#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 177 of 1
quasi-coherent sheaves over combinatorial representatinos of the suzuki group
i agree
wait so is a ground field/ring literally just
some fixed field/ring lol
In mathematics, a ground field is a field K fixed at the beginning of the discussion.
bruh lmao
if you're talking about a vector space over a field k, you call that field the "ground field of the vector space"
or I guess with a module over a ring you call R the "ground ring"
I prefer "ambient field" lol
sounds spookier
ambient sounds p cool might have to go w that
I remember seeing a proof that ended "whence the proposition"
I would use that all the time just to make prof's cringe lol!
LMFAO i'll have to consider that
how does tau of pi_i give a direct sum composition?
What is the galois group of x^n - 2 over Q for arbitrary n?
The splitting field of x^n-a over Q is the compositum K of Q(\zeta_n) and Q(\sqrt[n]{a}), and one has Gal(K/Q)=(Z/nZ)\rtimes(Z/nZ)* precisely if n is odd, or n is even and \sqrt{a} is not in Q(\zeta_n); otherwise it's some subgroup of this
wtf is this first line of the proof
lang refers to anything "arrow-theoretic" as "abstract-nonsense"
in fact he even defines it in bold later on
😂
lang's so funny dude
i hate the term whence
lol I was a bit of a troll
category theory is silly, the theory of putting arrows between symbols
although basically all of math is based on the theory of putting the "is contained in" symbol between symbols
and some axioms saying "hey, lets assume there's actually a thing you can do that with"
from whence
i really wanna learn combinatorics
lmfao
i dont think there is cat theory in combinatorics
right
yea i will after im done with geometry
im set on it
i saw 2 problems
and i was just like yeah this is the shit
categorical combinatorics
lmfao
I think in another life I could have been a set theorist
the most annoying type
don't accept that infinite sets exist
get nothing done ever
ultrafinitists after accomplishing nothing 
wonder who that's a criticism of
hey I don't really "think" infinite sets exist, I just like doing math built on the assumption that they do
it's more fun lol
ZFC is a fun set of rules to mess around with
is the left expression the internal direct sum and the right expression the external direct sum?
it has to be right?
categories are graphs
wouldnt they be directed multigraphs?
thin cats
But that still doesn’t tell you how the morphisms compose
are all subrings of Z of the form bZ?
Suppose r1, r2, ..., rn are roots for poly of degree n, then we can prove in general that Q(r1, r2, ..., rn) : Q(r1, r2, ..., r n-1)=1, right? because we have Vieta's formula.
try to prove or disprove it
- what is your définition of ring
clearly you pick D5, and Z/10Z but showing these are the only ones is hard
Do you know about semidirect products?
nope
Alright, then you can go for a more direct approach. You're able to show that any group of order 10 has an element of order 5 and one of order 2, yes?
this is from an old past exam so its possible previous version of the course covered it and we didnt
since order divides 10
Yeah, so Cauchy's theorem or the Sylow theorems
im clear that there can be one, does that imply there is one?
ie lagrange theorem
oh wait
yes cauchy theorem thats what to use
of course
yeah so that gets you to Z/10Z and Z/5Z*Z/2Z
but 5*2 is abelian and D5 isnt right?
So then you have s of order 5 and t of order 2. Then it's pretty straight forward to show that s^m t^n are distinct for m=0, 1, 2, 3, 4 and n=0, 1
So that gives you all 10 elements
yep clear on that
Then the question is what could ts equal?
Once you know that, you have completely described the group
hmm right
so currently our group has {e s s2 s3 s4 t} and it needs ts which is in the group
and st which needs to be ts4
then we also needs ts2 and ts3 and ts4
and to show that st2 is ts3 etc..
which is all dihedral group presentations
so the question from here is how do we close it and show this is the only other group
So you have e, s, s^2, s^3, s^4, t, st, s^2t, s^3t, s^4t
And ts needs to be one of these. It can't be s^m, because then t would be s^m-1, so it must be s^n t.
Now it must be that t(ts) = s
What do you get if you compute t s^n t using that ts = s^n t?
s^-1 dihedral group presentation
srs=s^-1
so in this case youd get s since s^n*s=e
So yeah we can complete this group and I guess we can say this is the only other group since 10 has prime factors 2 and 5 so combinations are all that is possible?
Anyway thanks
Use the generators are relations above to show that every element of $D_{2n}$ which is not a power of $r$ has order $2$. Deduce that $D_{2n}$ is generated by the two elements $s$ and $sr$, both of which have order $2$.
This is what I did:
Let $x = sr^k$ where $k \in [0, n -1]$. Consider $x^2 = (sr^k)^2 = sr^k sr^k$. Using the above relations ($sr = r^{n-1} s$) we must show that $sr^k sr^k = id$. So, I used induction with the following argument. In other words, $sr^k = r^{-k} s^{-1}$.
Base case: k = 0. Then this is trivially true since $s = s^{-1} \implies s^2 = 1$ which is true by the definition of the group $D_{2n}$. Inductive hypothesis: Let $k = m$. Assume $P_m$ true for some $m \in \mbb{N}$. Then we have:
$$sr^m = r^{-m} s^{-1}$$.
Inductive step. Consider $k = m + 1$, then multiply by $m$ on the right to obtain:
\begin{align}
sr^{m+1} &= r^{-m} s^{-1} r \
sr^{m+1} &= r^{-m} s^{-2} s r \
sr^{m+1} &= r^{-m} sr \
sr^{m+1} &= r^{-m} r^{-1} s \
sr^{m+1} &= r^{-(m+1)} s
\end{align}
Is this correct?
zzzz
Prove that the intersection of any collection of subrings of a ring R is a subring of R.
now how many subrings of a ring can possibly exist?
if it were countable I would have done an induction argument
my guess is it would differ from ring to ring
Really as many as you like. Choose any cardinal: there is a ring with at least that many distinct subrings.
And unital ones too.
Induction is definitely overkill
The ring of real numbers has 2^(2^(aleph_0)) distinct subrings.
is the finite group isomorphism problem solved in polynomial time?
No I don't believe so, but also iirc it's not known if it's np-complete.
It may also depend on how the group is specified -- a full multiplication table can be asymptotically larger than a set of generators written e.g. as permutations or matrices over a finite field, so "polyomial" can take different meanings depending on the input representation.
then what should be the line of attack?
given the multiplication table, doesn't it reduce to graph isomorphism somehow?
Here's a recent PhD thesis in the area that Google found for me; it may have some useful survey of the state of the art: https://math.colorado.edu/~tysc3584/Tyler_Schrock-PhD_Thesis.pdf
Use the definition of the intersection. It's really just that.
