#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 198 of 1
Isn’t it sufficient to just say the order of 5 is 12
yes
So obv <5> has 12 elements
but what i was worried about is you were blindly doing this
I’m not I know the proof of that
n = 12
Yuh
why
ok yes thats one way
but
See that’s what confuse me
using this fact
I was confused by the multiply notation
I forgot it was really adding
use additive notation
Ok
how can we use this to write 1 in terms of 2 and 3
look at this
5, 5+5, 5+5+5, ...
5,10,3
That’s what it signaling here right
Ik
yh ok
8 + 5
13
I hit a repeat
9+5
= 14
its ite bro, arithmetic sucks 
Ok
so uve written
0
3-2
no
Wdym write it in terms of 3 n 2
using the work uve done b4
1 = ? * 5
5
(1.3+1.2).5
Ok
do you see how this generalises
Lemme see
ive had you show that once youve found a generator, then what
<a,b>, 1=(a+b)a+(a+b)b?
(this, by the way is unrelated to the original problem, but is an important intuition)
Ok
- Find a (single) generator g of G. Then <g> = G
- Show <1> is also a generator
i wrote that bad
ahhh how do i say this
its like
<g> = {0g, 1g, 2g, 3g, ...}
then finding g as a linear combination
g = ax + by
gives u
<g> = {0(ax + by), 1(ax + by), 2(ax + by), 3(ax + by), ...} = {0x + 0y, ax + by, 2ax + 2by, 3ax + 3by, ...}
thats the general idea i wanted to show 
Then does it end up making x and y generators
Nvm obviously 😭
ok heres better phrasing
once youve generated an element
everything that element generates
is also generated
that better?
Is also generated?
Oh
Yeah I tried to use this but it didn’t work
Yes
ite
Ye
Wait
So if I have a generator, it’s factors are also generators right
Baisicsllt what you said
<7> = <5,2> right
<7> subset <5, 2>
Oh
the other inclusion can be shown by saying 7 is a generator, sure.
whats another way to write 10
4+6
<2> = <-2> subset <4, 6>
Why does this help tho
I feel like we're prancing around the flowers here
i think amukh needs to get his hands dirty with examples
to get intuition for this shit


amukh do you know bezout's lemma
but yes, we're not doing the original problem, i agree
yes.
barely number theory
this should help you compute what <4, 6> is
why
Cuz it’s a subset

no, ur misthinking
lol
and its not i say so you say so, you have to be convinced
of a fact before you use it
Ok
can I just
I convinced of this it pretty obvious
show that if we take H = <a, b, c, ...> show that H = <gcd(a, b, c, ...)>

Oh fUCK
I'm falling asleep here
If it is a factor is it a subset
- why is this inclusion true (how did i conclude it above)
- show the other inclusion holds, hence deduce equality
- prove what wew just stated:
show that if we take H = <a, b, c, ...> show that H = <gcd(a, b, c, ...)>
but yeah, #elementary-number-theory is a helpful prerequisite for this stuff. You would have seen euclid's alg, gcd stuff, which is relevant here
#1 finished?
ok
uh
thats not how i did it above but it works
I did I just forgot division algorithm cuz it’s a theorem not an algorithm
ahhh ok i missed u
i think i misthought earlier
which inclusion is this
uhhhhh
no amukh its the other way surely
i might have said sht the other way round earlier
I’m showing stuff in <2> is in <4,6>
XD
<a^k> subset <a> ?
Isn't (2)=(4,6)
ok, but thats the reverse inclusion here
yes, we're showing this
If I tried to prove <a> subset <a^k> then I would have just proved the converse by accident
I did both
no what, im confused
how do u get this
,,\langle2\rangle\subseteq\langle4, 6\rangle
up here shuri
2^2 = 4, 2^3 = 6, thus all the elements of <4,6> is in <2> (part 2)
And part one
(6^1-4^1)^n = 2^n
So
Yo@im actually getting this fr
even if your notation is dodge
Shuri actually best teacher motivator
Lmfao
ok to show what wew stated is harder than this obvs
take your time
or maybe it is easy, i havent done it 
Oh I forgot about that
Yeah I think it is
Ljust generalize it
Okay
<a_1,a_2,…,a_n> = <gcd(a’s)>
Soooo
Let’s say k = gcd
There is a b_j for every j s.t. d^(b_j) = a_j
That’s like
The definition of divisor
d is better ur right
oh actually nvm
(b_j)d = a_j
continue
Ok
Ye
So now
I have written all a_j in terms of d
So now I’ll actually prove the first half
if a is in <a’s>, then a=(a_1)^(c_1)…(a_n)^(c_n) for some c’s
But then it equals
(d^(b_1))^(c_1)…(d^(b_n))^(c_n)
Right
ok one second. You are using a fact here
that you havent stated
That’s the definition
kk
So anyway
ok
yh
So it’s in <d>
yh
First derection proved, <a’s> \subseteq <d>
60000 words later...
