#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 197 of 1
[K(u):K(u^2)] divides [K(u):K] which is odd, and the former is either 1 or 2 so it must be 1
I think this is the most basic way to do it
since the question is framed such that you can do this proof basically
Why is the former 1 or 2
Oh
The proof above shows its either 1 or 2
I think i just wanna see more basically why u is in K(u^2) i guess
Hm idk how you can make it more basic than that (which is a one-liner)
There won't really be a nice constructive proof because the hypothesis you've been given is pretty weak
if f(x) is the minimal poly of u, then write f(x) = g(x^2) + x h(x^2), now h(u^2) isn't 0 as degree of h(x^2) < deg f(x).
so u = -g(u^2)/h(u^2)
where did i use f has odd degree tho 
ah, because h can't be the zero poly
if h was the zero poly then f(x) = g(x^2), which is a contra
Hi , i'm stuck finding the order of this permutation
(1235)(24567)
,w lcm of 4 and 5
hm i'm not sure 5 is prime though
it's 1 mod 4 so the debate is still out
lol
But some numbers are in both cycles
hm why do you say that wew tho
gaussian integers
The answer is 12 (says the book ) but i dont know how
(124)(3567)
it's equal to this
I must warn you that I multiply permutations backwards though
doing it the other way should get you (145)(2367)
From right to left ?
AB is conjugate to BA so the order is the same
yur but I thought I should mention it irregardless
Some people like to write it like composition of functions (which is natural) other people are deranged
oh I write composition of functions backwards as well, the normal way is not natural
$fg$ should become $X \overset{f}{\rightarrow} Y \overset{g}{\rightarrow} Z$ sorry libs
W;3w Lads Tbh
anyway @ebon harness the point is that some people consider (1235)(24567) to be (24567) first then (1235) second as a permutation of the numbers from 1-7, and some other people are wrong
"gf -> f then g"
boustrophedon lookin...
Oh I thought wew meant actually going right to left
oh no that is deranged hahaha
furthermore, reading it in the "incorrect" order gives us 1 -> 2, 2 -> 3, 3 -> 5, 5 -> 1, 2 -> 4, 4 -> 5, ... there's no nasty skip from 6 -> 7, 1 -> 2 where your eyes jump across the entire permutation
I feel incredibly strongly about this because I legitimately think the convention is backwards. It's like electrons having negative charge in physics, it's backwards and everyone knows it but they just COPE
I'm not sure what your eyes are doing 
I'm doing it form right to left the the way this f book is doing it
Thank you @delicate orchid @dim widget
Your eyes had to jump across the entire permutation to get to 1->2 to start with though?
Then the product is (124)(3567) just to be clear 🙂 but the order doesn’t depend on how you multiply
me when a^-1aba = ba
it’s one of the most fun things about math that AB ~ BA for A or B invertible but they always have the same characteristic polynomial even if they’re not invertible
as a random aside
I will invert them anyway
A finite ring, a+x invertible for every x invertible. Show a nilpotent
I took a the function from U(A)->U(A), f(x)=a+x
The function is injective
A finite so U(A) finite
So f surjective so there is x0 invertible s.t. a=1-x0
a is clearly a divisor of zero
Any hint
localization chad
why is it a zero divisor?
In a finite ring an element is invertible or a zero divisor
feel that? that's true.
And if a is invertible because f is surjective there is x invertible s.t. f(x)=a so a+x=a so x=0 false
Oh, but in that case you could have done, by contradiction:
if a is invertible, then a-a must be invertible
Have you tried checking if a must be in every prime ideal of A?
don't we need commutativity for this idea to work?
Yes
Non commutative rings don't exist 
I am considering f(x)=2*(x^2+2), and it seems that we have a unit element 2 in C, then why it is reducible in C?
I mean 2 can have multiplicative inverse 1/2 in R[x], so it is irreducible. but it doesn't have 1/2 in C[x]??
It has a root in C so its reducible
You mean 2x^2+4=0 as we have solution x in C?
I can find x=sqrt(2)i and -sqrt(2)i
Yeah, so it factors over C
every poly of degree > 1 is reducible over C due to the roots too
Almost like it’s algebraically closed
SAUR TRUE
Since we’re talking about polynomials can i have hint for q6
Idek how to think of it tbh
This stuff hard for me
even reducible over R, since we must have at least one root?
try to characterise "f is irreducible" in terms fo degrees
For odd degree polynomials, yes
But e.g. x^2 + 1
is irreducible over R
Potato y r u so good
i'm not
Lol
Haha it’s kiand’s question but for [C:R]
ye i think so lol
anyway the real answer in this context is that the same ideas come up a lot
once you do this sort of thing once the problems all end up being very similar
but the first time is harder of course
It’s a similar idea right? You’re quotienting out by a degree n polynomial so the only splitting that can occur in the bigger field is in the “n-part” of the degree. Not rigourous but I hope you get the vibe
Then is it possible to say f is reducible over a set even if it has not root. Like example of 2x^2+4 is reducible in Z, but it seems we can not figure out a root in field Z?