Yes this is true
I talked to an expert recently about this
The thesis above states that it is conjectured that isomorphism by multiplication table may be in P even if graph isomorphism isn't.
Yeah this lines up with what this person was saying. The converse reduction is being actively researched apparently.
oh that's cool, I wanted to ask about that too
On the other hand it's stated to be a folklore result that graph isomorphism reduces polynomially to group-isomorphsm-by-generators.
what kind of presentations could a group have?
Cayley table, matrix presentation, generators and relations, permutation generators, etc.
I say etc but that's really all that comes to mind
Can you go from a reasonable presentation to another reasonable presentation in polynomial time? Sure, you could present a cyclic group as Z/f(m)Z where f is a very difficult weird non-injective function to compute, but that would be strange
Matrix presentation to Cayley table may need exponential space just for the output.
ah okay I see
so it could well be the case that isomorphism problem for presentation A can be solved in polynomial time but isomorphism problem for presentation B not, right
Yes.
I am confused by this notation. Shouldn't the R_i just be subsets of some A^k with k some natural number? In fact, there he denotes members of R_i as k-tuples for some unspecified k. As far as I understand, A^A is the set of A-tuples with entries in A
btw this notion of isomorphism is kinda wacky, because then <A, R, S> and <A, S, R> wouldn't be isomorphic in most cases 
ig it doesnt matter lol
Why not?
R and S could have different sizes
Well, yes, but that doesn't mean a different one-to-one mapping g' wouldn't exist
and one could consist of k-tuples and the other of s-tuples with k and s distinct
it does
(the map must also be onto, although this is redundant in the finite case)
I hate the "one-to-one ... onto* terminology for this exact reason. Very easy to miss it
hello, there is a property that I'm not sure if it is correct in my math lesson (I was absent). Is the correct one "given a subset K of a subgroup H of a group G, K is a sub group of H if it is a subgroup of G" or "given a subset K of a subgroup H of a group G, K is a sub group of G if it is a subgroup of H"
both of these are true
both are true
both are basically just "a subset is a subgroup if and only if it's a group"
^
they're not exactly equivalent, they're just both true but that's by the by :))
if K is a subset of H which is a subgroup of G and K is a group, then K is a subgroup of H and G
essentially what they're saying
I don't think I understand this. The Cayley table of a finite group of size n has size n^2, I am also unsure what a Matrix presentation is. I guess what you mean is that a matrix presentation could have size like log(n) or something like that, where n is the size of the group?
for my problem?
also could anyone can help do this in a non-combinatorial way (if there is one)?
I tried drawing them out
a matrix presentation would just be a faithful representation
I thought that the main point was to study the complexity of the isomorphism problem as a function of n where n is the size of the groups involved... But now I realize, the size is explicit in the Cayley table, but it is not explicit in a group presentation by generators and relations for example... Maybe it makes more sense to study how the complexity grows as a function of the amount of data of the presentation, idk
except you don't have n matrices of dimension k, you have one matrix for each group generator
and it would be nk^2
In the matrix presentation you get just a set of generators as matrices, not all of the elements.
the government cover up
ah ok lol
So is then group matrix presentation (or ig just generators and relations group presentation) isomorphism problem polynomially reducible to graph isomorphism problem?
I guess what matters is the size of the input, so probably not
If there is a three-side planar graph, and all three sides are same length, but I let all sides different by letting first side have a outward curve, and second side have two inward curve, while the third one is wavy lines. To find number of isometries, it definitely have no reflection. I am wondering if there still have three rotations here?
graph here
Yes
... that's the same as drawing them straight
I want to find a n side graph that only has n elements of rotation for isometries, remove symmetry
because I think this graph doesn't have symmetry
What I want is to find only rotation elements as isometries
ok lets stop being wishy washy. This is the graph V = {0,1,2}, E = {01, 12, 20}
correct?
cause if so you're right in that there are reflection symmetries
Yes
Then I want to confirm if isometries only has three rotations, to make sure if there are three rotations in this isometries
You mean there still be a rotational symmetry?
no, reflection symmetries
graphs don't care how you draw the edges that's not the point
So in this graph, symmetry still exist?
I'm struggling to come up with an example of a graph with a cyclic isometry group, I should really know this
every finite group can be realised as the automorphism group of some graph but I'm not sure about isometries
my purpose is to keep the graph only has n elements of rotation, without symmetry. It seems like my graph mustn't have symmetry here because no reflection can be made
ok this is a fundemental misunderstanding in what a graph is
a graph is not a subset of R^2
it's two sets like this
it doesn't matter how you draw it as long as the connections between everything is the same
I think I shouldn't say about a graph, Original question for any positive integer 𝑛
, there exists a planar figure whose group of isometries has exactly 𝑛
elements.
Therefore, I plan to figure out a kind of graph that only has n elements in isometries, so I aim to find out a kind of graph that does have rotation without symmetry
Only, r, r^2....r^(n-1), r^n=e
trivial graph 
alright cadet
Also what do you mean by isometry? Is this wrt some fixed embedding of it into R^2 as a planar graph? Or do you really mean a graph automorphism?
a graph isometry is an automorphism that preserves the distances between vertices iirc
i.e. the length of the shortest path between two mfs
In my graph, all distance between each vertice is the same, just want to make symmetry invalid
Is that not automatically preserved by an automorphism?
take a path of length 3 and the automorphism the swaps the left two nodes
I think that works?
That's not an automorphism since it doesn'g preserve the graph relation though
true cause then there's not an edge from geezer 1 to geezer 3
3-ary tree with 3 layers
automorphism that swaps the two left most branches
no that still preserves distances
hmmm
I can see how it's not necessarily preserved if you embed a graph into a larger graph (since there might be a shorter path using vertices outside of the image). But this should be preserved by an isomorphism.
Since ya know
I think you're right
isomorphic = same up to relabelling
then wtf is an isometry of a graph
isomorphisms bring paths to paths and they preserve their length no?
Right, that's why I am confused to what an isometry is here, since it sounds like we are just talking about the automorphism group.
C_n has cyclic automorphism group
yep, right
I don't think taking the automorphism group of any cayley graph will work
if they're abelian and satisfy some other condition I can't quite recall then the automorphism group of the corresponding graph is something semidirected with C_2
aka not cyclic
I've done some googling.... isometries don't have to be isomorphisms
that for a finite (connected) graph it actually is
they talk about inclusions being isometries 
We're talking about isometries of something on itself though
yeah so they'd just be isomorphisms
the thing is I just don't really care about that problem anymore
I'm much more interested in finding out what groups can appear
Isometries are injective, hence this must be a bijection. And moreover, two vertices are adjacent iff their distance is 1 using the path distance, so it must preserve the graph relation 
Based!!1!
oh
yeah so we can't use a cayley graph, the only boolean cyclic group is C_2
sad!
