#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 190 of 1
Typically it will not act on Z(G), unless of course Z(G) = G
If I multiply something in the centre with something outside of the centre...
z in Z(G) does not imply gz in Z(G)
Conjugation
G acting on itself by conjugation, left mult,
By left mult?
Theres also a lemma that I saw once but what does the Permutation group tell us about the existence of a normal subgroup?
it was something about dividing n!
Non trivial normal subgroup
Let G be a simple group with a subgroup H of index n
acting on the set of cosets via left mult gives you a map G -> S_n (this is the action)
Because G is simple this is either trivial or injective, it’s not trivial if n > 1 so it is injective
Thus G is a subgroup of S_n and has order dividing n!
This works for G acting on any set really, but this is the most common way to get the action
You can use this to show groups can’t be simple by finding a low index subgroup, so you have a group of order 20 injecting into S_3 or some shit
Because G is simple the kernel of phi is either G or 1.
Yes
Yes
If n > 1 why injective?
It can’t be G because if so the action is trivial as in gH = H always which isn’t true
Just take a g outside H, you can do this as long as H is index > 1
Right so this is like an extension of index 2
That involves conjugation
There is a generalization of that
This is basically how you show a subgroup of index the smallest prime dividing |G| is normal
Or well
You do that via group actions as well
Is the point
The point is the normalizer is either H, or is G
The normalizer N, contains H
If it’s larger, then it has smaller index, but this forces it to be 1, because the index always divides the order of G (orbit stabilizer)
So if it’s larger than H it’s G, which means H is normal
So you have to rule out N = H
In that case, by orbit stabilizer the orbit of H has p elements, so acting on it gives a map G -> S_p
This gives an injection G/ker phi < S_p
Now G/ker phi can’t be trivial
This would say phi is trivial, as in gHg^-1 = H for all g
Okay, but then H is normal, which we assumed isn’t true
So G/ker phi has order dividing |G|, and dividing p!, and is not 1
Okay so, what primes can divide |G/ker phi|? Because |G/ker phi| divides |G| the primes have to be >= p
Because |G/ker phi| divides p! They have to be <= p, so the only prime that can divide |G/ker phi| is p
And then I forgot the last step 
Maybe you can figure it out
Wait maybe you’re supposed to look at left mult
I forgot lmfao
Okay yeah you’re supposed to look at left mult
The point is that you get the kernel of the map G -> S_p has to be equal to H so H is normal
yep
if H has index p, then the G-set G/H has p-elements, so gives you a hom G --> S_p. the kernel of this consists of elements g such that gaH= aH for each a. in other words, g is in aHa'. which means the kernel is intersection of all conjugates of H.
the image of the map has order dividing both |G| and |S_p| = p!, so divides their gcd which is p. this means the index [G:ker] divides p, and since the kernel is completely inside H, [G:ker] = p[H:ker] so [H:ker] divides 1.
so ker = H is normal
ig this also works, since ker phi is still contained in H. here ker phi is intersection of all conjugates of the normalizer of H, but since you assume H = N at the start, the same thing is true although a lil more messier
oh det is very active 
🔵 

Can anyone give me a tip to showing that k -> k^a is bijective, i was able to show it when phi_1 and phi_2 are injective but not otherwise
I tried for a while by compraing the sizes of kernels but it just didnt get anywhere
det too tired to read that ><
chad algebra arc
I feel like im still shaky on the concept (similar one for normal subgroups) on how kernels are ideals and what the implications are
Does it mean the information on the types of ring homomorphisms that can come out of R is found in the ideals of R?
Every ideal gives a quotient; every quotient gives an ideal. That is what it means that kernels are ideals and ideals are kernels.
might be wrong but i think wlog a can be chosen to be coprime to the order of K (?)
for the finite case
okie a little less tired now, the point is that choice of a is in your hands. if you choose a bad a, this won't work for finite K.
a is only unique modulo |phi1(K)| = |phi2(K)|, and is invertible modulo that. When |K| is finite, choose a so that it's also invertible mod |K|.
this can be done, since a surjection Z/nZ --> Z/mZ induces a surjection (Z/nZ)* --> (Z/mZ)* on unit groups. this is easy to see when n is a prime power, for the general case you get this by chinese remainder theorem.
Bro. I was just about to write something out then i realized im just stating the homomorphism theorem
So i guess it means what i was writing is correct lol
I was gonna say something like for any ring homomorphism out of R into some ring J, if the map is covering all of J then J can be written as some factor ring of R.
And .. that is just the theorem lol
seeing the word for the first time 🙈
for context i was looking at bpit -> pit
if G -> H is a surjection, is it not true that G* -> H* is a surjection?
you means R --> S?
oh right
yea, in general not true.
Z --> Z/5Z is a minimal example
since {1, -1} --> {1, 2, 3, 4} isn't surjective
aa
So at least 1 of {a + l|phi1(K)| for l in Z} is invertible mod |K|...
yep
So the general claim here is that if d divides n and a is invertible mod d, then there is some k so that a + kd is invertible mod n?
yee
we have a group G with |G|=p^n , p prime show that G has a normal subgroup with order p^k ,0<=k<=n. is it a good idea to show that with induction?
this is easy for prime powers, because you can choose any lift. but CRT messes up for general n.
