#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 182 of 1
I mean the correspondence is still there. Normal subgroups of the Galois group correspond to normal intermediate extensions. It's just that any intermediate extension of a Galois extension is seperable
It just seems a lot more convenient to have two words for the two conditions you have to check. But maybe they make up a new word for normal extension...?
this book didn't use Galois extension
I mean they clearly use them, they just call them 'normal extensions' instead
yes, but the author didn't use this word Galois extension, he only uses normal extension
Right, but do they have a word for what one would usually call normal extension?
normal extension is called normal extension
I think we're talking past each other.
You posted a picture where a 'finite normal extension' was defined as the splitting field of a seperable polynomial. This is the usual definition of Galois extension.
I'm asking if they also give a name to having all it's minimal polynomials split. I.e. what is usually called a normal extension.
oh, i see your points, no, they didn't give a name, they just call it splitting field
Alright, fair enough. But then bottom line is that 'normal' means something different in these two books.
yes, in Lang's, normal = splitting, in Fraleigh, normal = Galois
i see, so would it be adequate to say that it's normal over F since it satisfies Nor 1, i.e. it's the splitting field of p(x) where p(x) = irr(a, F)
or would you opt for the traditional definition where every irreducible polynomial of F[x] which has a root in E splits into linear factors
Both work, but just saying it's the splitting field of p should be good yeah
thank god i'm sane
this is false
p=x^3-2, E=Q(2^1/3)
nah bro i'm saying that's one of the conditions for E to be a normal extension
By Lang's axioms
you said what?
ταυταυ
Is the function $\varphi : \mathbf Z / 5 \mathbf Z \to \mathbf Z / 3 \mathbf Z$ with :
\begin{enumerate}
\item $\varphi\,(0) = 0$ ;
\item $\varphi\,(1) = 1$ ;
\item $\varphi\,(2) = 2$ ;
\item $\varphi\,(3) = 1$ ;
\item $\varphi\,(4) = 2$,
\end{enumerate}
a morphism of $\mathbf Z / 5 \mathbf Z$ ?
No
hmm, i tried at least
(also consider the additition)
i don't see where is the mistake in there ?
oh
nvm
i saw one
For reasons I won't reveal, I can tell immediately it's not a morphism, but if you try each pair one by one you will quickly find one that doesn't obey the requirement to be a morphism.
4 + 4 = 3 but
2 + 2 = 1 ≠ 0
Yeah there you go
a
oh wait no, beacuse phi(3) = 1 that's not the mistake
Have you considered that 1+2 = 3?
i'm a lil rusty on non PIDs. in the ring R[x,y] the kernel of the evaluation map at (0,0) is just <x,y> isn't it?
i'd like to find the intersection of the kernels of the evaluation map at (0,0) and (1,1), but i'm not sure how to go about finding a generating set for the intersection of two ideals.
i know it's contained in <x,y,x-1,y-1>, but is it possible to know
- the least number of elements necessary to generate (if i had to guess, i'd say 3)
- a general method to find them
i would conjecture that <x,y,x-y> might be a generating set, but i'm unsurenope x+y doesn't do it
would it be something like <x(x-1),y(y-1),x-y>?
that looks more like it to me
you're trying to find all polynomials f with f(0,0) = f(1,1) = 0 essentially
yes
only issue with that ideal is that x(y-1) and y(x-1) also work
oh no
single variable polynomials are so much easier haha
so <x(x-1),y(y-1),x-y,x(y-1),y(x-1)>?
being a pid is so nice yeah 
ok I'm still not convinced that's the whole thing - if R is algebraically closed I am convinced
If I is the kernel of evaluation at (0, 0) and J is the kernel of evaluation at (1, 1), then I and J are comaximal ideals (that is, I + J = R[x, y]). In a commutative ring, for comaxmal ideals we have I intersect J is equal to the product IJ. Then generators for IJ are given by pairwise products of generators for I and J
did not know that result about comaximal ideals
oh wait no I remember seeing it like 3 years ago 
so it's just <x(x-1), y(y-1), x(y-1), y(x-1)>
so using x-y is unecessary? makes sense since it's in <x,y>
That's right
y(x-1)-x(y-1) = x-y
ah yes that too
The kernel of the evaluation map at (a, b) is the ideal (x - a, y - b) for any commutative ring R. If S is the quotient R[x, y] / (x - a, y - b) then we get an induced surjection S -> R since (x - a, y - b) is in the kernel of the evaluation. The induced map S -> R is injective as well because f(x, y) = f(a, b) in S. So if f(x, y) maps to 0 in R, then f(x, y) = f(a, b) = 0.
oh yeah dw I convinced myself like 3 seconds after posting that
awesome
I had some scare with zero divisors in my head
but then realised that it would still be the same ideal
I think I was mostly convincing myself
that's fair
okay cool the ultimate goal of the problem is to get a basis of polynomials in R[x,y] such that p(0,0)=p(1,1)=0 and the gradient at (0,0) and (1,1) are any desired vector. in the 1d case, this was trivial as we just needed x(1-x)g(x) where g is a linear polynomial with the necessary values at x=0,1.
but this case is much more complicated as this ideal IJ is generated by 4 instead of just 1 element. so i'm not sure considering p=x(x-1)g1+y(y-1)g2+x(y-1)g3+y(x-1)g4 is going to really cut down the necessary computations.
thank you @delicate orchid @agile burrow for your help! (:
i definitely learned quite a few useful things from you guys
you can kinda really quickly get a nice general formula out of this actually
for like, R[x_1, ..., x_n] and some random collection of (a_i1, ..., a_in)
ahhh no not quite, very sad
ker(2,2), ker(4,4) are not comaximal 
well actually the gradients of these are pretty nice...
but if the matrix (a_ij) has non-zero determinant then we should be able to use this idea for that collection
ah i tried to map p(x,y) to (grad p(0,0), grad p(1,1))
but the matrix is singular. not unexpected as the linear combination would only be a quadratic, and a cubic is what i should expect. but i think this is good actually. evaluating the gradient of each times a function g should yield something somewhat nice like the 1d case.
yeahhh bc product rule means evaluating at the points will just yield some constant times g(0,0) or g(1,1). okay no this is good
Hmm, that's not even a linear subspace, unless the desired gradient is zero.
(Oh, I may have misunderstood, I first read it as "a basis for the polynomals in R[x,y] such that ....")
yea more like finding $p_{00}(x,y)$ such that $p(0,0)=p(1,1)=0$ and
$$\nabla p_{01}(0,0)=(1,0),\quad \nabla p_{01}(1,1)=(0,0)$$
and then similar for $p_{ij}(x,y)$ where $i=0,1$, $j=1,2$
eigentaylor
then that would form a nice basis which i could combine to get any desired grad values
and the nice thing about this generator basis is that $\grad (e_{ij}(x,y)g(x,y))(0,0)=g(0,0)(\grad e_{ij}(0,0))$ and similar for $(1,1)$
eigentaylor
okay sorry this isn't #groups-rings-fields anymore imma hop out so Zaylar can get help
Spec is covariant right
my idea for a proof is to look at the varieties generated by (F) and (G) and shove it through the nullstellenstatz but the arrows are going the wrong way
I need something contravarient
(I wish to just shout "Nullstellensatz + UFD", but I suspect you don't have those tools ...)
ok so I'm not completely off
G is a polynomial that vanishes at all the common roots of (F), so by the Nullstellensatz some power of G is multiple of F, or in other words F divides a power of G. Since F is irreducible (and the polynomial ring is UFD), F must divide G itself.