Ye
It’s reducible over Z because 2(x^2+2) is a factorisation into non-units
Yes
Basically "has a root" = "has a linear factor"
But you can be reducible in other ways thn having a linear factor
I think I have understand it, really appreciate that
np
When does the Galois group determine the extension?
hi friends, given F field char(F) = 3. proof that v: a -> a^3 is isomorphism
You don't need to post your question in multiple channels.
it's not, F = F_3(x) is a counterexample.
what I said in another channel
it is not isomorphism?
As I said, your claim is false
which is the other channel 
linear algebra, for some reason
I didn't give the example tho. det got me there.........
do you have additional assumption like F is a finite field?
I bet Eagle is just getting isomorphisms and homomorphisms confused.
It's always a homomorphism, of course
No brother)
Well then you may indeed struggle to prove a false fact.
it's also true if you assume F is algebraic over F_3.
or simply Z3?
.<
Some people write Z_3, but this can also mean the 3-adic integers, so one should avoid Z_3 and write Z/3 or Z/3Z instead.
Sniped by det again wtf........
how can I proof that it is not isomorphism?
It is sometimes an isomorphism, but not for all fields. Det gave an example above.
typo
field maps are always injective. so surjectivity is the only thing that can fail
F_3(x) is the field of rational functions with coefficients in F_3
is it Field?
what was n.b. det forgor
ok, thank you for help 🙂
||nonbinary
||
N.b. = nota bene = "note well" or "pay attention to the fact that..."
n.b. actually standard for "Novikov-Browder"
potato also has an uwu in about me 

uwu!
I do indeed
I forgot about that aha
Any tips for showing flatness is Zariski-local?
I forgot how to do it but don't want to cheat lol
I can see that if M is a flat R module then the same is true after localising everything at p, so im doing the converse
if localizing at each D(f_i) is exact, then original sequence was exact
Okay yes sure
Ye
by exactness, that is same as showing N|_D(f_i) = 0 implies N = 0
I've done this before ye just not sure how to go from there
Sorry I guess I mean at primes
Rather than zariski locally
Uhh I not good w Terminology
N localized at f_i is zero then N_p is zero for every prime p not containing f_i
ye sure nice
since D(f_i) is a cover, these are all primes

sorry how are you relating this to a ring spectrum?
flatness of some module that is
Ring spectrum
say
N' --> N --> N'' is exact
we want to show
N'⊗M --> N⊗M --> N''⊗M is exact
and we're given by each M[1/f_i] is a flat A[1/f_i] module.
yeah idk what else to associate D(f_i) with haha 😅
so we know localizing the second sequence at each f_i is exact, and that localizing at each prime is exact, so original sequence must be exact too
if you're asking why i wrote D(f_i)
if f_1 to f_n generate A, is it enough to show that localizing at all of these is flat?
yep 
okay i see the value in the notation
if M[1/f_i] is zero for each f_i then M is already 0
just a bit bamboozled how it actually works algebraically. Stupid magic
yeah I guess should go through the steps
supposedly I can get stuff like af_k^n = 0 for all k and then get a(1)=0
with a some image
m in M, then for large enough N, f_i^N * m = 0
Real
since (f_1^N, ..., f_n^N) has radical ideal A, 1 is also in that ideal
which gives m = 0
okay yeah that seems like enough
Prod A_fi is flat and the map on Spec is surjective by assumption that D(fi) cover Spec A so its faithfully flat 
det was gonna say that ><
damn, using geometric intution for algeba for one of the first times in the wild
crazy
prove that flatness is flat-local
now i can say things like "checking flatness on points is sufficient" and be kind of correct and sound deranged
or does it correspond to check the complement of closed points?
You can check on closed points on a ring
complement?
Closed points
Because all points specialize to a closed point
Real
M is flat iff the localizations at maximal ideals are flat
M
M
my bad u right 😭
This follows from being able to check at each point
Any point has a closed point in its closure (is contained in a maximal ideal)
And the localization of flat is flat
So if you’re flat at all closed points, to get to an arbitrary point you detour through a closed one
You know you’re flat at the closed one, then you stay flat going to the actual point you wanted
actually isnt this a little bit more fitting for adv alg
det no know how to think about flat geometrically other than for ring maps where i can sort of think about fibers not jumping dimension and forget about other stuff
<
so this no make sense to me
so like, if I have localized over m I can pass onto the localization at p as long as the closure of p contains m?
