#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 200 of 1
Then try to think more about what has been suggested above? Can you guess the number of permutations of S_n that fix 1?
Laying this out would simply be writing the solution

Any field element other than 0 is a unit tho
so why f(x)=a0(constant) is reducible here?
I mean f(x)=a0 reducible over field F?
It's most of the time a unit
so you mean because a0 is not unit at a0=0, where 0 is irreducible over F?
Both reducible and irreducible elements are usually about non-units
Irreducible specifically requires the element to not be a unit. Could you post the actual statement?
so if there is no unit element, it is reducible right?
Unit means it is invertible
so invertible means reducible right?
No, not necessarily. Reducible means it is the product of two non-unit
So can I say because it is a unit, so it should be neither reducible nor irreducible?
It seems somewhat weird that both reducible and irreducible require elements to be non-unit?
Oh, reducible doesn't require it
but reducible require product of two non-unit right?
Yeah
If it didn't anything would be reducible
Like, given any element f you can express f as a*a^-1 f with a an unit
Which is stupid
And if ab is a unit, then so is a or just b. So units can't be reducible
In 8 question G/H is isomorphic to Z2?
We map a Matrix to 0 which has positive determinant and a Matrix map to 1 which has negative determinant then kernel will be positive determinant matrix....
You got it yeah
I think it’s more clear or intuitive
When you see that Z/2Z is also {1,-1}
With multiplication
Yes
Okay
what is a nontrivial set of generators of S_A(set of permutations of A) where A is inifinite
Is it possible for {(k,k+1)} to generate S_N, N being natural numbers
i believe that any finite product of these will correspond to a permutation in some S_n for a large enough n but if we introduce a permutation that has like say infinite transpositions then it shouldnt be possible?
Those 2-cycles are enough to generate S_n. Another is <(1,2),(1,2,3,...i)> for all i>1
his question was more about an infinite set being permuted such as A = Z
What is S_N (N = natural numbers) generated by?
Oh I misread, sorry
But about this... permutations of an infinite set (such as N) would have size |N^N| >= |R| so any finite set of generators wouldnt work since you would get a countable free group i think
But yeah this is true {(k, k+1)} doesnt generate by this exact reasoning it cant be a finite product of those
And this fact shows you cant even have countably many generators
Happy to help
I think u can show this since it would be a countable union over k = length of the word and there would only be countably many words of length k
Idk how helpful this is since the set of generators would have same cardinality as |S_N| anyways (it turns out that |S_N| = |R|, not just >=
But you could include everything but (123) and you can get (123) = (12)(23) lol
right
So u could also drop all terms of the form (abc)
Of course !
sorry, what book are you using?
I have 4 groups $\mathbb{Z} \times \mathbb{Z} / <(6,12)>, \mathbb{Z} \times \mathbb{Z} / <(12,17)>, \mathbb{Z} \times \mathbb{Z} / <(1,6)>$ and $\mathbb{Z}$ and I'm trying to find the one, that is not isomorphic to the others by using the first isomorphism theorem (some also call it the fundamental theorem on homomorphisms). So I started by looking for homomorphisms between $\mathbb{Z} \times \mathbb{Z}$ and $\mathbb{Z}$ with respective kernels. I found $\phi(x,y) = 6x -y$ as homomorphism with kernel $<(1,6)>$, but then i got stuck. For a homomorphism with kernel $<(6,12)>$, $2x-y$ doesn't quite work, since it has a larger kernel than the one i want. But i can't seem to find a function that would work. So maybe that group is the odd one out, but for the kernel $<(12,17)>$ I already struggle to find a function, that sends 12 and 17 to 0. Is there an easier way to find those functions, than try and error? And is there a way to see faster, which one is not isomorphic to the others, than finding those homomorphisms?
Marieeee
In each case you have 2 generators as a Z-module, quotiented by a line(for the last one you can see Z as ZxZ /(0,1)).
If you were in the theory of R- vector spaces it would be clear that they are all isomorphics.
But here the question is when can you find another vector to complete the base as a Z module.
So you will find Z if and only if you have no common divisor
So the first one is the différent one
could you maybe explain the geometric approach here in more detail? I never thought of it like that. It seems like a good thing to enhance intuition behind the concepts
Don't rush please 🙂
Yes. I did a Uni class on linear algebra
So here is the real vector case. You have the ambient space in red, and the space you want to quotient by in blue (not at scale but it won't be important for the real case). But here you have an important theorem which state the existence of a supplementary space (in yellow). So in each situation the quotient is clearly isomorphic to the yellow line, so you have in each situation a vector space isomorphic to $\mathbb{R}$.
Critotomatic
oh we have latex typesetting like this, ill redo my question
im starting to study abstract algebra this semester and decided to look at the curriculum and do some exercises (using John B. Fraleigh's A First Course in Abstract Algebra) and i got stuck on this:
Example 1.15 asserts that there is an isomorphism of $U_8$ with $\mathbb{Z}_8$ in which $\zeta = e^{i(\pi/4)} \leftrightarrow 5$ and $\zeta^2 \leftrightarrow 2$. Find the element of $\mathbb{Z}_8$ that corresponds to each of the remaining six elements $\zeta_m$ in $U_8$ for $m = 0, 3, 4, 5, 6, \text{and} 7$
in this example they show that $\zeta^2 = \zeta \cdot \zeta \leftrightarrow 5 +_8 5 = 2$ and so i was wondering if we just continue this to get the six other elements, i.e. $\zeta^3 = \zeta^2 \cdot \zeta \leftrightarrow 2 +_8 5 = 7,, \zeta^4 = \zeta^3 \cdot \zeta \leftrightarrow 7 +_8 5 = 12 - 8 = 4, ...$
Now what happen in your case. Well the main difficulty is to find a supplement to the $\mathbb{Z}$ line generated by a vector $(a,b)$.
