#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 191 of 1
Are you aware of Lagrange's theorem?
yes
5
6*8
Now I leave you to put this information together.
Hint: see if you can work out the order of (a,b) from the order of a and the order of b.
maybe a lil easier to just do like we were doing before
ok what about this approach
4a=6a=0, 4b = 8b = 0
Isnt U(n) the orders of elements in Zn
oh
ok
so
if (a,b) has order 4
then
(4a,4b)=(e,e)
yep
yep
a=lcm(4,6), b=lcm(4,8)?
nu
4a=6a=0 means 2a is also 0
so you're interested in elements (a, b) such that 2a and 4b are 0
since you want the order to be 4, you shouldn't have that 2b is also 0, else 2(a,b) would already be (0,0)
now just write down all elements like that
2a = 0 in Z/6
and 4b = 0 in Z/8
isnt a = 4^(-1)
4 isn't invertible in either of the two rings, so idk what you mean
so a=3, b=2
divides
or a=3k, b=2m
how did you reduce 4a=0 to 2a=0 again?
but recall that we didn't want 2b to be 0, so b should only be 2 or 6
we have both 4a and 6a are 0
so their difference 2a is also 0
ok
so you took the difference
and you did the same for 4a=8a=0
b
sorry
and got 4b=0
yea, but it wasn't much helpful in b
since we already knew 4b = 0.
therefore having the extra 8b = 0, told us nothing.
Let E/F be a field extension. Is it true that if E is the splitting fileld of a non-separable poynomial f in F[x] then Gal(E/F) is trivial?
Let I be a homogenous ideal of A=k[x_0,...,x_n] of dimension r. How do I show that I + (x0,...,x{r-1}) is not the entire ring?
So if you have some seperable polynomial f(x), then f(x)^2 is not seperable, but has the same splitting field.
If you add the restriction that the polynomial be irreducible, then it's still not true. The automorphisms of the splitting field of an irreducible polynomial acts transitively on the roots, and it's determined by its action on the roots. So the automorphism group is trivial iff the polynomial has a unique root. In such cases E is called purely inseparable.
Hm I think this depends on your definition of separable right lol
In Galois theory it seems the common definition would say f^2 is separable if f is since we say a poly is separable if all of its irreducible factors are
Haven't seen people define it that way, but doesn't really make a difference since you could just consider the product of a seperable and non-seperable polynomial.
Anyway the intersecting part is when the polynomial is irreducible
I guess this is just Krulls principal ideal theorem
Or I guess much easier, I is contained in the trivial ideal, so adding things from the trivial ideal never gets you more than that
I is in the trivial ideal?
It's homogenous
Oh I use irrelevant ideal for that
Yes exactly
For me trivial ideal either means 0 or everything
Yeah, I'm not an AG person, so not up to speed on all that lingo
Oh wait I messed up.
I want show that I + (x_0,...,x_{r-1}) is contained in some homogenous prime not containing the irrelevant ideal
Yeah, that makes more sense. Then I guess you reach for Krulls theorem
I'm trying to show V(I) intersect V(x_0,..,x_r-1) is not empty
Though, shouldn't it be r-2. Like isn't V(xr, ..., xn) r-dimensional?
V(x_0,...,x_{r-1}) is codimension r
Yeah, exactly
The theorem is that an r dimensional thing intersects a codim r linear space
How does it follow from Krull's theorem?
But isn't I = (xr, ..., xn) r-dimensional?
I don't think so
Wait
Sorry
Yeah
It is
and (x_0,...,x_{r-1}) is n-r dimensional
i.e. codim r
n+1 - r I guess, but sure
Yeah indexing is hard
Anyway, ignoring indexing, how does the result follow from Krull's theorem?
Sweet Tea đ§
I guess dimensions get shifted by 1, since you're in projective space.
So it says that a minimal prime containing an ideal generated by n elements has height at most n.
So the smallest prime containing I + (x0, .., xr-1) has height at most (codimension of I) + r
those small results feel very much out of context I'd say
So one of the early goals is the 1st isomorphism theorem
The most important concepts in an intro course are group actions and group quotients imo
where are they used then?
(I'm not asking abt the real life đ )
As for your more specific q's idk what to say.
u can lookup on mathexchange tbh
whats the point of this
why do we need this
intuition for this
it usually has alright answers
Where arenât they used
But it is expected in most courses your average student to see their motivation
over time
and the lecturer hopefully gives some insight
If youre struggling to answer this, I wonder if you dont quite have the intuition for these definitions
and their consequences down
Like you can just memorize the set theoretical defns and it wont get u very far
===
An aside - i didnt really have intuition for either of these when i first learn them
quotients made a lot of sense after topology
maybe that's exactly why I'm asking abt their usefulness đ
actions, they would after rep theory, although i didnt take this
and by the way, basically all the theorems we have studied so far that mention group actions can be easily reformulated without them
Topology? Thatâs a strange one. Most commonly you see them used in modular arithmetic first
yh well the entire idea of a quotient didnt clock for me
til then
like properly clock
one case study i like is the rubiks cube
you can look at actions and quotients involving this
gowers has a nice blog post on actions
so that's it? we study such general constructions to basically easier prove results abt mod arithmetic?đ
I mean, if it were so, then it'd be a massive overkill imo
Youâre defining a new object from the previous one using some nice equivalence relation on the previous one. It just so happens that for groups that the equivalence relation corresponds with sub objects
no obviously not. This is a vast generalisation of that concept
Yeah so, the idea of an equivalence relation and the point of being interested in them
is a good starter
for understanding quotients
In fact, a lot of courses dont teach what a set quotient is first
before a group quotient
Yeah which is a bit weird imo
Mine didnât teach that, I donât even think they probably introduced equivalence relations
It was just âconstruct the set of cosetsâ
The idea behind this is youâre setting your chosen subobject to act like the identity in the quotient. So in a way youâre looking at the structure of what you started with without (or modulo in old timey english) whatever youâve quotiented by
A good example is the abelianisation. For any group G thereâs a particular normal subgroup with captures ânon-commutivityâ in G, and when you quotient out by that normal subgroup (heuristically youâre setting the ânon-commutivityâ to zero) you get the abelianisation of G
When I TAed algebra list year I made a little collection of exercise sheets with 'applications'. The students didn't seem super interested though
oh thats cool i havent seen that
is the subgroup it the center of G or something
No, quotienting by the centre gets you the group of inner automorphisms which is the exact opposite of what we want kinda, lol
Itâs the derived subgroup [G, G]
ya after i said that i thought the center maybe was the opposite
can u please share it? đđ»đđ»đ„č
maybe in DM, if u r ok with that đ
I would like to see that sheet too
What is that?