Yes it is. Hint: for a p-group ||Z(G) is nontrivial*||
||every group is non-empty, non-trivial you mean||
Lol

Anyways this is def going on my note sheet for tomorrow
4 hour final from 8:30am to 12:30
is it necessary to use that Z(G) is non trivial? i mean i worked on the proof and it seems fine to me and i did not use that
det's prof said that he didn't find any significant difference between performance whether the exam was 1 hour or 3 hours. so might as well make it 1hr to make everybody's work less
To be honest i do kind of like not being rushed on time but i also dont like that its so long
I am conflicted
to induct, you just need a nice normal subgroup. doesn't matter how you get it.
Z(G) prolly the simplest?
If you use Z(G) then the proof also works almost immediately when you do it for nilpotent groups
nice = non-trivial, proper
Any chance I can have a hint on how to do this
Looking at CRT but it looks like the directions are messed up
i said that for m=0 e is normal then i said |G|=p^m with m<=n-1 has normal sungroup with order p^k k<=n-1 and then i show that for |G|=p^n G has a normal sungroup with order p^k+1
is it wrong?
if n = prod (p_i^a_i) and d = prod (p_i^bi)
then each Z/p_i^a_i --> Z_p_i^b_i induces a surjection on unit groups. take product and use the unit groups behave nicely with products.
the map on the products will be same as Z/n --> Z/d, cause there are no other ring maps.
1 --> 1 forces everything
(R x S)* = R* x S* is an easy check
?
and how did you do it?
i am do blind i read C(G)
i used Z(G)
i said G is a p-group so Z(G) is not trivial ....
thanks
:3
Was able to verify all the claims! Thanks for the help!!

I don't understand, if there is a prime p such that p^k divides n but p doesn't divide d at all, we don't have the corresponding surjection to show that a is invertible mod p^k.. right?
p^0 divides d
I learned that i had messed up... What do you mean by you can choose any lift? If ab = 1 + p^mk (m < n) how would you lift a to be so that ab = 1 + p^nk? Or might b change too?
Mm, although Z_p^0 is just {0}, and here 1=0, I think this doesn't allow us to derive that a is invertible mod p^k
I mean, we have the surjection Z_9 -> Z_1={0} but even though 3 is sent into 0("=1"), it's not invertible mod 9
I found something online about Hensels lemma but i think this is too complicated
ah my bad, i can't choose it arbitrarily here when the target is teh zero ring, but still on the units group the induced map is (some G) --> 1 which is always surjective and that's what we needed
Say you have Z/p^n --> Z/p^m, then if m = 0, then it's automatically surjective on unit groups as (Z/1) = (Z/1)* = {1} = {0}.
so assume m > 0, now units in Z/p^m are stuff that's non-zero mod p.
many ways to see this, one way is to notice is that it's a local ring with maximal ideal (p)
so anything outside the maximal ideal is invertible
so to see (Z/p^n)* --> (Z/p^m)* is surjective, pick anything on the right, and pick any lift using the map Z/p^n --> Z/p^m
WOW!
since the lift is automatically going to be non-zero mod p, it's unit
Thats awesome

sorry for just giving a proof sketch
<
okie i go again, will be back in 25min
oh it only took 15min
why exactly is pi nontrivial? isn't F contained in IF?
if F = R, is free of rank 1, then IF = I, and certainly this is proerly contained in F=R
(if you know about tensor products, you're tensoring by R/I, so it becomes a R/I module and since tensor product commutes with direct sums, it's free)
(if not, do it by hand)
Ok @rustic crown , sorry for being so slow, I get it know, this fact about non common prime factors between n and d initially surprised me because that indeed gives somewhat of an arbitrary way to actually compute the unit in Z_n which is sent to a chosen unit in Z_d, via chinese remainder theorem, after chosing arbitrary units in the Z_p^k factors in the product for primes p not dividing d
That's really nice, thank you!

oh wait i'm dumb this was based off of the assumption that the ideal had a unit element which entirely defeats the purpose of ideals 💀
so now it makes sense lmfao
im' tired
yea but i should have been careful in saying "aribitrary" when p didn't divide d. If one had a unit [a] in Z/d for some a in Z, then just blindly looking [a] in Z/n doesn't work because though it gives the same value mod p for each p dividing d, for the p's that don't divide d, sadly this a could be 0 mod p. and that's exactly what caused the problem
thanks for the catch :3
Ahah yes that's what threw me off originally
ig another way to prove this would be to choose k such that a+dk is not divisible by any p dividing n, this is clear for p that's already dividing d, and for the ones that don't, we choose k = (d^-1)a mod p. some CRT magic gives a nice such k. and then [a+kd] in Z/n works as a lift for [a] in Z/d
but i usually like the structure to carry most of the proof and only check smol details by hand
idk if this is the place to ask this but
I'm trying to prove that a permutation is even iff the permutation has an even amount of inversions
I already proved that the sign of a permutation makes sense (aka any decomposition in transpositions is either even or odd)
but I can't get any further than that
anyone has any hint?
aka any decomposition in transpositions is either even or odd
but not both, right?