I think I got it how to construct Z/nZ automorphism groups
oh?
I(G) is the automorphism group of its cayley graph?
yes
Choose some orientation, say clockwise orientation. Then in the n-gon, for every edge AB going in clockwise orientation substitute it for the following
this works right? 
I want to say it would? I think this should kill off the reflections
yeah, that is the idea
btw this uses 8n vertices, I wonder what is the minimal number of vertices required to produce Z/nZ automorphism group
I think I dont need to use like 3 and 4 "towers"
You should be able to justify that any automorphism of this guy restricts to an automorphism of C_n. So we can consider the automorphism group of this guy as a subgroup of D_n. Except it cannot have any reflections. Which makes it Z/n
this is a really sick solution
Don't think that one works. But you can just do one and two length branches in your original, instead of two and three length branches
its like you are substituting the vertices for triangles, so its essentially the same as C_n
yup
I learned the trick before I have to admit
could you get away with 0 and 1?
the 0 concerns me
I don't think so?
it's essentially theorem 1 (page 3 of the pdf)
I realized that if C_n was directed then we would not be able to reflect, so that's it
Like you should be able to reflect and then shift by one, which wouldn't be a rotation
Or uhh, essentially you should have D_n again, since if you consider the branched points as your vertices, it looks a lot like the n-gon again
yeah, shifting the nodes around from the corners to the 0 or vice versa was my concern
ahhhhhh good point
Given G and H two graphs, form another graph X by joining every vertex of G to every vertex of H. Then Aut(X)=Aut(G) x Aut(H), right?
The box product (as opposed to categorical product) will also have similar issues
Substitute every vertex of H by a star of some fixed large degree (you are only supposed to join every vertex of G to the center of every star in H)
I'm only considering finite things
Right. These are just two different graph products you can consider
(The two closed, symmetric, monoidal products on the category of graphs)
Ah, not aware about products of graphs
I am just trying to give every finite group as the automorphism group of a graph
For my question, I think windmill-like stuff should work here
Yeah if you were looking for a graph with just rotations as it's automorphism group, then this works
wait this doesn't work, because stars have automorphisms. But just surround vertices of H by many paths of increasing length, all of large length
anyway
Let $G$ be a $p$-group and suppose there exists $H \leq G$ not normal in $G$. Show that there exists $g \in G$ such that $H^g \neq H$ and $H^g \leq N_G(H)$.
\vspace{1ex}
Let $X := {H^g \mid H^g \neq H}$. From the $G$-action $\rho: G \to \Sigma({\text{subgroups of } G})$ such that $\rho(g) = \gamma_g$ (where $\gamma_g$ denotes the permutation by conjugation) we have $|O_g(H)|=|G|/|N_G(H)|$, so $X=p^k-1$ for some integer $k>1$. Since $|X| \not\equiv 0 \pmod p$ the action $\tau: N_G(H) \to \Sigma(X)$ with $\tau(g)=\gamma_g$ has a fixed point $H^g$, which means that there exists $g \in G$ such that $(H^g)^h=H^g$ for all $h \in N_G(H)$, so for such $g$ we have $H^g \triangleleft N_G(H)$ and $H^g \neq H$. $\square$
Seagull
I found that such a group has to be normal too in N_g(H), is this correct?
What does your notation sigma means
$\Sigma(X)={\text{bijective functions $\phi:X \to X$}}$
Seagull
Do you approve the notation or the poof?
Anyway, this looks great to me
I meant the notation, but the proof seems great!
I knew the reaction would be you wew
Tbh you can afford to just use words rather than writing out notation for the action and then also explaining it in words
I think that'd make it easier to read too
Just my two pennies worth tho
That’s worth two cents
hmm ok thanks, I'll ask my professor about it because he didn't actually prove that the subgroup has to be normal too
So less valuable
if a group is fixed under the action of conjugation then it's normal by definition
or is that not what you mean
Wew now give a character-theoretic proof
It should be suspension
True ig I mean maybe I'd write sigma subscript
But Sigma_n is standard for permutations ig
I'd just write Sym(-)
no, no I don't think I will
I think especially with the notation for this object being X it is easily misconstrued
It was by me lol
I did not realize at first glance it was a group
I don't know much about suspension topologically, just as a functor
and the way u draw the little cone on ur circle
Good
I mean I only really think about suspension as a functor or when it comes up lol
Well
specifically a functor of simplical complexes not like
CW complexes or anything. They have to be general or I won't get it
I don't know what a "gluing" is and I never will
Good
WTF
How do you suspend a simplicial complex
same way you would a CW complex I think
Well like what makes them special
like you just copy everything one dimension up and then collapse via an appropriate quotient
I've learnt about them 
that's the unique feature!
Nice
oh sure lol
yeah, looking at the topological version if you just take geometric realisations it's exactly the same in both cases
which makes sense
hm by simplicial complexes are you working with like
abstract ones
i am interested what they are used for tbh hm
yeah that's the thing right there's like 4 different levels of abstraction on these things 
I'm not working with the most general "set of subsets closed under inclusion" or whatever
they're usually nerves of finite categories for me
yeah they're just sets for me
but I think it would work the same regardless of what you're mapping into
I can't say for certain though
could you help me on my yesterday's question?

Don't randomly ping people for help. You can just ask here and see if someone answers.
Suppose r1, r2, ..., rn are roots for poly of degree n, then we can prove in general that Q(r1, r2, ..., rn) : Q(r1, r2, ..., r n-1)=1, right? because we have Vieta's formula.
anyone here?
Depends on the polynomial, I suppose.
If you take something like x^{n-1}(x-i) and r_1=...=r_n-1=0, then no, it doesn't work. If it's a polynomial over Q, then it does.
But your essential idea is of course correct, if it's a polynomial over a field K, then the product of the roots is the equal (up to sign) to the constant coefficient and is hence in K, so adjoining n-1 many of the roots gets you the n-th for free.
yes, it is in Q, thank you
Here how can it guarantee those are distinct? if a and b are distinct zeros of poly p(x), it is possible that $a^m=b^m$, where $m=p^t$ in this proof.
WT
A fellow Fraleigh enjoyer i see
Fraleighs fantastic for Galois theory
I feel Fraleigh skip a lot of details for the proofs in the field extention chapters.
yeah i mean a little bit
but certainly not to the extent that other textbooks do
besides i feel like textbook authors should leave some parts out to the reader
Tao?