It's here
https://wiki.math.ntnu.no/tma4150/2023v/anvendelser
But it's in Norwegian
Subgroup generated by all elements of the form xyx^-1y^-1
picking the worst order!
I donât care
Exercise: prove this @tardy hedge
I don't know if they make for very good motivation, it's just a little taste of how algebra arises in other areas of math/science
"Commutator" of g and h
[g, h] := g^-1h^-1gh
It is a measure of how far off from commuting these elements are, you could say. If it is e, then they do.
For A, B subgroups of some group, say G
[A, B] := <{[a, b] : a in A, b in B}>
ok i will try at some point. idk what inner automorphisms are atm
automorphisms u good with?
Yeah its just an isomorphism from G to G right
they are automorphisms of the form
f(g) = h^-1gh
for some h
thats conjugation of g by h
Ok thanks
so inner automorphisms are conjugations đ
I watched a video talking about intuition for conjugation but i kinda forget it
about "shifting" ur perspective or smth
do u guys think about conjugation in that way?
yeah vector space conjugation thingy is not a bad way to see it
like change of basis things
or rubiks cube also a good example
Other good one is to compute conjugations in Sn
f (1 2 3 4) f^-1 (cycle notation)
try computing what this will be
wait
Actually continuously banging on about the Rubikâs cube. A group that complicated is not a good first example lol
A good point I like to bring up is that both the trace and determinant of a matrix is invariant under conjugation
yeah so see what this permutation does to the element f(x) (function notation)
thats how gowers explains conjugation in his blog
So pretty much all of representation theory only cares about group elements up to conjugation lol
S_n is another good example though, yeah
what does the trace mean again.
geometrically
sum of the eigenvalues
hmm.
I suggest going to any other channel in the server if you want a "geometric" """""""""""""""""intuition"""""""""""""""""
so that I don't ask this again later: do u know of any textbooks / lecture notes / lecture recordings that miraculously try to motivate concepts / definitions along the way?
sure, I could just google all of it along the way, but having a structured resource would be much better ofc
basically looking for something similar to Abbott's book but in the world of algebra đ„Č
I mean, you'd hope a good book would do that job
#book-recommendations so u could try also asking here
i dont know of them myself sadly
and theres some sticky somewhere with book reccs
u could try skimming chapters of reccs ones and see if ur happy with whats said.
Some youtube series are also good for this. With illustrations. Better if other people recc than me tho 
Like 3b1b does a good job motivating intuition in a lot of his vids, idk if he includes the specific topics ur after/does a good job of them, but i dont see harm in checking it out. I do remember some good stuff for linear algebra
shuwi is here 
Ok bros im officially starting my self study
Class is over and i wanna try to get through the rest of the textbook
Im stuck on first question though lmao
In quotient field Q(D) show multiplication is well defined đ€Š
welcome to self study: bang your head against the wall for a few hours, reread the section, and work backwards
Looking forward to it lmao
start by assuming it's well defined, what does that mean?
don't hurt your head literally ><
Choose different representstives of equivalence class and show multiplication gives same result
ok, so what do you need to ensure that can happen
«for objects that are equal the result is going to be the same»
I just love how that sounds đ„°
"equality commutes with the operation"

and then the question is how do we define 'equal objects' đ
$\forall x,y \in F ( x=y \implies f(x)=f(y))$
GoldenPhoenix
<
"putting parallel lines horizontally between them makes the teacher happy"
true, but f(x) makes no sense a priori, so can't write that formula
<
not without exterior context, but with the rest of the conversation, there's sufficient context to get away with it đ
and the fun starts when the things that make the teacher happy are things that do not make happy anyoneâŠ
one needs to show that the function (S x R) x (S x R) --> S^-1R factors through (S^-1R) x (S^-1R)
sure if you want to be a nerd about it, det
<
to be fair, pulling out quantifiers does invite nerdery
Are you given that multiplication is commutative?
Can i have some help pls
I just have that D is an ID
Should i use that somehow?
And do you know the definition of integral domain?
Cancellation law holds, or could also say ab = 0 implies a or b is 0
based definition tbh
Yes, but another part of the definition is that multiplication is commutative
Wait wut
and it's not the zero ring. 
How did i not know
Oh ur right
Bruh i spent 50 mins on this i couldve done in like 10 if i remembered ID is commutative lol
Oh well thank you
Why do we want it to be commutative ?
Because otherwise the construction for the field of fractions doesn't (necessarily) work
ID is used to generalize and have general results for rings like integers and polynomials which have commutative multiplication right
Yeah cuz probably proving Q(D) is a field uses the commutativity in D
Yeah, I mean fields are also defined to have commutative multiplication. But I mean just the fact that multiplication in Q(D) is well defined needs commutative
Oh ok
When self studying, how many problems at end of section should i do? I mean obv âall of themâ is âbestâ but i also want to progress at a reasonable rate
none of them. Make up your own and then write a paper about your solution
ig even the fact that a/b = c/d is an equiv relation needs comm.
It is cool how most questions u try, u do gain some new understanding of stuff after doing them
symmetry is over-rated
that's the idea!
it's why doing exercises is the most important part of mathematics
Yeah so trueâŠ. It forces u to learn what u dont even know u dont know
cohomology sighting
I found an actual use for derviations the other day, they come up in Navarro's sludgebabble about p-solvable groups
I think i need to remember this one. Sometimes im tempted to skip exercises that sound boring but even doing those , most times i take something away from it
oh wait that's why they're called derivations. They satisfy the product rule
I feel really stupid now
oh so that's what de Rham cohomology is
hahaha it's literally the quotient rule
I'm going iNSANE
I'm LOOSING the PLOT
Woah did u just learn something from reading one of the exercises in my book?
I feel like I've made this connection before but I have memory issues lol
Hahaha
Thats pretty epic though
Its fun how authors do this, slyly introduce some advanced topic
like it is obvious in de rham that the "derivations" are literally differentials (its by definition)
Without telling you
yeah, it's cool
Sneaky
one day I will understand homology properly
Next exercise show that a derivation on k[x] satisfies
D(f(x)) = f'(x)D(x)
yeah this one is expected though
I'm wondering if you can make a similar statement about derivations on C^infty(R) or something like that
If you just add in enough adjectives, to avoid cursed stuff
lemme see, so we have $D(f)g+gD(f)$ and it's additive, so lets break it up
[D(f(x)) = D\left(\sum_{i=1}^n a_ix^i\right) = \sum_{i=1}^n D(a_ix^i) = \sum_{i=1}^n a_iD(x^i)+x^iD(a_i)]
$D(a_i)$ satisfies $D(a_i/1) = D(a_i)-aD(1) \Rightarrow D(1) = 0$, hence $D(f) = 0$ for any constant $f$. Thus $D(f(x)) = \sum_{i=1}^n a_iD(x^i)$.