well depends 
I mean, given that you know you can decompose any permutation in transpositions
I agree on that view. Well, now I have to go, have a nice day/night
(which I proved by realizing you can do that with a sorting algorithm)
proving det is multiplicative might or might not require that sgn is multiplicative
(makes sense)
weeell you can prove that it's multiplicative for each transposition
which is kinda true by definition tbh
then since the determinant of the final matrix is the same anyways the sign has to be the same
are you multiplying the corresponding permutation matrix and calculating the det?
ye
one just needs to be careful to not make any circular arguments, as det is apriori a more complicated object than sgn.
to show that det exists, you might be implicitly using that sgn is multiplicative
ym like, by that 3 characteristics definition?
cause one standard (formula) definition of det is
sum of all permutations sigma of the product of a_{i, sigma(i)}}
det is the only function that is linear in rows and so on and so on
never heard of that one
well, one still needs existence
yeah but if you prove (which is a famous result) that exchanging two rows negates the determinant it does the thingy
and I was already reading an abstract algebra book which proved that and other things
the chapter right after that was talking about permutation
and it said without proving that the sign is even iff the permutation is even
and didn't prove a permutation can't be even and odd at the same time
so I did it
now I was reading a diff geo book and was trying to do that thing of proving each theorem before reading the chapter and one of them was that the sign of the permutation is (-1)^#inversions
and this is such an interesting thing I don't want to spoil the proof
just want some hint
so you have that every permutation can be written as a product of 2-cycles and that sign is multiplicative? or do you want to show that sign is multiplicative
my current idea is trying to use the inversions as like, the first permutations you do, and then build the rest of the permutation
I showed this already
ok then we're basically done
decompose your permutation into 2-cycles, 2-cycles are odd
(-1)^k is 1 if and only if k is even
sure but like
how do you prove the number of inversions doesn't change
like
(1, 2, 3, 4)
it has one inversion
what is an inversion
ig pairs i<j such that s(i) > s(j)
I don't see how this is relevant
4 has gone to a lower index
that's one inversion
which would mean the permutation is odd
(1234) = (12)(23)(34)
(123) = (12)(23) also has an "inversion"
every non-identity finite permutation will have an inversion I still don't see the relevance
they're equal permutations, their actions of whatever finite set are equal
how would I prove that the permutation is even iff it has an even number of inversions
pick any (2n-1)-cycle if you're not happy with just (123) lol
yeah it was being hard to prove something false
this is a hard kind of theorem to prove
the false ones
crazy difficult
maybe the theorem was stated poorly
and it meant that if you decompose the thingy in inversions (every transposition is an inversion), so on and so on
not sure why your source is mentioning these inversion things at all, just think in terms of transpositions
nuuu
it's correct
how is that correct
1<3 goes to 2>1
2<3 goes to 3>1
what
yea pairs i<j such that s(i)>s(j)
why are we proving this like this?
I agree with you now det but this seems completely moronic.
why tho
2-cycles are odd. Decompose whatever you have into 2-cycles, sign is multiplicative. Therefore the sign of whatever you have is (-1)^(#transpositions in the decomposition) = 1 if and only if the number of tranpositions is even. No need to consider some weird action on pairs
idk, my prefered proof of multiplicativity of sign uses the vandermonde polynomial
and that gives sgn s = (-1)^inv(s) on the nose
I quite literally asked at the beginning if we had sign was multiplicative a priori and gabi said yes
do we or don't we have that
true, what wew said proves one thing that gabi wanted
if we don't there's a nice proof using just basic word cancellation
but she also wants to prove the statement about inversions
oh wait nvm
i'm sleepy
she wanted inversions from the start
<
lo
ohhh I think I understood
anyway, show that multiplying a permutation by a transposition flips the parity of number of inversions. that's one by hand way to do it, and so i hate it
yeah that'll work
the (123) "matrix" is
[123
231]
the pairs (a, b) with a > b with a to the left of b is 2 1 and 3 1
hum
okok
I'll try
my prefered way is this:
||consider the ring Z[x1, .., xn], the group S_n acts on this by permuting the variables. define Δ = prod_{i<j} (x_i - x_j)
then one sees that for any s in S_n, s(Δ) = +-Δ. And we define
s(Δ) = sgn(s) * Δ.
this immediately gives both sgn is multiplicative and that sgn s = (-1)^inv(s)||
there's a nice proof in Humphres' reflection groups that does this for all coexter groups at once
this one
sorry not coexter groups - real refleciton groups, slightly less general
oh I know about coxeter stuff
I watched two long videos classifying coexter systems (if that's what you talking about)
ok then S_n+1 is just A_n lel
won't help you for the inversions though noooooooooooooooooooooo how unwholesome
which motivated representation theory
det no know coxeter stuff :c
it's cool
I may have had an idea
seeing the permutation (1,2,3,4)
the inversions are (2, 1) (3, 1) (4, 1)
if you do the transposition (4, 1) on 2 3 4 1, it does 2 3 1 4
if you do the other transpositions but like not considering the positions but the numbers, you make everything go back
so maybe
I can translate inversions into transposition deecomposition
I'll try that until I can't anymore and maybe try the hint
inversions are (1<4),(2<4) and (3<4) right
ye
wrote them int the reverse order because
.
