#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 196 of 1
💀
The kernel of a surjective ring homomorphism onto a field is maximal.
Why the 💀
hehe
I have shown that $\Phi: C_n^\times\to\operatorname{Aut}C_n$ given by $a\mapsto \varphi_a$ where $\varphi_a$ is multiplication by $a$ is an injective homomorphism, but I can't show that $\varphi_a(x)=\varphi_a(1)\varphi_a(x)$ (ie $\Phi$ is surjective)
person2709505
I tried showing the inverse is an iso but that was harder lol
so you want this to be a group homomorphism
what you wrote at the end is ax = a * ax?
then the inverse of phi_a must be phi_a^-1
Uhhh that sounds bad
Can you see why those are inverses?
am I wrong?
no
Unless I misunderstand your notation, phi_a(x) = ax and phi_a(1) = a
so you're trying to prove that ax = a^2 x always
which of course isnt working
idealy it should be phi_a(x) = phi_a(1+1+1...+1) = x * phi_a(1)
should be phi_a(1)x if anything
Hmm well the problem is definitely showing Phi is surjective, my alternative way of writing that might just be wrong
Yes that's it
can you show this?
that phi_a and phi_a^-1 are inverses?
I need to check how much of my scratchwork has been nonsense 
For surjectivity of Phi, you would show that for an arbitrary automorphism psi, you have psi = Phi(psi(1)).
Man I feel so silly here, 
It might reduce notational confusion first to show as a lemma that if phi and psi are homomorphisms Cn -> Cn and phi(1) = psi(1) then phi=psi.
||for every left multiplication by a, there exists a in Cn^x. So like... explicit construction? Am I sillying
nvm ur showing every automorphism is a left multiplication||
oh nvm im sillying
shuwi siwwy
sillymaxxing
I can get the result from this step but I can't see how to prove this...
A homomorphism is uniquely determined by its image on generators, just like a linear map on a basis
Cn is cyclic so the only generator is 1
I am so dumb I've spent this whole convo reading C_n as complex numbers lmfao
Wait I don't quite understand that, you are saying that a homomorphism is uniquely determined by generators of its image?
Image of generators no?
Reember that any element of Cn can be written as 1+1+1+...+1 for some appropriate number of ones.
Ah okay I see now
Argh I've been trying to avoid thinking of multiplication as repeated addition because "that only works in Z". I have been silly
Yep, I see that now, thanks everyone!
i mean... thats almost correct too
For certain values of "almost".
lmao
The result definitely does NOT hold for the complex numbers lol
wild automorphisms of C 
also ig just the complex conjugation isn't multiplication by a non-zero
There is ONE automorphism of C. I refuse to hear any different
{0} is a field, I refuse to hear any different. Now there are 2
oh wait im tripping
but anyways the zero map is clearly an automorphism
what?
in so many ways
There is ONE empty set, I refuse to hear any different
… lol?
i think he did one of those 1 =2 fake proofs, in which case she is right
my speed of thought is so fast that no one can understand
the quality of the math here
I’m chatting shite and need to save face
i aint doin worse than #discussion its ok
0 should be different from 1
does every automorphism of C at least fix R?
it fixes Q so...
whoopsie
are we on about field automorphisms
im so dead
No, it doesn't need to fix R.
whats an counterexample?
if it fixes R, it would be either id or conjugation
They’re all non-constructable
That needs the axiom of choice, so can't be exhibited explicitly.
all surjections have a right inverse..
hecks that
Indexes stuff

send any element in the disjoint union to it index of the set it came from
Anyway not all epimorphisms are split sweaty. Better luck next time
What does the "order preserving" mean
x <= y implies f(x) <= f(y)
Wait
Well anyway that's the only definition of order-preserving that I know so
Yeah that’s correct
Ah I guess the order here is inclusion
So <= indicates inclusion symbol?
Yeah
[ \mathfrak x \subseteq \mathfrak y \implies \phi(\mathfrak x) \subseteq \phi(\mathfrak y) ]
In this case
Mathfrak is wild damn
A Lonely Bean
Most sane mathfraker
if b contains a, then the image of b contains the image of a
first time seeing math frak ideals other than a, b or p
I've seen o used for that too actually
rest were all capital letters too i believe
I think
yeah capital letters are fair game when they look nice
A Lonely Bean
Shame none of them look nice
$\mathfrak F$ is I think pretty nice
Kerr
[ \mathfrak M ]
[ \mathfrak V ]
A Lonely Bean
Wait what
V is cursed
how did anyone think thats how you could write v
A Lonely Bean
I wanted to show this mb
why does V suddenly have pi_1 = Z
Capital O also looks like D
abcpqm are all i use with mathfrak
a is pushing it…
at least its simply connected
with mathfrak you could expected it being dissected into the 4 path-components

The 0th homology of mathfrak
(how long until a mod sends us to #latex-testing?)
sadly we only live in 3d dimensions, we cant even conceive what part of the mathfrak letters we cant perceive
And none are measurable except conjugation iirc
I could measure them
:3
What's up with automorphisms of C?