No, the frobenius is injective
Since it's a field homomorphism
i.e. the map x->x^p is injective
huh
does a little bit of weed help anyone else study sometimes?
oh, right, my bad I forget, thank ;you!
math is a drug
I've noticed when Im just a bit high, since i find everything more fascinating I tend to pause for longer on a "simple" point , leading me to think about it at a more fundamental level for longer than normal
instead of having the faster urge to move on
i definitely agree
Tao is not leaving some parts to readers, but leaving entire book to readers

terence tao analysis?
bruhhh im trying to understand first isomorphism thm
the quotient group with kernel or whatever chunks G into bigger chunks that map to the unique things of H
Right??
something like that
am i right or just high guys
Bruh no response
pls respond
This isn't coherent
start with a concrete example
you're not gonna get anywhere trying to explain something you are having trouble understanding
ok
can u help me out here with it pls
with a concrete example
can we do like a back and forth
take G to be Z_4, what are its normal subgroups
i think i do understand the thm intuitively thouhg
why do we have to do normal subgroups
ohh is it cause
ok how about ill get back to u once i do more reading
I didnt read much about normal subgrps but im slowly seeing now why they are relevant and important
bruhh quotient groups are so cool too
bro im learning so much rn
hell yeah
quotient groups are like bruhhh
so cool
right??
Did you guys also find this stuff so cool when first learning it
I feel like im the weird one here
Yeah its like in my actual class i feel like im the only one who finds it so cool
In class i didnt pre read and my prof is not good so i dont learn
quotient groups were hard for me in the beginning
I still don’t entirely understand why they’re called or written as quotients tbh
I was like hm this looks kinda cool but ill learn it on my own later
Cause ur "dividing"
based on the equivalence relation
its like quotient of numbers is like "regrouping" the numbers
its like the same regrouping idea but based on the equivalence relation defined by the "dividing" group
@abstract rock im on the right track?
with what im saying?
I guess it makes sense if you look at it that way
I think of it as identifying a subset of elements as one element
yeah its like that too tho
so in a way you are just dividing a group into subsets of elements with roughly the same properties
yea
That's a good analogy if im reading you right
LETS GOOOOO
damn bro
i can relate hardcore
the first time i was learning about quotient groups i was so fucking confused lmao
i had to read the section 4 times to understand it
but man are they important LOL
soon the first iso theorem will be bread and butter to ya
if R is a free Z module of rank n then R \otimes_Z Q is an n-dimensional Q algebra, right?
What's the Algebra structure
i forgot to say R is a ring
Ah
Then yea that should be right I think
As a module it's definitely an n dim Q-vs
Oh, this might be viewed as a product by localization, right?
Where the multiplicative set is entire Z \ 0
Lol Q15 is so cute
So like whats really the difference between 2b and 2c
Besides now the homomorphism is onto
none.
That's the difference.
Just noting the range lies in {1, -1}
The working is precisely the same
Yeah i guess ur also like one step closer towards making it an isomorphism
i have a homogenous polynomial f(x,y) = ax^3 + bx^2y + cxy^2 + dy^3 with integer coefficients that is irreducible over Q. Is it true that the specialization f(x,-a) is also irreducible?
We know that a is not zero, as if a were zero then f(x,y) would be reducible
So f(x,-a) = ax^3 - abx^2 +a^2cx - a^3d = a(x^3 - bx^2 + acx - a^2d)
So all homomorphic images on cyclic groups will be cyclic right
I believe, if f(x,-a) were reducible over Q, since its a degree three polynomial, there would be a rational root alpha such that f(alpha,-a) = 0.
I THINK this implies that (ax + alpha y) divides f(x,y). And since, a is not zero, this is a nonconstant factor of f(x,y), and thuss f(x,y) is reducible
I dont know how to justify the 'I THINK' step
yes
Question: Let f(x,y) be a homogenous polynomial in two variables with coefficients in a field k. Is it true that the linear polynomial (ax+by) divides f(x,y) if and only if f(a,-b) = 0?
G1 to G2 onto homomorphism with G1 cyclic means that G2 is cyclic, but if instead G2 was cyclic it doesnt imply G1 is cyclic right
no
it doesnt
I was gonna say it does mean G1 has aome sort of subgroup thats cyclic, but then of course all groups do anyway
yes
Thx
So in that second case the homoemophism has to be mapping some cyclic subgroup of G1 to G2
the idea is something gets mapped to the generator of G_2
*a generator
not the, sorry
Yeah
Which also means its mapping a cyclic subgroup of G1
Onto G2
Righ
Its like pairing up some cyclic subgroup of G1 with G2
Yeah, since f(x, -a) still has the same degree as f, if you can factor f(x, -a) then just homogenizing the factors should give a factorization of f
its a wierd kind of homogenization tho
its like sending (x-alpha) to (ax + alpha y)
Right, that minus sign might make things weird
Okay no, it's a little more complicated than I first thought, but maybe it works out the same anyway
Is the minus sign important? It would seem to disappear if you negate y (and also the coefficients b and d, but there doesn't seem to be any sign assumptions about those anyway).
So f(x, y) should be irreducible iff f(x, y/(-a)) is. So you should be able to just some -a = 1
here, does lang mean show that these two, altho sets, are naturally isomorphic if we can consider them as functors in a way? maybe by replacing E with - and considering it as a hom functor?
or does he mean just construct a canonical isomorphism between the two (or maybe demonstrate that there are two homomorphisms which are inverses to each other
because here Lang described these isomorphisms as "natural" but they weren't considered categorical
anyone?
This is the tensor-hom adjunction if I’m reading it right. So yeah these are natural
so like we consider them functors?
I don’t know what the L means but yes these are functors
sorry how exactly would we consider them functors? i know that for the right one we would just consider it as Hom_A(- F_A) right, a functor from the category of A-modules to sets?
and then for the left one would it be Hom_B(B \tensor_A _, F), also from the category of A-modules to Set?
sorry im just tryna get my bearings here
I don’t know what F_A means either I just went on pure pattern recognition
i'll probably just look up a proof online of this given that i don't even know what an adjoint is
damn
It means the functors specified are naturally isomorphic
e.g. L(E, L(F, G)) is describing a functor with three arguments
L(-, L(-, -))
So this would be a functor, at least, R-mod^op x R-mod^op x R-mod → Set
ye so for example how would the functor on the left side be described
See above.
aren't you talking about this tho
i'm asking about $\text{Hom}_B(B \otimes_A E, F)$
okeyokay
OK.
would we just replace everything with -
No
Does L mean linear maps??
Note that B is determined by one of the categories.
Surely
Yeah
yea
Strange notation
$\operatorname{Hom}_B(B \otimes_A -, -) \cong \operatorname{Hom}_A(-, {-}_A)$
Lang moment
Ramify it (extensions) down
These should be naturally isomorphic as functions A-mod^op x A-mod → Set
Yurrrrrr
ok cool, thanks
will attempt
can i ask how you were able to know which arguments to replace with -?