But does this supplement always exist ? if for instance $(a,b)=(1,0)$, it is clear that $(0,1)$ will do the job. But in general if you have a supplement generated by the vector $(c,d)$, then each point of $\mathbb{Z}^2$ will have a unique expression as $n(a,b)+m(c,d)$ for $n,m \in \mathbb{Z}^2$.
So you find a necessary condition !
The $2x2$ matrix generated by $(a,b)$ and $(c,d)$ must be invertible as an integer matrix. So it determinant must be invertible in $\mathbb{Z}$. So it must be $1$ or $-1$. So $ac-bd=1(-1)$. So you see that $gcd(a,b)$ must be $1$. And in fact Bezout theorem states the converse assertion.
Yes, that's correct. An isomorphism must preserve the operation, so multiplying by zeta on one side should give the same as adding 5 on the other.
okay, i see, thank you
So in your case you see that for $(12,17)$, $(1,6)$, you can find a supplement (generated by the coeffiecients of the Bezout equality), and so it is isomorphic to $mathbb{Z}$. But for $(6,12)$ you won't be able to find the supplement. So this case is suspect. In fact, as you can find a supplement for $(1,2)$, you will see that this quotient is isomorphic to $\mathbb{Z}\times\mathbb{Z}/6\mathbb{Z}$
Critotomatic
Many many thanks, this helped me a lot!
Your welcome. I struggle with this kind of questions in algébraic topology quit a lot so it is a pleasure to explain it
But the important point to notice is that Z^n quotiented by something isomorphic to Z is not always Z^n-1. You cas find some torsion
Are there some prerequisites on the quotient that still allow us to deduce that Z^n quotiented by something isomorphic to Z is Z^n-1?
i mean like some special cases, when the quotient has specific properties
Homomorphism theorem
Thinking of Z^n as a rank n Z-mldule might be helpful
okay, thanks
It is exactly the same thing in higher dimension
If you take the line generated by (a_1,....a,_n), the quotient will be Z^n-1 if and only if you can complete this vector to form a nxn matrix invertibile as an element of M_n(Z)
So the condition of coprime is still necessary but not sufficient anymore
returning to my example, how is it that we can know that $\zeta = e^{i(\pi/4)} \leftrightarrow 5$ lays the ground for an isomorphism between $U_8$ and $\mathbb{Z}_8$? ($U_n$ are the nth roots of unity, ${z \in \mathbb{C} | z^n = 1}$, and $\mathbb{Z}_n$ is a set (group?) under addition modulo n.)
do you just have to try? for example assume $\zeta \leftrightarrow 5$ then, $\zeta^2 \leftrightarrow 13-8 = 5, \ldots, \zeta^8 = \zeta \leftrightarrow 5$? because this all happens cyclically on a circle?
we are given that the elements of $U_n$ are given by
$$\cos\left(m\frac{2\pi}{n}\right) + i\sin\left(m\frac{2\pi}{n}\right),\quad m = 0, 1, 2, \ldots, n-1$$
in another exercise, i am asked to show why there is no isomorphism between $U_6$ and $\mathbb{Z}_6$ with $\zeta = e^{i(\pi/3)} \leftrightarrow 4$. here i just tried multiplying by zeta on one side and adding 4 to the other, but then i came to $\zeta^4 \leftrightarrow 4$, which means the pattern repeats before it should. is there another way of showing this? zeta is picked seemingly from the formula for the members of $U_n$, since it is what we get if you plug in $n=6$, but it doesnt grant an isomorphism
Slimey
very good, thanks a lot!
the order of those elements is different, isomorphisms preserve the order of elements
"the pattern repeats before it should" is saying that this map has a non-trivial kernel, and is thus not injective
oh okay, so by trying, we find that the relation we are given isnt injective, and therefore not bijective, and therefore cant be an isomorphism?
yeah
is there another simple way of doing it that i am not seeing?
I don't mean to be rude but you can't really get much simpler
you've found a non-identity element that maps to the identity, hence it's not an isomorphism
or just do this, I guess this is easier
the order of which elements do you mean?
there are only two elements involved, 4 and zeta
what do you mean by order?
and this is where I check out
ok well thanks
Don't worry about it since you are on the first chapter and they haven't defined a lot of stuff yet (haven't even defined groups yet!). What you noted is sufficient that the map is not bijective. When you'll do cyclic groups you'll look at order of an element and be able to use this language. For a sneak peek you can look ahead at the first para of the section on cyclic groups (section 6?)
okay, i see, thank you
i havent seen this idea of localization yet
The prime ideals of the localization are exactly those prime ideals that don't meet the multiplicative set. So if your prime ideals doesn't touch Z then you can know it's image is also prime (in Q[X]*)
how come Z-modules <-> abelian groups but Z-algebras <-> groups? an algebra is supposed to be stronger than module right
are you sure it isnt saying Z-algebra <-> ring?
PooP
poop!
Note a Z-algebra is just a ring with a map Z -> R into the centre, but there's always exactly one map Z -> R and it lands in the centre, so there is no difference in data between the two notions
missing a "no"
missingno, if you would dare to be so bold
wow same^
i remember watching creepypasta video from yuriofwind?
was that the guy?
You remember the names of creepypasta YouTubers?
This is funny. Reading a paper where they study certainn operations - the basic ones are "suspensions" so the author calls them "pensions" which i thought was funny
BEN DROWNED
But now post pandemic, does that mean suspensions are sus pensions?
Damn, I am disappointed Mr Erdapfel
Herdöpfel
lol?