apparently
using this, in the right order, will always get me back to the start
this
I may have cooked!
if you do that one sorting algorithm I forgot the name, you're basically reverting the inversions
I mean, adjacent inversions
and reverting adjacent inversions will only change one inversion at a time
can't affect two
so like, ig the algorithm will transpose as much numbers as there are inversions
and swapping two things far apart is odd number of adjacent swaps
wt
that is, decompose the permutation in as much factors as there are inversions
(you could ignore me, i'm too sleepy)
happens
yeah I mean, the algorithm only subtracts one inversion at a time and it can't add any
so yeah
I forgot the name of that sort aaaa
escape the algorithm!!!!! Slave to demonic simulacrium!!! RAAAAAAAAARRRRRRRRGHHHHHHHHHHHHHH
hum
I'm happy pretty sure that's true
sounds like bubble sort
lol
you go scanning left to right and swap adjacent inversions
if i sleep now i have little under 4:30 hours to sleep
I see nothing wrong in my logic and since I'm a perfect being I must be right
doubt you sleep right now!!
you'd never do that!!!

never seen someone sleeping my entire life so you must be amazing to do something like that!!!!
I mean, if you did!!!!
gn
silly question, but if we're able to construct a line segment of length r\sqrt{pi}, how do we know that we're able to construct the other three line segments of length r\sqrt{pi}?
wdym "other 3"?
like, from the square?
yeah
i was picturing something like this
assuming the line segment Pr\sqrt{pi| is constructible
yeah like
what you can do is
extend the first line segment
then construct a perpendicular from each of the extremities using the circles thing
then use a compass to transport the length to both of the sides
that's it
pretty much
well it'd be better if you did the perpendicular already in P and Q lmao
👍
anyone know what it means to transfer to R
also, how is this a valid proof strategy? 4 and 5 just say that additive inverses of complex numbers constructible from M are in M, and that the sum of two numbers constructible from M are constructible from M
but i can't see how any of those imply that if z is constructible from M and i is constructible from M then zi is in M
anyways i shouldn't take this shit too seriously i guess the point is just that they form a subfield of C lmfao
what is (x^5-1)/(x-1)
This is a basic thing that I somehow got stumped on. Say, R = k[x, y] / <xy>. Clearly R is not a domain. How can I compute which modules are projective over R?
(Nvm, I do not need answer about this now - it seems like we should deal with nicer cases than this mess, after all)
confused on euclidean algorithm and how to work with fractions, i got gcd=3 when it's actually 1
for example in the second line when you do the division it's this, so i rewrote 7x+6 as 2x+1
can someone give me two presentations of the same group, so that one has a finite number of generators, and the other one has infinite number of generators
or is it not possible?
The integers are generated by 1 and also by every integer 
Any finitely generated infinite group works
no wait
lemme clarify
an infinite generating set such that we can't throw away any generators
it shouldn't be possible right?
why not try to find a proof? 😄
gcd 1 and 3 are equivalent as 3 is a unit in Z_5. Conventionally, might report gcd as monic so 1 instead of 3.
I got curious again, how does one classify modules over any commutative ring? Especially k-algebras which is not a domain.
What do you mean by that? Just classifying all modules over all possible commutative rings? That's definitely impossible
Like I want an example for how to do it.
My original question was about A = k[x, y] / < xy >, but any similar ring will do.
The question doesn’t make sense
Huh
You gotta specify what you’re looking for
If you’re looking for something like the classification of fin gen modules over a PID see jagrs message
So I believe k[x, y]/(xy) is a tame algebra. So then there is a 'reasonable' classification of the finite dimensional modules.
I see, sorry.
I should have been more specific then;
Let A = k[x, y] / (xy).
What does projective A-modules look like?
I would think projective modules are free in this case
I see it now, thanks
https://www.sciencedirect.com/science/article/pii/S0021869396902951 this seems to give an algorithm for f.g. A-modules for your A
Thank you, will look into it!
in the references is a more general paper on "dedekind-like" rings
that doesnt provide an algorithm though
if you look at papers that reference this, you will also find an even more general paper that uses different techniques
if |G|=kp^m with gcd(k,m)=1 and p^k does not devide (m-1)! show that G is not simple. my thought is that gcd(k,m)=1 and |G|=kp^m so every sylow p-subgroup has order p^k and then i said that if i show that i have one sylow p subgroup then it is normal to G and it has order of p^k so G is not normal is it ok as a thought?
Let M=[1,inf). Find f:M->M s.t. (M,•) is a monoid where x•y=f(x)f(y)-f(x)-f(y)+2 for every x,y in M.
This is what i got
Where e is the identity of M
It is ok?
found out why inversions are cool that facilitated some proofs
like, that the wedge product is anti-commutative
that made that trivial
is this not just by definition
no
not in that context at least
in geometric algebra it is for example but in diff geo it isn't
you quotient the tensor algebra by v (x) w + w (x) v
and geometric algebra is borderline crankery
Did you mean for G to have order m*p^k?
anyway, glad to know there are applications
And did you perhaps mean that gcd(m, p) = 1
What is A?
it's summing up all of f but permuting the entries
and multiplying by the sign of each permutation
I see, so then it's anticommutative by definition I guess
yeap you are right
it takes some small work to actually go ahead and prove it
exactly🥲
So thing you can do is consider the action of G on G/P for P a sylow subgroup. This doesn't even use that P is sylow, just that |G| doesn't divide m!
so my thought is wrong?