Intuition
damn
Pattern recognition wins again
Ah it’s not quite tensor Hom directly is it
It’s restriction-extension
That’s what _A means
Got it now
No it goes through Hom_B(B, -) being the identity functor
right
As in I agree
It's tensor-hom but composed with this
Not sure what Hom_B(B, -) has to do with anything
$\operatorname{Hom}_B(B \otimes_A -, -) \cong \operatorname{Hom}_B(B, \operatorname{Hom}_A(-, {-}_A)) \cong \operatorname{Hom}_A(-, {-}_A)$, no?
Ramify it (extensions) down
\text is right there
But it's not right 
tfw when it takes 1 hour to understand the problem
Oh ok now I buy it
That’s just how you show restriction-extension are adjoint right
Yeah but ofc you can just write down the isomorphism directly idk
true and also facts
ok so what's the easiest way to do this problem 😭
should i read about adjuncts or whatever
Show that for each map out of the tensor product there’s a unique one into the restriction
what's the restriction?
F_A
oh okay, thanks
can somebody explain to me what he means by writing down the kernel of the map E' --> E? how am i supposed to know what it is? i know that the image is equal to the kernel of E --> E'', does he mean just append a zero at the beginning?
ñ
Use the fact that the first sequence is exact
Also what’s F here
Yeah, that’s the definition of flat then ok
i mean i know that $0 \to E' \to E \to E'' \to 0$ exact implies $F \otimes E' \to F \otimes E \to F \otimes E'' \to 0$ is exact
okeyokay
Because the 0 is on the other side here
So flatness is important
It basically follows from just tacking the kernel of the map onto the end and arguing by flatness that the entire thing has to be exact
if $F \otimes E' \xrightarrow{f} F \otimes E \xrightarrow{g} F \otimes E''$ is exact that doesn't necessarily imply that $f$ is injective right
Seems really weird to not write it down it’s a one liner
okeyokay
Not unless there’s 0s at the end
ah ok
Then it does
algebra is confusing
sorry what do you mean precisely by this
i'm lost
Just Google the proof. I’m in the pub.
british moment
alcohol 
alcohol 
init
incredibly real. last night at a party i had a beer in one hand and rotman pdf in the other
what differs Isaacs "Character theory" from other representation theory books like Kowalski's ?
aight time to chat gpt this hsit
Isaac’s character theory is, unsurprisingly, very focused on character/modular character theory with not much attention paid to the module perspective
\documentclass{article}
\usepackage{amsmath}
\usepackage{amsfonts}
\usepackage{amssymb}
\begin{document}
\textbf{Proof:}
Given an exact sequence:
[
E' \xrightarrow{f} E \xrightarrow{g} E''
]
we want to show that the sequence:
[
F \otimes E' \xrightarrow{F \otimes f} F \otimes E \xrightarrow{F \otimes g} F \otimes E''
]
is exact.
- First, observe that the sequence $0 \to E' \xrightarrow{f} E \xrightarrow{g} E''$ is exact. Since we're given that for every injection $0 \to E' \to E$, the sequence $0 \to F \otimes E' \to F \otimes E$ is exact, we can apply this to the injection $0 \to E' \to E$ to conclude that:
[
0 \to F \otimes E' \to F \otimes E
]
is exact.
-
To show that $F \otimes E \xrightarrow{F \otimes g} F \otimes E''$ is exact, we need to prove two things:
a. $\text{im}(F \otimes f) \subseteq \text{ker}(F \otimes g)$
b. $\text{ker}(F \otimes g) \subseteq \text{im}(F \otimes f)$
a. To prove $\text{im}(F \otimes f) \subseteq \text{ker}(F \otimes g)$, let $x \in F \otimes E$, and let $y = (F \otimes f)(x)$. We want to show that $y$ maps to the zero element under $F \otimes g$, i.e., $(F \otimes g)(y) = 0$. Using the properties of tensor products and the fact that $y$ is in the image of $F \otimes f$, we can write $y$ as $y = (F \otimes f)(x) = F \otimes (f(x))$. Therefore, $(F \otimes g)(y) = F \otimes (g(f(x)))$. Since the original sequence $E' \xrightarrow{f} E \xrightarrow{g} E''$
Oh my golly gosh
what does the adjective "modular" entail? Also, characters are 1d representations, right? It's only 1d representations in Isaacs book? 🤔
Characters are not 1D representations
And modular entails working over a ring with characteristic dividing the order of the group, so the group algebra isn’t semisimple
As a character theorist I am offended 
A character is the trace of a representation. A 1D representation just equals its character, but other representations also have characters
And if you're doing modular representation theory, then I guess characters are defined in a little more complicated way, to avoid them being 0 all the time
How can i show that a normal subgroup of a p-group intersected with the center of the p-group is nontrivial
i think i should be using the class equation and the fact that p-groups have nontrivial center but i’m not sure where to go
I think you can do it like this. Let P be the p-group and N the normal p-subgroup. Then let ||P act by conjugation on the elements of N||
and ||look at the class equation|| 🙂
hm okay let me think about this some
so |P| = |Z(P)| + the sum of the index of P with the stabilizer of N right
since the action is conjugation
yes
yup
it's a bit unclear to me what you mean by "the sum of the index of P with the stabilizer of N", but to finish the proof just recall the last step to prove that p-groups have non-trivial center, it's the same
can I try to say that this is in a bijection with N
i.e. $S_\Omega \to \mbb{N}$ is a bijection
zzzz
try to find the order of an element that acts as a derangement of the set omega
but i'd need to prove its surjective and injective
ie an element where every element in omega goes to a different element
can you explain this
how would you usually find the order of an arbitrary permutation in S_n
this is far from true
lcm of the disjoint cycles' lengths
wdym
im asking if i can construct a bijection to show its countably infinite
I am saying you can't
or is it uncountably infinite?
that's a shortcut, what is that process supposed to represent on the permutation
how come
i'm not sure
do a few examples
like $(1 2 3)(4 5)$ for example? in $S_5$
do you know about cantor diagonalisation?
zzzz
yes i do
try to go for a derangement like i mentioned
so it's pretty much the same
not sure what derangement means sorry
at least to show the cardinality is >= continuum
i explained already
oh
the last step used the fact p divides the index of P and the centralizers of g_i in P as well as divides P to conclude that it must divide the order of the center
i don’t think i’m seeing it
like how it follows from that same argument
you have $\sum_{\mathcal O} |\mathcal O|\equiv 0\mod p$ right? and we know that $|\mathcal O|=p^k$ for some k for every $\mathcal O$
Croqueta
but note that the orbit of 1 (the identity in the group which is also in N) has size 1, therefore there must be at least one other orbit of size 1
im really still suck on this
there being another orbit of size 1 implies that there is more than one element in N that is also in the center?