C is isomorphic as a field to the algebraic closure of Q(t1,t2,....) where t1, t2, ... are continuum many independent transcendentals.
No, there are no nontrivial automorphisms of the reals.
(We can recover the ordering of the reals by defining x >= y iff there exists a such that x = a²+y, and then an automorphism must preserve the Dedekind cut of every real).
Looks like I should study field theory more
Interestingly enough I have proven the last thing you mentioned
Is there an incredibly obvious way to do this? 
What I did was:
n=2k+1 for some natural k, logically a^2k=b^2k
a^2=b^2
then a^n-2=b^n-2
a^n a^-2 = b^n b^-2
subbed for n, and a few eliminations later a^-1=b^-1 which proves it.
But this is quite lengthy.
christmas got over here 😔
uh, yeah
n=2k-1, then a^2k=b^2k but a^2k=a^(2k-1)a=ea=a, same for b
Oh wow that seemed to good to be true at first
Because the implication should hold for all groups of odd order
Hadn't thought of it that way lul. That considerably shortens the proof. Thank you!
I recently was reading about Fraktur, apparently the stereotypical Nazi connection is not entirely correct, because although they supported it initially as TRVE German script, they discontinued it later (in the 40s iirc).
with finite orders it can be helpful to keep everything positive yknow?
Yup, I'm learning.
How to show if R is a commutative ring, a in R nilpotent element then a+x invertible for every invertible x
Can someone explain what does this lattice mean? I aim to know why the maximal ideal of Z36 is <2> and <3>?
Try using a geometric series
It is a lattice of ideals ordered by inclusion, so the ideal generated by 2, <2> = {0, 2, 4, 6, 8, ..., 34} contains <4> = {0, 4, 8, ..., 32} etc
All the ideals contain <0> = {0} so it's at the bottom
1/(a+x) should be equal to x^-1/(1+ax^-1)… is ax^-1 nilpotent?
An ideal is maximal if there is no proper ideal properly containing it and the diagram shows this clearly, there is no ideal above <2> or <3> except Z36 itself
You can also do it like this ||(x+a)(x-a)=x^2-a^2||, ||(x^2-a^2)(x^2+a^2)=x^4-a^4||, etc. Eventually, you are just left with x^n which is invertible
Very clean.
So nice
Thanks
Another way is that a is in every prime ideal. If a + x is not invertible then it is contained in a prime ideal p and so x is also in that prime ideal p, contradiction
Why must every ring have a prime ideal that’s not just the whole ring?
thats also a pretty useful argument overall
Well the whole ring isn't prime
You cant have both 1+x and x be contained in a prime ideal
Actually idk what the case is with 0
The 0 ring I mran
Empty spectrum is the convention actually nvm
Prime ideals have the small tid bit of not being the whole ring in their definition, easy to miss
Ah
But uh
It follows from Krull's theorem that every non-zero ring has a maximal ideal
Though existence of prime ideals is slightly weaker set theoretically
I prefer to explicitly write an inverse as others have done, bit as Kerr says, the technique is useful
Didn’t know this had a name
tbf there are too many theorems by krull
lol
But yeah it's a standard application of Zorn's 🍋
actually not that I think about I dont know why prime ideals should exist
Besides maximal ideals being prime by definition
there is uh Boolean prime ideal theorem right
huh
We assumed the existence of a nilpotent element, isn't this essentially an additional restriction that the nilradical has a nontrivial element => there is at least one prime ideal?
i sure hope the nilradical is non-empty
equivalent to ultrafilter lemma i.e. every filter contained in an ultrafilter
To prove that the nilradical is the intersection of primes also needs smth choicy so there is a sort of like
lack of independence between the two
"too big to be maximal" moment
maximaler
Ultrafilter lemma my beloved
if I have pairs $(f/2^n,g/x^m)$ with f and g elements from Z[X], is there some nice way to characterize these pairs when I have the condition that $f x^m = 2^n g$? Seemingly given an polynomial g with the first m coefficients zero this would give me a valid f in that pair. So I have some triple (h,n,m) and the n and m being natural numbers and h some arbitrary polynomial with g=$hx^m$. I must be missing something, right?
Kerr
real
@slim kayak you have x^m | 2^n g, so x^m | g, so g=hx^m, for some h in Z[x]
then f=2^n h
🤦 thanks...
so its just Z[X] is disguise
Hi guys, I have a question considering (d). If G is commutative, isn't it necessary for S to be equal to G and hence not satisfying being a proper subset?
Indeed G cannot be Abelian if S is to be proper.
thanks
If G=<x> is cyclic, the subgroup of nth powers ought to have index n, but I'm blanking on why it's so.
No I meant finite.
and G has order n?
n can be assumed to be strictly less than the size of the group.
No, it's whatever else.
E.g. if L is the finite field of size q^n, the subgroup of (q-1)st powers ought to have index q-1.
It comes down to checking the elements 1,x,...,x^{n-1} are inequivalent mod the subgroup, but I'm blanking on that for w/e reason.