Right, I can just send anything to its identical looking image
I think it just translates to that localizing at maximal ideals is looking at S^-1M with S being minimal, you then localize over some T containing S which is again exact. I am happy to be corrected though
we're going backwards tho
backwards?
we need to know flatness for all m in cl{p}, which is why i'm confused by the argument
so i think I came up with a proof of $\impliedby$; If $\alpha \in E$ is transcendental over $K$, then $K[\alpha]$ is not a field. But this contradicts the assumption that every subring $R$ of $E$ containing $K$ is a field, so $E/K$ must be algebraic. was wondering if there was any other way to prove the leftward implication
yeah, which you can do once you know it is flat for the maximal ideal in cl{p}
okeyokay
Only for one gets it for p
Basically the same honestly lol
like this is the idea p much
I would do it basically the other way round like
wait don't prove the converse plsss
oh okay lo
contrapositive
Only for one gets it for p
i cant parse this 😭
same :3
well i'm hoping the converse isn't that bad, just gonna let some a in R, use the fact that it's algebraic and try to manipulate the equation for the minimal polynomial or something to produce an ivnerse for that element
Oh, i thought det meant any prime ideal in cl{p} with m
I’m saying that
“Flat at all p => flat” => “flat at all m => flat”
Because via this argument you can turn “flat at all m” into “flat at all p”
And then conclude “flat”
i was just curious, because it's only in the next section that he introduces K[a] and some theorems about it
which implies that maybe there's another way to do it
but yeah this is the easiest i would guess
nvm yeah
do you have this even without finite generation?
Yes

It’s literally just the statement that (M_m)_p = M_p
just localize to a p s.t. m contains p, no?
If M_m is flat then you keep it forever
To an m, but yes
with localize to a p I mean going A -> B to A_p -> B_p
A and B just happen to be A_m and B_m
idk what was i thinking now 
yee makes sense ><
hey you learned a new mnenomic for this 
(i couldve sworn we had an emoji called det once)
i mean would this work for the converse? let $R \subset E$ be a subring containing $K$. Let $\alpha \neq0 \in R$. Since $E/K$ is algebraic, the extension $K(\alpha)/K$ is algebraic and is a field; in particular, there exists $\beta \in K(\alpha) \subset R$ with $\alpha \beta = 1$
okeyokay
powers of alpha form a basis, it being algebraic extension just means its finite
but yeah, on the existence of beta
i would write K(alpha) = K[alpha] to argue it's contained in R
this would be sufficient right? all the other conditions of being a field just follow from it being a subset of E
which is a field
like there won't be zero divisors and it's commutative
ye i think potato did that
probably easier
no i mean, it's not "obvious" why K(alpha) is contained in R
this is for "if every ring containing E is a field, then K(a) is algebraic" ?
trying to prove that every subring R of E containing K is a field
given that E/K is algebraic
oh
oh
i see
oh so with K[a] = K(a) we can explicitly describe the elements using K[a]
which are just going to look like linear combinations of powerse of alpha
with coefficeints in K
which should be contained in R
yee 
thats a characterisation of being algebraic, yeah
you can also think of K[alpha] as the smallest subring containing both K and alpha. since R contains both, this is a subset of it.
so like, if R is K[a^3], it should be able to express its own inverse?
wtf nvm, powers and linear combinations of algebraic are still algebraic
||for any b in R, R contains K[b]. But being algebraic we have K[b]=K(b) so R contains the inverse of b|| ?
non-zero b, yee.
all elements are invert- fuck, yeah okay
also yo udon't need "since b algebraic over K, R must contain K[b]"
R will contain K[b] as soon as it contains both K and b
i know
i am just eternally scatterbrained
i have the "is algebraic hypothesis" floating around freely and sometimes it bumps into stuff
lol
mfw when the smallest rings containing K and b is contained in a ring... that contains K and b 
actually, how long are you planning on keeping the festive attire?
dunno, when i'm the odd one out 
okie i think i was all confused because i was thinking p as a bigger point, and so it made me think that (M_p)_m = M_m
det did a dum dum
for complex numbers $a, b, c$, is it true that say $\overline{\mathbb{Q}(a, b, c)} = \mathbb{Q}(\bar{a}, \bar{b}, \bar{c})$
okeyokay
i'm too lazy to prove this if it's true
so sad
i got mixed up by the notation too
sometimes your thing-y is a multiplicative set, other times its an prime ideal yada yada
yee?
Q6, what about x^2-2 is irreducible in Q[x], but Q(root2, root3, root5) has degree 3 over Q, so this question says that since 2 is relatively prime to 3, x^2-2 should be irreducible over Q(root2, root3, root5)?
but cant it be (x-root2)(x+root2)
wat goin on
I don't buy that's degree 3, it's degree 8 no?