I don't see how nullstellenstatz implies that, unless I \subset J => \sqrt(J) \subset \sqrt(I) which I don't believe is true
The phrasing of the NST I'm invoking is
Let k be algebraically closed and I any ideal of k[x,y,...,z]. Then for every polynomial g that vanishes at all common zeroes of I, some power of g is in I.
with I being (F) in this case. But it's my own notes, so I may have swapped something around when I wrote it down ...
nullstellenstatz to me is "the ideal of polynomials that vanish on a variety V(I) is the radical of I"
which is the same yeah
yeah I can follow it now
just wish I had the capacity to come up with it myself 
Trust me, I'm feeling uncommonly accomplished right now for being able to figure out an application of it :-)
I had the scent but I got distracted trying to figure out some way to reverse the monomorphism (F) included in (G) for some reason
Anyone?
do you know about C_i fields? see for example https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Quasi-algebraically_closed_field#Ck_fields
there is also a version for non-homogeneous polynomials, see https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Tsen_rank
I didn't know about these, also every finite field being C_1 is just the chevalley warning theorem right?
My bad, thats a special case of chevalley warning
Anyways, thanks
why here it is the intersection? the intersection is Q ?
I mean yes it's Q
thank you
another question is, when we wrote F(alpha^1/n), does the alpha^1/n stands for the real root ONLY, not other complex branches?
Yes, that's why the intersection is Q
Well, heuristically
This requires proof
Which they provide right afterwards
Is this Lang
given some prime number n/2 < p <= n. isn't the group generated by (1,...,p) not always a sylow p group of Sn?
or am i missing something
since p^1 is the largest exponent of p in n!
as p^2 is > n for n > 2, given that n/2 < p
since p^1 is the largest exponent of p in n!
Yes that should be right, assuming those strong conditions on the size of n
well it is true
yes
you switched to the dark side i see
the splitting field for x^4+4 over Q is Q(i+1, i)=Q(i+1)=Q(i), which has degree 2, correct?
I'm thinking you'll need sqrt(2) and an eighth root of unity in there, which you don't currently have
no, we don't need sqrt2
the four roots are i+1, i-1, -i+1, -i-1
you're right, 1+i is basically sqrt(2) lol
not saying we actually have sqrt(2) here though, I didn't think past the knee jerk newton polygon having slope -1/2
that's pretty fun to factor now that I'm looking at it, once we see that x |-> ix is a symmetry and complex conjugates we are stuck with solutions of the form k or k(1+i) for k real
for k a field and R = k[x_1, x_2], what's Hom(k, R)?
i know that each element is either 0 or injective, but i'm not sure what i can say about the whole module
another way of viewing it is as Hom(R/<x,y> , R) but i'm still not sure what to do with that lol
Let $(H, \star)$ be a semigroup.
How can i show, that $\
x_1 \star a=a \land a \star x_2=a \Rightarrow x_1=x_2$?
Plazzi
I tried to argue with associativity, but that doesn't work
a,x_1,x_2 are elements of H
Why would this be true?
Unless there's some combination of quantifiers I'm not seeing, this is just false.
In any case you need to clarify the statement with quantifiers
Also as a rule of thumb please use words instead of logical connection symbols
I legitimately thought there was a wedge product here
You can also use the much more readable \implies instead of \Rightarrow. Spacing matters!
Ofc as wew says, words are best
I have to prove that the semigroup $(H, \star)$ is a group, if the right and left translation $\star_a$ and${}_a \star$ are surjective. I have proved everything, except that $e_r \star a =a$ and $a \star e_l =a$ implies $e_r=e_l$
Plazzi
I should have mentioned the translation part 
Context will be my literal end. Context will drive a spear through my torso and that's how it'll all end
ntext will be my literal coend
Anyway just look at $e_r \star e_l$, that'll get you what you want.
Boyt
MODS
Hayır
No but fr
I've seen the left application of an operation be called left 'translation' before
Makes it feel like addition
I don't think it's that uncommon
How?
Oh is that what that means? That’s completely deranged beyond recognition
Pfft
if ae_1 = a and e_2a = a for all a then e_2e_1 is…?
Group actions on geometric objects (varieites, manifolds) are also often called translation
V common
That’s more understandable…. NOT!
Please let me use my pretty words 
It’s sandwich time chat
But this is isn't the case
It also could be, that two different semi group elements a,b have the identity elements e_b_l and e_a_l, but e_b_l≠e_a_l
The definition of the left translation (in my course) is:
For all x in H, x *a is also in H
Anyway, i found the solution, but thank you for your help ❤️
I had to show that e_la=a is true for every a in H
I had to proof this part
So a map from R/(x, y) is the same as a map from R that maps x and y to 0. Which maps R to R map x and y to 0?
Can I ask a very basic Galois theory question? I'm new to the subjects and there's like one simple example I can't figure out

if we consider the splitting field of p(x) = x^4-2 which is Q( 2^1/4 , i ) with Galois group <r,s> = D4 where r is the element of order 4, r( 2^1/4 ) = i 2^1/4, and s is the element of order 2, s(i)=-i, what subfields correspond to the subgroups of order 2 <sr> and <sr^3>?
looks like this example comes up here often...
write the number as the linear expansion by basis with undetermined coefficients, then act sr and the result is invariant, then you compare coefficients, done
So the corresponding subfield is the one fixed by the group. In this case you just need to find the elements fixed by sr.
A useful trick can be to note that x + sr(x) is fixed by sr, and that if x is already fixed then this is just 2x. So if you pick a basis for your extension and then apply x+sr(x) to each, you get a spanning set for your fixed field
oh
thanks
I think I got it 
||Q(2^1/4 - i 2^1/4) and Q(2^1/4 + i 2^1/4)|| I totally overlooked those options for some reaon
just the typical mod x and mod y?
Wait are these suposed to be R-linear or k-linear maps?
alright, then an R-linear map is determined by where it maps 1
mhm
and we must have f(x) = f(x*1) = x*f(1)
mhm
ok thank u i will revisit this in a few hours i just woke up and i am gonna sleep some more
thank u
Someone help me out... I am not sure how to get started . I guess I will have to use the second Isomorphism theorem somehow
do you know about sylow subgroups yet, no worries if not it's just so I know if I can use certain words lol
No, Slylow groups are given in later chapters. I am following Dummit and Foote
ok no problem - so you were right in that the 2nd iso theorem here is useful, if we assume we know that |P \cap N| = p^b can you show that this implies |PN/N| = p^(a-b)?
or vica versa, going |PN/N| = p^(a-b) => |P \cap N| = p^b
Yes. It is clear from 2nd iso theorem
Also I know p^b divides the order of P and N as a>=b here
Ok I think the best way to show this is using indexes.
[G : P] = m which is coprime to p, so because [G : P] = [G :PN]*[PN : P] both [G : PN] and [PN : P] must be coprime to p. Now use the fact that |PN| = |P||N|/|P \cap N| (which follows from the second isomorphism theorem in case you can't see it) to relate [PN : P] to [N : P \cap N] and thus [N: P \cap N] is coprime to p
and then ||because you know [N : P \cap N] = |N|/|P \cap N| = p^bn/|P \cap N| is coprime to p, |P \cap N| = p^b||
Almost got it. But what if |P \cap N| = p^b n. Is this not possible because then it won't be a subgroup of P ?
exactly
Okay got it. Thanks
Can every field be constructed by some F[x] \ <p(x)>?
gonna say yes on this as fields are commutative algebra over some base field F and then polynomial algebras F are free objects in F-CommAlg
Interesting
maybe not if your field isn't finitely generated as an algebra over F
hmmm actually no I'm starting to not buy this very much at all. It works for F any extenstion of Q by the primitive root theorem
I saw the example of C isomorphic to R[x] \ <x^2+1> so i was wondering
I thought that was kinda neat
ok yeah, you can't get the algebraic closure of any finite field like this
works for Q so it's good enough for me
It made me think of C differently, in that its not necessarily some special entity, its just a field with certain properties that can be built in different ways
But somehow doing calculus from functions on C turns out to be good
What if u take some other field and try developing calculus for it?
good luck doing that on any countable field
their topologies tend to be rather boring
Is that cause you cant really define limits ?