So you have a cyclic group of order n and then consider the subgroup which consists of k-th powers of the elements of the original cyclic group?
Yes.
it should have index n/k
No it shouldn't, you're confusing that with the subgroup <x^k> of <x>. I misspoke.
Yeah ok, the subgroup of nth powers is <x^n> so it has index n (not index n/k), that ought to work.
you still need n to divide |<x>|
I'm fine with that assumption, it does not disturb what I'm doing.
how is the order of x not n^2 if <x^n> has order n
You can also explicitly count coset representatives
huh, oh the number of cosets?
hewwo walter 
That's what I meant, I'm just having trouble explicitly checking 1,x,...,x^{n-1} are inequivalent, lol.
Hey det
Hope you're doing well
if two were equal mod <x^n> then you'll get x^{i-j} in <x^n>, so a smaller power is in the subgroup of n-th powers
You're using here that the nth powers are equal to <x^n>, that's what didn't cross my mind at the beginning lol (otherwise it's easy).

In any case, I'm fine now, thanks.
yee 
nice tie 
oh its a muffler

Scarf lol
still nice 
Just to triple check I'm not still hallucinating, if <x> is finite cyclic and n divides its order, then the subgroup of nth powers is equal to <x^n>, right?
yep 
That's right. You can get that every subgroup is cyclic via like division algorithm or something
Yeah I know that, can take it from here.
if n didn't divide m = order of group, then it's <x^gcd(m,n)>
man this channel sure is active this season, so many new messages
I’m a chmonkey
I'm a det
I am the ULTIMATE CHAD
Kian
I am a lonely bean
Doesn't every polynomial get reduced to just the constant term then?
And that should be invertible given k is a field
Uh yeah, think about how polynomials look if they have a root at zero
With those you can "reduce" any polynomial in k[x]
During a lecture my professor considered the field $\bZ_2[x] / (x^2 + x + 1)$ and got the following tables for addition and multiplication
I am confused because x^2 + x + 1 is just 1 in Z2
A Lonely Bean
x is not in Z2
Yeah sorry I meant the polynomial ring there
I am confused because x^2 + x + 1 is just 1, so how come (x^2 + x + 1) is not the same as Z2[x]?
How is it 1 ?
It's equal to 1 at 0 and 1, should I be considering x to be an element of some larger field?
That’s 0 dawg
Ah it's 1 when evaluated at 0 or 1 ?
Yeah
And for polynomials, these are formal objects
They aren’t considered equal via equality as a function
So my mistake was confusing polynomials with polynomial functions I guess
Yeah
Also if you use the tables to compute x^2+x+1 where this time x is the class of x in the field you are given, you get 0
I see, thanks
So in that field, the polynomial function of y^2+y+1 isn't 1
Plazzi
Sorry my english math vocabular isn't very good, so I don't know if it's actually called the outer direct product
Plazzi
What is the problem with r(cos phi + i sin phi) being in R+ × S^1 ?
I thought that when we take the direct outer product of two groups, I only combine the original group elements with each other. So for
r_1,r_2 in R and z_1,z_2 in S^1 it should be
(r_1,z_1)•(r_2,z_2)=(r_1×r_2,z_1×z_2)
For example how can i "visualize" 10i with the direct product?
Ah, do you mean the identification that (r, e^(i phi)) = r e^(i phi) ?
Yes
I would say this is simply an identification.
One can consider \bC^\times as a direct product of \bR_+ and S^1, after all.
This was the exercise to show that this is true.
Yea, like there is a straightforward way to show that.
And this was the solution, but i'm so confused why we're allowed to say (r,e^(i phi))= r×(e^(i phi))
What was the exact statement of the solution?
Every $z \in \C^{\times}$ can be written as $\ z=r \cdot e^{i\varphi}$ with $r \in \R_+$ and $e^{i \varphi} \in \mathbb{S}^1 \$
This shows
$\C^{\times} = \R_+ \times \mathbb{S}^1 \$
Plazzi
Hmm, this statement is missing "uniquely"
But it checks out, this is different than saying r e^i phi \in R_+ \times S^1.
Do you recall definition of direct product?
Yes G=U×W with (U,×) and (W,°) (at least two groups)
Afaik G doesn't have to be a group
What about e.g. categorical definition?
categorical definition?
(Doesn't matter by much but it helps if you learned that)
Yea the universal property
I'm not sure if i learned that
Well, then I guess this uses identification instead.
Thank you ♥️
it's in their product = p^2 + (x)p + p(y) + (x)(y) = p + (x)(y)
Idk much about ideals, but maybe (x)(y) = (xy) ?
xy y^-1 = x so (xy) contains x
Similarly (xy) contains y
Hence it (xy) contains (x)(y)
The other inclusion is trivial
If your elements are invertible
Why p^2+(x)p+p(y)=p@daring nova
I see now
not equal, but ⊆
Bezier said they are equal
They're equal modulo p, which is what's relevant
I think he refered to (x)(y)=(xy)
but the exact same question about (p+(x))(p+(y)) and p+(xy) was asked in my commutative algebra course
the professor incorrectly wrote that they are equal, and she corrected this in another lecture after someone pointed out
Why they are different..