I am stuck on an algebra problem which I think just boils down to like a matrix bash

that's all of them
I do now
Polynomil?
wait yeah is that typo
lol
I can never be sure when u mfs are pulling shit like this
anyway, never heard of them. Assuming it sends X to a coproduct of some F(X)^n
like a polynomial
damn nevermind the actual definition is so stupid I would never have guessed
I think there are various different definitions, some of which are inequivalent
no it isn't. You morons. Pick a better name
hahahah I was close
ok nevermind the definition makes sense now
say $F: \mathcal C \to \mathrm{Mod}R$ a functor, $\mathcal C$ symmetric-monoidal, and then we have all these various maps $F(X_1 \otimes \dots \otimes X_n) \to \bigoplus{k=1}^{n} F( X_1 \otimes \dots \otimes \widehat{X_k} \otimes \dots \otimes X_n)$, Call its kernel $\mathrm{cr}_n(X_1,\dots,X_n)$, which defines a functor $\mathrm{cr}_n:\mathcal C^{\times n} \to \mathrm{Mod}_R$
Huh
I can see why they chose it now, it's to take fibres for some "exponential object" which replaces x^n in normal polynomials
hold on lemme absorb
"oh we know about the functor given that we know what it looks like on fewer objects"
potato
Exponential object, that sounds quite screwy
what's X_k hat here? is it like an evaluation?
omit it
Hom(X, Y)
oh ok. Kummer theorem
So basically it's like
Yes.. ah wait. Sometimes that is in the category, huh
sometimes!
if cr_n vanishes then we know what happens when we put in an n-fold tensor product, given that we know what it looks like on (n-1)-fold tensor product
which is sort of meant to be analogous to being polynomial of degree < n
oh
like polynomials being determined by a few points
But also like, the nth tensor power is polynomial of degree n
potato can you see how this is related to our discussion of coskeletal simplical sets from yesterday lol
Not explicitly but in terms of vibes yes
reminds me of the bar resolution kinda
like you can reconstruct smth given partial info
True yes actually very good observation hm
Yea that looks like derivation map (that's all I know)
I wonder if there is a way in which yes this is just a simplicial thing
which makes sense considering I bet you're doing cohomology with this 
you're doing a coproduct of a bunch of (n-1)-simplices
Yeah derived functors
let me cook one sec
it's like the bar resolution but you're not just A^\otimes n-ing it
if all of the terms are equal and you ignore the F then it just is
anyway we're getting side tracked I think
Maybe one can draw Simplex-shaped diagram for this
still don't know what these are btw. Don't really care either
anyway I get this definition now
kind of. I still think the nlab one is more intuitive to me
like I'm still not 100% seeing how you'd call this "polynomial", but I definitely can with the nlab one
OH
It's that like
right yeah 
The source I was reading views Mod_R as a symmetric monoidal category and doesn't use the normal direct sum notation
But it's symmetric monoidal under direct sums lol
But it makes way more sense now
Lol
And so then the point is like
if F is an additive functor then it is polynomial of degree 1
Lol
Okay this makes way more sense lol
the point is that you're doing a bunch of sums in lower variables and then combining them together using the monodial product in C? nvm whoops
or is the direct sum on the outside an honest to god coproduct
Oh wait no I'm okay so
Okay lol
So the direct sum is a direct sum yes a coproduct
And the tensor is fine
But the example to have in mind is C = Mod_R with (x) given by direct sum
lol
Oopsies
ok I should also clarify, F is the polynomial functor here - not it's kernel?
Sorry yes I've written it badly - F is the functor, cr_n is the "nth cross effect", and F is said to be poly of degree <= n if the n+1st cross effect vanishes
(in which case all the higher cross effects vanish too)
Hmmmm
I'm not on enough crack for this shit
Too much abstract nonsense?
So for $F = (-)^{\otimes N}:\mathrm{Mod}_R \to \mathrm{Mod}R$, $F$ being poly of degree $\le n$ i.e. F(X_1 \oplus \dots \oplus X_n) \to \bigoplus{i=1}^{n} F(X_1 \oplus \dots \widehat{X_i} \oplus \dots \oplus X_n)$ being injective for $n > N$ corresponds to the fact that the sum $(x_1 + \dots + x_n)^N$ is determined by the lower powers of sums of $x_i$
right, that makes sense - and what I think I was aluding to up here
I just... wouldn't call that "Polynomial"?
it's a skill issue on my part
Ah wait, so coproduct of X_i's, not tensor product?
the tensor product was just a symmetric monoidal product in C
uhhh
potato
Compile Error! Click the
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yh
and for R-mod you get TWO!!! woahhhhh
Huh???
what is this even for 😭
wait hmm
Polynomials where
can we just do n = 1 lol?
right yes that's additive ok I see that at least
I think what's confusing me is this looks like an element of R[x_1, ..., x_n] but it also has to be degree n?
I'm sticking with this one omegalul. Concrete categories only for me
How do you determine (x1 + x2)^3 by the lower powers of sums
Basically if you're interested in derived functors of non-additive functors then like
Polynomial functors are the easiest next case lol
It's the other way round, it's like
(x_1 + x_2 + x_3)^2 from (x_1 + x_2)^2 etc
Ah other way round
I think ill stick to homological algebra then
this is homological algebra
This was not clear for me, hm
tbf this is homological algebra lol
(see get-advanced-access to use this channel) topics that you'd learn in a first introduction to abstract algebra, pertaining to groups, rings, modules, and fields.
i thought non-additive functors have to do with additive cats
When you want derived functors for non-additive functors 
Okay, doesnt preserve biproducts
wait. @south patrol is geometric realisation a polynomial functor
e.g. symmetric powers
scary
Idk how
is this summary right? modules are abelian groups which are like vector spaces over a ring and algebras are rings such that the r-operation is compatible with the ring multiplication
symmetric polynomial decomp is magic
wdym by r-operation
the map R -> End_R(A) ig
yeah
Sure
it gives a map R x A -> A
Symmetric poly where
Mmm delicious curry
x_1+x_2 dear
But that is missing x3
*foghorn BWAAAAAAUUUUUUH*
is there some word for "in between" objects. like a ring with R-module structure, but where the 2 multiplications arent compatible so it isnt an algebra
make one lol
nobody cares about such an object ngl
true!