What's the simplest type of nontrivial permutation? How many of those are there?
if that is the orbit of x with x different from 1, it implies that gxg^{-1}=x for all g in P, which is what you wanted
$\begin{pmatrix} 1 & n \end{pmatrix}$?
zzzz
where $n \in \mbb{N}$?
zzzz
in other words, a transposition?
Yeah, there are infinitely many transpositions, so there you go
so I define a function $f : \mbb{N} \to S_\mbb{N}$ by $f(n) = \begin{pmatrix} 1 & n \end{pmatrix}$?
zzzz
don't I have to prove injectivity to say that $S_{\mbb{N}} \geq \mbb{N}$?
zzzz
Sure, but different transpositions are different, so that shouldn't be a problem
yeah ig
doing exercises a) and b)
I realized
a pattern
but I'm not sure if it's true
I came to the conclusion that for an $n$-cycle $\tau$, $\tau^i$ has order $n$ (or is also an $n$-cycle) if and only if $\gcd(i, n) = 1$
zzzz
is that correct?
Yes
For general groups, g^n has order ord(g) / gcd(n, ord(g))
In this case, you'd need to argue that such powers are still cycles
Fairly trivial question -
Doom was discussing with a friend on Ring Theory proof for this question -
Prove that for a Field, F and a Ring R - a ring isomorphism, if g:F->R is not the zero homomorphism, then it is injective.
Doom's friend proved it using this manner. Here's the question -
Given that we only utilized the non-injectivity and \phi being a homomorphism, can we weaken the given condition to work for any two abelian groups and a homomorphism, assuming the proof is indeed true. (which Doom says it is because homomorphisms preserve identity elements and the inverse operation is well defined)
Kernels of ring homomorphisms are ideals, the only ideals of fields are 0 and the field itself, therefore if the map isn’t the zero homomorphism it must have a trivial kernel and therefore is injective
It looks like your proof is essentially proving “zero kernel => injective”
This proof is incorrect, why can’t g(c1) and g(c2) not both equal 0_R?
It ends up being that yes, this is true (because the map is injective if it’s not 0), but nothing’s been done to justify it.
You have to use the multiplicative structure in order to prove this fact, which is never once used.
As-is, this proof would apply to maps of abelian groups as you noted, but clearly the statement that nonzero maps of abelian groups are injective is false so it tells you that this proof is not correct
They can’t both equal 0 because we’re assuming they’re different towards a contradiction
I agree that this doesn’t hold as is, because I could use this proof to show that any group homomorphism is injective or zero
why can’t g(c1) and g(c2) not both equal 0_R?
Like Ghost mentioned, yea. The assumption is non-injectivity to go towards a contradiction.
You are correct about the non-zero maps of abelian groups are injective being false because we were able to come up with counterexamples. So, what is actually incorrect then?
The trouble with the fake proof is that it has unfolded the assumption "f is not injective" wrongly. It says
Suppose there are c1 and c2 such that c1=c2 but f(c1) != f(c2)
which is absurd for any function, injective or not and homomorphism or not. The assumption should have been
Suppose there are c1 and c2 such that f(c1)=f(c2) but c1 != c2
and then the entire rest of the reasoning breaks down.
(Or rather, it becomes an argument that if f is not injective, then there is something nonzero that maps to zero -- which is in itself true, but not enough to reach a contradiction).
i really feel like i should understand, but i don’t think i do
They are saying that elements of the center are exactly those whose orbits (under conjugation) have size 1.
Ah okay, so you already were taking that to be true
Oh wait

Me bad at math
Why does it simply say it is common zero and reach the conclusion?
Let $p(x)=irr(\gamma, F(\alpha) )$ be the irr-poly in $F(\alpha)$, then $p(x) | h(x)$ in $F(\alpha)$. Since $\gamma$ is the only zero for $h(x)$, it implies $\gamma$ is the only zero for $p(x)$, hence, $p(x)=(x-\gamma)^k$ in $F(\alpha)$.
\
Case(1), if the characteristic of F is 0, then $k\cdot 1\neq 0$, so $p(x)=(x-\gamma)^k$ in $F(\alpha)$ implies $(x-\gamma)$ in $F(\alpha)$ and we are done for this case.
Case(2), if if the characteristic of F is p, and I stuck here.
WT
I don't understand your reasoning at all. h may have other irred components shared with p, why would p contain just the root, or even the root at all
Also if p.does equal (x-gamma)^k then k=1 since the extension is separable
Wait my bad, I misread
But note
h,g only share 1 zero by definition. p as the min poly of gamma divides both h and g, so it divides their gcd
Their gcd is just (x-gamma), since if it wasn't then they would share another root necessarily (if you want you can pass to the algebraic closure to see this, but this is not necessary, namely if their gcd had degree >1 it would have as a root one of the other gamma_i, since its roots are a subset of the roots of g)
The reason it has mult 1 is because both polynomials are irreducible over F
So they are separable, so have distinct roots
Really you only need that g has distinct roots to conclude this
I miss the condition that E is separable in my work, now I think I understand it, due to E is separable, g(x) can be factorized into the product of linear factors with mul=1. Also p(x) divides g(x), so p(x) is the product of some of those linear factors of g(x). But actually p(x) can only have one factor from those linear factors of g(x), due to gamma is the only root for p(x).
I stuck at $(x-\gamma)^k$ due to I didn't use the fact E is separable, hence k=1
WT
thank you very much!
what is PET stands for?