honestly idek i just said it
[Q(r2, r3, r5) : Q] = [Q(r2, r3, r5) : Q(r2, r3)][Q(r2, r3) : Q(r2)][Q(r2) : Q] = 2*2*2 = 8
fgjfgk
I'll say that while I do not know how you'd prove this result, I absolutely believe it
hmm yeah see the problem is i look at it and my mind is blank
like i just really dont know whats going on lmao
the vibes tell me that you can only get degree n by appending mth roots with m|n
i need to think about the fundamentals more carefully i think
and if something is degree d coprime to n that factors over the extenstion then it implies some kth root has been added with k|d => k not |n
that's the vibes anyway
oh also lol
i realised i was dumb in that like
flatness being local is (again!) just a consequence of being able to check exact sequence at primes lol
like uh
I thought we concluded that situation lol
oh rally
i just meant like i thought people gave a more specialised argument
when really it's like
here do they just take F = K(X) and F' = K(a) and phi: K[X] --> K[A] in place of id: R --> R
$(M \otimes_R N){\mathfrak p} \simeq M{\mathfrak p} \otimes_{R_\mathfrak p} N_{\mathfrak p}$ and so you can just apply usual lemmas lol
potato
There was some confusion on what the argument was but yeah. I mean, we never got to the flat at maximals -> flat step but yeah
Said step
oh i meant that's what it is
like
exact at all primes iff exact iff exact at all maximals
is a standard theorem too
so just apply that and use what i said and bingo
ah okay sorry lol
Which follows from localizing being exact
then yeah what chomnkey said
Like this, yeah?
oh not what i had in mind but ye
Idk I find it a bit more intuitive
When thinking about the mult sets you can just send any element to itself
wdym
aw
i think it's like
i love the more geometric sides/interpretations lol
but ye
what comm alg u doing
it seemed you were doing hartshorne II.1 or II.2?
Just II.2 and now stating on II.3. looked at sheaves months ago
ye cool
i messed up cause i read hartshorne like up to II.4 like a year ago and haven't really progressed lol
The commalg in the geometry feels like dark magic. The geometry in comm alg is a pleasant surprise
since then
Yeah, I'll see how long until I run out of internal motivation
Gluing together the fiber product is giving me a headache
Harty's proof is much appreciated
I can't quite understand why showing that each set of relations implies the other will prove that the group presentations represent the same group
if you believe that a presentation represents a unique group then surely the relations in each group satisfying each other’s presentations will force them to be the same group
I can replace a with s and then b with sr and then yes the relations reduce in an if and only if manner to the dihedral group relations
that doesn't explain why you can just replace a with s and b with sr
A better word for replacement is "isomorphism"
how would I exhibit the isomorphism between the presentations
So if the presentation in that problem is G
a maps to s and b maps to sr
and I have to prove that well-defines everything else
ok I'll give it some more thought
thanks!
The exercise is basically giving an isomorphism
Without using the words isomorphism explicitly
Will it be more appropriate to ask about modules here or in #linear-algebra
?
Or depends on the question itself?
Modules don't belong into linear algebra, here please
I see
I don't have a question yet though, I am just thinking of reading about modules
If the modules are over a field then #linear-algebra would probably be fine 😏
What is a module over group
An abelian group (or vector space) with a linear group action.
Linear group action?
g(x+y) = gx + gy
Oh wow
It's equivalent to a module over the group ring
So you do not necessarily need rings to act like action on modulea
Ah. A bit underwhelming
The addition itself is defined as abelian group op, right? How do you get a group ring for the module here?
Yeah, the addition is the operation of the abelian group.
The group ring consists of formal linear combinations of group elements. In the group ring addition is just addition of linear combinations
Ah, I only knew about the group ring in the form of k[G]
I guess formal linear combination of Z[G] is also possible
daily reminder Z is a field
@coral shale huh
Lol
finite field extensions are like introducing a new factorization for some elements of the field right
at least for ones like Q(sqrt(2))
so ur saying something like if f(x) does factor over this extension, then it implies something about the roots of f(x) that is impossible
Hm i think im slowwwly seeing what im supposed to see
A bit of a strange way of phrasing it, but finite field extensions are given by adjoining roots of irreducible polynomials. And that will then in turn allow you to factor them further
I'm currently looking at the subgroups of $C_2 \times C_4$. The group has order 8, so by Lagrange, the subgroups can have order 1,2,4 or 8. The subgroups of order 1 and 8 are clearly the trivial subgroups. But now I'm a little bit stuck finding the rest of the subgroups. They have to contain the identity element and $xy^{-1}$ has to be in the subgroup for any $x,y$ in it. So I thought I found ${<0,0>, <1,0>}, {<0,0>, <1,2>}, {<0,0>, <0,1>}, {<0,0>, <0,2>}$ . But what about some of order 4?
Marieeee
You seem to have a mistake because
<0, 1> + <0,1> = <0, 2>
So your third set is not a subgroup.
ouh yes, you're right! i totally missed that
As to how to find subgroups of order 4, it helps to know what the groups of order 4 are up to isomorphism
You can start by finding all the cyclic subgroups of order 4 for example
so like C4 and C2 x C2?