Now to just show the product rule
W;3w Lads Tbh
sorry, power rule
not product rule
hmmm
oh and also I'm implicity restricting the derivation to the field k for the a_i/1 bit
$D(x^0) = 0 = f'(x)$ with $f(x) = 1$. Assume the power rule has been proven for $j < i$. $D(x^i) = D(xx^{i-1}) = D(x)x^{i-1}+xD(x^{i-1}) = x^{i-1}+x(i-1)x^{i-2} = ix^{i-1}$, thus the claim is shown
W;3w Lads Tbh
Had a student use gpt for linear algebra, and they also had some kinda Wolfram alpha + python thing hooked to it.
Gave good answers whenever I looked over what he got, but idk
I'm a luddite so I hate all technology
fun exercise btw @rocky cloak
took my mind off of this awful character theory I'm doing atm
The upside to representations of groups is that you have characters, the downside is that you have to do character theory
I mean you always have trace functions right
the problem is I'm doing some kind of cracked up supercharacter theory where we DO NOT HAVE LINEAR INDEPENDENCE
problem with trace functions in general is the uhhh entire langlands program from what I've heard about it 
sanity check: for positive integers n (e^(ix))^n=e^inx, yes? I'm driving myself crazy trying to prove it to be the case but I'm gonna have a ways to go with this expansion.
Yes
that's just how exponents work
Eh depends how you define e^x lol
no, it's a fundemental property of associative operations LMFAOOO
I think you basically have to use power series to define smth like this
Which is what I'd do anyway
But yes this is true, just prove more generally that e^a e^b = e^(a+b)
S^1 is a group, "m"ate
this isn't strictly guaranteed for a and b in the complex numbers, hence why I had to double check
Yes it is
it is when a is real
when a is complex too
Basically everything with e works, the issue is that logarithms can only be defined coherently on some subsets of C
RAARRGGHHH just pass to the lie algebra of S^1 and do your computations there RAAAARRRRRRGGGGGGHHHHHHHHHHHHH
Anyway for e^a e^b = e^(a+b), I would do uh
lemme remembr how this works lol
Well you can just do it directly
But there is a trick i'm trying to remember lol
pass to SO(2)
I'm being funny by quoting ways to do it that only work when you already know it's a group under that operation
OH I'm being overly paranoid, the thing that set me off was about matrix exponentiation but i forgot where I saw it (and thus that it applied to matrices), so I had a red flag go off without the conscious reason why.
Yes the issue is that matrix multiplication isn't a commutative operation
can we get a fact check on this one?
II captain
For Q4. The D a field -> isomorphism part. Having [ab^-1,1] = [a,b] shows its surjective right?
Q4 send my head spinning
I was like "Q4 is iso to V4 what are you talking about"
yus
ANYWHO I will now take my leave and return to proving that certain nth roots of unity form a group
This reminded me of how the quotient field is trying to create the notion of âab^-1â for any ID
But if D is already a field, u already have that idea works
that's the idea behind why this isomorphism should even be expected to exist
I sense great things in ur future...
:0 that is pretty cool to hear tbh
Trying my best and im grateful for you people here to help
Super helpful
reminds me of that time jagr and I computed the automorphism group of the p-Prufer group. Good times
Consider the function $f(z) = e^{a+z} e^{-z}$ (from $\mathbb C \to \mathbb C$) and then $f'(z) = e^{a+z} e^{-z} - e^{a+z} e^{-z} = 0$, so $f$ is constant. But $f(0) = e^a$, so $e^{z+a} e^{-z} = e^a$ for all $a,z \in \mathbb C$. So in particular $e^{-z} = 1/e^{z}$, and $e^{z+a} = e^{a} e^z$ which is what we want
áș
But you can also just do like
ok now this is based
$e^a e^b = \Big( \sum_{k\ge 0} \frac{a^k}{k!} \Big)\Big( \sum_{\ell \ge 0} \frac{b^\ell}{\ell!}\Big) = \sum_{k, \ell \ge 0} \frac{a^k b^\ell}{k! \ell!} = \sum_{n \ge 0} \sum_{k + \ell = n} \frac{a^k b^\ell}{k! \ell!} = \sum_{n \ge 0} \Big( \sum_{k+\ell = n} \frac{1}{n!} {n \choose k} a^k b^\ell \Big)= \sum_{n \ge 0} \frac{1}{n!} (a+b)^n = e^{a+b}$
áș
Kunneth theorem
LOL
wait why are we in #groups-rings-fields lmao
oh i guess the original question is fine
Kunneth theorem
I'm partway through proving (e^ix)^t becomes multiplication, which has been interesting, but I might save the rest of it for later because it's giving me a headache. a four-term expanded summation is quite the endeavor.
I feel like you're not really going about this in the right way then
like, at all
nah, it's fine. At this point it's for fun
hm
if you've shown that e^ae^b = e^(a+b) then this should be completely unneeded
there's a particular symmetry going on that seems intriguing
and you already knew that roots of unity multiply to other roots of unity via a simple norm argument
is t an arbitrary complex number? if so then this is essentially true by definition
lol
it was an integer for the original point of the question, which I've since answered, but the trig expansion here seems to be demonstrating some nice facts about trig identities that looks like fun to explore.
it's not groundbreaking by any means, but just an interesting diversion
tbf yeah there is an issue here in that there isn't one choice of putting stuff to the power of t
e.g. for t = 1/2 there are two choices of square roots
whereas for integer t this is fully well-defined
autodidactry moments of getting distracted by shiny new knowledge about things I already mostly understood
are they all just the cyclics of prime order?
Pretty much
cus like, if it doesn't have a proper subgroup, it's cyclic
and cyclics of prime order famously have no proper subgroups
I just don't know if all the cyclics whith no proper subgroup are necesseraly of prime order
oh actually
I forgot the infinite ones
Well lol
I thought normally a proper subgroup is any subgroup that isn't the whole thing lol
But ig this is proper nontrivial
ye
it's said before that proper subgroup means it's neither trivial nor the whole group
well they'll be cyclic too
I just don't know the converses
There is a pretty straightforward description of all the subgroups of a cyclic group, in terms of the order.
huh
don't tell me I'll think about it later
I found it lol thanks
if it isn't prime I can do a subgroup that's like
aÂČ, (aÂČ)ÂČ, (aÂČ)Âł...
so ok prime cyclics for finite groups
That infinite cyclic => no proper subgroup ?
