#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 175 of 1
"So you can't necessarily realize the isomorphism by mapping alpha to beta no. You may have to map alpha to something else
"
sorry, when you say map alpha to something else, could you please give an example? do you mean to map generator to non-generator for the arbitrary extension field case? and keep F fixed at the same time?
Like in the Q(sqrt(2)) = Q(2sqrt(2)) example. You can't map sqrt(2) to 2sqrt(2), but you can map it to sqrt(2)
so we get this contradiction?
it might help to think about how it maps the irreducible polynomial over Q, phi(x^2-2)=phi(x)^2-2 you can only map roots to roots
this is due to there is only one isomorphism Q to Q, which is the identical map, right?
you should try to prove it
Ignoring well-defined is good for your mental wellbeing
Ignoring well-defined-ness lets you prove nonsensical statements. Don't ignore it.
do you mean this?
Hi, guys. I know that for a field extension K \subset L, the transcendental degree of L over K is well defined if the degree finite or countable infinite. Because of the swapping lemma
but how can i show the transcendental degree is still well defined if it is uncountable infinite?
exactly, it means I don't have to worry as much
I think you just use the same argument you would for vector spaces. Like replace K by its algebraic closure in L, and let B and B' be two transcendence bases.
If |B'| < |B|, then express each element of B' as a polynomial in elements of B. Since a union of |B'| finite sets is at most |B'| there is some b in B that doesn't appear in any of these polynomials. Then write b as a polynomial in elements of B'. Write each of the elements out as polynomials in B, boom that's a polynomial relation, so B is not a transcendence basis.
Hmm, you may have to modify it slightly like
You know L is algebraic over K(B), so for each element of B' consider it's minimal polynomial over K(B). Then gather every variable that apears in a coefficients of such a polynomial into a set B''. Like before B'' is a proper subset of B, and K(B' u B'') is algebraic over K(B'') and L is algebraic over K(B'), thus L is algebraic over K(B''). Then take the minimal polynomial of an element of B and contradiction!
Thank you so much! I think i feel your idea!
my professor wrote in her notes that p-groups are not the semidirect product of two of their subgroups. It should be true for finite cyclic p-groups but doesn't D8 work as a counterexample? Am I going insane?
D₈ isn't cyclic though
I know
Don't know what your teacher meant, but there are loads of p-groups that are semidirect products
she probably forgot to add cyclic
Wrong channel
ty
For people in grad school, doing masters or phds etc, how much more difficult does math get?
To understand the theory , working on problems etc
I really like learning math but im curious if im “good” enough to be able to do gead school
Understanding the theory doesn’t get harder, sometimes it even gets easier because you’re more familiar with the objects the theory is about
For me, the main difficulty with working on problems is finding where to start/even knowing what questions to ask, cause unlike undergrad nobody knows what the answer should be
Another new difficulty is that you have to choose which problem to work on. Hard to say how difficult a problem is if no one has solved it before.
But yeah, having some patience/perseverance is probably better measures for how you handle grad school than wheter you're "good enough"
I’m doing ok in my phd not because I’m particularly intelligent (see any of my posts in here or #advanced-algebra) but instead because I am stubborn and refuse to give up
Thats very insightful thank you
Yeah thats what I admittedly need to get better at
If im stuck on a problem i get pretty stressed out and get obsessive over it
Im not very chill
I find it hard to “detach”
yea i get that bro, i find that it helps to take breaks/force myself to take breaks
because when you get frustrated it's harder to think and it's not productive
I'm confused about this problem, wouldn't there only be one elementary divisor that is a power of p since the primes must be distinct?
Or 0 if a is greater than the power of p in the elementary divisors
What do you mean by "the primes must be distinct"
Like if M = (Z/2)^2 over Z for example, then n1 is 2
We had this result from class
I meant that each p_j is distinct
But M doesn't have to be equal to R/d
Oh I see
We were first decomposing into invariant factor form and then into elementary divisor form, so there can be repeat primes
name of bookk ?
these are class notes but we're using D&F
here, would the content be (1 - i)?
also would an example of an ideal in Z[x] that can't be generated by 2 elements just be (x)?