Ideal business is so tricky
p^2+(x)p+p(y)+(x)(y)=3p+(x)(y)=p+(xy)..where's an error
If F is a free group, then any exact 1->N->E->F->1 splits, right (just send the free generators of F to their preimages in E)?
both equalities are wrong
a trivial counterexample is x=0
or, think about Z with p=7Z and x=7
LHS is 49Z, while RHS is 7Z
Whats lhs...
What does it stand fot
But multiplying something with ideal doesn't change it..afaik
Left hand side
Do u think I can't study math
I think you can
But I remember few things and can't understand anything without explanation
According what I said then IJ=I=J which is not possible
But what was my error
Are we still on the question about (x)(y) = (xy)? I think they are equal
Yeah
The error was IJ doesn't mean {ij} I guess
Oh, (x)(y) = (xy)? I am somehow confused abt this
(Well, seems obvious now)
Works out fine for principal ideals
It is sufficient to define product ideals as the set of products of elements in (x) and (y), then commute a bit
What's a cring? 
Commutative ring
And non-commutative rings don't exist
When freyd-mitchell
Lmaooo
Huh?
If my abelian category isn't equivalent to one of modules over crings I don't want it
Every ring is commutative and unital 
a ring without unit is a rng, but that's stochastics so I won't touch that
The adjective for commutative unital ring is "cringy"
is it because it has a younit
Isn't it unity

Is a book about commutative algebra a cringe compilation then?
Huh, stochastics?
Lmao
@next obsidian owned
There are also rigs
Huh
Rig = semi-ring (ring minus the requirement of additive inverses)
What is ring without 0
There's no such ring
A double monoid I suppose
Ahhh
a bioid?
That makes more sense
the additive monoid would have a 0 then
ㅡㅡㅡㅡㅡㅡ
If IJ:={ij}, then IJ=I=J? What did I wrong
No {ij}
that doesnt make any sense
you're doing ideals or what
thats not an ideal, an ideal always contains 0
{x|x=ij} I mean
with i in I and j in J? 😭
Yes
consider the example of (2)=I and (3)=J
I would more just ask, what have you done
you have just stated something which is generally false and then asked us what you did wrong
Then J=/=IJ=/=I
yuh huh
and IJ consists of all multiples of 6, which are products of elements in (2) and (3)
How did you arrive at I=J=IJ anyways
Kerr
ㅡㅡㅡㅡ
Is {1, sqrt(3)} a basis for Q(sqrt(3), sqrt(21)) over Q(sqrt(7))
Yes I mean Q(sqrt(3),sqrt(21)) = Q(sqrt(3), sqrt(7))
Yea
Ye
This doesnt seem complicated but for some reason its kinda hurting my brain just a little bit lol
Truuuue
So the point here is that {1, sqrt(3)} with scalars from Q(sqrt(7)) generates Q(sqrt(3),sqrt(7))
ye
and important bit is that the extension is degree 2 as well so any two linearly independent elements form a basis
Answer to 3 is just 12?
I think so
How to prove
use [Q(a,b):Q]=[Q(a,b):Q(b)][Q(b):Q]
the first index is not that straightforward, because it requires checking that a polynomial is irreducible over Q(sqrt4), rather than on Q
luckily it's a cubic
oh, wait, I think we can just say that because [Q(a):Q]=3, then 3 divides [Q(a,b):Q]
likewise, since [Q(b):Q]=4, then 4 divides [Q(a,b):Q]
so 12 divides [Q(a,b):Q], so [Q(a,b):Q]>=12
Finite field extensions have all their elements algebraic over the base field. What is the connection between the degree of the field extension and the degree of some element from the field?
on the other hand [Q(a,b):Q]<=12 (#groups-rings-fields message)
so [Q(a,b):Q]=12
Its a divisor
Of the degree of field extension
Was there some more general method outside of primitive element theorem for this?
It seems like a common trick in this field stuff is constructing some intermediate fields
And forming some sort of bridge between fields
Hm but doesnt that come down to using stuff like being relatively prime?
For q4. u in F is algebraic over K because F is a finite extension. The degree of u over K is a divisor of p, it cant be 1 so it must be p. That implies that the set {1, u, … u^(p-1)} is linearly independent in F, so its a basis for F. So F = K(u)
Like, what if you replaced the third with an eight root in exercise 3?
Sounds good?
Anyone?
Yeah
Actually, F is free abelian?
Like this only works too my knowledge when E is abelian, which forces F to be abelian or free abelian in this case
No.
It seems like it should hold for free groups in general, yeah
I expected so, just checking (I'm not so comfortable with free groups).
You can also choose to interpret this cohomologically, they certainly split for abelian kernel since H^2 of a free group vanishes
That's why I asked this, lol, wanted to show H2 vanishes.
There are other ways of showing this as well if you want to think about it topologically, if you care to hear about that
I do indeed, I'm not yet versed in how all this relates to topology (e.g. Eilenberg/MacLane's original definitions via aspherical spaces and whatnot).