It's very wrong
just realized that infinite cyclic doesn't make sense I think
Z
And only Z, up to isomorphism
wait actually for the infinite ones you can always find a proper subgroup
i donât think this is true
just skipping every other term since no exponent will get you back to the identity
sooo
yeah all prime order cyclics
and only them
(and consequently never get you back to anything in general)
Z is the only infinite cyclic group. All cyclic groups are of the form Z/n for nonegative n.
Cyclic groups are completely determined by their order
ah i kept thinking of just infinite
Yeah, lots of infinite groups out there
I love how cyclic groups are so easily understood
Once I was in a reading group where people were talking about finite semigroups generated by a single element â so "cyclic" in some sense of the word. Their cayley graphs have some kind of tail lead-up and then they have a loop after a certain point. Apparently semigroup theorists call this a saucepan shape, but it tickled me that the person talking called it a noose!!
So for Q5, i suppose the point is that if we have a (1-1) ring hom between IDs we can create a corresponding homo between their quotient fields by âextendingâ the original map somehow
At this point tho, im still not sure why if the original map isnt 1-1 this fails
Considering something like
Z -> Z/2
Why doesn't this extend to a map
Q -> F2?
You can use the "universal property" of fraction fields too if you want (though i'm not sure if that'll have been covered)
What's the motivation for the quotient group being called the "quotient" group? Is it in anyway related to my "normal" understanding of a quotient like dividing numbers?
ye
it is
to explain to a primary school kid 12/4
you might draw a 3*4 grid of dots
and then draw circles
So if there are 3 rows, you draw a circle around every row of 4 dots
the exact same picture applies for C12/C4
this picture would give you the underlying quotient set. The circles are the cosets
"Quotient" is an adjective that shows up all over algebra and usually has more to do with equivalence relations than outright fractions. This has to do with the fact that the set of equivalence classes of an equivalence relation is called a "quotient set" and equivalence relations abound in algebra. Of course the term "quotient set" itself probably came about originally because this has its roots in divisibility and the "quotient group" you speak of is closely related to this, e.g. the order of a quotient group is literally a quotient (of two known quantities). And besides, the whole idea of quotient groups comes from Z/nZ, which has everything to do with divisibility. My personal historical perspective on this is Z/nZ (which is literally divisibility) -> people try to generalise this and we get both equivalence relations and quotient objects.
Field of quotients of Z/2Z would just be Z/2Z?
Is that true?
Z/2Z is a field
Yes
Thanks
A field to its âfield of quotientsâ is an isomorphism
I just did a question that was about that
Somehow the map doesnt even work
Dividing by 0!!
Well finite fields arent ordered (if 0 < 1 then 0 < 1 + 1 + ... + 1 (p times) = 0 so 0 < 0 which isnt true)
So yes but they still have additive inverses
I mean, did you consider what horror -1 = 1 can bring
?
Positive characteristic is the best
Not even comparable to being ordered
A very direct connection to division of numbers is that
| G/H | = |G| / |H|
(When |G| is finite)
Oh no
It is not exactly a usual property, but it is not by any means a crazy one.
Life is so much easier, when sign errors become impossible
Do you like lack of alternating forms
Alternating forms exist in characteristic 2... in some sense. They're just much easier to work with :)
I mean you can still have alternating forms, they're just more symmetrical that way
Just.. oh no
You keep writing "oh no".
You know it's spelled "Ah yeah!" right?
Idk im not really satisfied with how im thinking of it
Alright, how are you thinking of it?
So if the original map is not one-to-one then it maps nonzero things to 0. If you want to make a map from Q(D1) to Q(D2) by extending the original map, then âŠ
I got that for the condition in a) to hold then the map must be [a,b] to [theta(a),theta(b)]
Indeed
If theta sends nonzero things to 0 then that map isnt defined on all of Q(D1)
Exactly
Im not satisfied with that though
I feel like i dont âreallyyyyâ see it
I just know thats right cause i managed to do some algebra to find it
I mean you are doing algebra, that's kinda the channel we're in
But do you know what i mean when i dont feel satisfied?
Im just not seeing through all the layers
I guess another perspective is that a ring homomorphism, must map units to units (hence doesnt map units to 0).
So if we make more things units we'll have fewer homomorphisms
Basically going from Z to Q you say "I want everything nonzero to have inverses".
When you then apply a non-injective homomorphsim to Z, some of the "everything nonzero" you just gave inverses turn out to map to 0, but if you want to extend the map to a homomorphism from Q, the homomorphism condition claims that the inverses still work! So the codomain of the homomorphism can only be something where 0 has a multiplicative inverse -- which is the zero ring!
So basically
f(1/x) = 1/f(x) and if f(x)=0 you're in trouble
||Well...||
Thank u
I will read and consider this answrr
Old man doing ^_^ is funny
this guy seems based
hahaha
true
how would you go about counting group homomorphisms say from S6 to S5?
i know S6 can be generated by (234561) and (21) so i focused on where these could be mapped
they could both map to the identity, so thats 1
S5 has elements of order 6 we can map the 6cycle to (namely elements like (23154) which are a 3cycle and a swap, of which i believe there are 20)
elements of order 2 fall into two conjugacy classes- single transpose and double transpose. there are 10 single transposes and 15 double transposes.
20 choices for (234561) and 25 choices for (21) gives 500 nontrivial, and the 1 trivial means there should be 501, right?
unless we can map the generators to the identity independently? but wouldnt that mean there are actually 5 conjugacy classes?
if a is a 6 cycle and b is a transposition. and e is the identity ofc. then the conjugacy classes would be
f(a) = e, f(b) = e
f(a) = e, f(b) = (12)
f(a) = e, f(b) = (12)(34)
f(a) = (123)(45), f(b) = e
f(a) = (123)(45), f(b) = (12)
f(a) = (123)(45), f(b) = (12)(34)
with 1 element, 10 elements, 15 elements, 20 elements, 20*10 elements, and 20*15 elements
so now its 546
are all of these valid homomorphisms?
you need to check that these still satisfy the relators your transposition and 6-cycle do in S6
cause then you'll know that f(xy) = f(x)f(y)
you could potentially map a to elements of order 3 or 2 as well because you didn't mention anything about injectivity (which would make the question much easier to answer lol)
but here might be an easier way of looking at it
if we had a homomorphism f : S_6 -> S_5, this implies by the first iso theorem that S_6/ker(f) = H < S_5
but S_6 only has 3 normal subgroups, S_6, A_6, and 1
so ker(f) has to be one of them, and it obviously can't be 1 as |H| <= |S_5| < |S_6|
assuming f isn't the identity map sending everything from S_6 to 1 in S_5, ker(f) = A_6, meaning H is a group of order 2
I think these f's will look like the sign function followed by mapping -1 to some order 2-element in S_5
im processing this here gimme one sec
@delicate orchid do you like topology at all? im gonna take it next term
I quite liked it when I took it and it's important for algebra
thats cool. I only have a vague idea about what its about rn
the most general form of analysis possible
thats cool
thats cool cause i think i am actually terrible at estimating
inequality things i actually am genuinely shit at
well yeah we stop working over R lol
I have a hard time with comparing sizes
yeah maybe id enjoy that aspect more
the funny part is how i still havent had any formal class in analysis lmao
i did an honours calc class in first year that did epsilon delta stuff
and complex analysis
but convergence of functions and all this stuff i see i actually havent learned yet
isnt that silly
did you mean S_5 at the very end here?