That's right
So C4 is generated by a single element of order 4, while C2xC2 is generated by two elements of order 2. So that tells you what to look for when finding such subgroups.
so basically my subgroups of order 4 of $C_2 \times C_4$ would be ${<0,0>,<0,1>,<0,2>,<0,3>}$ and ${<0,0>,<0,1>,<1,0>,<1,1>}$?
Marieeee
but no, that does not work with the closure of the subgroup
suggest me a good book on group theory
complete beginner, or do you have some experience already?
i studied some lectures but my basics arent strong enough
a beginner
hows this book
Well the book I got going with was Contemporary Abstract Algebra by Gallian, I would say it's pretty accessible for a beginner
Yeah D&F is like the classic algebra book, but some parts of it can be fast paced/hard to digest if you're self studying or like me and have a hard time with dense walls of text
#book-recommendations maybe?
Almost, so again <0, 1> doesn't have order 2.
And there are more elements of order 4, so you should expect another cyclic subgroup
do u have this in pdf
Yar yar philadidee 😉
Okay, so i get one subgroup like this ${<0,0>, <0,1>, <0,2>, <0,3>}$. Then there is a subgroup with elements of order 2 looking maybe like this ${<0,0>, <0,2>,<1,0>, <1,2>}$ and then maybe one like this ${<0,0>,<0,2>,<1,1>,<1,3>}$?
Marieeee
You got it!
Thanks a lot for your help!
Ok yeah. Im stuck on q6.
Spent too long on it now
I was thinking of trying to use that degree of field extension formula when u have a tower of field extensions
draw diamonds
🔶
yee
Should i work with a specific example?
Yea like i was trying to do things like this
I felt like i was close
take \alpha to be a root of f
det
now write all degrees
show that [F(a):F] = deg f, that proves f is also irred over F.
yea, that can help sometimes 
try K = Q, F = Q(sqrt(2)) and f = x^3 - 5 in Q[x].
Like im assuming u use that degree formula of a sequence of finite extensions on both sides of that diamond
And im not entirely sure why this is true. I sort of get it but its still messy to me
okie one thing you should note is that the element alpha always satisfies f which can be considered as a polynomial in F[x].
so [F(alpha) : F] <= deg f.
this didn't require any coprimality stuff
the coprimality puts heavy restrictions on what [F(alpha) : K] could be.
do you see why this is the case ><
If I am working with torsors and I want to turn them into a tensor space of the N-dimension, is this just a matter of defining the origin? With an abstract or undefined origin representing a torsors space and the newly defined origin defining the rank-N tensor space as a Euclidean space of the N-dimension?
I understand this is a non-standard function but I'm more curious on a hypothetical standpoint and do not know how to approach finding this out.
To express this as a theorem instead of a question I would try it like this:
Let T be the torsors under a group G with a free and transitive action. Suppose there exists a vector space V associated with G and a tensor space T^N(V) constructed fromV. Under certain conditions and mapping, one could define a representation of T in T^n(V) such that the actions and structural properties of T are preserved and reflected within the tensor or Euclidean framework.
Would this theorem be true?
Ok I want to prove that A = <a,b|a^2=b^2=(ab)^n = 1> is isomorphic to B = <r,s|r^n=s^2=1, rs = sr^{-1}>
I want to choose an isomorphism where phi(a) = s and phi(b) = sr
I don't know how I can extend this to the rest of A in a well defined way and I don't know how to prove the homomorphism property along with the injective/onto property
Hi all, I’m struggling a lot with the last part of this biconditional proof. I don’t know how to show that S = (e)
One thing that bothers me is that I feel that my whole proof so far is valid in any ring, and I haven’t used any properties of Z/nZ yet. (Which I’m guessing I should, since otherwise why would they make the problem statement specifically about Z/nZ?)
(Missed something)
Consider what a subring of Z/nZ satisfies.
Have you heard of zero divisors?
Consider the product of two rings R x S. Then (1,0)(1,0)=(1,0), but its ideal is just R x {0}
Haha this is random but i was reading definition of topology on a set and i finally saw a glimpse of what the point of it is
Im taking topology for first time next semester
There is #point-set-topology btw
hahah nobody cares about that definition (in here). We just use them for invariants
seethe more analysists
Just to check, my proof that the additive group of rationals isn't isomorphic to the multiplicative group of rationals should be alright right?
If you have any comments/suggestions on anything other than the validity of the proof (e.g. phrasing), feel free to share it as well! :D
its pretty overcomplicated and written in a convoluted way, and the last conclusion is not quite right (but almost)
you can just observe that 1 and -1 have order 2 in (Q, x)
ok on second look its not that overcomplicated
but i would suggest avoiding run-on sentences
Oh right oops had a brain loading moment
Yeah yeah the cardinality isn't necessarily 1 😅
Mind elaborating on this?
Isn't that quite common in math writing?
Is the issue it being a bit of a chore to read because of long sentences?