Sure, so you might be familiar with K(G, 1)s? These are topological spaces whose fundamental group is G and whose higher homotopy groups vanish. It turns out the integral cohomology of G agrees with the integral cohomology of a K(G, 1). One way to see this is that the universal cover of a K(G, 1) is a contractible space (by Whitehead's theorem), so it's cellular chain complex is a resolution of Z. Furthermore, the action of G (viewed as the fundamental group of the base space) on the universal cover makes the cellular chain groups of the universal cover into free ZG-modules. Thus, the cellular chain complex of the universal cover is a free ZG resolution of Z, so you can use it to compute group cohomology
In practice, a common way to construct a K(G, 1) is to start with a contractible space X that G acts on freely and properly discontinuously (and I'm probably forgetting some adjectives or something). Then by covering space theory, the quotient X/G is a K(G, 1). In the case of free groups, an easier way is just to invoke Van Kampen on the wedge of n circles. This space has fundamental group F_n and it's universal cover is contractible, so it's a K(G, 1). Then one can see that it's higher cohomology groups vanish since it's a 1-dimensional CW complex.
Neat.
Admittedly I'm not too sure how the story works when you want to do homology with coefficients if you have a non-trivial action. I think you have to look at local coefficients or something which I'm not familiar with.
Wait, when you say H^n(F,A) vanish do you assume that F acts trivially? H^2(F,A), at least, should vanish regardless of the kind of action.
It should vanish regardless in general
Yeah local coefficients is where it’s at, the bundle of groups picture in hatchers chapter 3 is pretty nice when talking about this
If I'm remembering correctly it's because you can interpret H^n(F, A) as Ext_{ZF}(Z, A) and since the integral cohomology vanishes in degrees higher than 2, Z has projective dimension 1 as a ZF-module so all the higher Ext groups vanish regardless of A.
Oh ok, I'll check this out
Can I please have a hint to get me started as I am unsure where to proceed from gcd(h,k) = 1 ...
do you know lagrange's theorem?
I do, but I never thought to use it because I believe this question comes before that in my lec notes.
Ill have another go thanks
Ok so, so far I have that since h and k divide |G|, I can write; for some x,y in Z, we have hx=|G| and ky=|G|. Thus, by the fact that gcd(h,k) = 1 and by Bezout, we have hx + ky = 1........ [I think now I need to use properties of cosets perhaps, but as I still need to revise them I am unsure atm. Can you please see if I am on the correct lines and I will come back to it when I have reviewed cosets.]
this is much more complicated than it needs to be
oh
you don't need to do anything with elements, for example
I haven't done anything with the elements
ok
Ye, Idk how that would hinder me though, but ill keep it in mind
you can't talk about h and k dividing |G|
oh ye lol. Well then, my whole argument goes to shit lmao
what can you say about |H n K|?
idk, am I missing a theorem or somet
Hint: H cap K is a group
oh
it's a subgroup of both H and K 🙈
loll
Two ways really. If you know that intersections of groups are groups and lagrange that way, or you just ask yourself:
can x^p = x^q = e for p and q coprime?
oh i guess that would be a way to use bezout lol
well that still uses Lagrange
but ye
the second step?
to show order of element divides order of group
idk you can do order of elements before establishing lagrange. I think we did it that way? But entirely sure
ah sure ><
Like, the order can be defined as a minimum of n s.t x^n=e, then clearly n has to divide p and q
yea but then one has to do work and show such an n exists
which is like a pigeon hole thingy
yea but why non-empty
if no such n exists then <x> generates an infinite subgroup
x^n+1 is distinct from all the power of x before it, if it wasnt then you would obtain an k s.t. x^k=e
well you only care about x in H, say
and this is pigeon hole right 🙈
idk maybe?
its either a finite set has an infinite subset or there exist elements s.t x^k=e
i confusion now lol
Lagranges theorem apparently works for groups of infinite order?
ye
yea but infinite cardinalities aren't so rigid
I see
what does lagrange for infinite groups even say really?
Well, I have to go and have my dinner now as family are around. I appreciate the help and ill see what I can figure out when I am back 🙂
Real functions with compact (set-theoretic) support are not a ring, but those with compact closed support are right?
so like, you have to use group property somewhere to argue that the repeating thingy is a cycle and not a shape like ρ
you could start like x, x^2, x^3, x^4, and then repeat like x^2, x^3, x^4, x^2, x^3, x^4, ....
so {x^n : n>0} apriori can be finite and never hit e.
(i'm just emphasizing trivial stuff at this point)
anyway, i would say by pigeon hole you have a<b such that x^a = x^b, then since inverses are a thing, x^(b-a) = e gives the required thingy
Take x from a finite group G. There exists a k s.t. x^k=e:
Suppose there exists no such k. For all n x^n+1 is not in {x^1,..., x^n}, otherwise there exists some m<n s.t. x^m=x^n+1 -> x^n+1-m=e. A contradiction.