<@&286206848099549185>
takin that back, yes thats a fine enough example
lol these questions got me trippin
liek the answers seem too simple
the other one was give an example of a prime ideal in Z[x] which is not maximal
and i just said (1 + x) lol
Eh I don't think this is really fair lol
wdym lol
Generated by 2 elements presumably means generated by <= 2 elements
Or you can also do (x, -x)
well maybe he meant something different by 2-elements with the hyphen im not sure
yeah....
if you remove the hyphen the question makes sense as a question
(x) is an ideal which can be generated by 2 elements
wait yeah
Otherwise this is trivial, again just take 0 lol
wait wat
i didn't know that
I mean really when we say generated by n elements we only care about <= n elements
Unless they say smth about minimal generating sets
But yes it turns out for Z[x] there are ideals with minimal generating set of size n for all n
hmm ok
and then for c i'm assuming it's a minimality argument
choose two elements of the maximal ideal with minimal degree
ah yes, the non-prime ideals
Hm I'd not do that but maybe it works fine lol
I would consider the preimage in Z, which will still be prime
For example
oh huh ok
yeah division algorithiim doesn't seem to work
what does lang mean by reduce mod p for any prime p?
change the coefficients from being in Z to Z/p
ah i see thanks
also what precisely does lang mean by "substituting elements of k for s_0, ... s_n - 1
Hello
To show that H = ⟨id,(12)(34),(13)(24),(14)(23)⟩ is a subgroup of S_4
I need to show stability by product
but I don't understand why
(12)(34)(13)(24) = (1234)
(12)(34)(14)(23)= (1324)
why (1234) for first and (1324) for second ?
I need help to understand that
how to find the "=" in (12)(34)(13)(24)
(1 2)(3 4)(1 3)(2 4) = (1 4)(2 3)
Start with an arbitrary element, say 1, and apply each cycle to it, starting from the right. The first cycle fixes 1. The second sends 1 to 3. The next sends 3 to 4. The last fixes 4. Hence 1 is mapped to 4 by this product of cycles.
Now we go through the same process for 4.
Since 4 is mapped to 1(work it out), we have that the RHS contains the cycle (1 4) in its disjoint cycle decomposition.
Now do it for 2
I don't understand "The first cycle fixes 1. The second sends 1 to 3"
The first cycle is that ? (1 2)
and the second is that ? (3 4)
@lusty marlin
From the right
Yes, (2 4) is the first cycle from the right
Exactly, 1 isn't part of the cycle
Which is why applying it to 1 gives us 1 itself
So 1 is called a 'fixed point' of the permutation (2 4), and hence is said to be 'fixed' by it.
What do you mean by "Hence 1 is mapped to 4 by this product of cycles."
Now we go through the same process for 4.
Since 4 is mapped to 1(work it out), we have that the RHS contains the cycle (1 4) in its disjoint cycle decomposition.
Now do it for 2
I don't understand
you say "now we go the same process for 4"
and after "do it for 2"
Ok, I don't have time for this. Hopefully someone else can explain it to you.
Ok thank you
I suggest you go through whatever textbook/notes you were using again, and try to understand how these things work.
(12)(34)(13)(24)
Start with (1 2)(3 4). This operation exchanges 1 and 2, then 3 and 4. After this operation, we have (2 1)(4 3)
Then I apply (1 3). This means I exchange 1 and 3.After this operation, we have (2 3)(4 1)
And (2 4), which exchanges 2 and 4. After this operation, we have (4 3)(2 1)
??
First thought is to consider R as a R-module, and look for the right subgroup to consider
see what it means for that subgroup to be an R-submodule (a left ideal)
I don't find (1 2)(3 4)(1 3)(2 4) = (1 4)(2 3) ..... for permutation cycles
1 -> 3 -> 4
2 -> 4 -> 3
3 -> 1 -> 2
4 -> 2 -> 1
so (1 2)(3 4)(1 3)(2 4) = (4, 1)(2 1) no ?...
why ( 1 4 ) (2 3) ???
right, so subrings of R as an R-module are left ideals. So that means I*r is in I right?