I did yeah
i think i understand then
Its also interesting just how DIFFERENT algebra feels to learn and do than something like complex analysis for example
we have to pick a normal subgroup to be the kernel. it obviously cant just be the identity, bc we have to shrink the group if we want to map it to S5. the only other normal subgroups are S6 and A6. S6 as the kernel means we send everything to the identity giving 1 trivial map. choosing A6 as the kernel means the even elements all get sent to the identity, and we just need an element of order 2 to send the odd elements to. and that can be any of the 10 transpositions, or any of the 15 double transpositions. for a total of 26 possible homomorphisms across 3 different conjugacy classes. right?
is the course called point-set / general topology?
yeah i asked him and we are covering the first x chapters of Munkres
first 4-5 or smth?
yeah thats a little bit more on the geometric side of topology, sorta
But very cool and interesting. The arguments and intuitions used are extremely useful in almost any field of math
nice hopefully id like it
if those numbers are right on the size of the conjugacy classes (i forgor) then yeah
Do you guys know of a website that shows you the lattice of subgroups of a group for most groups?
there's one for cyclic groups that I know of
that's it though
even for small stuff like S_4 it's very unwieldy
Cyclic group lattice must look nice
they do!
anything beyond order 20 and its weird
Just one subgroup for each divisor right
Explore the subgroup lattices of finite cyclic groups of order up to 1000 The cyclic group of order can be represented as the integers mod under addition or as generated by an abstract element Mouse over a vertex of the lattice to see the order and index of the subgroup represented by that vertex placing the cursor over an edge displays the ind...
yup
I mean even groups of order 16 are nuts
subgroup lattice for SD_16 my behated
okie anything beyond 12 is something i don't care about
unless it's nice in some other way
my favourite part of these is if you put in a cyclic group of order p_1p_2...p_n you can see the n-cube in it's subgroup lattice
đź
I gotta try this
try order 30 for the cube
order 210 for the hypercube
there's some distortion but it's there
Thats awesome
lattice of subsets of {2, 3, 5}
(the idea is that cyclic groups C_p_1...p_n are isomorphic to C_p_1 x C_p_2 x ... x C_p_n, the subgroup lattices of each of those are just a line so you get an n-cube by direct producting them)

360 has so much
and for arbitrary factorization n = prod p_i^e_i, you have a product of linear posets {0, 1, ..., e_i}
yur, but you get a nice cube when e_i = e_j for all (i, j)
and it's easiest to see the cube when you have e_i = 1
check this out as well
https://juliapoo.github.io/Cayley-Graph-Plotting/
my favourite one here is A_5. You can see the natural action on the icosahedron and the stabliser subgroups of each vertex because the cayley graph is just an icosahedron lol
Holy shit thatâs awesome
what was a cayley graph again?
Idk either but I do know that it is awesome
i can make sense of it if i had a presentation of the group
but we're not using all elements as generators right, that would just give the complete graph
assign each element of ur group a vertex, and assign each element of some fixed generating set for ur group a colour
draw a directed edge of colour "g" between two elements x, y if x = yg
right makes sense
what's this website using for edges?
like a minimal set of generators?
oh I don't think you can access the presentation, I assume it's either minimal or the one that gives the prettiest picture 
makes sense
yeah they don't say, but you can usually tell by looking
it's a shame you can't see the tetrahedron in A_4
unfortunately it's not powerful enough to let me see M_11
good
i want to see it though
some things were not meant to be witnessed by mortals
i guess i just have to think about some random stuff about multiply transitive permutations instead
something something octet action something something
what's the problem ;-;
is it that it is assuming a or b exist or something?
maybe actually
since without aCa it's not clear any elements are related to any element
it is an issue with assuming existence, though not with aCa (given that aCa existing is a conclusion)
I mean
I mean not necesseraly
you can't state there are a and b such that aCb
can't assume
yes
Ah thats crazy
Show that a group of order 210 with normal subgroup of size 15 has a normal subgroup of order 5.
Sylow isn't enough here from what I can see, you can only conclude the normal subgroup itself has a normal subgroup of order 5, and normality is not transitive
You're almost there
Hint: A subgroup of order 5 of a subgroup of order 15 is a Sylow 5-subgroup. Second hint: Characteristic subgroups.
oh i didnt know this. that's it then?
because every characteristic subgroup is normal in the entire group
Yes. Why is that fact true?
If M is characteristic in H, a normal subgroup of G, then automorphisms of H send M to M, but these automorphisms can also be realized as conjugation (inner automorphism)
Thatâs true but why is every (normal)* sulow subgroup characteristic?
since it is the unique subgroup of order 5, an automorphism must map the group to itself
Yep great
what does this notation mean? (in the context of sylow subgroups)
do you have the context?
it could be the special linear group over the field with 7 elements
the order of sylow 7-subgroup of SL_2(7)
the number n_7 of sylow 7-subgroups of SL_2(7)
i dont remember going over special linear groups but admittedly i didnt pay a ton of attention
i imagine it is that then
SL_2(7) probably refers to the space of 2x2 matrices with determinant 1, with entries coming from the field of order 7
geez, ok
i just calculated that that group would have 336 elements, is that correct?
49 choices for first row minus the 0 vector leaves 48
49 choices for second row minus the 7 multiples of row 1 leaves 42
divide by the 6 possible determinants (since we only want to allow matrices of det 1)
48*42/6=336
any hint on c? (idk if it fits here)
made basically no progress
I'm just trying to think of a necessary condition for an equivalence class to contain S but I'm not finding anything
and I initially assumed this T would be S' or related but I can't prove it and have no actual reason to believe it
I initially thought like
xTx+1
x+1Tx+2
so
xTx+2 but I have no reason to think x+1Tx+2 since x+1 can be greater than two
I think you're probably looking for too nice a condition -- it's not going to be particularly pretty.
probably ;=;
Is there a category where the polynomial ring over R is an initial object? I am trying to better understand its universal property among R-algebras.