So G (a finite set) contains an infinite subset. A contradiction again
well sure
I mean yeah, the practicallity resides completely in whether you had to show things like these before lagrange
ye
compact closed support definitely
yep, its usually a common thing for an elementary number theory course :p
real functions with the base space not hausdorff seems like they would be rare so its probably overlooked
compactness on its own isnt stable under intersection
but I am too hausdorff pilled to give you a counterexample
I bet you it is
Wait is this the case in general but true in R? I thought it was unstable under union
(Sorry about the analysis in #groups-rings-fields lol)
It shouldn’t be hard to prove it’s true in R^n using the characterisation of compact subspaces as closed and bounded
Under union it’s definitely not stable though yeah
yeah but that uses hausdorffness
All topological spaces are hausdorf
R is nice enough where compact is closed
hausdorffpilled
Ahh ok I was confused. Thanks
all rings are absolutely flat
a simple example is real line with two origins say 0 and 0'.
look at the subspace X = {1/n : n > 0} then X u {0} and X u {0'} are both compact, but their intersection isn't.
🙈
Spec A :c
qcqs?
quasi-compact and quasi-separated

actually they are equivalent, kinda funny
I was doing an exercise in my book and was wondering if this logic is ok
exercise: suppose G is a finite abelian guppy. Show that the product of all the elements has order 1 or 2
G = {a_1, a_2, …, a_n}
Ok so I went with induction
So my first part were I feel weird is
In the base case
I used base 3
How do you induction 
How will you do the inductive step
Only group with bae 3 is {e,a,a^—}
So obviously that has order 1
So I said “it has order 1, so it has order 1 or 2”
Can I do this?
It feels cheating
Yes but how do you induction
You will need to find a subgroup of order n in a group of order n+1, that's not possible for like infinitely many n
And I change the base case to end with “x is in R, so it is in C”
???
Why
In fact that' only possiible if n=2.
Lagrange's theorem
When n=1 maybe?
Or perhaps you meant the implication n-1 -> n
Daaang it 😭😭😭
The key is very simple
It may just involve a slight bit of clevering
One take-home point here: When you think, "oh, I'll try induction", your first consideration should be, "do I have a way to make an induction step work". Base cases can always be figured out once you know that the step works.
I thought I did
I didkd consider to check
If my subset was a group
lol
😭😭😭
What is it then
Clevering = multiplying the elements in an order that makes most of them telescope away.
Telescope?
i am so proud of you for leaving discussy 🥰
AMUKH SPELLES ANALYSIS
oh that exercise
no its fine
Ok
For example, if you sum the elements of Z/7Z, instead of
0 + 1 + 2 + 3 + 4 + 5 + 6 (mod 7)
try doing
1 + 6 + 2 + 5 + 3 + 4 + 0 (mod 7)
from left to right...
Please try to work on specific examples
So this is for odds
try it with Z/Z8 and Z/9Z
This is the same as 3*7
Wait
Yeah that’s 0
Wait what
Oh
0 has order 1
So maybe odd groups have order 1
And even have order 2
please try to work on more examples yourself
Counterexample: (Z/2Z)² has order 1
Even groups always have an involution right
As I wrote it here, it looks like it's only for cyclic groups -- I'll leave it for you to figure out how to state a corresponding principle for arbitrary finite abelian groups.
Ok
Wait what’s an example of an asyuc group
Ok wait nvm S3
"asyuc"?
Is S2 also?
the product of two non-relatively prime cyclic group?
To show K(u^2) = K(u) (u is algebraic over K..) whats the best way to approach it? u^2 must be algebraic over K since u^2 is in K(u), so the only way these two fields are equal is if degree of u^2 over K is the same as degree of u over K right
K(u) contains u^2 tho?
Oh
S3 is not cyclic, but it's not abelian either.
An example of an abelian group that is not cyclic would be Z/5Z × Z/5Z.
K(u^2) may not contain u ?
Yeah
so whats your hypothesis for u?
Before i say that, why doesnt this work
Degree of u^2 over K must be same as degree of u over K? Why not
works any pair of cyclic groups as long as they have a gcd > 1 no?
by bezout
If they are the same as vector spaces they must have same dimension right
lets hear it
If two vector spaces are equal, they also have the same dimension yes
wdym by equal anyways
Isomorphic? 
dimensionality is well-defined lol
I mean equal, as in literally the same
I am getting the dot treatment 😭
Whats the dot treatment lol
...
Yes.
has a different vibe than
Yes
that type of thing
Ok.
i was being /jk anyways
Sure.
im not joking.
The second one must be written by someone who habitually doesn't use correct punctuation in their chat posts.
Hahahahaha
Perchance.
So if G is even |G| = 2n for some n.
Let the elements be a_1,…,a_2n ok
The product is a_1 a_2 … a_2n
If I saure it, a_1^2 a_2^2 … a_2n^2 right
So iirc the order of a product is the LCM of the orders
And the order of a power is the power / gcd(power, order of base)
So the orders of a_j ^2 for some j is 2/[gcd(2,|a_j|)]
So the order of the product is the LCM of all of those.
Dot treatment makes me 😢
camel Case Go Brrrr.
