#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 183 of 1
thought i shouldn't post it in the geometry channel or whatever since this is a section on field extensions, but when they mention obtaining new points by, say intersecting two distinct lines in Li(M), do they mean include all the points of each of the lines in Li(M)?
certainly it would be because then i couldn't think of any "new" points lol
No, they mean include the intersection point. They're intersecting the lines
Aaaaayyy, fellow Lorenz enjoyer. Be prepared, it's a pretty tough book (part 2 in particular). Also I find it neat that he uses "F" for most theorems, it has a quaint archaic quality to it.
why does rank-nullity not hold for arbitrary commitative rings?
Consider the short exact sequence between k-vector space 0-->kerT--->V--->W--->0, it always splits because vector space over a field is always free (it has a basis). But if you work in R-modules, not every R module is projective for a general ring R, so the short exact sequence may not split.
oh true thanks
I guess it depends what you mean by rank-nullity when not over a field, since there is no concept of dimension. But the first isomorphism theorem still holds.
Rank nullity holds for length
As im learning more abstract algebra im noticing im looking at mathematical objects in a different way than i have before, did anyone else feel that?
We are doing stuff on polynomials and now i look at polynomials as just like a kind of number system , more removed from the “function” aspect of it
Its kind of interesting
Does anyone relate and does that continue as you learn more?
It's a perfectly natural paradigm shift that every one goes though. In fact, you don't need "abstract" algebra to encounter this, since already in analysis and linear algebra one often deals with spaces of functions.
Yeah thats cool
How do u do question number 1
A field homomorphism fixes 1 (by definition), think about what they entails for the prime field.
Can we have polynomials that have the exponents be some weirder thing
Instead of just integers
What if the exponent was also any field or smth
a polynomial is defined to have integer exponents but you can have exponents of elements by some weird things
So we use the fact that the prime field is a subfield of K then we restrict the automorhism on it
Since the homo fix 1 we can use the other homo properties to show that the image of psi is the prime field
The homo fixes 1 🏳️🌈 
I'm asked in an exercise here to show that two... things?.. are isomorphic. But as what? As A-modules? A[X] modules? As rings? Is there information missing here, or should this just be obvious...
(here rings are commutative, and with 1)
This should be as B modules. Since the point is that you're extending the scalars on A[x] to B, which turns out to give you B[x]
Iirc, at least. Not sure if they end up isomorphic as other structures too
Maybe it could also be A-algebra isomorphism?
as A-modules they're isomorphic because A[x]⊗B = (⊕A)⊗B = ⊕ (A⊗B) = ⊕B = B[x], correct?
Yes
Sorry no, as B algebras even
so are you saying it's isomorphic in pretty much every way imaginable
chmonkey seems so much less tilted outside of AG channel 
They're isomorphic as A-modules, B-modules, rings, A-algebras, B-algebras. So take your pick.
Though my guess would be the exercise is asking about A algebras

I think B algebras
It’s the most natural one, and implies every other one
Do I seem tilted in AG channel?
Doing AG in general is pretty tilted I guess 
hard to not be tilted when every other question is euclidean geometry
maybe i only remember the times chmonkey would call questions stupid 
The gcf of two polynomials are the same up to a constant multiple ?
So when talking about divisors o polynomials, those that differ by a constant multiple dont matter right?
Over a field, yes. Over a general integral domain, as long as they differ by a unit (which in the case of fields is any number \neq0). The relevant term is association/associates/up to associates.
Ok cool
Rn we have been introduced to polynomials over a field and practicing division algorithm and finding gcf etc
So p(x) and c*p(x) are technically distinct divisors but they can be treated as the same ?
Yes. As literal elements of K[x] they're different, but all their properties related to divisibility are the same (whether they are divisors of some other polynomial, whether they're irreducible, etc.). That's why when dealing with polynomials over a field in matters of divisibility you can always assume the polynomial to be monic, i.e. have leading coefficient one (since you can always scale it appropriately if you wish to). Over e.g. Z you can't do this.
Thank you
Oh lol this was just an assigned reading
Since we’re going over Galois theory rn
Bedephull
But I’ve heard good things about it and my prof keeps raving about it so I might continue reading
Honestly I got kinda concerned when I sent that cuz it could be read as two different things
But glad u read it as beautiful lo
Lol what were u going for
Beautiful
Oh lmfao nice
also can be read as pedo 💀
Yeah I thought that’s what you meant by the other thing but I wasn’t Tryna say it out loud 😭
Over Z the analogy is multiplying by -1
😭😭
Well yeah, I just meant not every polynomial is associated to a monic one.
It's really a wild book (both volumes).
How so if you don’t mind me asking lol
-
For starters it assumes absolutely nothing beyond a linear algebra course (although a German one, which in some cases are much more advanced than US ones) and by the end of the first book it's covered not only the basics of what is called "abstract algebra" in the US, but also most of what usually passes for a "Fields and Galois Theory" course and some rather advanced stuff too (including Lindemann-Weierstrass, transcendence degree, integrality, basics of AlgGeo, and so on).
-
It has a pretty interesting and somewhat unique outlook of having all of the material be subordinate to, motivated by, and developed through field theory.
-
The 2nd book goes 10x wilder, I've never seen so many advanced and disparate topics covered in a single book (excepting Bourbaki, but that's not really a textbook and more of a working reference).
What topics are in 2nd book
I wanna learn some deep field theory, but the only book I’ve seen cover the stuff I care about is Bourbaki Alg 2 lol
I found table of contents
It just does class field theory, lol
well not "just" though
I mean that it like
Just goes ahead and covers it
In an algebra book
Which is funny
Holy shit
I’ll return to it then when I have enough algebra under my belt
Tbh tho Lang prolly covers all these things
But then again Lang is a reference book
(trying to prove that i is constructible from {0, 1} = M) why exactly is it that we can say that -1 is constructible from M? as far as i'm aware, we're saying that it's obtained from an intersection of the unit circle with the x-axis on the left, but how can we say that since that's not a line constructible from 0, 1?
like i understand that the unit circle is constructible from 0, 1 sure
but by definition, don't we only include points that are intersected in lines and circles constructed from 0, 1, and in particular -1 is not contained in the intersection of any two distinct lines or points
like they say "intersecting R with the unit circle"
but R isn't a part of M
so how can we do that
oh wait
is it because we consider the real axis to be in Li(M)
oh i guess that makes sense
since it joins 0 and 1
well hm i'm not so sure about the complex axis tho
-1 is the intersection between the line going through 0 and 1, and the circle center at 0 with radius 1
ye ok that makes sense
why exactly would the complex axis be in Li(M) tho?
i can't really see what two distinct points it joins
oh
it's because we can consider it as a line intersecting the two distinct unit circles centered at -1 and 1?
wait no
because that would intersect at 0 which is not distinct
uhhh
where my algebraic geometrists at?
hi all, when talking about the solvability by radicals of a polynomial, we only consider it over Q right, not R ?
I'm trying to determine how we define the equivalence relation here
Is this the correct relation?
ye
You can consider it over any field, but usually it's Q, yes.