a lot of properties come from the topological similarity to R^2
so in that aspect C is very special
yeah you kind of want your field to be a manifold
does H work actually?
timo you might know this
work in what aspect?
with the standard topology on R^4
that's for YOU to figure out. Is it a manifold
and if it is a manifold, are the skewfield operations commutative
commutative
ffs
CONTINOUS/smoothhhh
getting my words backwards today
addition obviously is
you don't really have a suitable carryover of smooth/holomorphic functions
but quaternionic manifolds are a thing

but the uuh something quaternions are a 3 manifold
i remember that exercise
unit quaternions
oh yeah duh
SO(3)
I feel a little silly now lol
idk i try to avoid quaternions whenever i can
they're relevant for symplectic stuff sometimes
I like Q_8
that's about it
actually generalised quaternion groups in general are quite nice
there's a theorem about sylow 2-subgroups of SL(2,q) being generalised quaternions which is NEAT
WHAT
BB-B-B-B--B-B-B--B-B-B-BUT IT'S THE WHOLESOME SPHEREINOOOOOO NOOOOOOOOOOO
If SO(3) was a sphere so many engineers would lose their minds with bliss
the belt trick is a psyop
Let $J \subseteq I$ be an arbitrary subset. Then there exists a canonical injective homomorphism $\vartheta_J: \prod_{\iota \in J} G_{\iota} \to \prod_{\iota \in I} G_{\iota}$. It maps an element $f$ to $f_J$ such that $f_J = f$ on $J$, and $f_{J}(\iota) = e_{\iota}$ for $\iota \notin J \$.
I don't understand the last part. If $\iota \notin J$, then it should not be possible to assign a value to $f(\iota)$ because this $\iota$ is not even present in our image set, or am i wrong?
Plazzi
what are these G_is precisely
because the use of f for an element of them makes me think they're sets of functions or something
this theta_J map looks a lot like the projection map for finite products
ok no, got it now
we're taking tuples $f = (f_i){i \in J}$ with $f_i \in G_i$ to tuples $f = (f_i){i \in I}$ by setting $\theta_J(f) = \left(\begin{cases} f_i & i \in J \ e_I & i \not \in J \end{cases}\right)_{i \in I}$
so it's just the natural embedding map
Wew Mods Tbh
there we go
yeah it turns out that it doesn't matter, this works for sets
well it wouldn't work for sets, because sets don't have a distinguished element
but the G_i could be pointed sets and the same construction would make sense
oh yeah lol, what I meant by that is this "projection of products" always works if you just collapse down all of the terms outside of the sub index set
Zero object moment
el momento de zero 
Is the isotropy group and the stabilizer the same thing?
It's relatively uncommon to see it called the isotropy group, but yes those mean the same thing
I'm confused. What is theta(f)?
Oh, you Just defined it. I still don't get it , why we define f_J(i) when i is not in J
because we want out new thing to be in the larger product
the most natural way to do this is to define a map that's the same as f on J, and then map everything outside of J to 0/the identity
But why is it still injective?
im having a bit of a brain fart
given an exact sequence A -> B -> C -> 0, is applying Hom(D, -) left exact? i.e., we have 0 -> Hom(D, A) -> Hom(D, B) -> Hom(D, C)
i know it's true on short exact sequences, just not sure if it's true for an arbitrary right exact sequence
okey donkey
I think you are a bit confused though, because Hom(D,-) is a covariant functor
yeah i knew it was left exact on left-exact sequences, just forgot if it was true on right-exact
yeah
yeah that's the issue
im trying to figure out if it holds for A -> B -> C -> 0
npnp
but still your thing doesn't make sense
where have you got the 0 from the left from
This isn't what left exact means
Like, if a functor F satisfies what you want, then it turns every morphism into a monomorphism
ok so here's the context based on some class notes i took
if we take a projective resolution of a module M, P_2 -> P_1 -> K -> 0, where K is image(P_2 -> P_1), then we have the thing 0 -> Hom(K, B) -> Hom(P_1, B) -> Hom(P_2, B)
also just for clarification this was not meant to be rude
just an animal pun
like okey dokey -> okey donkey, totally -> turtally, definitely -> dolphinitely, etc
lol
yeah
im just trying to see if a similar thing holds for Hom(D, -), instead taking A -> B -> C -> 0
yeah
a functor F is left exact if it turns 0 -> A -> B -> C into 0 -> F(A) -> F(B) -> F(C) basically
but Hom(-,D) is a bit weird cause of contravariance
mhm
Yeah you define on opposite category
You made a mockery of my name.
so an exact sequence there is the opposite
ok maybe it's better if i give full context lol
actually nevermind im gonna keep thinking about this on my own for a while
im gonna see how far i can get
Isn't this just constant 0? Or could the notation mean something else.
is it true that if $[F(\alpha): F]$ is odd, then $[F(\alpha^2): F]$ is even?
okeyokay
yeah that uhh looks to be constant 0. Lol?
no
Cuz
Probably a typo.
[F(a) : F] = [F(a) : F(a^2)][F(a^2) : F]
I couldn't say what it's meant to be without more context 
Isn't F(a) = F(a^2) if [F(a) : F] odd?
ye this is what i got, i'm trying to prove that if E = F(a) where [F(a): F] is of odd degree then E = F(a^2)
I buy what this guy is selling
Yes it is
so we have F(a^2) contained in F(a)
Cute proof by contradiction
and i'm assuming for contradiction that there exists some w in F(a)
that's not contained in F(a^2)
so I just wrote down [F(a): F] = [F(a): F(a^2)][F(a^2): F]
know that the lhs is odd
if i can show that one of the things on the right is even then that's my contradiction
cuz even times odd or even times even is even
bingo
part of me just wants to square the irreducible polynomial for a over F and assert that it's irr(a^2, F) of even degree 
but i'm very sure that's false
hint: x^2-a^2
You can compute [F(a) : F(a^2)] without too much work using that ^^^
oh damn that was the solution 😭
yeah that makes sense tho lol
are intermediate fields defined in terms of strict inclusion
Not necessarily I guess
Depends on the context
hmm ok
i always get yelled at by Boytjie for not posting context
next time i will POST THE DAMN CONTEXT!!!!!!
I am the context gremlin
But for real, this is the xy problem and I'm not the only one who's noticed this
Asking about your attempted solution rather than your actual problem
because $[E:F]=2k+1$ is odd, then you have $a$ as the root for the minimal irreducible polynomial $a^{2k+1}+c_{2k}a^{2k}+...+c_1a+c_0=0$, separate the odd and even terms $a(a^{2k}+...+c_1)+(c_{2k}a^{2k}+...+c_0)=0$, note that both coefficients $(a^{2k}+...+c_1)$ and $(c_{2k}a^{2k}+...+c_0)$ are in $F(a^2)$, and both of them are not zero, otherwise the order of the minimal irreducible polynomial for $a$ is less than $2k+1$, hence $a=\frac{c_{2k}a^{2k}+...+c_0}{a^{2k}+...+c_1}\in F(a^2)$, which implies $F(a)\subseteq F(a^2)$
WT
Lol nice
I did a less computational proof
Very overcomplicated
how you did?
