following:
Let $A\subseteq B$ be an extension of commutative rings and assume that $B\setminus A$ is multiplicatively closed. Prove that $A$ is integrally closed in $B$
Eduardo
if c(A) is the integral closure of A, then if A is not integrally closed ver B, we can find x in c(A)\A and in that case, x is in B\A
this means that $x^n + a_1 x^{n-1} + ... + a_{n-1}x + a_n = 0$ for some $a_i\in A$
Eduardo
and each power of x is in B\A because it's multiplicativelly closed
but this is as far as I got. Any tips on how to proceed from here?
this tells us that $a_1 x^{n-1} + ... + a_{n-1}x + a_n \in B$. maybe this is the way?
Eduardo
say f is the minimal degree monic polynomial which x satisfies. then f(x) = x * g(x) - a for g monic with smaller degree.
argue that g(x) is also in A, hence g = 1.
hhmmm I'll try that. thanks

A ping?
my bad

I don't get 2 things @rustic crown . 1) why is g(x) in A? 2)If it is in A, why it's the constant polynomial 1?
in this case, $g(x)= x^{n-1} + a_1x^{n-2} + ... + a_{n-1}$. why is it in A?
Eduardo
x * g(x) = a is in A
and g is a smaller monic poly
g(x) = a'
then x satisfies g - a'
g cannot have positive degree
else f wan't be the minimal degree thing
rephrase it whatever way you like the most >.<
I think I get it

typo*
but isn't this a contradiction already?
because deg(g - a) < deg(f)
oh oh oh nvm
yea so g - a' is already the zero polynomial
i see it now
g = 1 = a'
thanks :)
(since g was monic)
let me just do one more question about this. How did you figure this out so fast? did you already do something like this? what was your thought process? @rustic crown
haha thanks xD
you threw away the leading term, i threw away the constant term
and it magically worked 
algebra in a nutshell (at least for me)
hehe :p
i think first thing i tried was to come up with an example of this situation
that wasn't so easy
so tried looking at it directly 
(tbh i only looked at Z --> Q, and realized 2/3 * 3/2 = 1, so gave up looking for an example)

Either way, this was very helpful. thank you again @rustic crown :)

Maybe I'm clowning but what if you take G to be countable, take the discrete topology on G (so that G is second countable and locally compact) and some other topology giving another topological group G' (as groups these are the same), such that G' is locally compact and second countable. Then the identity f: G-->G' is an isomorphism of groups and is trivially continuous, but it's not open, otherwise the topology on G' would also be discrete, which is not.
💀
apparently this is not possible? lol
how do you know two distinct topologies on G exist (which are both locally compact and second countable)?
Pick a suitable G lol
like?
what
you edited bruh chill
you proposed a counterexample
.<
what is probably not possible
Second countable regular Hausdorff → metrizable
I'm not writing it again, you can read up
they do, because det apparently understood them
ok
anyway countable topological groups are discrete
so idk why you say youre trying to construct a counterexample
that's not true, (Q,+)
what
(locally compact
)
yes
sure lol
with the adjectives
If there are no isolated points, then BCT gives contradiction
If there is an isolated point, then every point should be isolated
By transitivity
So you end up with discrete
Actually even just locally compact Hausdorff is enough
is morphism the same thing as homomorphism
Group homomorphism is a special case of morphism
In most cases yes.
The word morphism is used in category theory to describe the arrows in your category. So for example the morphisms in the category of groups are the homomorphisms of groups.
You could also have a category where the morphisms are not homomorphisms of course, but the word just comes from abbreviating homomorphism
Morally speaking, yes
thank you everyone 🐬
The only time I can think of this causing some confusion would be if it’s not clear what category you should be working in, like if you said “morphism G->H” to mean a function of underlying sets of groups, but then this is bad writing and you should say “function on underlying sets” or “morphism |G|->|H|” to disambiguate this for example
I guess morphism would also be bad if you ever talk about heteromorphisms but this is such a rarely used notion (I’ve literally never ever seen this even in pretty category theory heavy papers) that this kinda doesn’t matter
Some ppl like to talk about isomorphism A -> B between sets
When bijection is a word
"We like fancy general word, so we gotta use isomorphism instead of bijection"
guys do the binary operators in a morphisme has to be not the same ? or they can be the same ?