Does my proof make sense? I didn't make use of the hint given, so I have a feeling I'm misunderstanding something
nu, it asks you to show every ideal looks like "A x B" so you can't start the proof with "Let A x B be an ideal"
take an arbitrary ideal F in R x S and masage it until it looks like A x B for ideals A in R and B in S.
e.g. it's certainly false that any subgroup of G x H looks like G' x H'. you can have G = H and the subgroup is the diagonal, {(g, g) in G x G | g in G}
but in case of rings and ideals, situation is nicer 
Alr, I'll try again
can somebody explain to me what it means to "raise the perpendicular"?
yeah but what would the original perpendicular be then
you have a horizontal segment [-1, r] and you slowly draw a perpendicular segment from (0,0) until it hits the semi-circle ><
so you're slowly raising it ><
if you had a point outside a line, you would call it "dropping a perpendicular from the point", since the point lies on the line, ig nicer to say "erect/raise a perp"
oh yea that makes sense
thank you!
can i do it swiftly?
I don't really know how to proceed from what I got. Any advice?
okie, so since you want to show F looks like a product of two thingies, (that itself isn't true if you weren't working with rings) you need to identify these two thingies
a priori we do not know if F looks like A x B. whether they're ideals then would come later
you know for sure F contained in A x B where A is "all the elements of R that appear in the first coordinate of some element of F" and similary B. but you would need to argue that they indeed are equal.
@rustic crown can maaaaaaay I DM you about something?
yee >.<
No you can’t
if i have a group multiplication that’s just a constant map to some element of the underlying set, does this form a group? clearly not because inverses aren’t unique
however im not sure which axiom this violates
in particular i don’t think uniqueness of inverses is an axiom, just a consequence of the axioms
violates identity axiom
there must be some e,
then g * e = fixed, for each g. but it should have been g.
I completed 1 but cannot find a surjective function for #2. Any hints?
cannot find a surjective function for #2
well, you're supposed to find one which isn't!
to start trying to find counterexamples, think of some choices of S you could make which have reeeallly simple ideals
oh right, that was a typo, my bad
is addition commutative in an ideal?
well addition is commutative in any ring!
(not to say ideals are rings, but rather that if all the elements of a ring commute under addition then the elements of its subsets should also do so)
If you don't require identity ideals are rings
all rings are commutative and with identity
As they should be, ofc
How do you start out solving this?
assume such a ring homomorphism exists and get a contradiction
This was all I managed to derive from my assumptions. Am I missing something or this is all I need?
f(a) = f(a) is certainly true. i don't see how this is enough - there's no contradiction
my advice is to think about the f(1) = 1 condition
if we left that out of the definition of a ring homomorphism, then you could very easily produce one from Z/5Z to Z (send everything to 0), so it ought to be the problem
Wait basic question but can u even have a group homomorphism from Zn to Z?

homomorphisms on cyclic groups are determined by where they send generators
this may help
something something orders of elements
Oh ok so a homomorphism of a cyclic group would need to be cyclic
So if u define function Z2 to Z by like having f(1)=2 fhat wouldnt work cuz 2 is not a generator of Z
I can help if you would like. I am not an expert but I can try my best as I am learning that as well.
Nice
I would really like to understand math a bit better. Could you help me out? Learning high school math 9-12 I think would help me. I need to start with freshman math so, if you can let me know, thanks!
Is it a coincidence that $|SL_2(\mathbb{F}_p)|$ are factorial numbers for $p=2,3,5$?
person2709505
The order of SL_2(Fp) is (p-1)p(p+1), which happens to coincide with (p+1)! for p=2 and p=3; for p=5 it is more of a coincidence that p+1 happens to give just the two factors that would otherwise be missing from 5!
Ah, I see
I was trying to recognise a formula from a table of the order, which is why I was sort of grasping at straws there
First count the order of GL2(Fp) which is (p²-1)(p²-p).
SL2(Fp) is now the kernel of a surjective homomorphism onto the multiplicative group of Fp, so Lagrange's theorem tells us how its order to relates to GL2(Fp).
yeah these are due to some exceptional isomorphisms for small p
Oh true, I should have seen that. Thanks!
Is there anywhere I can read about this?
SL(2,2) is isomorphic to S3 (though not for any deep reason, there just aren't that many groups of low order to go around) so the factorial makes good sense there.
However, SL(2,3) is not isomorphic to S4 despite having the same order: there's an element of order 6 in SL(2,3) but not in S4.
SL(2,5) is not isomorphic to S5 either: it contains an element of order 20.
Cool!
If you're trying to learn high school math, this is the wrong channel, and moreover, this is the wrong section of channels
The red part is the textbook, and the blue part is what I interpret, is this the right logic? the red part is due to 3rd isomorphism theorem, so I move the red part into the blue part.
without 3rd Isomorphism theorem, we can't guarantee G_i is normal in G_i+1
Yeah, wheter you want to think of it as the third isomorphism theorem or the correspondence theorem, when you have
G > H > N with N normal in G, then H/N is normal in G/N iff H is normal in G.
thank you!
Name of book?
B-but it says algebra!
Wut
i think we should be referring to highschool maths as "numeracy" tbh
would avoid all of these kinds of confusion
Too late
People now use the word algebra
That's not gonna change for a long time
If I have a group G of order (2^n)*m and a Sylow 2-subgroup of G, must the Sylow 2-subgroup be of order 2^n or can it be any 2^i for 1 \leq i \leq n?
In my textbook the definitions are really confusing, Im pretty sure it’s the latter
Sylow p-subgroups specifically have the of the largest power of p possible for their order
So here, 2^n
Alright thank you
A 2-subgroup would be the latter
Got it
Fine we can change undergrad algebra to “the theory of hyper complexes” as noether intended
How to solve the 2nd part of the question
You have to think of some examples of cubic extensions
I guess you’re in a Galois theory class? If so it might be helpful to think about what the galois group of an extension like Q(cuberoot(d)) is
We didn't do Galois theory yet, we only did field extension
Let's say I find cubic equation we some roots "t" then [Q(t):Q]=3, how to show that t can't be write as cuberoot(d)
That’s not the same as what you’re trying to show
What you’re trying to show is that there is no possible generator t in the field Q(\alpha) which is a cuberoot
anyway I will give this hint: how does complex conjugation act on the cube roots of a number?
if the discriminant <0 then we have one real roots and two conjugate roots, right?
What is the discriminant of the equation X^3 - a
Okay, so in the case of a cubic equation which comes from extracting a cuberoot you know that two roots are always complex, right?
oh so 27a^2
I think so yes
This is because any cuberoots of a number have ratio a third root of unity
So can you find a cubic equation with all real roots?
Yes, hmmm let's say x^3-3x+1
Okay great! That works
So can you show that this cubic extension cannot be written as a cube-root extension?
hint? like should I find the roots explicitly then show that they can't be written as cubicroot(d) or there is a better approach?
that would not prove the statement that you want to prove
Sorry yeah u already said that
ok hmmm what if we try to show there is no isomorphim between Q(a) to Q(cubicroot(d))?
where a is the root of a cubic
That is what you want to show yes
There’s a way to do this using the difference between real and complex numbers
Hint hint
Okay so from our equation that has 3 real roots let's say a
then we can embed Q(a) into C, right? with the image has to be a subset of the reals?
the reals have no imaginary part?