ok
What’s the latex for subsetEq
Lol
\subseteq
Oh damn
anyways, id want all that written out in a first hwk yh
I guess I still got latex in my blood after all these years
What’s hwk
Oh
other inclusion then we done
What’s Bezout say
gcd is always a linear combination
other direction?
is this <d> \subseteq <S>
yh
Yh
yeah this is equivalent to bezouts
Bezouts sounds hard
Huh
well, bezout's is usually stated for just two numbers but bleh just induct
the gcd of some numbers is always a linear combination of them
That’s stupid
Like what if I say
Do all 0s except the last number
The last coefficient can be the quotient ?
forall x, y : exist a, b : gcd(x, y) = ax + by
😭
an INTEGER linear combination of them
Ah
Now that makes sense
Believe it or not, mathematicians are not stupid(!)
LOL
euclidean domain ig
But what about the one who renamed Pythagorean theorem to distance formula for HS geometry
forall x, y in Z : exist a, b in Z : gcd(x, y) = ax + by
I hope 0 doesnt break this.
but this generalises to more rings
Idk rings Yeye
and induction can give you gcd of more numbers
Z is a ring, thats all that matters
Is the quotient of a kernel always a ring right
I never learned it right 😭😭
Ummmmm
Isn’t it just that dudes theorem
That’s it
XD
well yes i mean it is just it

If a is in <d>
Then a is of the from d^k for some k
Cuz bezouts theorem d=lin comb
ok
So
so this proof
can be written bidirectionally
the last step was reversible with bezout
What’s that mean
So you do both inclusions at ince
x in <a> <=> ... <=> x in <d>
So bezout is an iff only iff?
Ok
wat
If there is an element a in an integral domain R, can we directly construct an ideal <a> in R?
Idk

bro this channel is algebra
Yh cuz it had ring
It's about ring theory
isn't it group-ring channel?
Not integrals
i feel like i should be able to answer this
Yh
Ur in the right spot
You mean the smallest ideal containing a right
Just wait for wew ig
by <a>
Math in the wild fr
{ra : r in R} is it not this or am i high
why does it need to be in integral domain?
yeah, it is
exercise show that (a) is aR
suppose there is an element a in integral domain R, i want to know if it is valid to construct an ideal <a> directly
and I'm asking you why on earth it wouldn't be
or what's made you think it isn't?
What do you mean by "construct"
No, I think it is, but not very sure about it
you mean state the object <a> <== this is an ideal?
it's just this, like by definition
prove <a> is always an ideal
Ok gn guys I gtg to sleep
suppose there must be <a> in R
cya
i think if u show <a> is indeed an ideal, then youre good to go
with the definition
<a> = {ra : r in R}
presumably
there is another defn though
<a> = intersection of all ideals in R containing a
yur
it seems it must be ideal, since it absorbs all elements in R
make sure to show it's an additive subgroup
well i mean, show it is via the definition of an ideal directly
and this is then an ideal because intersections of ideals are ideals
So in a ring with no unity.
All ideals are subrings?
Hence it would work to define <a> as the intersection of all subrings containing a
(which you can prove is always an ideal)
which feels nicer idk
I simply must have my quotient objects coincide with my subobjects or I will cry and stamp my feet
*kernel
not quotient
unfortunately sweaty rings have to have a unit because I said so
wait is this actually true
<S> is always an ideal wtf

ugh "fun" exercise ig...
yh it should be
the intersection of all subrings containing S contai- ok you got it
intersection of all subrings = intersection of all ideals
but thats like whack
im thinking whack because it doesnt work for groups ig
but it does for rngs, vector spaces...