What are binary operators in a morphism? 
ok wait maybe im a bad explanator
Binary operators in an algebraic structure?
let ( G, * ) and ( H, ¤ ) be two groups
f : G = > H is a morphism iff f ( x * y) = f(x)¤ f (y) while x,y (- G
my question is does * have to be diff than ¤ or the can be the same binary operator
Ye they can be totally different groups with different operators, it's a homomorphism as long as the condition is satisfied
For instance, the exponential function f(x) = e^x, from the group (R, +) of real numbers under addition to the group (R+, ×) of positive real numbers under multiplication
no i know this
my question is does they have to be diff operators or they can be the same
I'm not sure what you mean by "different operators". The operator is something that belongs to a group, and different groups will have different operators
if f: G-->H
then f(x) is an element of H
if the operation over H is whatever
then it wouldnt make sense to operate on elements of H other than with whatever operation H is equipped with
but like ( C, + ) and ( R, + ) are two diff groups with the same operator ?
They're not the "same" operator
They are indeed related: the operator on R can be obtained d hy restricting the operation on C to the subset R
But they're not the "same"
They can be something like some sort of "addition" to some sort of "multiplication", as here
i didn't understand
why they are not the same
- is called a binary operator right ?
- too
minus i mean
these are the operations
Yeah it's overloaded notation
Addition on complex numbers, addition on real numbers, addition of matrices,
Mfw gotta define + more than four times
Most of the "additions" one learns in high school are very similar in definition,
So we usually ignore the difference
But abstract algebra is the study of different types of algebraic structures
So naturally many operators
+, ×, etc are just notation
Just like x, y, z etc are used as notation for variables
Their meaning depends on context
Symbols like 0, 1 also depend on context in abstract algebra
They don't exist on their own; they exist as elements of groups / rings / fields etc
So their meaning and their properties may change depending on the group / ring etc
there's also no reason to believe that two things with different names have to necessarily be different
if that's the point of confusion
<@&268886789983436800>
really dumb question to jog my memory. For any groups (A,+),(B,&), the group A x B is the set of ordered pairs with domain A and codomain B along with binary operation (+,&), yes? that is, the group operation of the direct product is element-wise using the original operations from the component groups
Yes
cool. that makes life a lot easier
what does a sub group generated by an element mean ?
what do they mean by generated in this context ?
If G is a group and x an element, you can think (slightly informally) as being what you get from x after multiplying it with itself, taking inverses etc and doing all possible operations
a "generator" is kind of like a seed. remember that all groups are closed under their operation, so if you say that element x is in a group, then by closure so is x^2, x^3, etc, as well as inverses
Formally you can define the subgroup generated by any subset S of a group G to be the intersection of all subgroups of G which contains S, or basically the "smallest" subgroup contianing S (since G is a subgroup of G containing S, this intersection is well-defined)
isn't the intersection of all subgroups of G containing S is S ?
since G is also a subgroup of G , and we take the smallest subgroup, then it must be S ?
No
For example every subgroup of Z containing 1 is Z
Because you get 1 + ... + 1 = n etc
i didn't understand
this kinda ryhmes
this doesn't
if you're only intersecting subgroups, shouldn't what you get at the end be a group? can it be a group if you only have S and not the inverse of S, as well as the identity?
or, another way to think about it: every subgroup containing S is a group so it should have the inverse of S as well as a pairing, and all groups need identity, so all subgroups will have that identity
Yea like
Any subgroup of Z should contain 0, so a subgroup generated by S = {1} cannot be S
its an algebraic description justification of why any subgroup containing 1 is Z. If you have some subgroup containing 1, then it contains -1 and 0. It also contains 1+1=2 and -1-1=-2, and 1+1+1 and -1-1-1... so it ends up containing everything
As for the original question, "generating" works exactly the same as it does with vectors. If I gave you a handful of vectors I can ask you what subspace you can make from those. But an equally valid description is to look at any subspace that contains those vectors and then take the intersection of all of them, for groups this ends up the standard definition of "subgroup generated by S"
how can i prove that if R is a UFD then if (f)=(c)(g) where f,g \in R[x], c\in R, g primitive implies (c)=(cont f)
also is this proof that (f) \subset (g) -> (cont f) \subset (cont g) right? we have f=p(x)g -> (cont f)=(cont pg)=(cont p)(cont g) -> (cont f) \subset cont(g)
What's your definition of cont f?
gcd of coefficients
And primitive?
not contained in PR[x] where P is a prime ideal of R
equivalent to saying (cont f)=(1)
Well, f is always divisible by it's content right
So consider if you have a prime factor of cont f, which is it dividing? c or g?
i dont get it
what it boils down to is (c1)(g1)=(c2)(g2) where c1,c2 in R and g1,g2 primitive implies (c1)=(c2)
Yeah, that's one way to phrase it
idk how to prove this lol
If p is prime and divides ab, then it either divides a or b. Yes?