I mean sure, if you look at the category of R[x]-algebras lol
I think I may try examples
like, trying to do some kind of sub equivalence relation of S'
which contains S
Is this even true?
For example consider
U = { (x,y) | x=y or both of x,y are > 0 }
This is an equivalence relation that contains S. So what you're looking for is a subset of both S and U.
Yes
It seems likely you can be an R-algebra in more than one way.
Who said you can't?
Wouldn't that make it not initial?
I think if you look at 'pointed' R-algebras â pairs (A, x) where A is an R-algebra and x is in A, and you require algebra homomorphisms to preserve these distinguished points â then (R[x], x) is initial in this category. This encapsulates the universal property.
Those different ways are then different objects.
Ahhh I see, this is a helpful perspective, thank you
ahh I see, because the R-algebra includes the morphism
huh
thx
ok I was very wrong in what I was thinking
what type of thing I was thinking at least
Perhaps that was too roundabout a hint.
what is roundabout
This.
(I searched for the translation of this word for my language and one of the translations was merry-go-round)
The general idea of "smallest equivalence relation that contains A" is that you need to relate any two points that can be connected by a finite chain of points where each link in the chain is in A either forwards or backwards.
Ah. đĄ No that wasn't the meaning I had in mind. đ
the intersection thing and smallest equivalence relation that contains A is the same thing right
Yeah. Sorry, I'm so used to considering them the same that I didn't check which of the wordings your problem used.
lmao
the more I think about this problem the weirder it gets I'm going crazy
I can't think of choosing any point to relate to anything
I mean, number
Try being concrete and choosing, say, the point 0.1762. What does that need to relate to?
1.1762 and 2.1762
3.91 
Right.
I'm trying to think if it should relate to anything between 0 and 2
wait actually
stop everything you're writing I thought of somethign
I mean not everything just don't tell me anything
wait...
is it just
S' union all points just related to themselves?
with no other connection?
Not entirely quite, because S doesn't contain (0.1762,2.1762).
It sounds like you have a good intuitive idea of which pairs should be in T and are just looking for a succinct way to describe the set.
for all x between 0 and 2, xTx+1 and the rest is just (x,x)
That still doesn't say that 0.1762 T 2.1762.
well 0.1762 is between 0 and 2
oh should I like
describe it specifically in pairs
(x,y) such that
[Also this should probably have been in #discrete-math or perhaps #proofs-and-logic]
(ty I didn't know where to put it so I thought "well I learned about equivalence classes the first time in group theory")
T = {(x,y) | x = y or y = 1 + x for 0 < x < 2}
?
Still doesn't give you a set that has (0.1762, 2.1762) as an element.
it does but I realized I'm wrong
What?
x=0.1762 and y=2.1762 satisfies neither "x=y" nor "y = 1+x and 0<x<2".
aaa guaranteeing the transitive property is hell
is describing a set algorithmically like, wrong
cus I'm thinking of adding 1 to x until it's a number greater than 2
I have no idea how to describe that without it being a process
I thought of something
My solution would involve (as one component) something like S' intersect (0,3)ÂČ
where (0,3) is the open interval, not the pair. 
welll nowhere in the exercise it says that the set should be written prettyly
but that's cool
You can spell it out like that too, but youl'll need bounds on both x and y.
And k>=1 is not what you want because T also needs to cotain (2.7, 0.7)
the thing I was thinking is just write out the same thing but changing x for y
Hmm, I suppose you could do that, by why not just k be any integer regardless of sign?
fr troposphere you're a genius
I think I'll write it like y - x = k
cus it's prettier
And makes it look like the definition of S'
indeed
ig just bounding then beteen 0 and 3 works
soooo
T = {(x,y) | y = x or y-x = k for k in Z and 0 < x,y < 3}
1- thank you a lot troposphere you made me realize a lot of errors and wrong ways of thinking I had no idea
2- lmao I made a joke up there with the 3.91 and it actually made sense
I mean, it actually lead me to the answer
good exercise great learning experience
Right.
I would write it with parentheses around "y-x = k for k in Z and 0 < x,y < 3" just to avoid misunderstandings.
good idea
I asked a question in my thread to not clog up the channel I would appreciate it if anyone took a peek
Please Help me check one question: et p be a prime. Show that if H is a subgroup of a group of order 2p that is not normal, then H has order 2. My solution is to suppose there is an element a in H so that |a|=p, by lagrange we know that |H|=p or 2. Then we have a subgroup H with order p, namely <a>=H. Therefore, we must have an element b in G that is not in H, so we get bH in G. since b is not in H, so bH intersect H is identity. since H is not normal, so bH doesn't equal to Hb, so bH intersect Hb is trivial. Since Hb intersect H is also trivial, then we have bH, H, and Hb in G, then the order of group G is at least 3p, which contradicts the statement that G has order of 2p.
Is it a valid proof for this question?
this looks good to me
it's like the proof that index 2 subgroups are normal but backwards
OK, really appreciate
That was a question on my final exam
Index 2 subgroups are normal
it's a good one
harder version, if p is the smallest prime that divides |G|, then a subgroup of index p is normal
I think it is a sylow p-subgroup, so we need to prove it is the only p-subgroup in G?
no it's not a sylow p-subgroup
sylow subgroups always have index coprime to p by definition
consider the action of G on the cosets of an index p subgroup and the homomorphism into a particular symmetric group that gives you
In my book it covers a lot more group theory in chapter 7
Havent gotten to it yet
Conjugacy, group actions, sylow stuff etc hasnt been covered Ye t
Need to go thru chapter 6 on fields and then ch7
conjugacy is surprising lol
Ya im looking forward to getting back to groups
Although i did enjoy the rings and fields diversion
is the product of two transpositions always a 3-cycle?
No
Take the same transposition
Or disjoint transpositions
oh yeah
How can I prove that Z/2Z is the only group that has exactly two conjugacy classes?
So how do you prove Z/2Z is the only group with 2 elements?