I'm having some issue parsing your thought, but if there is only one sylow subgroup then it's normal. So yeah if there is exactly one sylow subgroup the group is not simple.
But there can be more than one, in which case that doesn't help
but we know that if it is a P SYLOW subgroup then r is 1modp so r is 1 or r is m
and somehow i want to show that m modp is not 1
and i think with this p^k does not devide (m-1)! i can somehow show it
So you can have more than one sylow subgroup. Like for example D6 (dihedral group of order 12) has three 2-sylow subgroups. But 4 doesn't divide (3-1)!
So one thing to keep on mind is that G acts (transitivitely) on the sylow subgroups. And what is a way to think about a group acting on n elements?
should i use the correspondence theorem theorem or something like that?
just a quick thought
new isomorphism theorem just dropped
correspondence theorem
and no, you should use the cayley embedding given by the group action on n-elements
irreducibility question
FINALLY after several days of work:
The union H across (inclusion) chain C of set S of all proper subsets of finitely generated group G=<A> is a subgroup of G.
- by the union axiom, all elements in H are contained by an element somewhere in C.
- by the definition of S, all elements of S are groups, therefore every element in H also has an inverse (from the same element somewhere in C)
- because chains are totally ordered, and this ordering is by inclusion, for any elements x,y in H, they belong to elements X,Y of C, respectively, and by that inclusion ordering, one must be contained entirely within the other, therefore either X or Y contains both x,y and their inverses and (by being a member of S) xy^-1.
- XUY (the set known to contain that xy^-1) is a subset of H, and x and y were originally arbitrary elements of H, therefore H must be a subgroup of G (H is subgroup iff H is non-empty and for all x,y in H, xy^-1 is also in H).
it's also a proper subgroup, and therefore by Zorn's lemma, S has a maximal element, and thus G has a maximal subgroup, but those parts were pretty easy to prove afterwards. This was the monster.
why
Because cranks talk about it a lot
it's literally just the study of a single clifford algebra over R. What's the point.
it's an excuse to invent a shit ton of words that describe something which can really be described far more generally using just a little bit of module theory
can someone please give a small hint with this exercise? I'm not even sure of a plan that would get me anywhere
attempt to construct i presume
the product of those two subgroups is another subgroup of G
then I'll just say the term "inner direct product" if you're still stuck
Okay I'll give this a go
I tried to show that H x K (the normal subgroups) and G were iso but that might be too strong
Even more concretely I guess would be to let x be an element of order 3 and y of order 5 and try to find the order of xy
D_30 satisfies this property so that statement isn't true
That's why I said 'I tried' lol
Oh every group of prime order is cyclic
By some theorem in artin, HK is a subgroup of G if H is normal wrt to G
consider xy in HK (x and y are the elements that generate the cyclic sgroups)
This clearly has order 15 because lcm(3, 5) = 15
And xy is in G
I was sat thinking to myself 'this would be easy if the normal subgroups were cyclic'
And I reminded myself lol
Thanks guys
You have to be a little carefully with your 'clearly' there.
For example S3 has an element of order 2 and one of order 3, but none of order 6.
What you need to finish your argument is that x and y commute
(or alternatively that the only group of order 15 is cyclic)
I'm struggling to see why I need commutativity sorry, I though i'd just take the cyclic subgroup generated by xy
Right, but why does this have order 15?
i suppose because I can "identify" in some sense C_3 x C_5 with <xy>
that's sort of my intuition
and C_3 x C_5 has order 15
Yeah, so if you have this characterization of internal direct sum and how it corresponds to external direct sum, then sure.
But this is saying the same thing as x and y commuting. Since the elements in C3xC5 commute with each other
sorry I don't know what you mean when you say "interal direct sum" and "external direct sum"
I meant direct product, but what I'm saying is
How do you know that HK is C3xC5?
So to expand on what I was saying before. There is a notion of internal direct product and a notion of external.
If two subgroups H and K are such that they have trivial intersection and both H and K are normal in HK (and HK is a group), then HK is called their internal direct product.
You also have an external direct product HxK which is the set of pairs with pointwise operation.
Now it is true that the internal and external direct products are isomorphic by
hk |-> (h, k)
So if that is something you've already shown, then you're done.
But otherwise it's somewhat subtle. And it comes down to showing that H and K commute.
I'll go down the route of showing that HK and C_3 x C_5 are iso I think
because I'm still a little unsure how the commutativity of H and K relate to this problem
I'm pretty sure they do because of normality
artin gives an argument as such in the book
Yes, being normal is a key property, and the intersection being trivial is also important
the intersection is trivial because these are cyclic subgroups of different order
Indeed
and this is what artin writes wrt to commutativity
I'll flesh this out and latex it up. thanks for the help jagr
What is the order of $\langle g \rangle\cap\langle h \rangle$?
splotchvan
i dont have to if i dont feel like it
Thanks Brayden
i dont generally like assisting low effort Qs
What do you care?
because, i dont like seeing low effort being rewarded
Show what you have tried if ur gonna ask
What do you mean low effort
Just try to compute |<g><h>|
If someones stuck theyre stuck
cant tell how ur stuck if u dont say so
Try to show |<g><h>| has an element of order 15*16.