There is more I was just lagging
I feel like thats wrong
the order of a product is the LCM of the orders
This is not true.
Why wouldnt this work for any collection of elements a_i?
Because they need to commute
Wait actually?
but like
If they commute
Wait ye
if a^4 = e and b^k = 5 then won’t (ab)^20 = e?
Lol
Take any element x of order n != 1. Then x^-1 also has order n, but x^-1 x has order 1, which is not the lcm of n and n.
Huh
x^n = e doesn't imply O(x) = n
i believe the exercise had being abelian in its hypothesis
||hint!||
Amukh, this isnt exactly the type of exercise where you use a lot of machinery. Its one about making a critical observation
Wait
Ok but the gcd part is ok right
And I think all the gcds would be 1s and 2s
And let’s say I replaced = LCM with <= LCM
And the LCM of a bunch of ones and twos is 2
Wait
No it’s not
Is it
Yes it is 😭
G is abelian, so if you have abcd you can make it abdc, or bcad or any mix.
Now suppose you have a product that includes all elements of your group. What would be a clever way of using this re-ordering property?
Ok fuck
How did I now see that
Not
I can put them next to their inverse
OHH
AND IF IRS EVEN
but why does that work?
Everyone has an inverse
you can do it once, maybe twice? Can you do this with all element inverse pairs?
Wait is that it
Could it happen that you actually use up someones inverse when doing this?
Can you perform the procedure for, say, (Z/2Z)²
Nvm
I am asking for you to make sure that sets of the form {a,a^-1} form a partition
This was the correct way to think about it, but for some reason I would never have seen it, otherwise it was actually really simple lmao...
I think Kerr's (very nice) point is that what you have is not just abcd, but abcdabcd, because your goal is to show that abcd has order 1 or 2.
They don’t if the order is rven right
think about it!
think more!
But it’s fine I’ll pair him with e
Yes
So throw e in with it
So it is a partition
But you still have two copies of a in the original product.
Yes, you do.
i dont see why you would either
^
There might be many of those.
Why
||the idea is, to me at least, that all elements with arent their own inverse cancel in the product. Leaving a product of self-inverse elements, but that product has order 2 since G is abelian||
😭😭😭😭
But there is never an even number of them
Errr wait
Yeah
Never an even number of them
Now I'm curious what are you actually trying to prove?
That's what I thought of first too, but it's easier to say: ||We want to show that abcd...xyz has order 1 or 2, which is the same as showing abcd...xyzxabcd...xyz=1. So just pair each element in the first list with its inverse from the second list,|| and then we don't have to worry about left-overs.
(I thought you were already hinting at that).
||but the left overs are the thing that explains why the product has either order 1 or 2?||
||no leftovers -> product is just e. Else it has order 2||
I’m impressed
No, what explains that the product has order 1 or 2 is that (the product)·(the product) is the identity!
With myself for not clicking them
its a tiny bit more constructive is what I mean
like logically either method is equivalent
So is my partitioning work
what I mean is that in your case its less clear why there should be situations where it has order 2 or oder 1. The conclusion is that it has order at most 2
???
lol I
Are you suggesting that "at most 2" could be something else than 2 or 1??
Am missing an entire convo
at most 2 could mean that it always has order 1 or 2
No, keep looking at the math
No, because it it 1 for the trivial group and 2 for C2.
Ok
Has order 1 or 2 includes that too
Well if the group order is odd
The inverses match up
And get me eee…e and then I multiply by e
That’s order 1
Why
yes
the difference is that in one you would have to bring up an example to see why both cases can happen. I am just explaining a slight preference to one proof 😭
Tho the solution should not be dependent on parity of group order
Oh
if your group has even order the product must have order 2. For odd orders it can be either
but thats a different problem entirely
(Z/2Z)²
So I said the right thing but the wrong why?
Well do you know why this is the case
You were right, just didn't justify it I guess
(But this is actually tangential to the solution)
(there is a construction that works for any group)
Ok let me try fresh
Take all the elements of the group that don’t have order 1 or 2
That product will be e, because they have a unique inverse that isn’t itself
You can put them next to eachother and they cancel
That’s true so far cuz comm
The product is e, so I’ll throw it away
For odd orders, the product is always the identity -- Lagrange says there are no elements of order 2.
Then the product of all elements is the product of elements with orders 1 and 2
The product of elements of orders 1,2 is <= lcm(1,2)
<= 2
That’s it
I see the situation in (Z/2Z)^2 now... there exist elements with order 2 (well, any) and the sum of say (0,1) and (1,0) happens to be the third (1,1) so the product of self-inverses can still reduce to 0...
yeah
Why do you think it doesn't work?
Because nobody said it does
And my thing doesn’t sound the same as ur guyses
your thing is that you reduced it to a product of elements of order 2, and yeah, that has order 1 or 2
#discussion message
I win
So I did it?
also damn this is like the third time this question has been asked within the last 2 weeks
Or is there anything else I need to do
What’s wilsons theorem
a number is prime if and only if (n-1)! = n-1 mod n
Mod gets told to post gifs in chill 
Ouch
chmonkey

det

tubu

If n is the product of pairwise coprime numbers $n_1$ to $n_k$, and defining $m_i$ as $n/n_i$. Then does there for all a and r exist some k s.t. this holds?