You have a UFD, any element is it's unique factorization into primes
oh wait irreducibles are prime in ufds right
yes, since ab \in (p) -> a \in (p) or b \in (p)
Convince yourself of that fact
ya i proved it earlier
hello chat
Yeah so try to see where (if anywhere) the argument in Z[x] fails to be applicable to an UFD
what is this in regards to
Proving this
Think about the fact that (c1)(g1) = (c2)(g2) is like two different factorisations into irreducibles
Hello chat
Irreducible => prime
yeye
ok i think i got it: let (c1)(g1)=(c2)(g2), suppose p | c1. then (c1) \subset (p) hence (c2g2)=(c2)(g2) \subset (p)(g1) thus (c2g2) \subset (p) -> p | (c2g2) -> p|c2 since p|g2 -> g2 not primitive
by primitive do you mean the ideal generated is primitive ideal
gcd ís a unit
sure, that works. A bit hard to read tho
I thought primitive was just “Durr minimal polynomial”
Or does that coincide with the content being 1
i’m tempted to go back on my tyrade of trying to analyze the ideal structure of R[X] based off R
what were minimal polynomials outside of fields again
Wait nvm duh. They’re monic
i.e Noetherian-ness and Jacobson-ness being inherited from the subring
Oh yeah. Fair point
hey wew
ill interpret that as a no then
do you know of a simple-ish proof of Artin’s Lemma that doesn’t require vector space magic
any set of homomorphism into the units is linearly independent?
or that if F^G is the fixed subfield under finite automorphism subgroup G, that [F : F^G] = |G|
That proof can be done using Chinese Remainder Theorem lol
nvm that was dedekinds lemma, they should really work on their naming schemes
Yeah.
Chinese Remainder Theorem kind of lets you find central orthogonal elements in a quotient and I think it uses that from what i remember
our course definitely didnt use the remainder theorem, just some dense confusing sum vector space magic
Wtf is Fartin’s lemma
this
Ah. I suddenly don’t care at all
Stub your toe. Now
Something something sums of orbits something something invariant irreducible elements something
Then the dimension is nice
Guessing that’s how it goes
artin’s proof uses vector space magic
i know the orbit-polynonial method works to show fixed point subfields are integral but
not really that they’re finite
Oh wait that actually works?! Haha what a guess
Yeah the finitivity has to do with it being a field
but I am unsure how to actually prove it without the vector space magic
Why J二)R
Are you asking why the Jacobson Radical is in the Nilpotent Radical?
Yes
The Nilpotent Radical is the intersection of all prime ideals, while the Jacobson Radical is the intersection of all maximal ideals (which are prime)
did you read the sentence right after that
So the nilpotent radical is a more "specific" intersection,
In their defense the sentence after implies that the Jacobson is an intersection over a larger set
I had no fucking idea what the hell "Why J二)R" meant
i wasnt trying to shame them haha, i was literally asking if they read the explanation given
like whether they were confused by it
or if they just didnt have any idea whatsoever
The explanation given is just wrong, that’s not what the Jacobian is
Or rather, it is, but that’s a stupid way of stating it. Why not just say “all maximal ideals “
It’s confusing ME reading it
i think what they said makes it make sense
you are intersecting over more sets
you should expect a subset
Yes. You’re not reading what I’m saying. I have no problem with their definition of the nilradical
There’s just an unneeded “and prime”
be careful with your "and" usage
what did i say that pointed to the nilpotent radical
the intersection over (prime and maximal) [for the love of god just say maximal] vs . the intersection over prime and maximal
_ _
ah i see the confusion
Why not R contains J..