at that point just make the category of such objects and use general notions lol
Idk I gotta consider it as dimension computation on vectorspace
I'm pretty sure Absta like
so
(x_1 + x_2 + x_3)^2 can be written as like
(x_1 + x_2)^2 + ... + (x_1 + x_3)^2
minus like
SLBY category (silly billy algebras)
x_1^2 + x_2^2 + x_3^2 or whatever
Wait
So yeah i think this is just theory of symmetric polys as you say
so why aren't they called SYMMETRI- ohhhhh it's a symmetric monodial product
ohhhhhhhhh
Symmetric polynomials in N variables of degree n is generated by nCr(n + N - 1, n) i think
Sleepy
burrrppppp
as a vector space
WHAT
aren't those the integer valued ones
I don't even know what that notation means
Why is it be called polynomial functor 
ig you can plug in 0
I would say binomial coefficient but many see the combinatoric form N choose n
oh you mean the dimension
Is it cardinality be polynomial
i don’t want to latex, mobile lol
sum of exponential objects
Oh
rename this channel to #the-hot-box with all this :pack:
How
That be funni way to polynomial
I have never heard of a polynomic functor and I am scared
I mean, how is this legal in this setup
goofy
i don't think they're like too common
but i could be wrong
I only know about it cause smth i was doing very explicitly used a polynomial functor
flashback to the time I tried to formally prove R[X] for com ring R is a graded ring
unfun
working with the universal property
category theory was 2 weeks old when this was published
why the fuck are they taking a semidirect product of a group H and a F[G]-module. How are they even doing this
functor algebra AAAAAAA
lol
who's they
bobby
unrelated quip
what even is the definition of graded youd use in such a scenario
Idk, polynomials fit more into #prealg-and-algebra
LOL
ok I'm just going to assume they're passing the map given by H -> Aut(G) (presuming it's that way around) to a permutation of the basis of F[G]? this is cringe
Well just give X grading 1 innit
he should have explained this
I had an intuition why when the kernel vanishes, it would be called degree n poly, but then I forgot
polynomials are only 0 at n points? uhhh
I am not sure how to picture that if your description of R[X] is given by an universal property
that’s the “fun” part
Mainly came down to proving R[X]/(X) is iso to R, and doing some module maps and using the fact that (X) and powers of it are principal
ok no now it's just bullshit. The generalised fitting subgroup of G is a module over the group algebra? This is stupid
literally doesn't even type check anymore
Hm
Mainly just extending the identity morphism of R and sending X to 0 to get a morphism from R[X] to R
What are you guys reading
asserting uniqueness, showing (X) is in the kernel of that morphism
and then doing some other uniqueness arguments to show that the kernel must be in (X)
i.e they’re equal
there’s probably a way easier way but that was the way I thought of doing it in the moment
That uses the fact that Ker(a) lies in Ker(b o a) for any ring morphisms
this just came to my head first because of it being used in some salamander lemma proof i tried
Lol consider canonical map $R[x] \to R$ using universal property as you said, let $I$ be the kernel and say that $f$ is of degree $n$ if $n$ is maximal with $f \in I^n$
potato
then you need to check that that gives you a nice decomposition i guess
Like the sum should easily be direct but then you need to check it actually sums up to R[x]
i think
i just used powers of the ideal (X) being (X^n) and just considering (X^n)/(X^n+1) as a module
And using the quotients to decompose
canonical maps are unique maps, right?
i always get that term mixed up
No, there is significantly more than one map R[x] → R; canonical essentially means 'without making arbitrary choices' — potat probably meant the (this time unique) map sending x to 0.
In fact this is most certainly what they meant
Wish I could do
R[x] -> R x Z
r |-> (r, 0)
x |-> (0, 1)
that’s what I meant by it being the unique extension (valuation)
that sends X to a given value in the codomain
Nvm, this does not even make sense 
which is unique by the universal property
I am wondering what a nice definition of the universal property of poly ring would be. A ring A together with a set-inclusion {X_i} -> A, and a ring inclusion \iota sending R into A so that for any map f: R -> S one has an unique map g : A -> S so that the following two conditions hold?
- g \circ \iota = f
- the image of the X_i in A get send to select elements s_i in S
Let R be a commutative ring (with unity)
For any ring morphism R into P, and any element x of P, there is a unique morphism extending it from R[X] into P that sends X to x
is the def I am using
though I think you need to restrict P to be commutative with unity, or at least have R in it’s center (an Algebra) if you’re considering it for rings
that uniqueness of the morphism is what I used the most
R[x] is a representing object of the functor A --> Cring(R,A) x U(A)
Where U: CRing --> Set is the forgetful functor
What is A
A is a (commutative) ring
uniquely the identity and setting X to 0, we have an epimorphism from R[X] to R, and an endomorphism, t, on R[X] by using the embedding.
Now consider the projection, p, from R[X] onto R[X]/(X). This sends X to 0, and uniquely extends a map from R to R[X]/(X). It is the unique morphism to do so.
However t fixes the embedding of R into R[X], so composing the projection of R[X] onto R[X]/(X) over the endomorphism t ALSO extends the above-mentioned map and sends X to 0. Thus: p o t = p
Ker(t) must lie in Ker(p o t) = Ker(p) = (X). But because X is in Ker(t), then (X) must lie in Ker(t). This means (X) = Ker(t), and by First Isomorphism Theorem, R[X]/(X) is iso to R
what remains is that the ideals (X)^n/(X)^n+1 in R[X]/(X)^n+1 are isomorphic as modules to R. This map is actually similar to the definition of the Zariski cotangent space
you have to show that X is not a zero divisor
this is an absolutely rediculous way of doing things lmao
this seems to simple to be correct: the image of phi is a submodule and hence either 0 or N
and then phi is injective since the kernel is either 0 or M
this proof is much longer though https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Schur's_lemma
In mathematics, Schur's lemma is an elementary but extremely useful statement in representation theory of groups and algebras. In the group case it says that if M and N are two finite-dimensional irreducible representations
of a group G and φ is a linear map from M to N that commutes with the action of the group, then either φ is invertible, o...