Is this true? $K[X]\otimes_K L\cong (K\otimes_K L)[X]$ where $L/K$ is a field extension?
Croqueta
tensor product
is a K-algebra
why sry?
nothing
🤔
thought galois stuff id seen but no i havent seen it before
What I was thinking was, $\left(\sum_{i=0}^n k_ix^i\right)\otimes_K\ell=\sum_{i=0}^n k_i(x^i\otimes\ell)$ so that you could send this to $\sum_{i=0}^n (k_i\otimes\ell) x^i$, maybe?
Croqueta
isnt that just an extension by scalars? I've seen $A[X] \otimes_A B \cong B[X]$ before
im thinking here, is
K[X] = K tensor {0, 1}[X]
in some way or not at all
{0, 1} is uh F2 ig
Kerr
ig you can just send $x^i\otimes\ell\mapsto \ell x^i$
Croqueta
or do it more stylishly by checking the universal property
what is it lol. These are rings so its a bit confusing to me
any bilinear map factoring through it
so like the vector space case, just weakening it for rings
if this is't true then nothing is good in the world
Anyway yes you can check that both have the same universal property
por ejemplo
I assume you want an iso of L-algebras
but yes an L-linear map out of K[x] (x)_k L into M is just a K-linear map K[x] -> M which is just a point of M
the same is true for L[x]
i am too category brained
I have something slightly spicier. $\frac{K[X]}{P(X)}\otimes_K L\cong L[X]/P(X)$ where $L/K$ a field extension. This is true because $\frac{K[X]}{P(X)}\otimes_K L\cong \frac{K[X]\otimes_K L}{P(X)\otimes_K 1}\cong\frac{L[X]}{P(X)}$
Croqueta
this is correct, right
Sure
yes - although K (x)_K L should just be L lol
oh whoops I was scrolled up
Prove there is phi(n) elements of order n in a cyclic group finite
Shuri is this possible for me
@shrui
@coral shale
is the group by any chance of order n
Idk, ig not why
maybe, maybe not
Wait lemme change this
Group order = n, phi(k) is number of elements with order k
Ok
Soo
I assume k needs to divide n
For it to work or nah
Bro I ain’t ever take number theory!
once you cleared up the problem statement go through the definition
And IT HAS THE WORD GROUP IN IT?
In mathematics, Carmichael's totient function conjecture concerns the multiplicity of values of Euler's totient function φ(n), which counts the number of integers less than and coprime to n. It states that, for every n there is at least one other integer m ≠ n such that φ(m) = φ(n).
Robert Carmichael first stated this conjecture in 1907, but as...
It’s call the toitent function?
so isnt the actual statement. |Z_n^x| = phi(n)
The definition is number of elements such that they are relatively prime to n
you are looking at this one https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Euler's_totient_function
you can skip this regardless
isnt it in english anyways
That the number of elements of order k in a cyclic group@is phi k
And I gotta prove it
How is it number theory tho
Yeh
anyways, you can skip this problem, trust me on this
phi k is number of elements relatively prime
No my book might use it
I need to just get thru this one it’s the only one I’m stuck on
you can come back when it uses it
have you heard of the bezout identity amukh
but honestly, i dont think its important
Nope
then maybe skip it for now
we lit just talked about bezout
I didn’t know it was the same one
with amukh?
Bezout identity Bezout theorem
its the same one right
Ok
the lemma
Yuh
well?
Ok then Ik it very well
just call the elements in Z/nZ functions for now, should keep any number theorist away from you for a little bit
just try it with examples and see
thats a very funny 'example' u got there 
Is it true or not
probably 
The evolution from drawing squares, to QED, to we win, to I win to "I win. You lose, bye bye"
Same here can you please just post a screenshot of it
Of what
The theorem or the problem I’m tryna do
The problem
I’m not hung up on it
Ok sir
Wait *
MY AUTOCORRCT
bro
I meant to say “ok wait”
It said ok sir
Ong
Okay
Ye
Ok so G = <a> with order n
So an arbitrary element of it looks like a^k for some k
If k and n is coprime, the order of a^k is n
So the number of elements with order n is phi n
?