Suppose that $E = F(\alpha)$, and let $p(x) = \text{irr}(\alpha, F)$ be of odd degree. Clearly $F(\alpha^2) \subseteq F(\alpha)$. If there exists $\omega \in F(\alpha)$ such that $\omega \notin F(\alpha^2)$, we may write [[F(\alpha): F] = [F(\alpha): F(\alpha^2)][F(\alpha^2): F]] Since $[F(\alpha): F(\alpha^2)]$ is even (we see that $\text{irr}(\alpha, F(\alpha^2)) = x^2 - \alpha^2$) this implies that $[F(\alpha): F]$ is even, which is a contradiction
okeyokay
you didn't use this sentence
They implicitly did
contradiction is from the assumption that $[F(\alpha): F(\alpha^2)] >1$, so you get contradiction which implies $[F(\alpha): F(\alpha^2)] =1$
WT
I think the red line should be deleted, there is no use.
aight bro 😭
it's just setting up the contradiction that the other one is not a subset of the other
i.e. F(a) is not a subset of F(a^2)
but there is no connection with the red line, suppose you didn't write the red line, you still can write the equation
Yeah it is used in that $x^2 - \alpha^2$ is irred
colejagdtiger
But then we don’t know that $[F(\alpha):F(\alpha^2)]$ is even
colejagdtiger
your assumption is that $[F(\alpha): F(\alpha^2)] >1$, and you get $[F(\alpha): F(\alpha^2)] =2$ which gives contradiction
WT
I guess they could cut it out but it seems rather minor, the other way of saying things is really just saying the exact same thing but in different terms
I'm studying for an algebra midterm and so I'm doing a couple computational Sylow theory problems about "classify all groups of order whatever". Would anyone be willing to check my working real quick? I'd really appreciate it!
-
$|G|=138$. We factor $138=2\cdot3\cdot23$, and in particular we get $n_{23}\equiv1\mod23$ and $n_{23}|6$, so $n_{23}=1$. Thus $\mathbb{Z}{23}\trianglelefteq G$. So, $G\cong \mathbb{Z}{23}\rtimes H$ where $|H|=6$. This gives two possibilities: If $H\cong\mathbb{Z}{6}$ we have $G\cong\mathbb{Z}{23}\times\mathbb{Z}{6}$. This is because $|\text{Aut}(\mathbb{Z}{6})|=5$ is coprime to 23, so the only map $\mathbb{Z}{23}\to\text{Aut}(\mathbb{Z}{5})$ is trivial. In the other case, $H\cong S_{3}$, we likewise have $G=\mathbb{Z}{23}\times S{3}$, because $S_{3}\cong\text{Aut}(S_{3})$ has 6 elements which is also coprime to 23.
-
$|G|=140$. We factor $140=4\cdot5\cdot7$. This allows us to compute that $n_{5}\equiv1\mod5$ and $n_{5}|28$, so $n_{5}=1$. Likewise, $n_{7}\equiv1\mod7$ and $n_{7}|20$, so $n_{7}=1$. So we have normal subgroups $\mathbb{Z}{5}$ and $\mathbb{Z}{7}$. So $\mathbb{Z}{35}\trianglelefteq G$, and so $G=\mathbb{Z}{35}\rtimes H$ for some group $H$ of order 4. There are two possibilities; if $H=\mathbb{Z}{4}$ we need some map $\mathbb{Z}{35}\to\text{Aut}(\mathbb{Z}{4})\cong\mathbb{Z}{3}$, which must be trivial because 3 and 35 are coprime, so $G=\mathbb{Z}{35}\times\mathbb{Z}{4}$. If $H=\mathbb{Z}{2}\times\mathbb{Z}{2}$ then $\text{Aut}(H)\cong GL_{2}(\mathbb{Z}{2})$ has 6 elements, and 6 is also coprime to 35. So in this case $G=\mathbb{Z}{35}\times\mathbb{Z}{2}\times\mathbb{Z}{2}$.
So, the groups of order 138 up to isomorphism are $\mathbb{Z}{138}$ and $\mathbb{Z}{23}\times S_{3}$, and the groups of order 140 up to isomorphism are $\mathbb{Z}{140}$ and $\mathbb{Z}{35}\times\mathbb{Z}{2}\times\mathbb{Z}{2}$. \qedsymbol
Abelian Grapes
Hi all, I have a quick question. For quotient group, as far as I understand it is only defined for normal subgroup. If a subgroup is not normal, then a quotient group does not exist ?
yea the quotient does not become a group
what do you mean it does not become a group?
what group property does it possibly violate ?
the operation itself wont be well-defined
You can certainly have a set of cosets, but it will not necessarily be a group.
Look at the dihedral group $D_{2n}=\langle r,s:r^{n}=s^{2}=1,rs=sr^{-1}\rangle$ for example. Look at what happens if you consider the subgroup $\langle rs\rangle\cong\mathbb{Z}_{2}$, and what happens to the quotient.
My keyboard is so janky and so I have to use an on-screen keyboard. I hate typing like this.
Abelian Grapes
that is because it is defined the multiplication of two cosets gN and hN to be (gh)N, if N is not normal , then (gN)(h*N) might not be well-defined, is that right?
Yeah their product might not be well defined
Hmm, so kernel can sometimes fail to be both-sided. I wonder why
Like, is it confusing me by kernels of different categories existing closely together?
both-sided what?
Is $\mathfrak G,(G)$ the group of all bijective endomorphisms of $G$ ?
ταυταυ
best i could find was mathfrak lol
“Bijective endomorphisms” are automorphisms
And it’s a bit of a strange notation but I could see it meaning that
yep my bad
Mathfrak{S} being the symmetric group
okok
i just had forgotten the term automorphism haha
For so long I thought $\mathfrak S$ was a G okay I see now 💀
ταυταυ
Can’t say I blame you. I don’t get how it’s an S either
nobody can read fraktur letters it's okay
i thought a mathfrak A in this banach algebras book was a U for the longest time
It looks like a 4 it’s so bad
You mean it isn't a weird sigma?
I don't know which one is worse
Lol
Some letters make sense
Like B, E or Z eg
Ok proved it
what a king
And I think I’ve spotted a pattern to determine for minimal k with a^k = 0 for a being a length l sum of basis vectors
Oh, what is it?
Where ^k means the obvious thing in the exterior algebra
wait
Like you wedge it with itself k times
what is a here?
Some element of the exterior algebra with homogeneous grading - I should have said that last part
It’s rather important
but if a has odd degree then a \wedge a = 0 no matter what...
Yeah that’s what I’m seeing, but if a is even it’s more interesting
Not very interesting but like
Interesting enough to keep me occupied on a boring train journey lol
hmmm but what is the pattern then?
Save me from doing Clifford theory of solvable groups over F_p bar
Well when a is length 2 (the sum of two different basis vectors) and you wedge it with itself once you get a simple element
So I’m thinking it’s l = k but I’m checking other cases
Ah no not so nice! If it’s length 3 you get a length 3 thingy out
So if a is of length l a^2 is of length l(l-1)/2. Cool.
Simple combinatorial argument shows that
So in general if a is of length l and b is of length k, assuming k > l wlog. then a wedge b is of length T(k-1)-T(k-l-1) with T(x) = x(x-1)/2.
So now use this to compute the length of a^n
In 4.2.11, are the repeated factors in question only those in R or does C count too
Like if we have a polynomial over R thats irreducible in R, can we use this proposition to show that it has repeated factors (that would then be factors in C)
Waiting
didnt expect while searching about frak font to end up on a rabbit hole related to its use in Nazi-germany 
if it's bad then let's get rid of the letter Z as well 
z = sj from now on
ʂ
wtf happened here
CLARIFICATIONS
Aut(G) = {automorphisms on G}
Int_h(g) = hgh^{-1}
Int(G) = {int_h | h in G}
They show that the inner automorphism group is a normal subgroup of Aut(G)
alpha is an automorphism
yeah
So alpha^-1 is being applied to it
i know there's $\circ$ hidden
ταυταυ
okok
Which step is confusing you
The first equality is definition of Int_h, second is using the fact that alpha is a homomorphism
OH
I se
i see
i realised wayyy too late
lol thanks
you've got a(h a^-1(g) h^1) and since it's a morphism you can decompose it into a(h) a(a^-1(g)) a(h^-1) = a(h) g a(h)^-1
also because alpha(h^-1) = alpha(h)^-1
lol i was trying to see if x^4+x^2+1 was irreducible in R and I just happened to guess that it factored into (x^2+x+1)(x^2-x+1)
to be fair i knew that if it was reducible it would only have quadratic factors
but im wondering how i wouldve done this if i didnt just happen to guess it correctly
it factors in C, where you see real roots, and complex roots coming in pairs, whose product is a real quadratic
Their product is guaranteed to be a product of real polynomials of degree 1 and 2
If $G=\mathbb{D}{n}$ is the dihedral group of order $2n$ and $n$ is even, then $G/Z(G)=\mathbb{D}{n/2}$ right?