Yes in particular every embedding is totally real
No matter which root of the cubic you send a to it has to be real
but if there is an isomorhpism between Q(a) and Q(cubicroot(d)) then two roots has to have a complex embeding?
Why is that?
(Yes you are right)
because if c is a complex root then Q(c) is a subset of C
like our equation is x^3-1=0 then Q(i) is subset of C but not R
Yeah thank so much
The equation x^3 -1 is not irreducible btw so you have to be more careful
yeah that's true, I was trying to create a quick example
Sorry one more question
how to find the degree of the extension of the last one over Q
I manage to do the first two and they were =
What happens if you cube it?
I know nothing about modular representation theory, but I just stumbled upon a problem where I need to classify the representations of $\mathbb{Z}{9}$ and $\mathbb{Z}{3} \times \mathbb{Z}{3}$ in $V = \mathbb{F}{5}^{2}$.
Any ideas of how to do this?
MisterSystem
Actually, just knowing at least one non trivial representation exists would be enough for me rn.
Okay well there aren’t that many interesting representations in this case. Gl_2(5) has one element of order 3 up to conjugacy, and it’s just from (0 -1 | 1 -1)
So you can have both factors of Z_3 acting by this matrix
For Z/9 since there are no elements of order 9 the only representation up to isomorphism comes from sending the generator to this element
And it is not faithful
Now you can subtract off some terms and square then simplify
Okay I will do it
I would subtract off 6 times the element that you started with to get rid of the cuberoot term, then subtract off 4, then multiply by the element that you started with
Etc
By the element that I started with u mean 2^3/2
No you have to subtract 6(cuberoot(2) + sqrt(2))
Anyway I think you can figure this out on your own
Alright thank u for the hint
I don't get the last line. What it's saying basically is if r is maximal with Q_r\subset Q_m (this implies that Q_m=Q_r in fact), then the number of roots of unity in Q_m is r. I can see why this number is >= r, but I don't see the converse.
use the maximality of r
Yeah I know, but how?
OK, I think I got it: if G is the torsion group of Q_m, then it's finite (because phi(n)->infty), hence cyclic (of order d, say), then Q_d<=Q_m and d<=r.
Still, I feel like there's some easy explanation I'm not seeing.
if it's >r then there has to be some number larger than r such that mu_n is in Q(mu_m)
Remember that the group of roots of unity is finite cyclic
so there needs to be some generator of all these >r roots of unity
so r isn't maximal in this case
You're right, ignore my stupid reply.
What you're saying is literally a rewording of what I said above though, so it involves proving the torsion group is finite (which is perhaps not immediately obvious). What I was wondering about was if there wasn't some more trivial way of seeing it.
You just said that this implies that Q_m = Q_r
Isn’t that enough?
Well yeah, but how do I know there are r roots of unity in Q_r.
E.g. there are 6 roots of unity in Q_3.
And before you say so, yes, there are [2,n] ROU in Q_n, the point of this proposition is to prove it.
They showed that if x in Q(zeta_r) is a root of unity then x is an rth root of unity or a 2rth root of unity (the second case only possible when r odd)
Well you know there cannot be roots of unity of order prime to 2r by degree counting, so then you are only allowed roots of unity or order dividing 2r… but all of these are just 2rth roots or unity. If r is even as I assume it is in your case then the 2 is not relevant, so we get that to roots of unity are just mu_r which only has r elements
Isn't that trivial enough
Like
Well it's not complicated, you just have to know phi(n) goes to infinity, which is easy enough, I was just wondering if there wasn't a completely elementary argument that I might have missed.
If $G'$ is the abeliasation of a finite $G$ and $\widehat G$ is the character group, then the isomorphism $\widehat{\widehat{G}}\cong\widehat{\widehat{G'}}\cong G'$ (where we use the group isomorphisms $\operatorname{Hom}(G,A)\cong\operatorname{Hom}(G',A)$ and $\widehat{\widehat{A}}\cong A$ for $A$ finite abelian) is completely canonical and natural, right?
Ocean Man
dummit and foote
looks nice 
If L/E/K is a finite extension and a\in K is a norm of L, is it a norm of E?
Edit: I think this works if L/K is Galois, write a=\prod_G gx, then you can write this product as \prod_{G/H}\prod_H r_ih_jx=\prod_{G/H} r_i(\prod_Hh_jx)=N_{E/K}(\prod_Hh_jx) (where E is the fixed field of H) and \prod_H h_jx belongs to E.
Hi everyone, small question
Is Z2 x Z2 isomorphic to S2?
Or, is there any abelian group isomorphic to Sn where n < the order of the abelian group?
S_n is non-abelian for n≥3
Therefore it cannot be isomorphic to an abelian group
S2 is a group of order 2, so there's not even a bijection.
No, they don't have the same order
Hold on let me rephrase
I wrote the question wrong
If G is an abelian group isomorphic to some SUBGROUP of Sn
Is there an example of G
Such that the order of G is greater than n
Yes
Which
The subgroup of S_5 generated by (1 2 3)(4 5) is of order 6
Find an element of order > n, that's all you need to do
Well it's cyclic, and of order 6 :)
Hmm
So Z6 is isomorphic to a subgroup of S5
That subgroup being generated by (1 2 3)(4 5)
How is that subgroup of order 6?
It has 5 elements…?
OH
The Sn group is really confusing to me tbh
I thought that Sn was a group of permutations on a set with n elements
It is.
So it contains all possible permutations of some set with n elements
Including the identity permutation
It does.
That’s all well and good
If it did not have the identity, it would not be a group at all.
But when you talk about subgroups of symmetric groups
Im not sure how you form those or even begin to think of an example of one
You can think about them in the way you would think about subgroups of any other group
The symmetric group is not special in that way
I already gave an example: the subgroup generated by (1 2 3)(4 5). Maybe you should try to write down all the elements of this subgroup to see how this works.
Okay I’ll try that out, I think that’s the issue, that I struggle to visualise what is meant by the subgroup generated by a permutation
Again there's nothing special about this being a permutation; this is the same as the subgroup of any group generated by any particular element
So you just keep taking powers till you reach the same element again as with any other group ?
As with any finite group, yes
For infinite groups this doesn't work (for the simplest example, see Z and the element 1)
Yes that makes sense because the elements have infinite order
Okay so I got to this point, and this is the identity
The order of a subgroup generated by this permutation is the lcm of the length of its orbits right ?
So that’s why this has order 6
Yes
Okay yea this makes sense, thank you
ana is my name and algebra is my game
yea
Statement : Let G be the group of bijections of R into itself. Give a example of two elements of order 2 of G whose product is of infinite order
Correction : For a ∈ R, we set σ_a(x) = 2a − x. It is an involution. For a, b ∈ R, we have σ_aσ_b(x) = x + 2(b − a). It is a translation, of infinite order if b ≠ a.
I don't understand the question and the correction, can someone explain it to me please?
That "correction" looks more like an "answer".
Maybe you can expand a little on which part you don't understand
Can someone tell me why the j-invariant has 1728 in the formula? My professor said he prefers it to have 1728 but it can be used without it too.
- What is the group of bijections of R into intself ?
- What is "infinite order" ?
That's probably more #algebraic-geometry or at least #advanced-algebra.
A bijection is a function that has an inverse. The bijections from R to R form a group under composition.