is the first part of this proof literally 1_R x a = a = 1_K x a for a in K, and then you just use the cancellation law since R has no zero divisors and ig we're assuming that a is nonzero
basically. ab=b can hold if 1-a is a zero divisor
was wondering what you wanted your subring to be
Whats the standard example for zero-divisors you know?
except Z_n
lol u good
sure
ill publish my findings as to why 3^2=8 soon
Another example: take matrices of order >1 over a field, with the subring of diagonal matrices whose first entry on the diagonal is arbitrary and the rest of the entries are 0
diag(a,0,..,0) for a arbitrary
the easiest example is IMO a product of rings
R x S, then (1,0) acts like the identity on the canonical subring R
International math Olympiad fr
what are you yappin about?
[F : K] if its finite, the degree can be found by taking an element of F and finding the degree of its minimal polynomial over K?
every element of F would be algebraic over K because its finite extension right? And so do we also know that every element of F has the same degree over K? (same degree of its minimal polynomial?)
nope, not all finite extensions are simple
Ok
it tells you the degree of a extension of the form F(a):F
really?
oh right, separability
yea lol
an algebraic extension F/k is simple iff there are finitely many intermediate fields
Do you have an example at hand?
yep
kinda forgot most of my galois skills :(
take F = F_p(x, y) and k = F_p(x^p, y^p)
so for any c in k, the pth power of the element x+cy is x^p + c^p y^p which lies in k. so degree of [k(x+cy):k] = p.
and none of the x+cy and x+c'y can generate the same intermediate field. else both x and y will be there and that would make the degree p^2
this shows there are infinitely many intermediate fields
and so this extension can't be simple.
huh
det occasionally has to remind himself too ><
hm, is this a standard example shown in course?
yup
it feels slightly familiar
you have to make it non-separable
makes sense then
so work over field of char p
and the degree can't be p, since prime degree are automatically simple
so need base field infinite, inseparable, of char p, and degree more than p for the example to hope to work
in that sense, the above example is "minimal" counterexample
how did they get that n = 1 in the second to last line?
galois theory is among the most forgettable parts of math i feel
1st line
sorry wdym
n is a positive integer that divides 1
oh
Hi
because that's true 
(but sadly exactly what we were trying to prove >.<)
z unit iff z | 1 iff N(z) | 1 iff N(z) = 1
its really interesting but somehow it all feels a bit disjointed from the usual stuff you keep re-using at leat for my
did they just replace c and d with x and y halfway there
💀
Clicking definition of unit, doesn't it mean there's a multiplicative inverse per the fourth line beginning there exist c and d?
ignore me - what filip said, btw
I guess
but yea, the motivation for looking at Z[i] is to understand integers of the form a^2+b^2
Shuri
feels like a situation where'd you prove the existence of N(-) first if you gone the polynomial ring route, or just cashed it in for free from C
then again I enjoy nuking my problems so
yea that's nicer ><
isn't the "cash it in" process same in either case tho? ig you meant one is more intuitive. the definition is N(a) = a * bar(a).
I was trying to understand why [F(a) : K(a)] = [F : K] in this case
well you usually have looked at the norm on C already in the context of an analysis course
you figured out the other 3 degrees in the diamond, so just the arithemtic of degrees calculates the last one
[F(a):K(a)] = [F(a):K]/[K(a):K] = [F(a):F]*[F:K]/[K(a):K]
So its F : K if [F(a) :F] = [K(a):K
Oh wait that also doesnt even matter for the problem anyway
yep
what
is there any reason why he set v(g) = deg g + 1
was it just to be instructive lmfao because normally it's not like that
at least if i'm remembering the division algorithim for polynomials again lol
my guy lorenz included all of the basic aa stuff in his linear algebra book apparently
that's hilarious
ye
ye
is there a canonical example of a non-factorization domain?
or whatever you call an integral domain that doesn't have a factorization property
You can find non-unique factorization quite easily, I think
Yea, that is harder, I think
like there's an element that can't be decomposed into irreducible factors
Huh
Sorry I misread..
I think you can take a direct limit of k[x] → k[x, y]/(y^2-x) → k[x,y,z]/(y^2-x, z^2-y) → ... to get a ring in which x cannot be decomposed into irreducibles, but I would need to check details.