Seagull
I believe that's right
Oh yeah you can just factor it fully and then remultiply it ?
that's the power of the splitting field
when studying polynomials in R, it never hurts to look at what happens in C
hi all, ideal defined to make quotient ring with addition well-defined, is that right?
addition and multiplication
ideals are definitely interesting enough objects in their own right. in fact i'm pretty sure they came about through the work of Dedekind to generalise prime factorisation and stuff
we want R/I = {r + I, for any r in R}, right ?
well that is essentially the definition as a set
can you elaborate a bit more with some examples ?
Well I mean that uh
Okay the examples may not make too much sense but basically if you have a number field $K$ (a finite extension of $\mathbb Q$, but think of examples like $\mathbb Q(sqrt{-2})$ or $\mathbb Q(i)$ or just $Q$), you can form this `ring of integers' $\mathcal O$ (for $\mathbb Q$ this is just $\mathbb Z$) and unfortunately $\mathcal O$ doesn't necessarily have unique factorisation. But if we think about ideals instead of numbers, then we actually do get unique factorisation. In the case of $\mathbb Z$, this is just cause all ideals are of the form $n\mathbb Z$ and so it's basically the same as regular factorisation
Potato E-Girl
and then this is often enough to do some stuff in number theory
Why is that opencry 😭
nothing i just thought it was funny because i wouldn't understand that example if i was first learning about ideals/i don't understand it now
well okay we can simplify this to like
If you want to generalise number theory slightly beyond Q, you have to use ideals if you want unique prime factorisation
and i'm p sure that's where they historically come from
"ideal numbers"
But the point anyway was that ideals aren't merely defined so there's a notion of quotient
no no like i'm sure it's a great example i just thought it was funny for no particular reason
my b 😭
Let's assume $f(x, y)$ is an irreducible polynomial over a field $K$ with characteristic $p$. We want to show that $f\left(x^p, y^p\right)$ is also irreducible over $K$.
Firstly, let's consider the field extension $K^{\prime}=K(x, y)$. Since $f(x, y)$ is irreducible over $K$, it remains irreducible over the larger field $K^{\prime}$.
Now, let's evaluate $f\left(x^p, y^p\right)$ over the field $K^{\prime}$. Substitute $x^p$ for $x$ and $y^p$ for $y$ in the polynomial $f(x, y)$ :
$$
f\left(x^p, y^p\right)=f\left((x)^p,(y)^p\right)
$$
By using the Frobenius endomorphism in characteristic $p$, we can rewrite this as:
$$
f\left((x)^p,(y)^p\right)=f(x, y)^p
$$
Since $f(x, y)$ is irreducible over $K^{\prime}$, the polynomial $f(x, y)^p$ cannot be factored into nontrivial factors over $K^{\prime}$. Therefore, $f\left(x^p, y^p\right)$ is also irreducible over $K^{\prime}$, which means it remains irreducible over the smaller field $K$.
Hence, we've shown that if $f(x, y)$ is an irreducible polynomial over $K$, then $f\left(x^p, y^p\right)$ is also irreducible over $K$.
.
Does my proof look alr?
I think this statement is just wrong lol
x is clearly irreducible over K[x,y]
But x^p is not
In fact you have given an explicit factorisation of f(x^p, y^p) as f(x,y)^p
Unless there is some detail we are missin
Also the first step doesn't really work and I'm not sure why you're doing it - if a polynomial is irreducible, it needn't remain irreducible over a larger field. Indeed this is why you can construct splitting fields
Yeah I realized I redid it
The curve $C$ defined by the equation $X^2-Y^2=0$ over a field $K$ consists of two irreducible components in the affine plane.
The equation $X^2-Y^2=0$ can be factored as $(X-Y)(X+$ $Y)=0$.
Therefore, the curve $C$ consists of two irreducible components:
The component defined by $X-Y=0$, which is the line $Y=X$. The component defined by $X+Y=0$, which is the line $Y=-X$.
In characteristic 2, we need to be careful with the distinction between the two components since $X-Y=0$ and $X+Y=0$ coincide. In this case, both equations represent the same line, $Y=X$, so there is only one irreducible component in characteristic 2.
Therefore, in characteristic 2, the curve $C$ has a single irreducible component, which is the line $Y=X$.
.
In my proof, do I have to show why in char 2 it’s just x - y
Or is what u showed fine
Yeah in char 2 this line is just X = Y
(at least as points lol, there is more scheme-theoretic information in the former case ig)
Yup
its hard to absorb the text, but r u saying given an ideal, every number will have unique factorization ?
For this question do I just plug in?
Kinda like this:
Let's consider the map $f: D \rightarrow C$ defined by $f(x, 0)=$ $\left(\frac{1-x^2}{1+x^2}, \frac{2 x}{1+x^2}\right)$.
Firstly, let's verify that the image of $f$ lies on the curve $C: X^2+$ $Y^2=1$
For any point $(x, 0)$ in $D$, where $x$ is not a root of $X^2+1$, let's calculate $f(x, 0)$ :
$$
f(x, 0)=\left(\frac{1-x^2}{1+x^2}, \frac{2 x}{1+x^2}\right)
$$
Now, let's verify that $f(x, 0)$ satisfies the equation of the curve $C$ :
$$
\begin{aligned}
& X^2+Y^2=1: \
& X^2+Y^2=\left(\frac{1-x^2}{1+x^2}\right)^2+\left(\frac{2 x}{1+x^2}\right)^2 \
& =\frac{\left(1-x^2\right)^2+4 x^2}{\left(1+x^2\right)^2} \
& =\frac{1-2 x^2+x^4+4 x^2}{\left(1+x^2\right)^2} \
& =\frac{1+2 x^2+x^4}{\left(1+x^2\right)^2} \
& =\frac{\left(1+x^2\right)^2}{\left(1+x^2\right)^2} \
& =1
\end{aligned}
$$
Therefore, for any point $(x, 0)$ in $D$, the map $f(x, 0)=$ $\left(\frac{1-x^2}{1+x^2}, \frac{2 x}{1+x^2}\right)$ maps it to a point on the curve $C$, verifying that $f$ indeed maps $D$ to $C$.
This shows that for each point $(x, 0)$ in $D$, the image under $f$ lies on the curve $C$, satisfying the equation $X^2+Y^2=1$, establishing $f$ as a map of curves from $D$ to $C$.
.

What happened
bruh wtf
is this for an abstract algebra course
well it's a bunch of things combined into one
so ig u could say that
like what subjects
Looks like classic AG
a few r potential
topics include elliptic curves, Chebotarev’s density theorem, Hilbert’s irreducibility theorem, and Dirichlet
series.
basically number theory
yea basically
oh damn
any of u guys know if what i did is relatively correct? as in the approach
Yeah I’m pretty sure it’s correct
thx
Well I would double check that they don’t expect some other condition when they say “map of curves”
I’m assuming it is just map between the curves that is a rational function in each coordinate
Or something like that
It's more interesting to ask when is that map a bijection
But you should include the point at infinity
Which corresponds to (-1,0)
yup
tdy i learned about j-invariant. does anyone know the significance of 1728 in the formula
my prof said it can be used without the 1728 but he prefers it with the 1728 cuz there's historical value. idk what he meant by that
is this a permutation of the sigmas since the sigmas are all the distinct embeddings of E into E^a and i'm assuming that they form a group but i'm too lazy to check
btw E^a refers to the algebraic closure of E, not sure if that's standard notation or not but anyways that's what it is!
Yes because it’s all the distinct embeddings but no it’s not because it’s a group
What would your composition even be
But E -> K -> E^a is composing embeddings yes?