Can you take a group with 2 elements and prove that itâs isomorphic to Z/2Z
Unless Iâm misunderstanding the question
I don't see how this is relevant ngl
assume that there's a larger group that only has two conjugacy classes and recall that conjugation is an automorphism and thus preserves the order of elements
corsets
didn't even let me quip
Z/2Z^n does have only two orbits under all automorphisms, that is true
transitive fusion systems :pack:
At least for finite groups I can think of an argument that uses that p-groups always have nontrivial center, but I feel like there should be an easier argument.
there is
||assume G is a larger group that satisfies this condition, then G cannot be abelian obviously. But then G must have at least two non-identity elements with different orders||
||conjugation preserves the order of elements||
I don't see why ||the elements would have different orders||, but another argument I could think of was to ||consider the orbit of a non-identity element to conclude that |G|-1 divides |G| ||
Still this is using that G is finite though
oh I didn't even consider G infinite
||true, we need to exclude p-groups, I forgot about p_+^{1+2n} lol||
||The only way for all non-identity elements to have the same order is for the group to be exponent p, and thus a p-group - so we would need to use the non-trivial centre thing||
ah no wait. This is definitely the way to go, lol
So when the group is of order power of prime, then we have nontrivial center. (but I am confused how can we compute number of conjugacy classes. The only thing I know is that if a and b are conjuage, then xax^-1=b for all x, and cl(a)=a iff a is in Z(G)
oh so we do have that result
each element of the centre is obviously in it's own conjugacy class
So if there is an element in the center, it gets it's own conjugacy class. So if there's only supposed to be 2 conjugacy classes you can only have 2 elements.
Apearantly, it's not true
something weird happening in infinite groups no way

Infinite groups are useless
Name one useful infinite group, you can't
S_9
it's pretty big it's gotta be infinite right
O(1) = â for large values of 1
if the group has non-trivial center, can we conclude that it only has its own conjugacy classes?
Every element of the center is in a conjugacy class of its own
I may need to know how to justify that Z/2Z has exactly two conjugacy classes?
Maybe the class equation will help
I mean, you just count the conjugacy classes
There are two of them
is it 0 and 1?
Z/2Z has only 2 elements that are obviously not conjugate so the proof is kinda trivial
I am kind of confused about if conjugacy classes just represent elements in a group. I mean if we say a is in Z(G), then cl(a)=a. and we write a as one conjugate class for element a.
No they don't if your group gets non-commutative
Generally a conjugacy class â which I will remind you now is a set of elements â contains many elements of the group.
However, central elements live in their own conjugacy classes, all alone.
There are even groups (so called i.c.c. groups) such that every element (expect the identity) has infinite conjugacy class. These groups are important when constructing Type II factors (von Neumann algebras). an example would be the free group on n generators (n >= 2; the free group with 1 generator is just Z)
Or for S3 the conjugacy classes are {identity}, {3-cycles}, {transpositions}
So go back to Z/2Z, if i say two conjugate classes, and only element 0 and 1 in this group. then cl(0)={0} and cl(1)={1} represent two conjugate class.
they not represent more precisely they are
For some background: being conjugate is an equivalence relation and the conjugacy classes are the equivalence classes w.r.t. this relation; so it is not surprising that the conugacy classes partition the underlying set
OK, then the question:how to prove Z/2Z is the only group that has exactly two conjugacy classes. Do you have any ideas for this one?
I'm going to steal jagr's solution for this one cause it's much cleaner than mine. Do you have the orbit-stabiliser theorem
I actually don't know about this theorem
You're right, a dumb mistake; take different jordan canonical forms then it works
yurrr. Multiplicty of eigenvalues is preserved and what not
ok we'll have to go with my proof then, cause you do have that p-groups have a non-trivial centre right?
which is incredibly strange to me but you know
some professors don't know how to structure courses in a way that makes sense
But not the multiplicity in the minimal polynomial
would be nice if every matrix is diagonalizable but unfortunately jordan canonical form is the best one can do (at least over algebraically closed fields)
the diagonalisable matrices are dense at least
Never seen this. Do you have a reference? (Just for personal interest)
or I can just prove it
an invertible matrix isn't diagonalisable if and only if one of the eigenvalues has multiplicity greater than 1
say the matrix is n by n
then this corrisponds to a codimension >= 1 space in R^n
the complement of this space is thus obviously dense
this should be have different geometric and algebraic multplicitys
I literally don't know what that means
algebraic multplicity= multplicity in the characteristic polynomial; geometric=dimension of corresponding eigenspace
if two of the eigenvalues are the same, when you attempt to diagonalise it you get a jordan block instead
I mean you just prove that the matrices with all distinct eigenvalues are dense, then it follows that the diagonalizable are dense
that's all I've ever needed to know
The identity matrix has eigenvalue 1 of multiplicity n is is obv diagonalizable
yeah that's true for any diagonal matrix with a repeated element on the diagonal
the problem is I just don't care
sorry I don't mean to be rude but I just don't
the gist of the proof holds
I see that if I can suppose a larger non-abelian group, then we have at least two non-identity elements of the same order, and it satisfies condition for conjugacy class. like we say a and b are conjugate, so we have at least two conjugate class: cl(a) and cl(b).if p-groups, then have non-trivial center, so the conjugate classes will be at least 4, otherwise at least 3?
I think you have shown density of a subspace of R^n not in GL_n(R), or M_n(R) whatsoever
the map is continuous
I guess the statment is false
the continuous preimage of a dense set is dense
Which statement?
wait i have to think about it for a second
if you judge an entry in a matrix by a little bit the eigenvalues only change by a little bit as well
that's a heuristic as to why the map should be continuous
same logic behind why the determinant is continuous
the determinant is a polynomial so continuity is really easy to check
yur
The Leibniz formula shows that det(A) is a polynomial in the entries of A
if we have a larger non-abelian group we have two options, either everything not equal to the identity is the same order, or two things are different orders. If two things are different orders they cannot be conjugate and so we have at least 3 conjugacy classes. If everything is the same order the group has to be exponent p (an exercise) and thus a p-group (follows from Sylow), but then p-groups have a non-trivial centre, so we have at least |Z(G)|+1 > 2 conjugacy classes (at least one for the stuff outside of the centre, which is a non-empty set because we're assuming it's not abelian, at least one for the non-trivial element of the centre, and one for the identity)
if G is abelian, what will happen, I am thinking |Z(G)|=G so if it will be too many conjugate classes?
it's pretty trivial to see that the conjugacy classes in an abelian group are of size 1
gxg^-1 = gg^-1x = x
Then if we have non-trivial center, elements in Z(G) form a distinct conjugate classes right?
it's pretty trivial to see that conjugacy classes of elements in the centre are of size 1
gxg^-1 = gg^-1x = x for x in Z(G)
I mean when we assume that G is non-abelian and everything not equal to identit is the same order
Woah are we gonna see the legendary wew triple whammy
Because I saw you wrote in this case, Z(G) is non-trivial, so we have at least Z(G)+1 conjugate class, and it seems to me that all elements in Z(G) are distinct conjugate classes
no lol
yes?