I am incredibly stupid: when it just says "map" here, I assume it is talking about a homomorphism, and not simply an arbitrary mapping?
doesn't matter
surjectivity for homomorphisms is the same as surjectivity for functions
yes, but this is, strictly speaking, not describing a single function
there's only one function from G to G that maps x to x^k for all x
except the notation isn't describing that according to the definitions layed out in the book
consider the function f : G -> G defined by f(x) = x^k
this is a proper, good old function, you can show that it makes sense
now show that f is surjective
now that ^ is unambiguous
what other function did you have in mind
also it's only an homomorphism because G is cyclic. It wouldn't be a homomorphism in any finite group
that I'm aware of.
the rooted arrow is describing mapping a particular element to another particular element. It could be the case that the domain of definition isn't the entirety of G, or a constant function. They've been using "x" as a distinct element of some of these groups too often and it got me paranoid.
usually if people want to define a function on a particular proper subset they will make it clear
so my initial read was "there exists some function f which maps the element x to the element x^k" without reading x as an arbitrary element.
that is the standard meaning that is shortened to x -> x^k
This isn't correct. For some fixed k, the map x |-> x^k is a homomorphism in any Abelian group, not just cyclic ones. Furthermore for specific values of k, it is a homomorphism in non-Abelian groups too. For example if G is any finite group, the map with k = |G| is a homomorphism, trivially.
that moment when you get paranoid about x -> x^k vs x |-> x^k ;-;
i don't think this is really something to be concerned about, it's as i said
and if it's not apparent from context then that's the author's fault
in retrospect, my concern would probably be justified only really if it said that x ∈ G, but meh.
yes abelian ofc
right, so when people want to say that, they will say "let x \in G be fixed ... define y \mapsto f(x, y)"
therefore not any group
it's kinda improper to say "let x \in G, define a map x \mapsto f(x)"
but if someone says that you can probably recognize they mean "define a mapping from G to somewhere by x \mapsto f(x)"
or "define y by y = f(x) for each x \in G"
or something weirder idk
anywho, got it fixed in my own notation now so it's clear (don't ask, it's a mess)
What does a ring denote? Is it like a field?
thing of a ring as generalizing the integers
you have addition and multiplication, additive inverses (a and -a), but you dont have multiplicative inverse
additive identity 0, multiplicative identity 1
including 1 👌
fields are a special kind of ring
blah blah ring vs rng blah blah
I've written a piece of python code that is supposed to give me a list with all the elements of $GL(n, \mathbb{Z}_3)$ which is supposed to have 48 elements, but the code produces 50. I've checked, the determinants are all non-zero and the matrices are actually 50, it's not a problem with the counter. Can anyone help me out here please?
\begin{verbatim}
group = []
def det(x):
return x[0][0]*x[1][1]-x[0][1]*x[1][0]
def diff(A, B):
return [[A[0][0]-B[0][0], A[0][1]-B[0][1]], [A[1][0]-B[1][0], A[1][1]-B[1][1]]]
K=(0,1,2)
for a in K:
for b in K:
for c in K:
for d in K:
if det([[a, b], [c, d]]) !=0:
A=[[a, b], [c, d]]
group.append(A)
for i in range(len(group)):
for j in range(len(group)):
if j!=i and diff(group[i], group[j])==[[0, 0],[0, 0]]:
print(i,j)
for el in group:
print(el[0])
print(el[1], det(el))
print("")
s=0
for el in group:
s+=1
print(s)
\end{verbatim}
Seagull
texit is gonna have a stroke with that one man
use backticks please
what's that?
holy moly
you have addition
you have subtraction
you have multiplication, albeit it isn't necessarily commutative
you don't have division in general
even though multiplication doesn't work exactly the way it does with integers, it's still reasonable to call it multiplication, because you have the distributive property
it's fine, |K| = 3
you can get rid of one of the for loops and the conditional and just set d = bc/a
yandere dev is that you?
do the same thing but put ` three times at the start and end of your message
it's the same key you'd use for ~
rip a = 0 ?
yeah fuck a = 0
also -
Fuck F2, this isn't F2, sign matters
wait what
why would you want d = bc/a
or d = -bc/a
there's 3 possible determinants
I don't care
i care.
I care too
is each matrix in the output actually different
just kidding i dont actually care
honestly, I got things to do too
yeah im reading a book
yeah no I'm debugging my command prompt
I've got to stare at 6-tuples of numbers for a few hours
explain yourself
you first
damn i was just looking at 5-tuples of numbers for a few hours yesterday
why you got your own command prompt u weirdo
yes?
the 4 cycles ensure that don't they?
considering I'm not seeing a single mod 3 in here
trying to run ocaml programs compiled under a linux system to then execute it in a linux system, on a windows machine. Except the program calls for the execution of another file, and does it in the windows cmd because it doesn't expect anything but linux. And the windows cmd doesn't know how to run that file
I have 4, actually
my guesses are you've accidentally got some det 3 matrices in there or two matrices that are equal mod 3
determinant is from K to R isn't it?
windows cmd, cygwin cmd, the other cygwin cmd, the linux VM terminal
no? it's to the base field
crap
it's from M_n(K) to K
determinants are an evaluation of a polynomial expression in K[x] why would it be in R?
now you
I'm having to manually decompose these characters because the representation ring I'm working over isn't freely generated
so I can't just linear algebra it cause the matrices involved are A) not unique B) not square
just let macaulay 2 do it fo ru or something duh
such an #groups-rings-fields moment
yes yes you are right, brain fart of mine duh
but $\begin{pmatrix} 2 & 1 \ 1 & 2 \end{pmatrix}$ is invertible
Seagull
Oh
ok yes thanks
fun thought for you
got it now
can you think of some conditions you could put on a ring to make it a field?
think about Z and Q
Wait, what are the conditions we need for a field
brainstorm
what are all the things you can do in Q and all the things you can do in Z
and see if you can find any differences
A field is a spicy ring, which is a salty group, which is a sweet set.
a + b = b + a
a * b = b * a
a * (b + c) = ab + ac
a * (b * c) = (a * b) * c
(a + b) + c = a + (b + c)
those are associativity, distributivity, commutativity
rip distributivity
for a in Q, does there exist a b such that a*b = 1?
?
Yes
at least write it correctly
ac ofc, sry
No
boom theres your answer
a field is a ring in which every element has a multiplicative inverse
wait is the requirement also that it's an integral domain
i forgot
0•C=1
that follows from every non-zero element having a multiplicative inverse
ah yeah
So Z is a ring and Q a field?
rather trivially, as you can't be an unit and a zero-divisor
Yes
yep
you're probably thinking of the fact that fields have to be commutative
yeah i should've mentioned that
i just habitually assume we're working over commutative rings
Sounds like a dangerous assumption
fun fact: Z and Q are the smallest rings and fields containing 1
F_2:
the real 1
they're the smallest char 0 rings and fields
all other 1? fake
I said the real 1
Z is even better than that, it's inital in the category of rings
and every ring of characteristic n contains Z/nZ
yeh, all other 1s are posers
guys the goal was to not overwhelm him with characteristics
perfection
an improperly phrased statement would be more confusing
when you're dumb and you have to go all the way back to the euclidean algorithm to remember that (k,n)=1 implies that there exists an inverse of k (mod n)
ok, so if we define a function f(x)=x^k for some k coprime with the order n<∞ of our cyclic group G, because (k,n)=1 that implies there exists some a such that ak ≡ 1 (mod n), therefore we can define an inverse function g(x)=x^a. Thus, because f(x) has an inverse, it is a bijection, which must be surjective by the definition of bijection.