But we already listed all of them
ok I did some more reading. I guess this is how ideals came into being
So initially, there are rings such that factorizations that are not unique, for example in Z[sqrt(-5)], 6 = 23 = (1 + sqrt(-5))(1 - -sqrt(-5)),
Then after that ideals came into being to study some special properties of rings, and then from there it allowed us to study some rings in which factorizations are unique, for example principal ideal domain is also a UFD.
Is this correct?
a little backwards but yeah mostly correct
a lot of the historical motivation for introducing ideals was noticing that certain rings that show up in number theory like Z[\sqrt{-5}] don't have unique factorization of elements, but you do get unique factorization of ideals in so called Dedekind domains (of which rings like Z[\sqrt{-5}] are an example)
there is something called the class group which measures how badly Dedekind domains fail to be PIDs, in other words how badly unique factorization of elements fails
historically people were trying to prove Fermat's last theorem and were able to in cases where Z[\zeta_n] was a unique factorization domain, and later Kummer was able to prove more cases by working with "ideal numbers" even in the cases where unique factorization failed, and this led Dedekind to give a more modern definition of ideals
How can I find a set of homomorphism from Z to Z? Does it mean I need to give an example of a homomorphism?
Wym "a" set of homomorphisms
Here's a set consisting only of homomorphisms from Z to Z: {}
If you need to find the set of all homomorphisms, yes you will need to describe all of them.
I would suggest you think carefully about what elements of Z generate Z in order to find the homomorphisms.
for a ring R and an ideal I, $S^{-1}(R/I) = S^{-1}R / S^{-1} I$. does this also hold true for ideals $J \subseteq I$?
ana(functor)mono(morphism)
as R-modules*
Localizing is an exact functor, so for any submodule M < N you have
S^-(N/M) = S^-N / S^-M
sick thanks :)
oh wait sorry i meant
does a similar result hold for I/J
i forgot to mention that
but i guess J < I as a submodule
so it works i think
Yes, ideals are examples of modules
how do i show that the commutator group of the upper triangular matrices are the unipotent matrices?
Unipotent or upper unitriangular? There are going to be plenty of unipotent matrices that aren't upper triangular.
You can fairly easily argue that any commutator is going to be unipotent. As for showing unitriangularity, you should be aware of some nice generators for that subgroup, and iirc you can exhibit specific commutators that produce those generators.
(I am half remembering this so I apologise if I'm making a mistake here)
Guess just explicitly show that elementary (unipotent) matrices are commutators. Then show that they generate all the upper triangular unipotent matrices
im actually kinda struggling on showing that any commutator is unipotent
or more like
if you consider some commutator ABA^{-1}B^{-1}, you just need to consider the ii-th entry, but that seems so tedious with writing out the matrix multiplication
is there another way to argue that
oh nvm, im stupid
i'm a little bit confused, why does this argument not work if k is infinite?
Well, do you know why the multiplicative group of a finite field is cyclic?
The proof uses properties of finite groups etc
But in fact the multipplicative group of an infinite field is never cyclic, idk if that's what you're interested in
i kinda forgot the proof lol, doesn't it involve the fundamental theorem of abelian groups
That's one nice way
But it only works for f.g. abelian groups
Which is why it doesn't generalise
ohh
If you want a silly example, note that uh
every cyclic group is at most countably infinite
so we run into obvious issues for fields of uncountable cardinality
But yeah in fact you can prove this
in fact
oh because it's just Z if it's infinite which is countable right
in fact
what's the fact, i can't stand the suspense
in fact that might be the case
This you can also use to show that any finite subgroup of the multiplicative group of a field is cyclic
oh right, i faintly remember that from the proof
tbh im just gonna review group theory once this sem is over lol
It does, however fun fact is that you can prove it with just very basic group theory and some clever tricks
One of my favourite exercises in the text algebra chapter 0 has you do so
Cause it really just rests on the existence of an element of maximal order that every other order divides
Which you can prove for abelian groups cause then the order of elements multiplied which have coprime order is their order multiplied
Any obvious reason why it's never cyclic?
Well i guess just more generally, (non-zero) divisible abelian groups cannot be f.g.
Okay I guess they needn't be divisible because of torsion but the idea still works i'm sure
g^0 = 1
wait what did i have in mind uhh
Okay yeah i'm not sure sorry
I did this a while back
Although tbf, maybe one way to see is it like
I guess it's easy to see that Q^* isn't cyclic, and similar for transcendent extension of Fp.
And infinite algebraic extensions contain torsion elements of arbitrary high degree
Your field K is an extension of a finite field F, of cardinality > 2 (say)
so K^x contains F^x as a subgroup
we can't have the former infinite cyclic and the latter finite cyclic
I think that works nicely?
Yeah, that's a pretty simple argument. And as always there's an extra thing to check in characteristic 2
Im assuming every infinite char 2 field contains F4 hopefully lol
But maybe I'm wrong
F2(x) doesn't
Rip
So you would have to check that seperately
Well it either contains F_4 or it contains some transcendental element, right?
Yeah okay
Yes
If you have anything algebraic ur fine
What even is the cardinality of F2(x)
It's countable
But you should be able to show it's equal to Z^N using that F2[x] is a UFD
can someone give me hint on how to solve part b)?
also, just to verify for part a) im justing plugging in 1,2,3,4 in that eqn and see if i get 1 - e^-1
How can I find the set Hom(Z, Z/2Z), is it correct to write phi(x)=1 when x is odd, phi(x)=0 when x is even?
Hint: Z is generated by 1, so how does this uniquely define homomorphisms from Z to Z/2Z?
That'll help you make this idea more precise
I consider the Z/2Z implies the result can only be 0 or 1, and by preservation of operation, if x is odd, then odd number of 1 is still odd. If x is even, then even number of 1 will produce 0
Make this more precise
Again, use the hint
(you're also missing a morphism)
(which would be apparent if you used my hint)
You're right that Z/2Z only contains 0 and 1
Also are you trying to find the set or the group structure on Hom(Z, Z/2Z)? If the latter, my hint is even more important to make this clear
Does my hint make sense at the least?
uniquely define means?
If you have a group homomorphism f:Z -> G, G some abelian group
if you know f(1), can you determine f(2) in terms of f(1)?
by saying f(1+1)=f(1)+f(1)=2f(1)
bingo
hence, group homomorphisms from Z -> G, G some abelian group, are uniquely determined by where 1 gets sent
And like you said, Z/2Z only has 2 elements
Sooooooo can't be too much work
Do you have any ideas about all homomorphism from a symmetric group like S5 to a Z/5Z? In my impression symmetric group must be a cycle, so I don't know why it can associate with the mod?
There is no such homomorphism
Except for the trivial one
anyone iwlling to give me a hint for part b)
You mean like from identity mapping to 0?
a fancy way is that every element of A_5 is a commutator (i.e. of the form aba^-1 b^-1 for some elements a and b) and so it must go to 0 in Z/5
constant mapping yes
Not every element
wdym by "symmetric group must be a cycle"?
Every other element
sorry yes
A5
But in fact this is besides the point anyway in a sense
The normal subgroups of S5 are just A5, 1 and S5
The kernel can't be 1, so it contains A5, so our map factors as S_5 -> S_5/A_5 -> Z/5
like I mean S5 can contain (123), (12)(34) something like these cycles
but then there are no non-trivial maps S_5/A_5 -> Z/5
Sure, every permutation can be written as a product of disjoint cycles
(just see where each element goes and that gives you cycles)
You mean every element has its inverse and it will goes to e?
Are you in an algebra class?