“furthermore, since …, suggests that” is not correct grammar
Isn't there some grammatical liberties one can take in math writing though
lol
Tbh I don't see the issue with grammar at that part but that's besides the point: either ways, isn't it pretty readable? Well, to me it is at least, which is why I'm asking.
why the "lol"? Seems like you're mocking me or smt tbh, in which case, not very nice man.
Is that that many commas
Dang, I need to reduce my comma consumption
i found it quite annoying to read
but if you already made your mind up then why ask
itd probably be more readable if you put the math on its own line
Is "Since ..., one has ..., so ..." too many of commas*?
instead of treating it like words
idk
depends on the sentence
Hmm
Since G is finite, its element has finite order, which generates a cyclic subgroup of G.
I didn't/haven't 'made up my mind'. I was just trying to figure out why my phrasing might not be ideal, as you seem to be suggesting. So that I can improve.
(I tried to emphasize this by stating "Well, to me it is at least, which is why I'm asking")
How do you decide whether to write inline math or not?
What's wrong/hard to read about my inline math 1=eta(0)=... btw? I can follow it just fine and putting it in a new line seems to only improve the readability a bit? No?
Again, just trying to understand what's less than ideal about my phrasing.
idk how to explain why its hard to read
it just is
im not actively monitoring whatever my visual cortex is doing
when i look at the words on my computer screen
Hm I see
so many undergrads never got this message
using these is like that I Q bell curve meme
well \forall and \exists
the others are inexcusable
But but short memo-
At least /\ and \/ are not much shorter than 'and', 'or'.
they also have mathematical meaning
in many many contexts
so are really never acceptable to use in place of and/or
\forall and \exists are ok but only very sparingly, and not for undergrads
Do whatever up to reason in talks/ lectures where you may have time constraints
Yeah
to use \forall and \exists
How about my personal notes?
some fields have a custom of using these symbols a lot
probability for one
well
many people use them
You can choose to do so for personal notes to get into a habit of doing so but if you don't intend on having other people read it, it doesn't really matter
but nobody uses them a lot in a single paper
Indeed ofc, like who would write these symbols for shorthand in a paper
probabilists
depending on what youre doing
it often can help readability
because in probability (and certainly elsewhere) you often need to define sets using fairly complicated quantifiers
in math mode its not such a big deal if the first symbol after the { is \exists
or whtaever
Ouch, was going to use it (in a paper in the future)
Thanks, helped a lot!
For sentence" f(x) is primitive because we can divide both f(x) and g(x) by the content of f(x)." , I am wondering why we can just assume that, it seems that f(x) is reducible ovrer Q can not imply f must be primitive?
If f(x)/content(f(x)) = p•q [where p,q are in Z[x]] then f(x) = p•q•content(f(x))
So f(x)/content(f(x)) is reducible over Z => f is reducible over Z
so is it adequate to say f is reducible over Z if we can decompose f into p*q where p and q is in Z[x]?
Therefore, reducibility over a field implies that factorization of p and q over a field right?
It seems that if we have roots over a field, we can also say f is reducible over a field( does it imply zero?)
Hi all, I’m struggling a lot with the
My book says that in a finite cyclic group G with order n and generator <a>, that the number of elements with order k is phi(k) (Euler phi function) and then it says those elements of order k is a subset of of the only subset with order k
Did i restate it correctly?
I’m not understanding the proof, he shortens the order of the group randomly
One crucial part your missing is that k must divide n. But other than that yes.
For every k that divides n, there is a unique subgroup of order k, which contains all elements of order k, and there are phi(k) of them
I see
Thanks
Every cyclic group is isomorphic to some subgroup of Z right
And isomorphic to Z_n if finite?
No, as every subgroup of Z is either trivial or isomorphic to Z.
Rather, every cyclic group is isomorphic to a quotient of Z.
Quotients of Z are Z and Z_n for n>0.
So every cyclic group is isomorphic to Z or Z_n
Yes
Note a group G being cyclic with generator g can be rephrased as saying that the map Z -> G determined by sending 1 -> g is surjective
And now use first iso
show no cyclic groups are uncountable 
they have one generator
hmm so are finitely generated free groups and their quotients 
wait.
countably generated
All finitely generated groups are countable, yes 
You can see this by noting like
(because every f.g. group is a quotient of an f.g. free group)
You can model fg free groups as consisting of finite words in a finite alphabet (modulo obvious relations)
looks like id misremembered this
We really are stating the same result like, three different ways
Wdym
Nah I'm just musing. These are all the same statement with slight variation
Alright alright tteg spit it out
UwU
But the point being, f.g. free groups are exactly those finite words. Once you take quotients you can choose representatives, which is what you're doing in the argument just above. This is really exactly the same argument but unwrapped slightly.