Yea, and I think it should at least be non-noetherian, which is hard to satisfy already
This is k[x1, x2, x3, ...] quotiented by relations xi ~ x(i+1)^2, right
Sir, this is #groups-rings-fields
Oh yeah ofc lol I feel so silly
No way, you should not feel silly. Infinity business is always so difficult to grasp
can we just say that a_r=brc0+...b0cr and say a_r should not be divisible by p because both br and c0 are not divisible by p, in order to make contradiction?
and also I feel pretty confused why it can conlude that there is a least integer t such that p does not divide bt?
why would that mean a_r isn't divisible by p
There is a nicer way to write this if you know a little bit of modular arithmetic though
like a more insightful proof lol
i mean it should be divisible by p, but p does not divide br and c0
to make contradiction
I know, so I can conclude that p does not divide br and c0.but don't know why p does not divide br means there is a least t that p does not divide bt?
wdym "i know"
I mean know about modular algorithm
Oh okay i might show you the proof in a sec then
Well the set { t such that p does not divide b_t} is finite and non-empty so it has a least element
The proof I had in mind was: suppose $f = gh$ where $\deg g, \deg h \ge 1$. Now reducing mod $p$, $gh \equiv f \equiv a_n x^n \mod p$. So by unique factorisation we can write $g \equiv b x^r$ and $h = c x^s$ for some integers with $bc \equiv a_n \mod p$ and $r + s = n$. Now if $r > 0$, say, then you can check constant coefficients of $g,h$ to get that $p^2 \mid a_0$, a contradiction. So $r = 0$ and $s = n$, also a contradiction
potato
it's a bit cleaner if you assume a_n = 1
now that you remind me I never tried it even after learning about the nice quotient map argument
This was actually the way I was taught
i think it's just like, this proof I can visualise in my head
like very follow your nose aftre you go mod p
but yeah, if f was reducible then f(x)=g(x)h(x), then the zeroth coefficient of g and h must also be divisible by p for things to work out
or a_0 is divisible by p^2
You can also prove Gauss' lemma by similar ideas
Given maps $A \to B$ and $A \to C$ I have a pushout $B \otimes_A C$, what are some ways to get some insight what their prime ideals look like? Rn I wanna know the case for A,B and C being fields specifically
Kerr
Hi
if one is simple extension of fields (e.g. finite + separable), then you have a good hold of the tensor product
Yeah no, I just have some residue fields from some eldritch stalks here
are you trying to prove that the (underlying space of) pullback of schemes surjects onto pullback as spaces?
i.e. the map |X ×_S Y| --> |X| ×_|S| |Y|
No, that proof just involved seeing that spec k(x) ×_spec k(s) spec k(y) is a cone over the diagram? nvm i misread u mb
well, s being the image of some random y, x being the element i plucked from the pre-image yada yada
I am trying to see how the underlying space of the of the above looks like. I assume it has several points and looks distinct from how you'd expect it from the set theoretic pullback
yea, set theoretic pullback for the case of fields is just a point
ig the more relevant question is how you would approach this?
what happened to the king 😨
it seems that p does not divide both br and c_s and p does not divide one of b0 and c0, I am confused about why we can get p^2|a0 by checking constant coefficients of g and h as r>0?
If p^2 doesn't divide a0, then only one of b0 and c0 can be killed off
Det don't abandon me 😿
You mean either b0 or c0 can disappear?
gomen, det eepy ><
idk how it becomes 5am these days so easily
I mean, neither can too
Oh timezone buddies
We have problems
I mean if p^2 does not divide a0, then p divides only one of b0 and c0, and I am confused about what does the sentence only one of b0 and c0 can be killed off mean?
If p divides a number, that number mod p is 0
and if p^2 divides a0, then b0*c0 mod p is 0. But why is that related to the question? and we just suppose f is reducible over Q, which means reducible over Z. so I don't know see the relationship between r>0 and p^2|a
Hm it does seem a bit more complicated. If say b0 isn't divisible by p, then for any c_k we have b_0 c_k x^k = 0, which forces c_k to be divisible by p
You mean for a specific term x^k?, but the coefficient might be addtion of bo_ck+b1*c^k-1+...
Actually no.. uh.
Yeah you are right
You know the proof of why R[X] is integral for R integral?
You mean if integral domain R-> R[x] is integral domain?