Yes
You seem to be really confused about the difference between the presentation of a group and the group itself
Just because the description of S_5 as a set of permutations doesn’t look like it has anything to do with modular arithmetic doesn’t mean there can’t be maps between them
Can you give me an example about what you are saying, I think f(sigma=(123))=2 something in this form can work, but besides constant mapping, i can not imagine f( sigma1*sigma2)=e because of operation preservation.
not really sure what you mean
This is kinda hard to read too
(123) can’t map to 2 because they have different orders (3 vs 5)
(also, it's a bit (very) non-standard to use e for the identity element of Z/5, please just say 0 (or 0 + 5Z if you are one of those people))
he just like me fr
As I said before there are no non-trivial maps to Z/5 (all maps factor through the trivial groups) but to prove this you are going to have to review a lot of basic ideas from group theory
Note that the image of an element under a morphism must have order dividing the order of the original element, and every element of Z/5 has order 1 or 5
Then consider how you can write any element in S_5 as a product of transpositions (which have order 2)
.
im not sure what to do after this lol
how exactly does $[k(\alpha + c\beta): k] \geq n$ imply that $k(\alpha, \beta) = k(\alpha + c\beta)$?
okeyokay
is this ivan niven's intro to numb theory
No lol this is Lang
ah i thought i recognized the font
oh nah
having a brain fart, is the kernel nontrivial since q is sent to 0
okay yeah
yeah
lol thanks
how exactly are these two paragraphs distinct? if splitting fields are unique up to isomorphism and we just showed that the splitting field of f(X) = X^p^n - X is the set of roots of f(X) in the first paragraph, what's the point of the second paragraph?
well i guess it's showing that it's a field and not a group
but like
the first paragraph shows that the splitting field for f(X) over Z/pZ is the set of roots of f(X), which must be unique up to isomorphism
@white oxide honestly idk what two paragraphs you mean but
Something that is being shown after the underlined thing is that the splitting field is the set of roots of the polynomial
It’s not true usually that a splitting field consists only of roots
See eg C as a splitting field of x^2 + 1 over R
ye but didn't they show that (in the blue brackets) F is a splitting field for f, and every element is a root of X^p^n - X already
and since splitting fields are unique up to isomorphism it follows
Idk what F is
a finite field of order q where q = p^n
You don’t know it exists
Until the latter part
The proof goes
Given a finite field of order q, it would be a splitting field of F, so finite fields of order q are unique
Now here is an example of a finite field of order q
Helo can someone tell me if a = 0000 0000 0000 0010 is considered a primitive element corresponing to x of GF(2^16) where the ireducible polynomial is 1,0,0,0,1,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,1,0,1,1 = 210013(in octal)
Just needing one alfa like the definition in GF(2^16) to implement some algorithm
how exactly does this imply that d \geq n?
So, 1 <= d <= n since this is the order of phi ye?
ye i got that
p^d <= p^n
So if d < n we have p^d < p^n because finite arithmetic
But q=p^n right?
yea
oh
ohh ok i see so every element of F_p^n is an root of X^p^d - X, so if d < n then we wouldn't have every element being a root of the polynomial right
hence d \geq n
Ye
help 😢
aren't the homomorphisms just in bijective correspondence with the permutation of the 9th roots of unity which are roots of X^6 + X^3 + 1
Well, pick x a root, then sigma(x)^6 + sigma(x)^3 + 1 = 0
But if you can reach any other root from \alpha you gotta make sure those respective polynomials hold too ofc
Would you happen to know which roots of unity that includes?
i'm not entirely sure, right now i'm just brute forcing
because i know that yea the homomorphisms have to send alpha to a conjugate
and that it divides X^9 - 1, so in particular all zeros of f(x) are going to be zeros of X^9 - 1 which are 9th roots of unity
idk maybe the primitive ones or some shit lol
Well if x is a primitive, then you know it should map to a primitive, that sort of thing
oh right generator maps to generator
That’s what I meant by “respective polynomial”
huh okay
so it would be nice it alpha turned out to be primitive.....
nice and convenient...
Well, alpha sure isn’t 1
And it’ll be primitive when it’s not actually a 3rd root of unity or something right?
where'd you get this
i kinda see?
Cyclic group
Question 5a from chapter 4
Also use the fact that there are 6 primitive 9'th roots of unity
Damn bro memorized the question number
😭 can sum1 pls give me a hint. actually ik kind of what to do but idk how to apply it or prove the limt
oops i deleted the question
part b)
It is primitive iff its order is 2^16 - 1 = 65535.
Since the prime factorization of 65535 = 3·5·17·257, compute x^(65535/d) for d in {3,5,17,257}. If you get something different from 1 in each case, the order must be 65535, and x is a primitive element.
Anyone?
Hi all, can anyone shed me some lights that the polynomial (x^3 - 2) is irreducible over Q imply sqrt[3]{2} is inconstructible?
You mean a number that can be found as a length given a ruler and a compass ?
If so, iirc (from a 12 page pdf I read like 6 months ago) a number is constructible iff it belongs to an extension of Q that is a power of 2
i.e. its minimal polynomial's degree is a power of 2
That's not the case for cbrt(2), whose minimal polynomial is obviously cubic
yes
so Q(cbrt(2)) is not a field extension of Q of dimension 2^k right?
No, because it's 3 dimensional, Q, Q cbrt(2), Q cbrt(2)^3
Hence it's not 2^k dimensional
How we do find the number of homomorphisms from G to G' ?
By thinking carefully about the structure of the groups and trying to find ways of enumerating them.
Without more information about the groups, this question cannot be answered. Ask the actual question at hand.
from Z to 2Z, is there an isomorphism other than f(n)=2n?
There are many.
Oh, isomorphism.
There are indeed more.
Hint: the generator of Z must be sent to a generator of 2Z.
ie 1 maps to 2 and -1 maps to -2
And what's the other possibility?
N.b. 1 mapping to 2 implies -1 maps to -2; you need only specify that 1 maps to 2.
f(n)=n+1, here 1 maps to 2, but -1 maps to 0
Think about this. What are generators of 2Z?
2 and -2
So if we're going to have an isomorphism, 1 must be sent to a generator of 2Z. So what can the isomorphism do?
we require f(1)=2 and f(-1)=-2
No.
You've forgotten this point again
Try putting this information together:
- A generator of Z – let's choose 1 – must be sent to a generator of 2Z.
- The generators of 2Z are 2 and -2
- A fact I have not told you yet: a homomorphism is determined entirely by where it sends generators.
No, that's incorrect.
I've laid out the work you need to do so I'm going to leave it to you now.
sure
You don't have to delete your messages
It just makes it look like I'm talking to myself
i just realized it was incorrect
@coral spindle just to make sure, will get a isomorphism which is a explicit function like f(n)=2n
You will.
@coral spindle
tbh i can only think f(n)=2n
i don't know much expression having the property f(a+b)=f(a)+f(b)
i can only think of n(a+b)=na+nb
how to characterize what structure is lost in a homomorphism?
The kernel
Hi, I'm in twelfth grade and have 7 hours of math every week. Since I'm in my last year, we need to do a big research competence.
We need to research the applications of Conway-groups in other fields of mathematics, but me and my team can't seem to comprehend what those groups actually are. Most of the articles we read explain it with words we've never seen in our life and we're beginning to think this is way to advanced for us. Could someone explain what those groups are or send some links to articles that explain it clearly?
That is an ambitious project...
I will be very clear in saying that you will likely be unable to understand what the groups are in time. Perhaps if you had a couple of years you would.
You might have to simply look around the subject to see what people have said.
I'm not aware of any articles but I'll have a look around
Maybe you could try watching 3blue1brown's videos on groups, try searching groups in his channel.
3b1b's video on the monster is a pretty good start
can you tell your function?
I think that was his 'huge favourite number' video or sth like that
His videos usually target a general audience, so I suppose that is a start
You found it.
is that all ?
What do you think?
Remember what I said up here.
do you coincidentally have some other things of john conway in mind which are a little easier for us to research?
I don't think researching other things john conway has done will be particularly helpful.
He was a very prolific mathematician.