I just think that's neat
insert marge simpson
topologically cyclic 
I don't see how that is any different
I'm confused lol I thought i was the only one providing a proof
This was the remark I made which is the same as your explanation
whats an example 
R/Z
I was only talkain about free groups
Oh mb
i meant only to complement your explanation aha
but yes the same argument works in general ofc
if you add in more relations
absolute galois group of F_p
ig when I say model I mean that like
mb lol
i care about free groups as a universal construction rather than having a particular incarnation
i.e. inverse limit of Z/nZ
I get the r/z ig
Showing R/Z is top cyclic is not trivial if I'm not mistaken (it has been a while...) It's essentially an ergodic result, right? Perhaps someone more knowledgeable than I can comment
its the integer points of sin right
thingy
iirc its not yh
{sin n} dense in [-1, 1]
Whereas showing the p-adic integers are topologically cyclic is more straightforwardly by definition
Yeah exactly
And ofc Q/Z is not topologically cyclic lol; lmao even
you can choose your irrational carefully to make the proof easy ig
one in my head is the Louville's constant
it's an ergodic result to show equidistribution but it's pretty trivial to show density
which is all you need to show that it's topologically cyclic
ergodic
Er god, ick
just to check like 1 is the intended generator of Z_p right lol
Yeah I think so
just cause it generates all of the tings in da limit diagram
yes since Z_p is a completion of Z Z is dense
yh
I say this to my dynamicist friend whenever he mentions ergodic theory; I hope to someday drive him to madness <3
if he's doing dynamics he's already been driven to madness
joking, it seems a v cool field
True, maybe that's why he always chuckles
Good luck 'tater
Thank
Welc
do people give name to injective limits?
like similar to procyclic
I honestly don't know, sorry
what do you mean injective limits?
Oh I read that as meaning colimits
indeed, it's the pontryagin dual of Z
the relevant property is that it's an injective/divisible module
right
the dual terminology would be ind-cyclic
ah
but I don't think that's a very useful notion
Ooh very nice
Is this hard
Can’t you just
T: N -> G, G = <a>
T_n = a^n?
Cyclic group as in the sense that it has one generator?
thats up to the prover to define 
||I am just trying to think of some cursed long-line analogue of the integers for sufficiently cranky definitions of "cyclic" honestly||
Hm I guess not
Ok so since alpha is algebraic over K, it is of course algebraic over F. So [F(alpha) : F] is equal to the degree of the minimal polynomial of alpha over F. Since f is irreducible over K and has alpha as root, it is minimal polynomial over K. When we are considering the degree of minimal polynomial of alpha over extension fields, it will continue to be deg f as long as f is not reducible among those extension fields, or else it will be <= deg f
i think i just need to work through it very carefully like this in order to understand rn
Yep, try to stress out every single detail. eventually when you're comfortable with this stuff, you'll know which ones are "ignorable" 🙈
Yeah totally. this stuff has been deceptively tricky for me lol
keep drawing diamonds 
the slogan is: "moving diagonally reduces the degree"
So here [F(alpha):F] <= [K(alpha):K] = deg f
How did you draw that?
went to quiver app, drew there, copied tex code.
Ah, thanks
hmmmmm
ohhh wait so if alpha was actually in K, it would be degree 1 f right
then [K(alpha) : K] is 1, K(alpha) is the same as K
Ur helping me immensely in learning rn btw so thanks lo
yeah its something like trying to really internalize that connection between polynomials and fields is taking time to digest i guess
do we need to do something with [F(alpha) : K] = [F(a) : K(a)][K(a) : K] = [F(a) : F][F : K]
We are trying to show that [F(a) : F] is deg f right
Im not sure what to do with this again
oops sorry for leaving
that's where we use that these two numbers are coprime.
Initially you knew that
[F(a) : K] = [F(a):F] * [F:K] <= [K(a):K] * [F:K]
but because of coprimality, since both these coprime numbers divide the degree
their product must also divide it
in particular [F(a):K] is also >= [K(a):K] * [F:K]
and so [F(a):F] = [K(a):K] = deg f
I'll forgive you... this time...
Coprime0
[F(a) : K(a)] is the same as [F : K]?
A is a commutative ring s.t. there is n,k natural numbers ≠0 with x^k=x^(n+k) for every x in A. Show that there is a polynomial P in A[X] with deg(P)=n(n+1) s.t. P(x)=0 for every x in A. Any idea?

Nah fuck all I said
Map the nth even to the nth power of a
nth odd to -nth power of a!
It isn’t feel as right ok
I buy this
Its just not the same
Isn’t the definition of a countable set mean bijection to N
Not Z
If you are gonna use Z then also prove that even tho it’s easy
Ill let you have a think
I no longer buy this. What if the minimal polynomial over F is different than the one over K
Think about what
I literally did this..
What’s a map from N to Z?
If Z is countable, and you have a bijection to Z
Evens to positive odds to negative
I did that
And then I replaced it
Where u put ur z..
its trivial to achieve this
I just wanted to do it properly

Instead of improperly
No amukh, show that given Z is countable, a bijection between S and Z shows S is countable for a general S.