The order of an element g in a group is the smallest n such that g^n is the identity. If there is no such n, then the order is infinite
OK thanks you
But even like that, I don't understand his answer
What do I need to know to understand his answer?
Some group theory.
Well I read his course and learn the definitions
What do you find is unclear about the answer?
Why he specifies “It’s an involution”
“It’s a translation”
The elements of order 2 that he took are a and b
why did he define the function 2a-x precisely?
"Involution" is another way of saying it has order 2, which the problem explicitly asked for.
An involution is a function of order 2. The function 2a-x is the reflection about the point a, so is a natural choice
Pointing out that the product is a translation seems mostly to be to help you form an intuition about what it does (and why it has infinite order).
No, a and b are just numbers; they're not even elements of the group. The elements of order 2 are sigma_a and sigma_b.
2a-x is order 2 ? but there is no root ²?
What do you mean?
It's a group under composition. When you compose it with itself you get the identity
That's what order 2 means here
sigma_a has order 2 because it is not the identity but sigma_a·sigma_a is -- that is, sigma_a(sigma_a(x)) = x for all x.
The LHS means, by definition, sigma_a(sigma_b(x)). You can unfold the definitions of those two functions and then simplify.
I'm going to do some research on my own...but I find it hard to understand
This is just high school algebra!
Seriously ? 😢
Yes. Sorry if that came across as abrasive -- I meant it as "it looks like you're overthinking this".
If you define elliptic curves as $\mathbb{C}$ quotiented by a lattice $\mathbb{Z}+\tau\mathbb{Z}$ The j-invariant is a meromorphic, 1-periodic function of $\tau$
si it admits of fourier développement starting at $-1$ now 1728 is just the coefficient of this term
That doesn't explain why it has been defined with that factor of 1728. A function that was 1/1728 as large would have the same properties you stated.
I should have said
The j invariant was « found » as a natural polynomial of eisenstein forms, these eisenstein forms being the coefficients of the differential equation that the weierstrass rho functions satisfit
satisfy
the point is, if you try to construct well defined functions on the set of lattices in C you end up with this coefficient naturally. I dont know about the « deeper » reasons for that
maybe you could say that the weierstrass rho function are the simplest examples of periodic functions on a lattice and the j invariant comes forms that ?
I am having trouble with raising a cycle to a power. So say I have some cycle f, how would I find f^99 or something?
isn't $M \cup \bar{M} = M$ if $M = {0, 1}$?
okeyokay
Well, you'd start by subtracting the length of the cycle from 99 until the power is less than the cycle length ...
Ye it's ok, I got it now but thanks 🙂 . Just divide 99/(order) then use the remainder
Yes, but it doesn't say that M = {0,1} -- just that 0 and 1 are elements of M, but there can be other elements of M too.
oh, i thought they were going off of their previous definition that M = {0, 1}
cuz they only proved that the set of points constructible from {0, 1} is a subfield
of C
I don't see any such definition.
the second pic here
oh wait
nvm
i'm dumb
you're right
containing the points
right
lol
That says "let M be a subset of C containing the points 0 and 1". It doesn't say M cannot contain points other than 0 and 1.
ye
am i missing something here? z^2 is still a complex number that doesn't belong to Q?
The argument is that instead of writing Q(z), you get the same subfield of C as Q(sqrt(-3)).
I’m really lost on part c
For context, this is the first part of the question which I’m good with and I’ve done it
Note that the relation c b^-1 a^2 = 1 will allow you to express c in terms of a and b.
Yea I get that, I’m just not sure how I go from a^-2b and conclude that that’s 1
What?
This is what I have done so far
You should conclude that a^-2b is c, not that it is 1.
The idea is to say that c is the identity and that way we can get rid of it as a generator
Sorry it’s sideways
I don't see why "c is the identity" would be true.
So like, in one of the questions I covered in class, we had this question
When we solved the last part, there were two different answers
Like this
So the prof said that there’s no way A^5 can equal A^4 unless A=1 (the identity)
So I’m assuming that we have to do a similar thing if we want to express the group in terms of just a,b and d
Hence, we need to show that c=1
The group being generated by a, b and d just means that every element can be described as some product of a, b and d and their inverses. There's no reason to think that this means c will be the identity.
can somebody explain to me how w is a square root of z^2 - 4 (at least i think that's what they're implying?) because w^2 = zw - 1 which is not equal to z^2 - 4
@rocky cloak So if we just say that c can be expressed as a product of a and b and their inverses
Then it’s sufficient to say that c is not needed to generate the group ?
Yeah, that's enough
This should be clear from any reasonable definition of what "generate the group" means.
By the quadratic formula w = [ z ± sqrt(z^2 - 4) ] / 2
So E = K(sqrt(z^2 - 4))
Wait, what? Why?
Yes, that much is good. But where do you suddenly get c²=1?
ohh okay thanks
C^-1 is b^-1a^2
I’m also a little sus on my solution to (b), would you mind just having a look through it ?
I haven’t used the hint from the question, is that an issue ? Or is my method fine?
the complex numbers are quadratically closed, but it's not true in general that any subfield of the complex numbers are quadratically closed right
oh wait yeah just take Q
lol
Statemment : Let n be an odd integer > 3 and let G be the group of set bijections from Z/nZ to itself. Provide an example of two elements of order 2 in G whose product is of order n
Answer : For [a] ∈ Z/nZ, we define σ_[a] ([x]) = [2a − x]. This is an involution. If n = 2k + 1, then we have: σ_[a]σ_[a+k+1] = [x] + [1]. It is a translation of order n
I don't understand why :
- We choose n = 2k + 1
- σ[a]σ_[a+k+1] ([x]) = [x] + [1]
- We put brackets everywhere in this exercise
That's not a choice -- n was a given odd number. Saying "if n=2k+1" is just a way of saying "let k be the number such that 2k+1 is the odd number you've been given".
This exercise is a little weird, since it's not really important that n is odd, other then that they really like 2a-x.
You could just as well use f(x) = 1-x and g(x) = -x, to get f(g(x)) = x+1
Please explain to me in more detail how to solve this type of exercise and the path to take in mind.
I have 5 like this and I would really like to understand
dumbass question
But are the profinite integers abelian
They specify that we are "let G be the group of bijections setists of Z/nZ"
and n> 3
I don't think it involves that much cleverness. Like you just pick two involutions, then tweak the examples a bit until they're composition has order n.
:”) would anyone mind letting me know if I HAVE TO use the hint in the question to prove the statement by induction?
Like is the maths valid :””) plz
can i get a hint for (i) => (ii) please
so I wrote \sqrt(a) = x + y\sqrt(b)
and i know i want to show that \sqrt(a) = \sqrt(b)c
for c in K
and i'm stuck
i have four relations that I can make use of:
$\sqrt{a} - \sqrt{b} = x + y\sqrt{b}, \sqrt{a} + \sqrt{b} = x + y\sqrt{b}, \frac{\sqrt{a}}{\sqrt{b}} = x + y\sqrt{b}$, and $\sqrt{a}\sqrt{b} = x + y\sqrt{b}$
okeyokay
all of them have led me nowhere
Probably because your elements are residue classes
anyone have a hint?
that's tough
an involution is not an element of a group that, when multiplied by itself, produces the identity of the group ?