I wonder if they just lazily sidestepped that maximals are prime lmao
J is the intersection of all maximal ideals
While R is the intersection of all prime ideals
All the maximal ideals are contained in the set of prime ideals
So R is smaller than J
i just realized i was confused about this from the start
so i concur that this is indeed a confusing explanation
Maybe, but I cant imagine who leaves that as an exercise to the reader™️ and also adds "prime" in there
then again I cant imagine anyone doing latter
The fact that if x lies in an ideal, then 1 + x cannot is obvious but at the same time not immediately obvious
what about the ideal (1)??
(1) is always the ring
but it's still an ideal
me casually forgetting the fact that maximal ideals either contain x or some element of the form 1+xy flashback
yeah
but yeah it's a standard use of the closure relation to show that if M is closed under an invertible operation $+$ and its inversion $-$, then $x \in M, y \notin M$ then $x + y \notin M$
nG+
I realized that the set of units is just the ring removing all the maximal ideals way later on than I should've
I used to be very anal about the proof of Hilbert Basis Theorem because I didn't like how the Leading Cofficient map used for the proof wasn't an actual ring morphism
I dont think I ever thought about the former, the closest thing is the variant for a local ring
how do you show that primitive polynomials over R[x] where R is ufd, is irreducible?
this feels very obvious
That's not true
oops
e.g. x^2 - 1 is reducible over Z[x]
What you more need is uh
R a UFD with field of fractions k
then primitive polynomials in R are irreducible over R iff they are irreducible over k
The proof is essentially the same as the case R = Z (and k = Q) where this is called Gauss' lemma
yeah, im using my question as a way to prove this lol
irreducible over R -> over K first step is to suppose f is primitive since otherwise you can factor out the content
but then (f)=(content)(primitive) but im trying to see why this makes f reducible
i think showing (primitive) != (1) suffices? since obviously (content)!=(1)
but then i guess 1 \notin (primitive)?
ughh theres so many lemmas/theorems to keep track of in basic commalg lol
cool fact, should have been taught in high school alg (or maybe it was)
if a polynomial with integer coeffients cant be factored w/ a polynomial with integer coeffieints then it cant be factored with a factor having rational coeffieints
wait i think this is weaker than rational root theorem?
since this requires gcd(coeffieints)=1 while RRT works with gcd(an,a0)=1
?
thats essentiakky what you are trying to show
Convergence on product topology is pointwise convergence
Consider sequences of the form
(a, 1, 1, …)
(1, b, 1, …)
(1, 1, c, …)
…
why should these converge?
*index-wise convergence
@mighty kiln I am not sure where you are getting at. The images of (a,0,0,...),(0,b,0,....) needn't have a limit point either since GL_n(C) (or just C^x) is not compact, if that's what you meant
Pick a neighbourhood U of 1 ∈ GL_n(C) s.t. the only subgroup H in U is 1
Assume the statement is false, and pick such a sequence whose image stays outside U infinitely often
Oh wait ig I assumed countable product
Something similar should work tho
This contradicts continuity since image does not converge
? why should it converge
ah wait sorry, right, it converges to (1,1,1,....)
sry but I don't see why this is true
The image of (1, 1, …, 1, G, 1, …) is a subgroup
yes? but how are you obtaining a convergent sequence from those
So the point is that the preimage of U will look like some finite number of proper open sets and then the entire group for all other indicies
why? You could have some elements of (G,1,....) inside U and some outside U
That's what open sets look like in the product topology
ah, yes
Thanks
so just to make sure, the compactness of the groups is unessential here?
Seems so yeah
memorylessfunctor
Shouldn't it be the other way, like dual of sum is product of the duals
Or I guess both work yeah
why?
i am pretty sure that is not right
the product of duals need not be a discrete group
hence it cannot be the dual of a compact group
to write it more categorically
we can regard the operation of taking pontryagin duals as a contravariant functor F : CAb -> Ab, where CAb = {compact abelian groups}. this follows from the fact that a locally compact abelian group G is compact iff its pontryagin dual is discrete.
what i wrote is then saying
coproduct of F(G_alpha) = F(product of G_alpha)
I don't see any contradiction.
If G_i is compact, then ^G_i is discrete, and Prod G_i is compact and Sum ^G_i is discrete.
At the same time Sum G_i is not compact and Prod ^G_i is not discrete.
The fact that
Hom( Sum G_i, U(1)) = Prod Hom( G_i, U(1))
is just the definition of the coproduct.
And the one you wrote follows from the preceding conversation.
oops sorry