I don't understand what you're asking
conjugacy classes of elements of the centre are always size one. Because gxg^-1 = gg^-1x = x for all g in G
this seems like an incredibly advanced question to ask if you dont' know orbit stabiliser and aren't comfortable with the notion of a conjugacy class yet
perhaps there's a simpler way I'm missing that doesn't use either orb-stab or p-group theory
I mean in a p-group and assume G is non-abelian, p group has non-trivial Z(G), so we have Z(G)>=2. then when in abelian group, and we want to know about number of conjugate classes, by class equation, we have |Z(G|+|G/C(a)|=|Z(G)|, and Z(G)=G, so I am wondering if |Z(G)| is of size 1, I can know that cl(a)=a in this case, but there are all a in G, so I am wondering if there is infinite finite size
why do you have the class equation but not orbit stabilser?
what eclectic fuck up desigend your course lmfaooo
anyway
I've come up with a really nice proof using burnside's fixed point lemma give me a sec
ok. Please write out the definition of a conjugacy class
I cannot stress enough that it should be really obvious that if x commutes with everything in g, that {gxg^{-1} : g in G} should just be {x}
and what does "infinite finite size" mean here?
we have counter examples for G being an infinite group, so we have to take it to be finite
if a and b in G, then we have xax^-1=b for some x in G. And I am thinking Z(G)=G when G is abelian, so all a in Z(G) can form a class cl(a)={a}, and |cl(a)| divides |G|
cl(a)=|G/C(a)|, so it seems cl(a) is 1?
nevermind this proof is a mess lol
sure if you want to phrase it like that
which seems really silly
because xax^-1 is just a in an abelian group
so obviously you're not going to have anything else in the conjugacy class of a
but yes you can see it via |G/C_G(a)| which is a consequence of orbit stabiliser and I have no idea how you prove that without just proving orbit stabilser
I feel like I'm losing my mind
Because I considered like all a in G, and does that mean classes of all a means number of a as a classes
like cl(a1), cl(a2)....
is there a language barrier here
I think it has, because my first language is not english
let A be an abelian group
let a be in A
then $cl(a) = {xax^{-1} \colon x \in A} = {xx^{-1}a \colon x \in A} = {a \colon x \in A} = {a}$
W;3w Lads Tbh
thus the number of conjugacy classes in an abelian group is just $|A|$
W;3w Lads Tbh
Then I ask if group A is abelian, we have |A| cnjuage classes, is that true?
I just gave a proof of that statement, so yes
That's actually what I asked at the first time
, but seems not that clear
really appreciate that
yeah and I responded with this
and gave basically the same argument that I just did lol
show that there are two Abelian groups of order 108 that have exactly four
subgroups of order 3. ( what does two abelian group mean, distinct two or direct product?)
2 non-isomorphic
so there exist groups G and H with 108 elements each with 4 subgroups of order 3, G and H are not isomorphic to each other, and any other group with 108 elements and 4 subgroups of order 3 will be isomorphic to G or H
structure theorem go brrrr
it seems that abelian group of order 108 Z2Z2Z3Z3Z3, Z4Z3Z3Z3, Z2Z2Z9Z3, Z2Z2**Z27, Z4Z9Z3, Z4Z27
Is that related to 4-subgroup of order 3?
Well, some of the groups you listed have 4 subgroups of order 3, some have more and some have fewer
can you name which one has 4 subgroups of order 3?
I mean I can, but won't that spoil it for you?
Take example for Z2Z2Z3Z3Z3, it seems to me that there are 3 subgroups of order 3, do you think it is correct?
I think there are a few more than that
just in Z3^3 there are 7 I think
Might even be ||13||
hmmm
oh yes
of course
||I just did <a_i>, <a_ia_j>, <a_1a_2a_3> I didn't consider ones with different exponents||
I wonder what the formula is in general. For Z_n it's just phi(n)
Something to do with orbits under GL(Z/nZ, k) I recokn
ignore me btw Kingwisdom I'm rambling
You mean Z3Z3Z3? and count the number of |Z3Z3Z3|=3 right?
|Z3*Z3*Z3|=3? Are you sure about that?
I typed, but it will be deleted as I send it out
I mean if I want to find subgroup of order 3
the subgroup of this group
Yes because * makes words italics which is why half your Z's are slanted...
what do you mean "the" subgroup and what subgroup are you referring to
I mean in a group like Z3 Z3 Z3, and I want to figure out number of subgroup of order 3 in this group
Like number of subgroups of order n in (Z/n)^k or what formula are you wondering about?
well that's just the number of elements of order n
I think I've figured it out anyway
I think it should be
(n^k - (n - phi(n))^k ) / phi(n)
So yeah, number of elements of order n divided by phi(n)
they correspond with tuples of length <= k where each tuple is uniquely determined by the tuple of differences between the terms
these tuples corrispond to the exponents in the generators of (Z/n)^k of the element that generates the subgroup of order n
ah no wait this only works for n prime
sad
Yeah I would expect this formula only to work for primes
E.g. I don't think this counts the subgroup <(2,3)> of Z6 * Z6
yeah, that's the issue with non-prime
you can have prime order mfs multiply in cringe ways
With primes it's not too bad to count ig
Yeah, I guess assume n = p^m , then for n a product of p^m you just compute it for each and take the product.
Then it should work I think
if determine all homomorphisms from S5 to Z/5Z. How can I know that any sigma in S5 has order 2?
and there are no elements of Z/5Z that have order 2
oh yeah? name one
bob
The identity
Considering homomorphisms from a dihedral group Dn onto Z/2Z
Couldn't all rotations be mapped to the identity, and all reflections to the element of order 2?
I know that the kernel of this homomorphism would be the reflection, and that kernels have to be normal subgroups, and that the subgroup of a reflection is not normal in a dihedral group. But I can't think of why my function wouldn't satisfy the homomorphism property
the kernel of this homomorphism is not the reflections? It's the rotations as you said.
this is the map given by the quotient D_n/<t>
or r, idk what the kids use these days for the rotation
These damn kids and their cool and hip group presentations
anyway, we can associate hom(D_n, Z/2Z) bijectively with the set of index <= 2 normal subgroups (lol, bit redundant) of D_n
via kernels
oh ok i just dont understand kernels i guess
OH its everything that collapses to the identity, right
yus
every kernel is a normal subgroup, and every normal subgroup arises as a kernel
t?????
What does t stand for?
I literally just said in the god damn post you quoted it stands for the rotation
RAAAAARGHHH
No like as words
Like r is clearly for rotation
What's t? Translation ???
refl?