I think "involution" is usually only used about functions that are their own inverses.
I'm not sure there's complete consensus about whether the word also describe the identity itself.
Hmm, anyway, that difference is not relevant here, where the group explicitly consists of functions under composition.
can somebody tell me how this would lead to a contradiction? How is K^n not the union of finitely many one-dimensional subspaces, namely those which are spanned by the standard basis vectors?
The union of two subspaces is not a subspace
Consider in $\mathbb{R}^2$, $\text{span}{[1,0]}\cup\text{span}{[0,1]}$
nHail
visually, that would be the x axis and the y axis combined
but nothing between them
ohh ok
Bringing projective spaces into it seems to make it look unnecessarily deep, though. Just note that if a is some fixed element of E\K, then 1+ka for k in K all lie in different one-dimensional subspaces.
yeah i ignored that part
hm ok i'll think about this
thanks
If I Have f(x) and g(x) two functions, say that the translation is of infinite order, returns to showing that f(x) o g(x) ≠ x ?
you talk about me ?
Yeah I don't get that either, what are f,g functions to and from?
yes
here
@coral spindle it refers to this problem, later generalized to Z/nZ instead of R.
The question frankly still makes no sense to me
Is R a ring or the real numbers?
are there no vector spaces $V$ with $V = \bigcup_{i = 1}^n S_i$ where each $S_i$ is a subspace of $V$ and $n > 1$?
okeyokay
There are many such vector spaces
oh wait yeah
E.g...... finite vector spaces 
just take V itself
wait so what's the contradiction here
😭
if S_i is every subspace, yes
The field K is infinite!
this implies K is finite
but your question says K is infinite
but like you could have a infinite vector space (in terms of cardinality) made up of finitely many subspaces right
No
am i trippin
Provided dim V > 1
LEMMA TIME
even if you could, that doesn't hold for all. and this is a statement about all infinite fields K
wait
no that's wrong kinda
lemma time 
If V is a vector space over some field K and dim V >= 2, then there are at least |K| different one-dimensional subspaces of V.
Okay, take K^2 as the vector space. then your family of subspaces can each be spanned by [1, a] for distinct a in K.
these are all linearly independant, and there is an infinite number of them.
for K^n, you can extend this to [1, a, 0, 0, 0, ...]
Does anyone know how I can write my proof more clearly? I get the problem conceptually, but I don't know how to say it clearly
a neat trick is to observe that for a+bi + I, if a or b > 1, you'd remove a bunch of multiples of 2's until it is 1
(i ignored negative numbers here but its not hard to fix)
so any a+bi + I is really just
(a mod2) + (b mod 2)i + I
Yeah that already makes sense to me
hi all, for a polynomial p(x) to be solvable by radicals, suppose p(x) is over field F and E is the splitting field of p(x) , then the galois group of E/F is solavble is necessary and sufficient, right?
necessary and sufficient for p(x) to be solvable by radicals, yes
I think maybe you need F to be characteristic 0.
Are bases of F^n and elements of GL_n(F) not exactly the same thing?
Np
Like if F = F2(t) for example and p(x) = x^2 + x + t
Then the Galois group of p is C2, but the polynomial shouldn't be solvable by radicals
I imagine requiring the fields to be perfect would also be a solution
Yeah, that's probably sufficient
Hmm, wait
F2(t, t^1/2, t^1/4, ...) Should be a perfect field. But I'm not sure it changes the fact that x^2 + x + t is irreducible nor wheter it's solvable by radicals.
a is congruent to b modulo n iff a-b is divisible by n
It is an equivalence relation, and we quotient Z by this relation
We have n - 0 = n is divisible by n so n is congruent to 0 modulo n ie n (bar) = 0 (bar) in Z/nZ
people I don't understand that, someone can help me ?
Why "n - 0"
What is the definition of "is congruent to"?
By definition in Z/nZ, the class of n is equal to 0: n (bar) = 0 (bar)
congruence is that
this symbole
How is the "bar" symbol defined, then?
Wait, that is just notation, not a definition of what the notation means.
If you don't bother to figure out the definitions of what you're reading everything will be too hard.
In fact I'll explain it to you from the beginning
Um, wait a minute.
idk, I feel the same about algebra but not for analysis 🧐
You explicitly quoted the definition.
a is congruent to b modulo n iff a-b is divisible by n
I was asked this question : : We consider the translation $t_1 (x) = x + 1$ in the field of real numbers. Could you show that it is of infinite order on $\mathbb{R}$?
Pg
So if you need to argue that "n is congruent to 0 modulo n", then the definition of that claim is whether n-0 is divisible by n.
That is why they subtract 0 from n!
to say that the translation $t_1$ is of infinite order amounts to saying that
$$ \forall n \in \mathbb{N}, : t_1 \circ t_1 \cdots t_1 (x) \ne x $$
Pg
Pg
hmm I see
So it is of infinite order if we consider it as a bijection of $\mathbb{R}$ into $\mathbb{R}$.
On the other hand in the ring $\mathbb{Z}/n\mathbb{Z}$, $n=0$, so
$$ t ^n _1 (x) = x $$
So $t_1$ is of finite order (we can show that it is of order n) in the group of bijections of $\mathbb{Z}/n\mathbb{Z}$
Pg
And my problem was
"On the other hand in the ring Z / nZ, n = 0"
I didn't understand why n = 0
So I was told it's because By definition in Z/nZ, the class of n is equal to 0
But I still don't understand
Z/nZ is the group of integers mod n. Which just means you are taking the remainder of each integer when dividing by n. So if you were taking Z/5Z then 12 would have a remainder of 2 when dividing by 5. So would 17. But 5 would have a remainder of 0, which is why n = 0
But here you take the example of Z / 5 Z
In my exercise, why do you apply this example?
In fact it doesn't matter what we take
Z / 5 Z
Z / 3 Z
Z / 2 Z
We would still have n= 0?
yes
In Z/5Z we have 5=0.
In Z/3Z we have 3=0.
In Z/2Z we have 2=0.
I solved the first part of part b, how do I show in the second part that the minimal polynomial has degree f?
ok I think I understand
thank you!!
interesting question: do the solutions of the 8 queens problem constitute a group?
probably matrix multiplication on the 8x8 matrices
hmm
That yields the same problem: the identity element of the group corresponds to all queens on the same diagonal, which is not a solution.
The 8 rooks problem does make a group.
😮
Namely exactly S_8.
In combinatorial mathematics, a rook polynomial is a generating polynomial of the number of ways to place non-attacking rooks on a board that looks like a checkerboard; that is, no two rooks may be in the same row or column. The board is any subset of the squares of a rectangular board with m rows and n columns; we think of it as the squares in...
lol
tropo can you help me with my problem?
Not at this time of the night, I'm afraid.
unfortunate haha
I need to be fully awake and alert to even begin pretending I know cyclotomic stuff.
sorry i can't help with this atm but is this from dummit and foote lol
yes haha
ye recognized the font
I wonder if it forms a group under different representations. It would really depend on what we count the "identity" as
(representation in the informal sense, idkwtf representation theory is)
Well, right. If everything else fails, it's a finite set, so we could just arbitrarily assign elements of the appropriate cyclic group to each solution!