Thanks
That's hardly your problem, isn't it? It's between the person asking and the person answering (if any so wishes), I'm not sure how you fit in in that transaction.
And this follows from what divides your orders
He has an anime pfp
Huh. If it was somewhere else sure
But its in the rules/guidelines not to give sols
Ignore the anime pfp
I guess I didn't know it's a thing, then.
You asked a question which couldve been hwk posted word for word
Which anime person is that
and basically fishing for the answer
its not clear how you have expended effort in attenpting it
I’m not fishing for an answer I’m fishing for an explanation
since u didnt say at all which part had u stumped
Yeah bro
The anime isn’t going to watch itself
I just be helping
You just asked this, and u couldve been stuck on anything from the definition of <g> to what a group is
how are we supposed to know
Are you kidding me
Buddy
"what is the order of <g> n <h>? I've no idea where to begin"
would've been higher quality
How come you get confused and pissy when brayden provided a perfect answer
Why can’t you be like Brayden
Why can’t you just make assumptions
Brayden
@supple vortex another thing that's important to note is look at the order of the elements in the groups.
When you write <g><h> do you mean like coset multiplication
The intersection by definition has to have the same order elements
It's all ab where a is in <g> and b is in <h>.
Couldn’t it have less?
Wdym less
Less elements
Well it always has less
The intersection you mean
Yeah
Yeah order 1 for identity
But it's cyclic so every element has the same order
The order of every element divides the size of the group
Mhm
Nothing lines up except 1
But the only element of order 1 is the identity
So it has trivial intersection
Well 2Z and 3Z. Is another wxample
You could look at, but here its triviallly infinite intersection
Is the torsion subgroup a subgroup because
if you take $g_1g_2^{-1}$ in it
splotchvan
Then $|g_1g_2^{-1}|=\min{|g_1|,|g_2|}$?
splotchvan
Which is finite since |g1|,|g2| finite?
Not for non abelian groups
Yeah
Theres probably some counterexample with matrices but I cant find
Well you just want to show that the order of g_1g_2^{-1} is not infinite
But the order of g_2^{-1} is precisely the order of g_2.
Yes
Then order divides the product of the orders
So what does that mean about the product of orders
What i just did is write out $\langle g_1g_2^{-1}\rangle$
splotchvan
You dont need to do this though
🤷♂️ up to u
I mean
it’s essentially the same thing
T/F: If G is a group that acts non-trivially on {1,2,3}, and |G| >6, then G is non-simple
What I have so far: let g be the element that acts non-trivially. Then |Orb(g)| is 2 or 3, corresponding to two-cycles or three-cycles. Then |Stab(g)| must be >= 4
Think about how you can frame an action as a type of homomorphism
Like in ||Cayleys theorem|| for example
$\phi: G --> S_3$ where $\phi(g)$ describes how g acts on ${1,2,3}$
BLONK
the order of some element g is either 2 or 3, a prime number, thus abelian (not sure if that matters)
my next guess is to show the kernel of this is non-trivial
the order of some element g is either 2 or 3, a prime number, thus abelian (not sure if that matters)
This is false.
S_3 is not an Abelian group.
Well, OK. This was not clear.
I should say that any cyclic group is Abelian – it doesn't matter what order it is.
Showing that the kernel is non-trivial is indeed a good idea, and thinking about the size of S3 should help.
Not sure why you say the order of g must be either 2 or 3, but it's not really relevant anyway.
yeah i think i got it?
by the first isomorphism theorem:
G/K isomorphic to Im(f)
since at least one element is non-trivial, Im(f) is > 1
Since G > 6, then K > 1 so their orders are equal
so K is a non-trivial normal subgroup, so G is non-simple
Is there a nice uniform-ish presentation family for S_n? I don’t touch finite groups much

define presentation family
Like literally just presentations for each S_n
None of the words except presentation and S_n are precise 
oh lol - they're like the most basic coexter groups imaginable
so just take S_n = <a_i : a_i^2 = 1, (a_ia_j)^3 = 1, j = i+1>
think that works
I do not know what a Coxeter group is fr
its like a symmetric group
So true
ok
is a_i = (i, i+1)?
yus
oh
I forgot the commutators
put the commutators in
The fires of Babylon
Coxeter group presen—dammit wew
That’s uniform enough if it works frfr
you can get a 2-generated presentation with worse relators if you want
using an n-cycle and a tranposition
Coxeter looks better 
@rustic crown Update on my 4 hour test! Crushed it!!!
is every free module torsion free because if ti weren't, this would imply that the basis is linearly dependent?
yurp
can someone help me with thiss please
they're both groups of order 2
there is a unique group of order 2 up to isomorphism
Most likely the intended solution is to list the elements of each group and show an isomorphism between them.