It might be a version of that but in reverse. Assume c_0 mod p = 0, let k be minimal s.t. c_k isn't zero mod p...
Yeah
so are you intended to just suppose that f=g*h=0? to use non-zero divisor?
both g and h are integral domain
I am not, we want to see why a_n x_n mod p implies that any factoring f=gh must have one be constant, even more, a unit
Huh?
then since p does not divide br and cs, it seems unlikely that one of them is constant?
I mean both br and cs are nonzero, so they are unlikely to be a constant polynomial
Anyways, if such k is minimal then the k-th coefficient of f mod p is exactly b_0 c_k x^k. If k<n it must be 0, but since b_0 isn't divisible by p it forces c_k to be divisible by p.
This means that all c_k are zero mod p for k<n
So h is just c_n x^n. And g must then have degree 0
So g is an unit (Z_p is a field), f is hence irreducible in (Z_p)[X]
det can't eep 
so you have the two projections of A^2_k --> A^1_k, given by k[s] --> k[s, t] and k[t] --> k[s, t].
Spec k(s)⊗_k k(t) are the points in A^2_k which map to the generic points in both affine lines.
so lets identify the fiber of a generic point under A^2_k --> A^1_k, that's the image of Spec k(s)[t] --> Spec k[s, t]. since the left ring is a pid, a non-zero prime is generated by a single irreducible p in k(s)[t]. you can assume p is a primitive t-variate polynomial in k[s][t] by clearing the denominators. so the inverse image of (p) under k[s, t] --> k(s)[t] is the ideal of polynomials which are divisible by p in the ring k(s)[t], since we assumed p is primitive, these are exactly the ones divisible by p in the ring k[s,t], i.e (p) in k[s,t].
so points in A^2_k which map to generic points under both projections are exactly (0) and (p) where p in k[s,t] is irreducible and primitive as both s-variate and t-variate polynomial. in other words, it shouldn't lie in k[s] or k[t] and should contain both variables.
Oh right
The fiber identification is the exercise right after 😎
Yeah I've been feeling "at least give me something to work with" after reading the chapter and seeing the exercises
det no understand 
Now 👉 👈
are the exercises not counted in "something to work with"? 
I mean lemmas and such
Det finally entering the eepy era?
i'm eepy for the last 3 hours
How is det so much more professional in private chat than in public chat
oh that's cause moldi no like casual chat 
He has to maintain his brand in public
No I just don't like uwu chat 
Uwumathecis
have to consciously stop myself from writing ">.<". but it still sometimes slips
Man I wish I bullied you more when I had the chance

When you had the chance?
Ik him irl
(moldi was det's senior in undergrad)
Huh
Referring to yourself in the 3rd person? It has gone too far
Hello
No hope left
3v1 
He will forever 
@summer path back me up ><
4v1?

Shit, we need to recruit more people
do i lose by default if i eep

🥺
The current time for det.uwu is 06:33 AM (CET) on Sat, 30/12/2023.
tubularcat is 6 hours behind, at 12:33 AM (EST) on Sat, 30/12/2023.
What does 12:33 AM mean in normal time units
00:33 :3
:3c
They were so used to modular arithmetic, they never noticed the difference
(Possibly more likely: there was no roman numeral for 0)
I guess the only reason I can think of is so the 12:XX always gets the same am and pm tag no matter wether XX=0 or 60>XX>0
R/24Z --> {AM, PM} is locally constant in lower limit topology 
So true 
Also the cts bijection from the disjoint union of two half open interval to the circle necessarily can’t have continuous inverse
The points of discontinuity are the places you feel the “singularity” namely the transition from the am half open interval to the pm one



if G is a finite group and H is a subgroup, i dont understand why we say for g, g' in G that g is equivalent to g' iff g' in gH
as it directly follows, i don't understand why each coset of H in G represents an equivalence class
i think im not used to the idea of equivalence classes in an abstract context... modular arithmetic clearly induces equivalences classes simply because the value after the mod operation is the same
e.g. the odd numbers are in the same equivalence class mod 2 (the value of any odd number mod 2 is 1)
$g \sim g^\prime \Longleftrightarrow g^\prime \in gH$
qing dynasty
just verify the relationship defined is reflexivity, symmetry or transitivity.