You're correct
The module theoretic proof on Wikipedia just looks longer because they prove that the image and kernel are submodules
any hints
Schur's lemma
but here only 1 module is simple
recall the definition of an endomorphism
it is trippy that integral domains are isomorphic to principal ideals of themsleves (as modules wrt the ID)
chat what does this mean
(if the ideal is (x), x!=0, you have the obvious map r->rx which is surjective by principal ideal defn and ker=0 since integral domain)
R integral domain. I is a princiapl ideal. R = I as R-modules
so every ring is the 0 module over itself?
right you said not zero
I still don't buy this, lol. Z and Z/2Z are equal as Z-modules?
right but they're the things ok
mb nonzero yeah
no it's fine, you made sure to include it lol
what
but I just can't bring myself to believe it
do you mean Z and 2Z
I did, yeah
trying to understand what’s going on lol
every integral domain is isomorphic to it's non-zero ideals as R-modules
Huh
my intuition for this kind of stuff is pretty bad
i keep imagining vector spaces which is 50/50
can't you take like
no no no this can't be true. pick a principle deal I, then R/I = R/R = 0
Z/2Z isn't 0
Z^2 and then Z x {0}
integral domains only
true its {0, 1} smh mr phd man
but Z \cong 2Z
I don't work with infinite objects for reasons like this. They're fucking stupid
oh yeah you can quotient out by something isomorphic and not get 0? moronic
Not PID
this is true for the ring of integers of a number field
Funny
wtf
There is non-bijective injection 2Z -> Z 👀
the embedding, yeah
@delicate orchid so you can't take Z as an example
wait no this isnt true
theyre just finitely generated
but in the case of K = Q
theyre isomorphic to Z^order
Z[x_1, x_2] and (x_1) \cong Z can't be the same because the former is free of rank 2 and the latter is free of rank 1
Z is an integral domian
no, that's as algebras you idiot. Think
so if K = Q and O_K = Z then all nonzero ideals in O_K = Z are isomorphic to Z
What’s going on
isomorphic in the Z-module sense?
they'd be Z-modules then yeah
.
do I need something awful? Non-noetherian?
For what Wew?
yes :)
Ike
this says as a module over the integral domain
Like
I don't buy it
If x is any regular element (has no zero divisors)
The map R -> (x) given by multiplying by x
Is an isomorphism
yes this is the proof given before
i said this
And R-linear
I don't buy it. It doesn't sit right with me
Bruh
^ hence trippy
how is this surprising
Lmao
imagine someone walked up to you and said every group was isomorphic to each of it's normal subgroups in some sense. I'd look at them like they were a martian
and if someone walked up to me and said Grp behaves the same as RMod
I guess this is a quick proof that a finite integral domain is a field
id look at them like they were a martian
Well I mean, R-module isomorphism is quite lenient
integral domains are cancellative lol. So if y is in (x), there must be a unique c such that cx = y. The isomorphism is the map that sends y to that c or vice versa I guess
well, its still an isomorphism of abelian groups
but yah
ok I buy this for Z. So I buy it for particular principle ideals via Z being inital lol
the theorem is for principal ideals of integral domains
so some ideals of IDs and all ideals of PID
R-Mod is a category, maybe R is initial in this category?
oh then it makes complete sense due to cancellativity
yea thats the proof i gave
the trivial module is the zero object, so no
it is also final i believe
I said zero, that implies both inital and terminal
Also wew since when were you mod
abelian category moment
Ah ye
shits nicer since u dont need 1->1
@delicate orchid how do you think of algebras over a ring
whats ur intuition/visual picture
quotient of a polynomial algebra
specifically, a set of symbols with relations on them
whats a polynomial algebra
Tensor algebra? Yah queen 💅
people can come at u with that "durr ring with a map R -> End(A)" but like, who? ykwim
R[x_1, ..., x_n]
oh i just say polynomial ring
well yeah but we're viewing it as an algebra
by setting certain relation-defined ideals to 0 by setting minimal polynomials of these ideals to 0 if your ring is neotherian
If it’s not noetherian then dive in a woodchipper or something
are all submodules of it ideals?
ok also, that's commutative algebras
but I do view algebras usually as quotients of the appropriate free algebra
I know modules have a tensor algebra
that’s the adjoint of the forgetful from R-alg to R-mod
monad algebra
the fuck is a monad
monoid in the category of endofunctors
Huh
construct the tensor algebra but with a general symmetric monoidal product instead of the tensor product
Ahh
what
a monad algebra is actually different, sorry
too many words that don't mean anything
Yea idk where the endofunctor would be appearing here
How can U(1) be an Isometry group for a Riemannian manifold?
circle :3
but an isometry group has to be generated by some Killing vector right?
U(1) seems like it has to be generated by a scalar infinitesimal transformation
is your manifold rotationally symmetric in any sense
U(1) is a rotation in the complex scalar plane, and riemannian geometry is real, so good point about that as well
hm is there
spin it round
okay sure lol
oh yeah
I wasn't sure if there was any particular one you had in mind
No dw i didn't think about that lol
I was more just unsure if yeah there was one canonical one
nah, just some plane
Like on C^n there is one obvious action of U(1)
like a record baby
yurrrr
But sure yes on R^n there are tons of natural ones
ye
Choose an embedding of C in R^n and then let U(1) act on that

Overcomplicated
Natural ones?