Prove/disprove: every nonabelian group of order divisible by $6$ contains a subgroup of order $6$.
splotchvan
how can i do this directly?
lagrange’s theorem
iirc it says that the order of the subgroup divides the order of the group
true
Lagrange’s Theorem: If H is a subgroup of G, then |H| divides |G|
any ideas anybody?
you can overkill and use sylow's for 2 and 3
we havent learned sylows
but cauchy's theorem is enough
well it's precisely cauchy's theorem you want i guess so maybe that isn't assumed
ok
take the order of all the elements. there must be at least one with order divisible by 2, for otherwise the exponent of the group, which is the lcm of the orders, will be coprime to 2
If a take an arbitary group G and compute the powers of some element in G, then subgroup generated will be cyclic right?
Not sure what you mean
I know nothing about the group
idk if that makes sense but if |H| divides |G| then |H| = |G|n and |G| = 6m, so |H| = 6k, could this lead to something?
ignore what i said i thought abelian
?
ya you want cauchy's theorem exactly, you might want to search it up
but i cant use it
this is in the isomorphism section
this question is asked before cauchys theorem is taught
actually i'm not even sure cauchy's/sylow's theorem would help
maybe this statement is false then
how does he know A4 doesnt have a subgroup of orde 6
is there any easier way to tell A4 doesnt have a subgroup of order 6
well subgroups of order 6 contain a cyclic subgroup of order 3 i think
and one of order 2
so it must be generated by a 3-cycle and a double transposition
i'll just leave the computation for anyone else that wants to help. wlog we have (1 2 3) and (1 2)(3 4). if we compose them one way we get (1 3 4); the other way we get (2 4 3). so this subgroup has at least 8 elements, which must be A4 itself
how do you conclude it must have 8 elements
it has id, (1 2 3), (1 3 2), (1 2)(3 4), (1 3 4), (1 4 3), (2 4 3), and (2 3 4)
If it helps notice A4 is the rotation group of a tetrahedron
oh is there a geometric argument Arki
No I just find this easier to visualize
cyclic subgroups of order 3 in A4 have to be generated by a 3-cycle
Can someone explain it plainly from start to finish
am i excluded
No
That's not a subgroup: (1 2 3)(2 4 3) = (1 2 4) which is not in your list.
by has i mean at least contains
Ah, okay.
trial and error
Let $A_4$ be the alternating group on 4 elements. We wish to show that there is no subgroup of order 6. For a contradiction say we have found one, $H$. Then $H$ is either isomorphic to $S_3$ or $C_2\times C_3$ by classification; regardless it contains a $C_3$ and $C_2$ subgroup. These must be generated in $A_4$ by elements of order 3 and 2, which must be a 3-cycle and a double transposition respectively. Let us label the set $A_4$ acts on by defining 4 to be the element the 3-cycle keeps still; 3 to be the element the double transposition takes 4 to, 1 to be the element the 3-cycle takes 3 to, and 2 to be the remaining element. Hence our 3-cycle is $(1 2 3)$, and our double transposition is $(1 2)(3 4)$. It remains to show that any subgroup containing these two elements must have size $> 6$.
quasi_semi_group
We could say: by conjugating the double transposition repeatedly by the 3-cycle, we can make all three possible double transpositions. But those double transpositions (together with the identity) form a subgroup of order 4, which cannot lie inside a subgroup of order 6.
i hate doing any sort of combinatorics write-up
even if it's easy it just looks like a mess on paper
splotchvan
Any finite abelian group has an element of maximum order d under divisibility (any other element has order dividing it). Through polynomials, prove d must be |U(p)|
Well really what i have to do is
show it is isomorphic to Z_(p-1)
is that easier?
This is a good approach. Showing U(p) is isomorphic to Z_{p-1} will show it's cyclic since u know Z_(p-1) is cyclic
yeah but how do i do that
U know what isomorphisms are yea?
U(p)={1,2,…,p-1}, Z_(p-1)={0,1,…,p-2}
what is the isomorphism? f(x)=x-1?
from U to Z
f(xy)=xy-1
that is a bijection for sure
nope
hang on
xy-1 neq x-1+y-1
u wanna show then that f(xy)=f(x)+f(y)
hmm it's def a bijection but hmm what if we actually looked at an element in U(p) that has order p-1. If we can explicitly find one, then the cyclic group generated by that must exactly U(p)
This approach doesnt work well
Z -> U?
Something like this works
how does that get me an iso
Cyclic groups are unique up to order
skip the iso part
So as long as u show its cyclic you're good
look for a generator directly
so here's what we're looking for....