I suppose a more meaningful question would be this: what best exemplifies the structure of the 92 element set, given that it only has 12 unique (up to symmetry) solutions?
maybe you could try thinking of the 12 solutions as conjugacy classes, but still no operation would make sense
Making it into a group most likely isn't the best answer to that question. If we want to use group theory, a better starting point would be that the dihedral group of order 8 acts on the 92 elements such that they split into 12 orbits -- which means that not all orbits have size 8; some of the solutions must have internal symmetries.
solution (5 3 1 7 2 8 6 4) has deeper symmetries
Yeah, so its orbit only has size 4.
it has pi radian rotational symmetry
(It's alright, the kids are in bed so you can say 180°)
you play tf2? I saw your LFT med in your discord profile lmfao
used to. Haven't played competitively in years. I'll have to drop that lol
lmfaoo, I also played med for a few seasons
When we say : Find a generator of the cyclic group (Z/13Z)*
Is there a method?
Or is it coincidence?
As far as I know, trial and error is what's usually recommended. Generally a fair fraction of the nonzero elements will be generators, so just random tries should succeed fast enough for practical purposes.
But how to do the tests?
My teacher wrote this
correction
It can be verified by hand that
< 2 >= {1, 2, 4, 8, 3, 6, 12, 11, 9, 5, 10, 7, 1, . . . } = (Z/13Z)*
We can speed things up by noting: the order of (Z/13Z)* is 12 = 2² x 3. The divisors
strict maximums are 4 and 6. An element n therefore generates the group if and only if n^4 =! 1 and
n^6 =! 1. We have 2^4 = 16 = 3 and 2^6 = 64 = 12. So 2 is of order 12
For cases as small as this you can just compute successive powers of the generator and see that they don't start to repeat until the 12th power.
For the "speeding things up", I don't think I can improve on that description.
Why did he write <2>? why 2?
and why this number on bracket
{1, 2, 4? 8, 3, 6, 12 ...}
how do they find them
They are the powers of 2 modulo 13, starting with 2^0, 2^1, 2^2, 2^3, 2^3, ...
Since that only repeats at 2^12, this means that 2 is a generator.
Ok so the fact that he chose the number 2 and not the number 3 or the number 4 or other number is just “chance”?
Hey guys. Im doing a pset on lower central series and I wasnt in lecture (it is VERY complicated). I wanted to know why the lower central series forms a chain. For starters, why is $[G^1, G] \leq G^1$?
The Ultimate Chad
I tried showing that $z^{-1}[x, y]^{-1}z[x, y] \in G^1$ but i couldn't get anywhere
The Ultimate Chad
I mean this is by definition right
G^1 is the subgroup generated by all elements of the form xyx^-1y^-1
And the LHS clearly is of that form
It's common to start by checking 2, because writing out the list of powers is easier when you just have to double each number to get the next, compared to multiplying with a larger factor.
(The other generators in this case are 6, 7, and 11, which would take more metal arithmetic to create the powers of.)
on top of that, it's not hard to pick out the other generators from that list, they're the ones where the exponent n on 2^n (I wrote them in red here) is relatively prime to 12:
(Which is how I found them, too!)
Thanks
ok thank you very much for you help
Hello, Can I ask questions here, no one seems to be responding to me in the help room

I have been having a lot of trouble relating to constructing this group called Grothendieck
just ask
Thank youu
I wanna ask about this specific choice of relation
Maybe I’m a bit old so I tend to ask Why a lot, and it puzzled me when this relation is defined and the material does not explain why

(a,b) intuitively represents the difference a-b, though that doesn't formally mean anything until after the group has been defined. But it still motivates the definition:
a-b = c-d iff a+d = c+b
as a matter of the abelian group structure we want to hold in the resulting group, and if we write the left-hand part of that as (a,b) ~ (c,d) instead, we get your definition.
A main example of this is how we can construct Z (and its addition) based on N and its addition.
I really appreciate when you help me understand the motivation behind this!
If I have a finite group G of order k, is it true that for any g \in G, g^k=id?
I guess to have this relation we need to have cancellation property right?
btw, help channels are for like, solve 2x = 8 kinda questions
generally high school or early university kind of stuff
yes, becuase the order of all elements in the group has to divide the total size of teh group
omg i did not know cuz someone helped me with some difficult questions before
So I assume I would get lucky again
(I have to black out, anyone else feel free to jump in with further explanations).
Thank you for your comments!
I just found a very short explanation based on Troposphere comments, and apparently the relation is used to define a pair of natural number that can describe an integer
So for an interger like -1 we can have multiple pair of a-b that results in -1
If youve talked about lagranges theorem - note that the size of any subgroup of G divides the size of G. Therefore the size of <g> for any g in G must divide the size of G, but this is the order of g.
Those pairs would belong to the same equivalence class, i wonder if I understood correctly
Guys I want to continue with the question about Grothendieck group
The whole proposition was given (S,+) commutative semigroup with cancellation property, there is a smallest abelian group containing S, in which S is Grothendieck group.
I was wondering about the “smallest” part, seems like it involves uniqueness. Is there an approach to prove it is unique?
Any advice on how to tackle this?
Well, try x -> sqrt p homomorphism
A good way to prove there’s an isomorphism is to make one
Oh damn I guess I was overthinking it
Yeah lmao
How do you prove that if f(sqrt p) = 0, x^2 - p divides f
it's the 1 am brainfart moments rip
note that the min poly of sqrt{p} over Q is x^2-p
Let $a\in Q$, If K is the splitting field of $f=x^n-a$ and $f$ is irreducible on Q, then $|Gal(K/Q)|=n\cdot \phi(n)$, is this correct?
WT
not in general. n = 8, a = 2 should be a counter example. it holds if n and phi(n) are coprime. the splitting field is K = Q(a^1/n, zeta_n) as both a^(1/n) and a^(1/n) * zeta_n lie in there.
for a = 2, n = 8, you know zeta_n = (1+i)/sqrt(2), so Q(zeta_n) = Q(i, sqrt(2)). and certainly x^n - 2 isn't irreducible over it. so the degree of K/Q can't be n phi(n)
Do you mean that revise it to $|Gal(K/Q)|=b\cdot \phi(n)$, where $b$ is the degree of the irreducible poly of $a^{1/n}$?
WT
yea sure. but irreducible polynomial in the ring Q(zeta_n)[x]
and that follows clearly from the tower lemma for K / Q(zeta_n) / Q
In what case the irr-poly of a^1\n are the same on Q[x] and on Q(zeta_n)[x]
one sufficient condition like i said is when n and phi(n) are coprime 
these n are called cyclic numbers btw, any group of cardinality n would automatically be cyclic (i prolly don't know the best proof, but the one i read long ago wasn't super enlightening)
Let $a\in Q$, If K is the splitting field of $f=x^n-a$ and $\gcd(n, \phi(n))=1$, then $|Gal(K/Q)|=n\cdot \phi(n)$, do you mean this? Does it need to assume $f$ is irreducible on Q?