I silly
"pick a plane"
Ye lol
plane in the ass
WHAST
This is funny
turns out i like misundrstood a paper
and looked at it again like 6 months later and understand it fine now

true
wasted time first reading it
me with first year ug group theory
fire
It was one of those cass where like
Idk if this is common
but you can't tell where in the paper they actually state the main result lol
imagine taking group theory smh my head

Huh, isn't that bad writing?
my problem with papers is that my adhd is so debilitating I literally cannot read them all at once
or even an entire result
or even a proof
may I suggest cocaine?
wdym?
all at once?
like without either needing to swtich between two different papers or just getting distracted
I guess it could be some kind of gravitational wave that is invariant under rotations in the complex plane. e^{\i \theta} g_{ \mu \nu} is kinda like a local version of conformal invariance...
oh you're a physicist
gravitational wave? why not a perfectly fine generic wave unless lorentzian geometry is important here
oh, U(1) was an isometry group
I guess medication isnt an option here?
so the lie derivative of the metric along tangent vectors of the orbits needs to be 0
the orbits being circles in the complex plane... which only intersects with riemannian manifolds
I was medicated. Gave me psychosis
Plazzi
anyway
Ngl you should probably move to #diff-geo-diff-top if you want more help x17
Probably better people there to help
the inner automorphism group can be abelian and G not be
Inn(D_8) = C_2 x C_2
Sorry to hear that
it's ok, it probably wasn't the cause but it's known to trigger it early in people predisposed to it
use the fact that you can write any element g in G as hx^t for some fixed x in G, t in Z, h in Z(G)
Thanks
t in Z?
an integer
sorry, x isn't in Z(G). I wrote that wrong
just some fixed x in G
with h in Z(G)
let me amend
Plazzi
But what are a and x
oh yeah that notation you wrote is complete nonsense to be blunt
It seems your notation has confused you
x is fixed and a is any element of G
Like there are you are writing that G is cyclic
write $c_a$ for the map $x \mapsto axa^{-1}$
W;3w Lads Tbh
then Inn(G) is the group of all c_a
But I don't see how that follows from anything you've done thus far
Like you say Inn(G) is cyclic and then say G = <axa^-1>
How did you go from one to the other
I'm not sure what you mean by this
Like did you just pick any two random x and a in G
Okay, how does that tell you G = <axa^-1> i'm confused
It doesn't im just dumb
Inn G is the Set of all inner automorphism
And i didn't read set
it is also a group
same!
so far from the problem here
stay strong king
S_6 is the weird symmetry group with a nontrivial outer automorphism group right
step one: show that for any g in G, we can write g as hx^t for some h in Z(G) and a fixed x in G
indeed
what about it
i never understood that
it's a really weird coincidence that just happens due to some obscure group action
i’ve read before it relates with like, SL(2,Z) having abelianization Z/12Z
which is also uber specific
I already read the solution of the book and it's quite similiar to your hint. I Just thought maybe im right too
and the numerical relationships required for it to happen again just don't occour for larger values
Oh yeah wew did you see this fnny thing like
this one is strange but I'm more comfortable with it now
If G is non-abelian, is Aut(G) non-abelian
how so?
so Im currently checking out fields, and im confused as to what exactly polynomials over fields (or rings in general) means in theory... for example polynomials of degree 2 over a field GF(3) (i.e finite field with 3 elements); I dont understand how one would visually imagine that, or just the idea behind it
it’s hard to visually imagine it
I cannot think of a single example where it isn't
Yeah so uh
But no examples known until like 1975
lemme think more
so bizarre
Does Aut(G) contain an isomorphic copy of G?
no
no e.g. bcause of what I just said
Aut(C_2 x C_2) = S_3
hmm i see, also as variables for these polynomials we can only use elements of the field right?
But i was wrong 😦
Wow so G can be non-abelian and Aut(G) abelian?? Crazy
What are you tryung to visually imagine?
can you link this source/paper potato
idk im just trying to wrapp my head around the idea of having polynomials over rings
Bear in mind too that polynomials aren't functions, or at least not in the way you might want
But that is freeing in the sense
polynomials themselves aren’t functions yeah, but they do have valutions which are
they're just normal polynomials but instead of numbers infront of the x you have an element of the ring
and those valuations are morphisms
that you can just view them as formal expressions like a_0 + a_1 x + ...
you two are going too high level here
Oh lol
but yes, they're just formal expressions like that
I thought mine might help in that it is quite fundamental to what they are
The silly?
this already helped guys, thanks (:
some textbook authors define them as sequences
sequences doesn't help build off of the already established intuition for polynomial multiplication though
treating them as polynomials leverages the intution behind polynomial multiplication you have though
yeah
What
polynomial multiplication mentioned
polynomial multiplication is just Day convolution of the multiplication on the field
the worst part is... it is...
no its the best part
nuh uh
well ig power series
that’s how fast fourier transform is used to make low complexity multiplication algorithms
Lol
yes
snoorrrreeeeeee
SNOOOORREEEEE
notice how they don't put the constant
suspicious that
it is interesting that this is at all possible though
WHAT
he made a video on convolutions
do you think he used the O(n log n) integer multiplication alg to animate it
Is there a set's worth of groups of a fixed (infinite) cardinality?
No
But up to isomorphism yes
There's even a set's worth of magmas of a given cardinality up to isomorphism wowee
Why then can we speak of Ext(G,A) for a G-module A, the set of equivalence classes of extensions of G by A that induce the given G-action on A, and its isomorphism to H2(G,A)? Just use instead of an extension its isomorphism class?
because there are a sets worth of equivalence classes
Why.
Dude you can just get the set of all operations on the structure
The group is on the underlying set which is the product of G with A
So there are no set theoretic issues if you view it that way
Yes, all extensions have cardinality GxA.