euclidian is impressive. But imo Bezout is fairly common
probably is, but I don't know that one atm
technically I only went to the EEA, not the strict EA
Bezout just states (a, b) = 1 iff there exists u,v such that au + bv = 1
which surely you saw somewhere between EA and Z/nZ
probably, just didn't commit it to memory because it follows directly from the EEA
or, rather, I remember, it, just not under the name of Bezout's theorem
now to prove that this statement on cyclic groups is actually true for all finite-order groups.... using Lagrange's theorem?
this statement: for finite cyclic groups, x to x^k is surjective
OH wait, since this mapping implies a cyclic structure, you're observing all cyclic subgroups of G, and because |H| divides |G| that means that anything coprime with |G|=n will also be coprime with |H|, therefore you have split G up into a collection of cyclic subgroups all of which have orders coprime to K, therefore the above surjective argument applies individually to each cyclic subgroup, and since the domain of this mapping is G itself, it forces all elements of G to be put into these cyclic structures, thus every element is accounted for, and it must be surjective.
(these cycles may have common elements from distinct generators, so it's not a partition)
doesn't require Lagrange's ?
the question told me to use it, and tbh once I thought about it, that makes pretty good sense to use
(k, n) = 1 so we have ka = 1 [n] for some a
Then f^a(x) = x^ka = x^1
hence f^a is a bijection. This is only possible if f itself is a bijection
which you may say uses a corrolary of lagrange
yeah, pretty much, just stating that for all subgroups H of G, (k,n)=1 implies that k is coprime to the order of H as well.
seems so much simpler than this for not even more theory
Yours I struggle to follow
¯_(ツ)_/¯
order of H divides order of G for all subgroups H
the union of all cyclic subgroups of (the finite group) G is equal to G
f(x) is bijective on cyclic groups.
[in this particular case, at least] this bijection applied to the union of these cyclic groups is still a bijection, since it's technically a bunch of automorphisms
but what is H ?
any arbitrary subgroup of G, a subset of those subgroups are cyclic.
it was a statement of Legrange
that moment when it tells you that if (k,n)=/=1 it must fail, right before it asks you to prove it
it's honestly fine for cyclic groups
cyclic groups are simple enough that most things about them are easy
yeah, it's pretty simple, I just thought it was funny
especially since I basically proved half the logeq in order to do 25
How do we know what big groups are like? Conjugacy classes, subgroups etc?
Like GL(n, Z_p) and S_n when the order is big
very vague question
Or do we even know them that well?
we know those groups very, very well
S_n especially
I'd argue those two groups are the most well known 
But do we know them form the theory or from computation?
Since there are infinitely many such groups we clearly can't compute something for every single one individually. So you have to use some theory somehow, I guess it comes down to where you draw the line between theory and computation
zxxz21
I guess consider a polynomial h in the kernel, and consider h a polynomial in Y1. Do polynomial division to write h as something times (Y1 - f1) plus something that doesn't depend on Y1. Repeat until you eliminante all Y, then h is something in the ideal (Yi - fi) plus a polynomial in the Xs. Deduce that the Xs part must be 0, because h is in the kernel.
I'm spooked solid
(p is an odd prime)
this would imply 2 divides the order of G, infact it implies that G is C_2^k for some k
wait
odd prime
G is a group of order 2p
oh well that would have been nice to know lil nerd
because it seems like it is
G is indeed a group and all elements are either order 1 or 2
if that's the case then it cannot be of size 2p with p odd
because of this
which seems like something they really should have mentioned before hand because not knowing this really does make it look like a counter example
That shouldn't be possible, due to Sylow.
ok then, due to lagrange+what I've said above
Lagrange would be happy enough with that, I think.
It n²=1 for all n, then the group is abelian because abab = 1 = aabb, and you can cancel the leftmost and rightmost letters on each side.
If you have the structure theorem for f.g. abelian groups, that ought to finish it.
i do not
Hrmmm.
no need for the structure theorem
say this n^2 = 1 group is generated by a_1, ..., a_n
then argue inductively that G = <a_1>G_1 = <a_1><a_2>G_2 = ...
these all commute with one another (and are obviously disjoint) as you've just shown so the entire group is a direct product of C_2s
I feel like we've gotten a tad off topic though 
Finite groups tend to be that.
Hi, I would like to show that for distincts f_1, f_2...,f_n in Hom(G,K*) and a_1,a_2,...a_n in K, not all equal to 0, there always exists g in G such that sum(a_if_i(g))=0, does someone have an idea? I havent got any clue (G is a group and K a field)
Hey guys
So part of my homework this week is like this
Prof wants to do “coloured tables” like that on the board
Showing that group of cosets idea
Quotient/factor group thing
But, one question was do a coloured table for {e, (2,3)} , that subgroup of S3
But that subgroup isnt normal
And the multiplication of cosets idea was shown to be well-defined and it was shown that that operation with the cosets formed a group if the subgrp was normal
Anyone?
Yeah like this doesnt make sense right
U can see he said “do coloured tables for S3, cosets of {e,u1}” (u1 is (2,3))
The other two examples make sense cuz both of those subgroups are normal
yeah that's very suspicious
Right?
just the fact that left and right cosets don't coincide will make that an absolute mess
could someone help with this problem
Hmm, what even is R[Z/nZ]? The group ring of the cyclic group of order n?
I'm not really sure, I'm not very good at finding representations
or more like I don't even know how to do it
I need to find like Z/nZ -> Gl(R) right?
I asked because I don't even understand what the question is asking (so you might be ahead of me ...)
Wouldn't it just be like, R[Z/n]-module are the elements r + rg + rg^2 where g^3 = 1?
i have this
yeah, but the module structure is given by a specific scalar multiplication by elements in R[Z/nZ] determined by the corrisponding representation
there's a canonical way of representing C as a 2-dimensional matrix algebra over R, use this to find the 2 dimensional irreducible R-reps of Z/nZ
or, as the hint suggests, take the matrices corrisponding to a rotation by 2pi/n
so I can use the rotation matricies right? and then I rotate them by like m2pi/n degrees to get the various 2d representations?
yur
what about 1d representations
would that just be the identity?
and how do endomorphism algebras work? What does that even mean
it would be the identity unless n is even
because you do have 2nd roots of unity in R
-1...
what does roots of unity mean in R?
the same thing it means in any ring?
just roots of unity with only real partS?
o
I see
so if n is even we have 2 1-d representations?
yeah
either the identity or like reflection
so if n is even we have a subgroup Z/(n/2)Z in it, then the one dimensional would be the lift of the non-trivial rep of (Z/nZ)/(Z/(n/2)Z)
what does lift mean?
doesn't matter then