Answer is no,?
the definition of surreal numbers and how it explains values of hackenbush/other games
thats pretty aproachable I think
Oh, unless you're just looking for a different topic. Yeah as jagr alluded to, his game theory is great
Winning ways for your mathematical plays is a nice book(s)
If you can find a copy :,)
Are they hard to come by?
Very very pricey. I don't think my uni library has copies lol
My guess is as you mentioned for any isomorphism, it should map generator to generator, so given 2 generators i have only 2 ways to do so in a bijective fashion
we originally planned to research his game of life, but when my teacher saw the word "game" we weren't allowed to, because "we're not supposed to explain games". I don't even think she even knew what is was
Sigh
You could look at that famous knot theory argument of his
his follow-then-swallow argument
There's a video of him explaining it online
I think that has significant approachability and merit generally
Might even be worth trying to explain to your teacher that game theory is unrelated to video games. though I guess picking fights with teachers isnt always a good idea
yup, especially with her
This is getting off topic so I won't say more, but here is the video of the argument: https://youtu.be/lwWeRMmXIoU?si=-uLfExCR72IJsLQu
@glacial island
sanity check
failed
if A is not an integral domain, then modules over A cannot be torsion-free
False
no
Torsion is only defined against non-zero divisors
all modules of R are torsion free does not imply R is an integral domain
Any ring is torsion free over itself
this.
or no i mean if R is an integral domain then the free modules are torsion free
Probably talking past each other here, perhaps there's confusion between torsion = Z-torsion = finite order, and torsion as informed by the ring.
E.g. the Z/6Z-module Z/6Z is not torsion via the second definition :)
yeah
true
i did mean torsion informed by the ring
ok i remembered the definition wrong then
hi all, for the problem of impossibility of trisecting an angel, for the case cos3x = 4cos^3x - 3cosx , if we use x = 20, we eventually get an equation y^3 - 3y - 1 = 0, this equation does not have rational roots, why does not having rational roots imply the trisection is not possible?
It doesn't.
the proof says if we can show the equation above doesnt have rational roots, then we can say construction of 20 degree is not possible, or am I missing something ?
Considering we can construct a great many irrational numbers in Euclidean geometry, this is insufficient.
So a cubic polynomial is irreducible iff it doesn't have a root, because of it was reducible it would be a product of a degree 2 and a degree 1 polynomial, and degree 1 polynomials have roots.
So y^3 - 3y - 1 is an irreducible polynomial that has 2cos(20) as a root. Thus Q(cos(20)) is a degree 3 extension. But extensions by constructable numbers always has degree 2^n. Hence it is not possible to construct cos(20) with compass and ruler.
Since we can construct a 60 degree angle, if it was possible to trisect angles we would be able to construct cos(20), but since we can't construct cos(20) it must be that we can't trisect angles.

if this is your attempt at shitposting, you're in the wrong channel
How can I find an automorphism of Z[x] that maps these two polynomials into one another?
Eisenstein is not directly applicable lol, what prime would you use?
I'm not sure why you want to map these polynomials onto one another, since the exercise (as far as I can tell) is asking you to prove they're irreducible via Eisenstein. Now in order to apply the criterion to either of them you probably need some kind of linear substitution, i.e. x->x+a for some a\in Z, e.g. how it's shown cyclotomic polynomials are irreducible via Eisenstein with the x->x+1 substitution. Try +-1, +-2, it'll probably work.
Ignore me and listen to Ocean Man
allright thanks
i luv algebra
This is debatable

People have different definitions of torsion, a very reasonable one has non domains having torsion
This would then not agree with Tor but would agree with some other uses of the word torsion in the literature
which other meanings do you have in mind?
I guess I would say I-torsion means that M[I] != 0
An element m in M being I-torsion if Rm = R/I seems reasonable
What Jagr said but in the setting of the entire module
Yes :)
(the hint gives away the entire answer but) just making sure, we only need o to be dedekind to make sure that o_p is always principal, right
also i get the idea is to break M down into each prime, but how do we come up with the "There exists c_p in o \ p which pushes the image into F" 
everything fits together really nicely but i'm not enlightened
i guess it's a general strategy for maps that go into bigger things than what you want
ideally we want g_p(M) to be in F, which would just work immediately as a candidate for g. so we can put some constants to make that happen (since f.g.), which will necessarily be in o \ p, and since prime ideals are cofinal this generates the unit ideal
(?)
it's like a messed up direct sum
I dont understand the part ablut “so the primitive nth roots of unity are the generators of this subgroup”
well by definition a primitive nth root of unity z is a nth root of unity such that n is the smallest integer such that z^n = 1
can you see how that relates to cyclic groups and generators?
Look at the unit circle in C
Oh cause the group is order n and the order of z is n
So it gonna pass thru every other element
ye
Ya prob some pictures with the angles r smth right
Splitting up unit circle into pizza
there's an algebraic structure i'm considering, but i'm not sure what's the best way to represent it so that it's closest to actual things that people do mathematics on...
it's basically a group in that it supports all of the group axioms, but it has an extra structure on it
it's a group supplemented with "magnitude" or "numeracy" of its elements...
i think of it as multisets of elements of a certain group, and there are operations between these multisets that correspond to multiplying every element of the multiset by a certain element, but only a certain multiplicity of times so that only n of each element is affected
there's also a hangup that the identity element behaves a bit differently, it has an uncounted multiplicity, or an infinite multiplicity, such that the amount of elements never runs out
so here's an example, using the group C3
we have the multiset {a, a, a^2, a^2, a^2} and we apply the operation a with magnitude 3 to it, and get {a, a, a, a^2, a^2}
or let's take the group of integers under addition and the multiset where an integer's multiplicity is itself {1, 2, 2, 3, 3, 3, 4, 4, 4, 4...}, and apply the operation +1 with a multiplicity of 1, which... oh lol that's the same as the identity map, um, let's say it has multiplicity 2, which i think just switches the multiplicities of 1 and 2
uh anyways, there's got to be a better way to represent this, and it seems like such a simple object that i doubt i'm the first to imagine it... what's a better way to represent this to do group theory on it?
I don’t get why +1 would be the identity element
Also can you give a precise definition
Are you sure you did the C3 example right?
it's just an artefact of the infinite set
like the +1 brings 0 to 1
yeah
oh i get it finally
There isn’t a 0 though?
it's there but infinitely many
That’s weird
it's like, the null element
Yeah still odd
if you "lose" some of an element it "actually" becomes the identity
does this satisfy the group axioms btw
Reminds me of convolution-y but scuffed
yeah
I doubt it should since the multiplicity of the applied action or such
oh no i don't think the multisets are elements of a group
but the operations have to be an application of a group element
i guess it's possible that it could reduce to a single group but i would be somewhat surprised
do you take the underlying group to be abelian
no
if a multiset has elements m and g and you apply the operation corresponding to g you evaluate m * g and g * g
what aspect are you trying to study?
it's technically describing the behavior of a thing i made up while half-asleep but the algebraic structure is interesting on its own, what i was first thinking to explore though was the analogues of easy group theorems like the relationship of groups and their subgroups in terms of what they do in the multiset group thing and similar questions
it's not associative: ({1, 1} applied to {1}) applied to {1, 2, 2} = {1, 1, 2} applied to {1, 2, 2} = {1, 1, 2, 2, 3, 3, 3, 4}, while {1, 1} applied to ({1} applied to {1, 2, 2}) = {1, 1} applied to {1, 2, 3, 3} = {1, 1, 2, 3, 4, 4} (this is in Z)
i don't think it's cancellative either
ooh right
actually i think it is cancellative it's not cancellative by your earlier example
shouldn't +1 and +0 having the same effect mean it isn't a group though? since a group can't have distinct identity elements? or do you not have to consider them different
it's not a group because it's not associative
also +1 only does nothing to {1, 2, 2, 3, 3, 3, 4, ... }
an identity element needs to do nothing to everything in the set
right duh

+1 doing nothing in that case is pretty interesting though, i'm sure there's other unusual behavior with infinite multisets
what do you mean?