Yes and up to equivalence all of the sets are equivalent to G x A with some exotic multiplication
Like choose your set G. Then the set of all functions G x G → G is a set. Then just require these to have the group laws. Boom, you've got a set of all possible groups with set G, which must in particular have all equivalence classes represented.
What you're saying conradicts what nG+ said.
No it doesn't come on
As she said right here, up to isomorphism there is!
All group extensions ahve cardinality GxA, fix it, then boom.
That's because I'm not getting all group extensions. I'm getting all CLASSES!
The point is that up to equivalence it doesn’t matter which set of size G x A you pick, so you might as well just take that set itself. Then you get a description in terms of cocycles which you are referring to with the cohomology stuff
Ok, but is an equivalence class itself the size of a set?
It depends on how you define it
If you define it as a bunch of maps m: (G \times A)^2 \to G \times A with some properties then yes obviously
It's just as good to choose a representative
See, I don't get this: you're basically partitioning the "set" of all extensions (which you're saying is not a set) into equivalence classes and somehow it's fine to then consider the set of equivalence classes (the partitions), but not the original "set" itself that they partition.
The barrier is precisely the fact that we can't fit all sets into a set. For example it is impossible to put every group of cardinality 1 into a set, because that would require us to have a set of all singleton sets. Does that make the problem clear? This has nothing to do with groups.
That’s totally fine to do!
For instance
There is a proper class of finite sets
But I am fine to say that there are countably many equivalence classes with bijection as an equivalence relation
That's a good example, I suppose. I know it's about sets, not groups, that's precisely what I'm struggling with
Why
?!
Why does this reduction process yield a set's worth of stuff.
Because by definition a finite set is in bijection with {1,…,n} for some n which may be 0
And there are only countably many of those
That's fine in the finite case, but how would you do the infinite case?
(that's what I was really thinking about here)
Are you asking for some like, non-set-theoretic way of seeing that there is a set's worth of equivalence classes? I wouldn't hold your breath lmao
Like you just have to come up with a construction
I described one way to do this above
I mean it’s a tautology that for any cardinal there is a unique set with that cardinality up to bijection
Man, I hate set theory.
Is there even a point to it? It feels like it's a "turtles all the way down" subject that is not grounded on anything whatsoever.
I don’t think it’s very important until it suddenly is
are you gonna ask for a foundation that doesn't rely on anything?
it’s definitely not a thing that an undergraduate has to worry about
unless they find it interesting
In the end good mathematics should really be foundations agnostic, and dealing with set theory is just some kind of chore that you occasionally have to do in very niche circumstances
There is always type theory, or category theory for you 
le undergraduate category theorist
Man, I wish I had that meme chart saved, can't find it now.
Why do people keep calling category theory a foundation for mathematics in the same sense of set or type theory? Makes no sense to me.
A complaint to the void
— if you respond seriously I will kill an innocent person on the street
You will be held responsible
Legally
Or I'll just be real mad who knows
But do you also hate category theory
No, because categorical problems don't come up (in anything I've read, at least).
there are not categorical problems, only categorical solutions
Oh never mind, I do have it, thankfully.
because they hear that type theory and set theory are foundations and pattern match the word "theory" + the idea that it's a higher abstraction of some sort
@dim widget on the subject of set theory, one thing I've always idly wondered about is what a class is (e.g. the class of objects of a category). I assume it can't just be semantic wordplay (not calling a set a set), so how does it work?
categorical considerations
I dunno
I probably read the definition at some point but I forgot it
We are doomed.
i know a class as like
it’s something you put in papers when you talk about certain objects so people know you went to school
is there any other classical derived functors besides like hom’s Ext and tensor’s Tor
dont ask me about a rigorous definition tho
I did hear that in set theory.. you have issues like
Some sets that you want to define is too large
theres like sheaf cohomology i think
So that it is no longer a 'set'.
i mean just over simple abelian categories
ah dunno
So you give it another name and call it 'class' 💀
Yeah I've heard of stuff like this, but how does it work? Just say "uh ackshually this is a class and it has all the properties a set can't have, suck it haters"?
I dunno tbh, maybe blame Cantor?
I won't, poor guy had it bad enough (institutionalised). I'll blame Hilbert instead, the hack.
over arbitrary abelian categories this is all that is guaranteed to exist. Even Tor doesn’t necessarily make sense a priori, unless you just mean the derived functor of the coproduct
"No one shall eject us from the paradise Cantor has built for us"
IIRC Russell developed the concept of type theory, but we still do not use it regularly
I looked it up and in ZF there actually is no definition Lmao
choice doesnt help
Type theory is actively researched in many ways, just like set theory is, but it is not as popular a foundation of mathematics as set theory is amongst mathematicians in general. In an interestingly contrarian twist, it is very popularly used in proof synthesis and verification software.
Yea. Hmm, contrarian twist..
Do you have an opinion about why it is not so popular?
Yes, I think it's because (1) set theory was around and used for decades before type theory, and (2) type theories can provide some barriers to doing certain things which can feel relatively constraining for people used to set theory.
I see, I agree. Maybe type theory is formalized too late
At least in first order logic, a class is any collection defined by an unbounded comprehension.