$m^{r}_i k + n\mathbb{Z}= a + n\mathbb{Z}$
Kerr
I am wondering what does D(x) mean? does it mean a field of quoteint of D that represent f/g as f and g is in D and g !=0?
Because I saw that D is integral domain, which means D is commutative ring. and it implies that D(x) is clearly commutative, but I am not sure if D(x) means f/g where f and g is in D
When D is a field, then D(x) is indeed the field of rational functions. It's less standard to write the same thing when D is merely a domain, although you could simply define it as Frac(D[x]) which is isomorphic to Frac(D)(x).
In case the question is just about the statement in the screenshot, they say D[x] instead of D(x), and D[x] is the ring of polynomials with coefficients in D.
D(x) is the field of fractions of D[x] as Byotty said
Ah I hadn't appreciated the confusion may have been D[x] vs D(x)...
silly bitty
You sure did show me, moudlylocks
OK, I think I have got it, really appreciate that, I didn't realize the difference between D(x) vs D[x]
ㅡㅡㅡㅡㅡㅡㅡㅡ
wtf is a hcf
If a=(4), b=(6), then ab=(24)?
sure
Why ab=/=(2)?
ab is the set of elements of the form pq with p from a and q from b
a and b are ideals there
so they look like 4x and 6y respectively, which gets you 24xy
Y r u curious of that
Can u receive notifications for a chat without @mention@slim kayak
Those are disabled for large servers and there's no option to enable those
Literally 1984
yeah?
lol that was a response to autist
like i'm saying you not knowing about hcf made me wonder what german term is
but ye it's ggt
wasn't sure if it could be hgt (for höchster) lol but yes
yeah no, ours translates the most literally to gcd
lol ye
hcf looks cheaper somehow idk
hcf sounds like some weird chemical you spray on stuff
hcl lol
a and b are ideals
Left implies right or vice versa
I misunderstood as left then right
nah nah (in fact there's an easy counterexample to that)
a = b = 0
boooo spoiling the exercise
also ||just a = 0 suffices as long as b != (1) I think||
oh i remember this exercise
WHAT
Careful, there is a member nicked hsf in this server /j
ㅡㅡㅡㅡㅡㅡ
Does RI=I hold? Cause 1i=i
yes
No
(a+b) may not contain 1?
Ah I mistook cause there's various definitions of ring
Ideal is ring but may not contain 1 as long as I understood
Unit or unity
hm i mean "a multiplicative identity"
You can only have units once you have a unity 
if D is integral domain and f(x) and g(x) is in D[x], is it correct to state that g(x) must be the factor of f(x)
no?
Could you help me translate what does this sentence mean?
I am considering if f and g are in D and nothing more, then g is not factor of f? and g will be the factor of f once there exist h in D such that f=g*h?
Given f and g, then g is a factor of f if condition
said condition is that there exists some h s.t. f=gh
So if there are only f and g in D[x], then g is not factor of f unless we have addition h in D[x] right?
the "if f and g in D[x}" is just introducing a pair of polynomials
so i am considering if we can say any element in D[x] must be the divisor of other element in D[x]
"If A and B are numbers, we say that A divides B if there exists some C so that AC=B"
What does the divisor x-a of f(x) have to do with a is zero, I mean why it can imply (x-a) as factor of f(x)?
If f(a)=0 then for g(x)=f(x+a) we have g(0)=0. What can you say about the coefficients of g?
Then consider g(x-a)
then g(x-a)=f(2a)*g(0)=0?
No?
I am confused about why we have g(x)=f(a-x)*g(0)=0?
We don't?
There, fixed for clarity
g(x-a)=f((x-a)+a)=f(x+a-a)=f(x)
Write g as a_0 x^0 + ...
shouldn't f(a-(x-a))=f(2a-x)?
g(x-a)=f(x) and we have g(x-a)=a0*(x-a)^0+..., so f(x) will have factor x-a?
f(a)=0 is just the assumption right to represent that a is a zero of polynomial?
Yeah
You only need to figure out why a0 must be 0
If someone is free and willing to do so, could you help me check if my proof is valid here? I checked it myself and I think it should work.
Also, if you have some insight that could make the link between (ii) and associativity intuitively clearer, please do share it --- I made it work, but I feel that I still don't have the intuition for this.
Because there is an element in b which is 1 modulo an
Thats true but why then an+b=(1)
If an ideal contains 1, then it's equal to (1)
Thx
ㅡㅡㅡㅡㅡㅡㅡ
It looks like they meant that, yeah
Technically not even an abuse, since each A/a_i is a ring there
0, 1 makes sense as an element of general ring
well abuse is not precisely defined but writing the same symbols for elements from different sets is kinda abuse in my eyes
Hmm, I see. I would not call using 0 and 1 for different rings "abuse" tho
There are way more severe abuses
what
Ok sorry