WT
it's not necessary tho. n = 4 doesn't satisfy that n and phi(n)=2 are coprime. but still for a = 2, the splitting field is Q(2^(1/4), i) / Q(2^1/4) / Q. so in this case the degree still manages to be n phi(n)
yep, and yee i want f to be irred/Q
Is this sufficient condition proof difficult?
nah, it super easy
well assuming you already know that degree of zeta_n over Q is phi(n)
I'm trying to make a bijective function from Q[sqrtp] to Q[x]/(x^2-p). Is it as straight forward as mapping "a" to the first sum highlighted in yellow, and "b" to the second sum highlighted in blue? Because to me I don't know how I would be able to show that's bijective and I feel like I'm missing something
the splitting field is K = Q(a^1/n, zeta_n)
it contains two interesting subfields Q(a^1/n) and Q(zeta_n) which have degrees n and phi(n) over Q. So the degree of the extension is divislbe by both and hence divisible by the product by coprimality. but the degree is easily seen to be bounded above by n phi(n) as well. therefore you have an equality.
ah, that's smart!
Is this equivalent to in what cases the Sn group has a subgroup with order n*phi(n) ?
n and phi(n) are almost never coprime
but there are other ways to get the lower bound by n\phi(n)
how to do that...
For instance you could work out the automorphisms: there is an order n automorphism \nroot(a) \to \zeta_n \nroot(a) and the fixed field is Q(\zeta_n)
yes, we need a n-cycle, which is equivalent to say the irr-poly over Q(\zeta_n) is the same as the irr-poly over Q, how to proceed next?
Is there a faster way to show that t^2+1 is irreducible in F, without plugging in all 27 elements?
4 doesn't divide 26
What's going on
The n cycle is totally explicit
You just multiply the nth root by a root of unity
What theorem makes use of this fact
I mean n-cycle over Q(zeta_n)
What do you mean? This automorphism is over Q(zeta_n)?
sorry I'm occupied, I only meant to help the other person helping you
yes
Well it is… so doesn’t that prove what you wanted?
but I couldn't prove there is a n-cycle over Q(zeta_n)
Why not the one I wrote?
the cycle might split, just as the counter-example given by @rustic crown
What do you mean split?
I mean one orbit splits into two orbits
In this case you can see explicitly that this does not happen
So using merositys hint, the multiplicative group of F is finite group. Note that if t^2 = -1, then t is an element of order 4. But the order of an element must divide the order of the group.
Another method could be to realize that F must contain F3, and that if it contains F3 and a root of t^2 + 1, then it must contain a subextension with 9 elements. But an extension of a field with 9 elements will have 9^k elements, so can't be 27
but counter example here
||I want to ask a question but someone already is asking one :(||
oh damn, we haven't covered groups or field extensions yet. Should I still try to digest the info anyway?
How are you constructing the field with 27 elements then?
Like are you just writing out a 27x27 multiplication table at random
Yes if you start with a polynomial over Q you don’t always get an nth root extension, you could do the same with Q(cuberoot(-3)) etc
But if K is a field containing the nth roots of unity and a is not an dth power in K for d|n then K(nthroot(a)) is always cyclic of order n
So all of your questions come down to: this is true if and only if your a factors in a certain way in your cyclotomic field
I think this is what I need to use. I'm kind of lost though
Yeah, so here you have exactly the thing I said about if t^2 + 1 has a root, then the field would have size 9^k
Do you mean x^d=a, has no roots in K=Q(zeta_n)?
Yep
why it is x^d=a rather than x^n=a has no roots?
Think about it, for instance if a is a square in K what is the degree of K(fourthroot(a))
2
Okay so we’re trying to rule that out
That’s why we don’t want any of the x^d - a to have roots in Q(zeta_n)
okok it's starting to make sense. Thank you
This is implied if \phi(n) and n are coprime but I am giving you a necessary condition and not just a sufficient one
Can someone explain to me what approach the author is using to prove uniqueness?
That it satisfies a universal property
They are not really giving a proof, they are describing a universal property that the group satisfies
Then you can use that to prove uniqueness
Oh that is so tricky I thought it was a proof from the line We have
I can’t really tell what they’re saying
Is there a name to this property?
It could be considered a proof
Not really, there is some fancy name for this kind of property but it won’t help you
Oh I just want a name to look it up online
So I can understand why it gives uniqueness
The point is that G(S) is initial for maps from S to abelian groups
So for any map of monoids S \to G there is a unique factorization S \to G(S) \to G
but I don't get it, if for example, r is the root for x^2=a, then r^4 is not equal to a anymore, why let x^d=a for each divisor of n
Ok thank you for your explanation, let me take a minute to digest it 
Sorry I’m not very well verse in abstract algebra, I barely know the concepts
What
My point is that we want to demand that x^d - a doesn’t have a root in Q(zeta_n) for all d|n
I guess you mean $x^d\notin K$ for each $d|n$
WT
That is another way of saying it yes
because I am confused, in my op, I wrote f=x^n-a, so a is some fixed number in Q
Yes and I am giving you necessary and sufficient conditions for that number to have splitting field with galois group Z/n \semi Z/(n-1), isn’t that what you want to know?
but when you wrote x^d=a, you mean a is some changing number for each d, the a is different, but a is in Q(zeta_n)
No
The a is staying the same and only d is changing
how can this possible? if r^2=3, r^4 not equal 3
This is true but what does this have to do with what I’m talking about?
At what point did I say that r^2 = r^4?
So you start with a number a \in Q
here you said a is not dth power in K
No I said if a is not a dth power in Q(zeta_n) for all 1 \neq d|n then the splitting field of x^n - a has degree n\phi(n)
is K=Q(zeta_n)?
Yes or you could ask about the galois group of the extension K(a^{1/n}) more generally, then K would just be some field of characteristic prime to n containing the nth roots of unity
But sure for now let’s have K be Q(zeta_n)
I still don't understand...
If I understand correctly then Fancy G is a collection of these Phi functions that maps a semigroup to abelian group, but can you help me explain why this Fancy G set is written as congruent to Normal G? Or is the condition for congruent the last 2 lines of the slide?
the op is true if and only if x^n-a is irreducible in K=Q(zeta_n), right?
but why x^n-a is irreducible if and only if for each d|n, x^d=a has no roots over K?
@dim widget
maybe it can factorize as x^n-a=p(x) q(x) over K, and x^d-a doesn't divide neither p(x) or q(x)
Maybe you should try to show this, but if r^d = a then x^n - a has a factor of x^{n/d} - r
No there is just one phi function
Fancy G(S) is the group generated by \phi(S) inside of an arbitrary abelian group fancy G
the remainder is not zero
My bad I understand it better now! What’s left is the congruent part and the last 2 lines with the appearance of Psi symbol 
You divided wrong…..
X^d * X^t = X^{t + d} not X^{dt}
oh, sorry..
no worries, it’s a common mistake
yes, this is correct, there is a factor...
Since both G(S) and fancy G(S) are generated by S there is a natural map between the two groups which sends the S inside of G(S) to \phi(S) in fancy G(S)
That is the map \psi
"x^n-a is irreducible if and only if for each d|n, x^d=a has no roots over K"
so we have shown the -> direction, because if x^d=a has some root r, then x^n-a has a factor, hence it is not irreducible, but what about the <- direction? even though x^d=a has no roots over K, but x^n-a may be factorized as p(x)q(x), just like x^4+4=(x^2+2x+2)(x^2-2x+2)
I assume this is related to Universal Property right? I found this picture on Wiki and understood it as
X in the picture is equivalent to S
F(A) is G
F(A’) is Fancy G
Direction of F(A) to F(A’) is psi
Is this correct?