You need to find an $x\in U(p)$ for which $x^{p-1}\equiv1\pmod p$ and $x^k\not\equiv1\pmod p$ for any $k\in{1,2,3,\dots,p-2}$. Finding such an $x$, would entail u have found and $x$ with order $p-1$. In which case $\langle x\rangle=U(p)$ for such $x$.
logician
Ok so U(p) = {1,2,…p-1}
yes. I'm actually still thinking about this problem tbh... But I wrote the modular arithmetic down in case it rings any bells
i mean an obvious answer would be x=p right
I'm more of a number theory person
@celest furnace any ideas
logician
how so
Idk but existence of principal root could be a bit technical
yes we werent taught that
well the question asks me to show U(5) is iso to Z4
then asks me to generalize for any p
so what would be the iso U(5) -> Z4?
would it just be piecewise
no
it's all about where u send the generators
for instance Z_4 only has 1,3 as generators
where u send the generators of cyclic groups determines the isomorphisms
so what would be an iso from U(5) to Z4
define it explicitly
what
yeah
f(3)=...
but what do they equal
there isn't necessarily only one isomorphism
first off, determine all the generators of each of the sets
ok
yes
then map the generators to the generators
and any of the nongenerators to any of the nongenerators?
yes
how would i show f(ab)=f(a)+f(b) in general for that
for this I actually think it's easier to define the isomorphism from Z_4 to U(5). Because then since the operation is addition for Z_4, we could just send 1 to 3 in U(5) and then f(2)=f(1+1)=f(1) x f(1), make sense?
ok man ill figure this out tomorrow
but i have another q for you
the division algorithm states
if f(x),g(x) in k[x]
then there exist q(x),r(x) st f(x) = q(x)g(x) + r(x)
right
say we want to do long division of polynomials in Zn
I know it in the context of NT. Haven't heard about it in terms of polynomials. Maybe someone else here might know the answer to that
well
do you know what i did wrong here?
remainder supposed to be 2x+1
in this case we’re in Z5
i thought for every computation of a coefficient i just do it mod 5
but i got the wrong answer ..?
is x^3 - 2x^3 = -2x^3? I don't think so
ur first line that calculates the first difference
0-2x^3...
because wouldn't that be 4x^3 if this is mod 5
since -1 is congruent to 4 mod 5
yes and that coefficient is -1
yes
which is the same as 4 mod 5
so that should technically be 4x^3 as well, yea?
-x^3=4x^3 mod 5 is what I'm saying
uh
is that because -1 in {-4,-3,-2,-1,0,1,2,3,4}
but yea that was the first line that I saw an error in^
no it's because 5| 4-(-1). so 4 and -1 are congruent modulo 5
just like 12 is congruent to 2 mod 5
like u noted
u wrote (3x^2)(4x)=2x^3 since 12 mod 5=2
anyway, I think I'm perhaps confusing u. Just redo the long division. It's tedious but yea silly errors that we're all prone too can yield a wrong answer quite easily
it's because of this^
Because it is so that $-1\equiv 4\pmod 5$, I interpreted $-x^3$ as $4x^3$
logician
these "tricks" go back to the definition of congruence mod k.
Remember $a\equiv b\pmod k$ iff $k|a-b$. I'm only making use of that difference there
is $-n$ mod $m$ = $(m-n)$ mod $m$ ?
$-n\equiv m-n\pmod m$ is true yes
dont read that
logician
Let p>=2 prime number. In the ring Z/pZ we define the sequence (a_{n})n>=0 by a_{n} = n mod p for every n=0,1,...,p-1 and a_{n}=a_{n-1}+a_{n-p} for n>=p
Show a_{n}=a_{n+p^2-1} for every n>=0
Any idea
why do you even need mod p here? "a_{n} = n mod p for every n=0,1,...,p-1 " looks fishy
can you post a screenshot instead? and maybe this belongs in number theory.. idk
It is in romanian
George Stoica problem from Canada
This is the problem
But I translated it in english here
Have you tried induction?
Yes
For a fixed for every k<=n
But does not work
Or I dont see it
Where do you get stuck?
You have a linear recursion of degree p here. If you can prove that the roots of the characteristic polynomial all lie in F_{p^2}, you're done.
Wow nice idea
Induction🥲
The product of (x-a) where a runs through F_{p^2} is x^p^2 - x. So you must prove that this is 0 modulo x^p-x^(p-1)-1.
Since the polynomial is separable it suffices to check stuff at roots
And if a^p = a^(p-1)+1 then b=1/a satisfies a simpler polynomial
Show that b^(p^2)=b
Hello, I'm wondering if I could get some help on this item (a)? I'm new to studying modules and I don't really know how I'm supposed to prove this, or how to utilize the condition on A. Any hint would be appreciated🥺
Take M_i to be the submodule e_i * M consisting of elements e_i*m as m varies in M. Show these do the job.
oh oki ty that makes sense

and what about (b)?
well e_i*m maps to something in e_iN just by A-linearity
This shouldn't be surprising if you know the corresponding situation for rings. When you have idempotents like that, the ring decomposes as a product of multiple rings, and a module over a product of ring is same as the data of module over each ring
Wait I'm slightly confused, what is f(N_i)? Do they actually mean N_i?
yep

Hey @rustic crown

can you tell me why the elements of order 3 in $\mathbb{Z}_3\times\mathbb Z_4\times\mathbb Z_5$ are (1,0,0) and (2,0,0)
splotchvan
if (a, b, c) has order 3, then (3a, 3b, 3c) = 0
mhm
but you also konw that 4b = 0 and 5c = 0
from this show that b and c are both 0s already
so the element looks like (a, 0, 0), when does this have order 3?
why isnt 3a=0
it is, but we already knew that
.
ok but if 3a=0 then a=0
what would you think it is

-able