I know
I know that, but I do not wanna prove Z is countable each time
????????
And it doesn’t feel good to assume that it’s already finished
But it isn’t really a result

Any idea
No idea at all
in this case yea
but in general going diagonally up in the diamond reduces the degree
the coprimality makes the diamond super rigid
multiply that relation by x^(n-k)
you get x^n=x^(2n)
so x^n=x^(2n)=x^(3n)=...=x^(n(n+1))
so you have the polynomial x^(n(n+1))-x^n
another way of saying what i said above would be,
[K(a):K] divides [F(a):K] = [F(a):F][F:K], since [K(a):K] and [F:K] are coprime, we get [K(a):K] divides [F(a):F]. So coprimality doesn't let the degree of [F(a):F] reduce to something smaller.
actually, this only works for n>=k
Basical
Y
Im try to prove that if
It’s a set that isn’t generated by an element
It can’t be subgroup
Ok
And obv all generated sets is a subgroup
Prove cyclic groups have cyclic subgroups
So anahays
only have right
Let G = <a>, |G|=n
i think thats a hard approach to go for
so my approach
H is an arbitrary subgroup
hint, any element in G can be written as a^k for some k
Show it cucle
yh sure u can do that
but i wanna point out
that i usually
try small explicit examples
when im stuck
it sounds stupid but can help u find the right approach
I mean
so for example, what are some subgroups of Z6 and why are they cyclic
I already know it’s just the generated sets
In fact
There are k subgroups of G, if there are k factors of G
Each has that many elements

do this first
Yuh
{0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5} mod 6
<1>, <2>, …, <0>They are cyclic because that’s the definition
Cuz they have a generator?
{0, 2, 4} is a subgroup. And this is cyclic as its generated by 2
The factors of 6 = 1,2,3,6
<2> = {0, 2, 4}
im trying to get u to do this because i think it hints at the general approach
hint: gcd
<6>, another is <1> another is <3> and another is <2>
Huuuh
to be honest, this approach works with the GCD
theres quite a few
ways
GCD of what
anyways, i would rewrite this in a more general way
<a> = {0, a, a^2,…}
Yes wait
Hmmm
Well I mean
By the previous theorem..
I already know it only has 3 elements lol
lets go with your original approach and wews hint
it can work out
Wait ok
Assume the subgroup is generated by 2+ elements
So let the subset be S
Why
thats your approach?
It’s a set that isn’t generated by an element
It can’t be subgroup
Ok
And since is it a subset some a^k is in S for some k
Yeah but I didn’t think to use
2+ generators
I was doing it raw

It’s cheating if I use ur idea too easy
Also any multiples of k is in it
Ummmm
I think slow down
So anyway
Start this
Let S be your generating set
If there is no other elements it is cyclic, if there is call it a^j, then a^k+j is in S
and we are interested in the subgroup <S>
Ok
Ye ye I realized it went noware
Let G be a cyclic group.
Let S be a subset.
Show <S> can always be generated by one element
====
Does this approach make sense
Yes
Hmm
then pick various examples of S
12 😨
and then try to show this always works
<3,2>
ok
This is basically
The set of elements of the form 3^k 2^j
For some k,j
Huh
yeah i guess, but just compute a few elements
and you should be able to see which group this is
the hours on a clock is Z_12
so <S> = {2j + 3k (mod 12) : k, j in Z}
Yes
theres more interesting elements.
256

It’s just all evens and all multiples of 3
In the equiv class
256 = 4, and you already wrote 4
Damn it
you're missing elements.
How many
Oh bruh that makes more sense to me. Thank you so much for your help this problem was loads more complicated to me than i thought
most
Now i have to relook at the whole problem and understand it all again lol
… is most
most of the important ones.
i mean cmon amukh u only wrote the multiples of 2 and 3 here
thats not everything in it is it?
And 6
Also that’s all it is
that doesnt make sense to me when you dont know what the subgroup is
Im asking you to compute it
this is a multiple of 2
so is this
Is there anything that ISNT a multiple of 2. Or a multiple or 3. That should be in there
Ohh wait
15
bro thats a mult of 3
Ok
I know
I’m thinking
It doesn’t make any sense what would be there that isn’t
should 5 be in there.
there are only 12 possible numbers in there
Is it <5>
as well, like... theres not too much to consider
well actually yes.... but
if u tell me that
Is this always work
Nah I’ll just computer the order
So
5 = 1^5
Wait
I’m confused one sec
The order of <5> not 5
Not <5>, 5
It should = the order of 5
or list its elements in roster form
youre overcomplicating, no theorems are required here
Ye
= {5, 10, 3, 8, 1, 6, 11, 4, 9, 2, 7, 0}
But the 3,8 take a long time for me to figure iut
which took me 30 seconds
How ru go so fast