Hope I’m on the right track to connect these ideas
Er, the diagram has the right shape
But I think this diagram is about a different concept
Ah i see
Okay yes I forgot that 4 was a special case
X^n - a is irreducible over any field F if and only if a is not b^d for any d|n and a is not -4*c^4 for some c in F if 4|n
^so this is what you should prove
Ok, I guess I need to draw my own version. Do you mind if I ping you later?
No that’s fine, I’m in bed sick so I’ll be around
Oh I wish you get well soon
Cannot believe that you are solving maths when you are sick
Does my ring homomorphism proof make sense, or did I do something wrong?
Looks good
is there a textbook covering this part? is this part belong to number theory course?
It should be in any textbook on Galois theory
This theorem isn’t just about Q it’s about an arbitrary field containing roots of unity
It is, for instance, in Lang’s algebra
here the red line part, could you give an example, how does a factors in cyclotomic field?
This was more a vague heuristic about x^d - a not having a root. (In the number field setting over Q(zeta_n) this means something about the factorization of the ideal (a) but this isn't the main focus.)
the "factorization" comment is just saying that you want to impose that x^d - a doesn't have a root
According to this thm in Lang's book, the little k (in this thm) = Q(zeta_n) in my OP, so my OP is equivalent to:
In what case the extension Q(a^1/n, zeta_n) is a cyclic extension of Q(zeta_n) with degree n, right?
Yep! And in Lang’s book you can find necessary and sufficient conditions for this to be true
I find the thm you mentioned just now.
but I don't find the necessary and sufficient condition...is it not thm 6.2?
This is the necessary and sufficient condition for what you want.
Or rather you can extract it from this
thm 9.1 gives the sufficient condition such that x^n-a is irreducible, but not gives the necessary condition?
We already showed that the first part is necessary
what is the first part?
Also the second condition should only be necessary when you don’t have roots of unity in the field
Prove that X^n - a is irreducible over a field containing the nth roots of unity if and only if a is not a dth power for any d|n
At this point it’s easier if you try to do this yourself rather than message me all day
If you are curious about when X^n - a is irreducible in general then this theorem gives the full conditions under which this happens.
good luck!
yes, we have shown this hours ago, I forgot..
which second condition do you refer to?
do you mean (ii) in thm 6.2?
You haven't elaborated on why surjectivity implies that
Your answer just needs more elaboration
(correcting the last line,) you've only proven the center maps into the center
^ this is also true
e.g. you need to explain why it is true that phi(c)phi(g) = phi(g)phi(c) – you haven't said why.
I was not elaborating on what you were saying, I was elaborating on what I was saying.
I wish you wouldn't delete your messages, it just makes me look like I'm chatting to myself
anyway
Sorry didn't wanna clutter chat
Seagull, it seems you have correct reasoning, but to be totally clear you definitely need to explain more carefully why what you say is true, as there are steps missing that could've been confused.
actually I should have written H invariant iff phi(H) \subseteq H, it is not necessary to have equality
Let $\varphi \in \text{Aut}(G)$ and $c \in Z(G)$. For all $g \in G$ we have $\varphi(g)\varphi(c)=\varphi(c)\varphi(g)$ (by applying $\varphi$ to both sides of $gc=cg$) but since $\varphi$ is surjective we have that for all $g \in G \quad g\varphi(c)=\varphi(c)g$.
Seagull
oh crap I misread the definition of fully invariant
phi is just a homomorphism, not recessarillyan automorphism
I got it confused with characteristic, which was in my notes
ah, abelian groups. Or as I like to call them, 1-Engel Z-algebras
Oh yeah? what's the basis for (R, +) over Z?
nerd
1 and 1.5 should do it
Cool thanks
Is PID essential for conclusion? UFD is sufficient is a), what about b)?
If B lies in the normalization of A, then the normalization of B equals the normalization of A. If B is a UFD, then it equals its own normalization.
Can someone explain to me 1.why this group is finite and 2. why is not cyclical?
What is the difference between a finite cyclic group and a finite non-cyclic group?
did you mean Z/2Z x Z/2Z (with an x, not a *)?
yes
you can see that it's finite by just writing out what it is as a set
I don't see, I have a lot of difficulty in math
It's important that you write \times, not * here. The asterisk means something very very different in the context of group theory.
It's not me, it's my teacher
multiplication ?
let me clarify the question
when A and B are sets, what is the definition of the set A x B?
just sets. we can't actually multiply anything
if you don't know it off the top of your head, that's fine, you can probably find it in your textbook, or on google by searching its name, "cartesian product"
Yes.
How do I apply it to Z / 2Z x Z /2Z?
but it's not the same..
OK
Does it mean: yes, PID is not required?
In (2) I'm confused why if t^2+1 is reducible then it implies F has 9 elements
when does it say that you have to prove that
all you have to prove is that t²+1 is irreducible in F[t]
where |F| = 27
This is what I was told earlier when I asked about it
Not that it will have 9 elements, but it will have a subfield with 9 elements
I assume
Because the latter need not be the case
but like
oh yeah that's prob what he meant
F_27 has a subfield with 9 elements right
Nope
Am I supposed to use this theorem or something else? Because otherwise I don't know what else to use to show it's irreducible
You can
So then how would the theorem help me conclude that t^2+1 is irreducible over F?
Yeah, that's how it seems to me
In this theorem they say: "Let G_1 and G_2 be two cyclic groups of respective orders m and n. (gcd(m,n) = 1 <=> (G_1 x G_2 is cyclic))
Here they say that: The group Z / 2Z x Z / 2Z is not cyclic: (1, 0), (1, 1) and (0,1) are all three of order 2.
saying that gcd(2, 2) = 2 and that (1, 0), (1, 1) and (0,1) are of orders two is it the same thing?
Or are these two different ways of showing that the group is not cyclical?
These are two different ways of arguing that the group is not cyclic, yes.
And from what order is a group cyclical?
because they say that order 2 means not cyclic

Can you remember what it means for a group to be cyclic?
Explain what it means in your own words.
I would first like to understand why they say order 2...
I will explain!
But because I am not going to simply give you the answer, I want you to work with me.
Now, let's try again: do you remember what it means for a group to be cyclic?
A group G is cyclic if ∃ a∈G such that ∀g∈G,∃ k∈N such that g=a^k
Great, that's true. So we call this element $a$ a generator.
Now here's an important question:
what is the connection between the size of $G$, and the order of $a$?
Boyt
the order of a group is the size of the group, no ?
The order of $a$ is equal to the size of the group $G$, yes!
Boyt
Now put this information together:
- How many elements of G = Z/2Z x Z/2Z are there?
- If G were cyclic, what order would a generator have?
G have 2 elements : 0 and 1
No, this is false.
I am not saying G = Z/2Z.
I am saying G = Z/2Z x Z/2Z.
Try again
2 elements x 2 elements = 4 elements ?
If f(x) factors in F_27, then there's a homomorphism
F_3[x] → F_27 that you can construct on which you can use the first isomorphism theorem to get an embedding F_9 → F_27, which is not possible.
If we have