yes
but that is very algebraic
i feel like im lacking the intuition
its very muddy to me how that property (g prime is in gH) denotes some sense of equivalence
i suppose symmetry is an interesting property
if g' in gH then g in g'H
honestly this doesnt seem like very good motivation for defining quotient groups. you might wanna check out benedict gross’s lectures on youtube, where he shows how the intuition for this came about
somewhere in the first 10 lectures he talks abt them
do u know specifically whichlecture?
its completely different tot my schools syllabus ahah
nvm got it
i will check it out
ty
If the c means preimage with respect to some map A -> B, then yes
Think of g ~ g' as saying that you can go from g to g' using elements of H. So, there exists some element h in H such that gh = g'. In my head I like to think of this as saying "if I only have the power of the subgroup H, where can I go from g?"
This should be more obviously an equivalence relation. Now it should equally be far more obvious that the equivalence class of g is gH.
If you want a visual example, imagine the group Z^2 with additive notation, and the subgroup H = <(0, 1)> which is the vertical axis. The 'power' that this subgroup gives us is moving up and down. It should be clear what the equivalence classes here are: they are vertical lines in this grid.
Wow thanks! Gave me a new perspective too!
I just completed group theory and started rings
I have compiled examples of rings
can you give a non example for a ring?
Any noncommutative group?
anything fails the ring axioms
Think about what groups you know, and which ones are not commutative
but under familar sets
Even Z fails to be a ring if you view it as just a group...
So like, you want a group which isn't naturally the additive group structure of a ring?
Maybe hes thinking of some set that inherently cant be a ring or smth
Even tho for a given set we can have different algebraic structures defined on them
Like Z could be a group or a ring depending on how u view it
Or a hopf algebra
Fax so much fax
is Z a hopf algebra lol
witt group in characteristic 2
can't be a ring because we can't meaningfully define the tensor product between two arbitrary quadratic forms
Lol^
The naturals (as opposed to the integers) with addition and multiplication are a good non-example.
Invertible matrices with the usual addition and multiplication are too.
and also because the 1 element is no longer a not degenerated form
Sorry i was away
If you ask me for a non example of a group, i can say Z with multiplication ( it fails to posses inverses)
I’m looking for examples of similar spirit
this is because of the way we naturally define the tensor product in the first place, namely basing it on the tensor product of the underlying bilinear forms. in characteristic 2 we no longer have a bijection between the space of bilinear forms and the space of quadratic forms. (in case sharp is curious)
Another non-example that I like a lot is the even integers, under the usual operations.
why is that not a ring? You could give it a ring structure
No unit :)
ah wait ig you can't lol
Perhaps another cute example is the following: if S is a set, then consider P(S) — the power set of S — under unions and intersections. Since these things distribute over each other, you could be forgiven for thinking it's a ring...
Identity is only required for addition right? and 0 is even.
Multiplicative identity is required for a ring, usually.
People tend to call rings without identity "rngs" or "rungs"
Unless you like rngs
The definition I have says associativity holds for multiplication
Well, you should at least be aware of this important difference in definitions.
The unit is a very important part of a ring, and rungs behave quite differently.
Hej hej sharp
So this is a non example of a ring with unity?
Yes, it does not have a unit
makes sense
Rings with distinguished unit vs unital rings 
Woof
Since we've already spotted that units are important, here's a slightly more complex example.
Let R be any ring. I define the direct sum R^(N) as the set of functions f : N → R such that f(n) = 0 for all but finitely many values n.
Isn’t invertable matrices abelian under addition and group under multiplication?
No!
What’s A - A
Makes sense
This is a rung, but not a ring.
Non invertable zero matrix
0 is rather non-invertible
So it's not in the set.
I.e., closure fails
One you might be interested in is let’s take functions N -> N under pointwise addition and (fg)(n) = f(g(n))
Is this a ring?
Is this rather composition of function?
idk the term pointwise addition
It’s literally composition for multiplication
(f+g)(n) = f(n)+g(n)
Pointwise addition means (f + g)(n) is defined to be f(n) + g(n)
hence added, point-by-point

Have you checked all the axioms?
Have you checked any of the axioms?
I had it as an example, iirc
No you didn’t
Mmm, I don't think so
Mb