So all sets with such and such property, is a class. From that perspective, there's no difference between a class and a property.
my comprehension is disgustingly bounded
I think it's basically like {x such that P(x)} where P is some property. The point is that this needn't be a set, therefore it is not subject to the axioms of sets (specially, the epsilon relation). So given a class C it does not make sense to ask if C belongs to some other class, so you avoid contradictions. But I think it is fine for a given set x to ask if x in C or not
and in particular, when you quantify in ZFC you are quantifying over sets, not proper classes
Imo while it has limitations, type theory is great in that it makes you to be more explicit. Weird identifications have been quite hard for me.
i mean for like the general common abelian categories, like arbitrary-R-modules, are there other classical derived functors besides the Hom-Ext and Tensor-Tor examples
those are the two I usually hear about
there are other ones that may or may not exist depending on what R is
but if you just know you have an abelian category those are all you get essentially
Is there any examples
completion at an ideal of R can have an associated derived functor
Similarly there is the related completed tensor product operation
Don’t even talk about derived completion
I don’t dare venture into that part of the stacks project
@unkempt stream actually forget what I said non exact completions don’t exist
Isn’t it not always even the same as deriving the completion functor???
this is also true
torture
moronic
what's the point HUH
we doing cohomology with completions HUH??? craaazzyyy talk
You will satisfy the Mittag Leffler condition and LIKE IT
categorical violence
But if the ideal is finitely generated then it does all work out nicely
I am haunted by visions of a manor in a park
there's someone in the window. They look sad
So, jagr described one as a first order definable “collection” of all sets which satisfy so and so property, but here’s a better one
Suppose you have a model of set theory
M, we call it
A class X is a subset of M

The particular case jagr refers to is a definable class, I.e. x in X iff phi(x)
Note: this “subset” is not necessarily an element of M (or identifiable with one), and in fact probably isn’t
Our M exists in some metatheory because there’s 0 harm really assuming we have one
So it’s like taking a subset of a group/its underlying set
Anyhow, obviously you can’t quantify over classes because they’re not even points in M
But you can still manipulate em if they’re definable (or similar) because you have properties “visible” to the inside
I think this is kinda impossible, at least if you ask for arbitrarily large things wrt set theory, since involving very large cardinals dooms your ability to get by without any foundations relevance
cf Whitehead’s problem
Since
Combinatorics of large cardinals -> the foundations controlling them is involved
Especially since ZFC kinda doesn’t control them much as is
oh i mean i agree lol
It’s not that distinct from type theoretic things since ya know, syntax <-> semantics^op-ish stuff
Oh no, now you are legally responsible
I don’t know in what way it’s impossible… I agree that logically speaking we need some theory of foundations I just don’t think that the mathematics that interests me depends on which system we pick
The ones that interest you maybe, but things like Whitehead’s problem really shouldn’t be surprising that they pop up
But idk what stuff you do so 
*for those in the audience, whitehead’s was something like Ext^1(X, Z) = 0 implies X free abelian iirc?
yeah I don’t think one should be surprised because there are formal arguments that will show you that there absolutely must be such statements in any consistent axiomatic system and some of them may asked by normal mathematicians
Yep
The particularly egregious ones in ZFC being combinatorics of cardinals, because those are like always independent
Namely because they all imply large cardinals or one of the forcing axioms or smth 
How do I prove an equivalence relation partion the set into disjoint classes?
Well you first need to show the whole thing is a union of equivalence classes
Then show two equivalence classes are the same iff they their intersection is nonempty (equivanelty, if they have an element in common, they are the same!)
There we go
suppose R is a equivalnce relation, then equivalence class of x is [x]={y: y related to x}
I suppose this is an equivalence class
Yes thats the definition
Should I start with a set?
What
like finite or something ? how do I go by showing union is the set?
You need to show that each element x in the set is in some equivalence class
any element x is clearly in [x]
Exactly
sort of the same way we proved coset properties ?
Yeah exactly
In fact you can derive a lot of the coset properties from properties about equivlance relations
Like aH = bH iff they have an element in common i.e. ah_1 = bh_2 equivalently b^{-1}a is in H
Youve already done that
Each class is contained in X and X is contained in the union of the classes
So now you just need to show they are "disjoint" by showing that if they have nontrivial intersection they are equal
U can do it directly
hint please?
Suppose that [x] cap [y] is nonempty, and let z be in [x] cap [y]. Then z is related to x and z is related to y so...
Think about what condition would show that [x] = [y]
both should be subsets to each other
What would show that [x] is a subset of [y]?
pick any x, show x is realted to y aswell
I’m guessing, one way we can show [x] is subset of [y] and by symmetric property the other way
Yeah
But how do you do this?
since there is an AND
any z, is in both the sets?
or say intersection is always the subset
Ill give you a hint
sure
Since z is in the intersection y is related to z and z is related to x
can I use transitivity?
Ur welcome
Haha thank you, you too !
If I have a group for example: Z/3Z, Z/4Z, Z/5Z etc...
Is there a fairly simple and understandable method to determine the subgroups of each?
these are nice because cyclic groups are the simplest
which ?
the subgroups of <g> are the <g^k>
For example for Z/4Z what would g and k be?
g = 1 in Z/nZ for example
writing this additively, it's the <k>
i.e. the multiples of k
when k is coprime to n, it still generates all of Z/nZ by Bezout's identity
otherwise it doesn't
wait, I don't really understand examples like that, but there is something simpler that I understand
If d is is a divisor of n, then Z/dZ is a subgroup of Z/ nZ
for me that it's simple
well, rather, it's isomorphic to a subgroup
n/d (Z/nZ) is a subgroup of Z/nZ
so this sentence is not correct?
how do you inject Z/dZ into Z/nZ
To claim it's a subgroup
I don't know
then it's a bold claim to say something is a subgroup when you can't even argue it's a subset
that's why I'm saying in this case, you send them to multiples of n/d
they're all distinct until d (n/d) = n = 0, so it's a cyclic group of order d
Hence it's isomorphic to Z/dZ
hence you use the fact d | n to inject it
are these cyclic groups ?
Z/nZ is a cyclic group of order n, yes.
the diff between these two are that one is an order of the whole group and the other is the order of just an element from a group
but what does an order of a group means ?
Your first screenshot just defined that
so the number of elements in the set G
Your second screenshot defined that
I am confused by this question. You show us the definition, and then ask what the definition is. If you have some more specific confusions about the definitions, you should try to make them clear when asking.
i'm sorry, but i just want to know if it has a relation with the total , partial order relations
No.