I thought about this earlier, but I wans't sure how this was related to the problem
So this statement isn't true for R unless every subring is an ideal right?
and this is only true for Z or Z/n?
2 gets sent to 4, and 4 gets sent to 3 so (2 3) is product
Can someone explain why C[Z/3] is isomorphic to C[x]/x^3-1?
is it because like x^3-1 is 0 if x \in Z/3? or something
More specifically I'm curious if anyone can explain how this works
1 -> 3 -> 4
2 -> 4 -> 3
3 -> 1 -> 2
4 -> 2 -> 1
Where do you see 2 sents to 4 ????
1 sent to 4
2 sent to 3
3 sent to 2
4 sent to 1
2 to 4 to 3
4 to 2 to 1
3 to 1 to 2
1 to 3 to 4
compose and u got (2 3)(4 1)
look at where each loop starts and ends
(4 1)(2 1) would be simplified to (2 4 1) im pretty sure
Let Z/3 be generated by x, then x^3 = 1, because Z/3 is cyclic or order 3. hence C[Z/3] is iso to C[x]/(x^3-1)
You know that these are one dimensional as given in the question, so you have to consider maps from Z/3 into GL_1(C) = C*. If our map isn’t just sending everything to 1, then each non identity element of Z/3 must map to an element of order 3 in C*, aka a third root of unity
Thanks, I figured this problem out eventualy.
Can you help explain how kronecker product is related to tensor product? Like how can you derive it from properties of tensor products?
This is the problem I'm trying to solve. I understand how this works using kronecker. And I have a vague idea of how the tensor product relates to it. Because for like A(e1) x B(e1) we get (a,c) x (e,g) which populates the first column of the matrix as ae, ag, ce, cg like the kronecker product does. But I don't understand why that's the case I guess
or maybe I do
I don't really know
If you have matrices M, N in GL(V), GL(U) then M (x) N is the corresponding map in GL(V (x) U) such that the obvious diagram commutes
Specifically it’s the unique map out of the tensor product corresponding to the map (M, N) out of V x U
for what I tried to do, (a,c) (x) (e,g) can be thought of as a vector of elements ae, ag, ce, cg right?
Now that I’ve read the actual problem it’s far easier, Tr(A) = a+d, Tr(B) = e+h, Tr(A (x) B) = ae+ah+de+dh = (a+d)(e+h)
why is Tr(A (x) B) = ae + ah + de + dh?
It's what I said no ??
don't understand why you repeat
Follows quickly from the definition of the kronecker product, A(x)B is a 4x4 matrix with the upper left 2x2 being eA, upper right being fA, lower left being gA, lower right being hA. So for the trace we don’t care about upper right/lower left as they don’t intersect the main diagonal, so Tr(A(x)B) = Tr(eA)+Tr(hA) = eTr(A)+hTr(A) = Tr(A)Tr(B)
right, but we don't have kronecker product defined in my class, only tensor product
so what are you even confused about
The tensor product of two matrices is the kronecker product, it makes no difference
Because of this
I ask you, why : (1 2)(3 4)(1 3)(2 4) = (1 4)(2 3)
with that
because if you start at one you will end at 4. and if u start at 4 u end at 1 so (1 4) is a loop
ok so with the end we were supposed to look at the image of the basis elements. e1 (x) e1 gets sent to (a,c) (x) (e,g) right? Why does this construct the first column of the kronecker product?
The real reason I’m skirting around just explicitly computing everything is because I’m on my phone
I'm trying to understand it a bit more tangibly, because I don't really undrestand the more abstract definition you gave
that's fair haah
thanks
Because that’s how matrices work! The image of the first basis vector is the first column
Just because there’s a funny (x) doesn’t change that
ah ok, so (a,c) (x) (e,g) is like equivalent to the column vector (ae, ag, ce, cg) by like distributivity right?
I was kinda just unsure if that was allowed
all good
Do you mean (x) or just x here
(0,1)(x)(0,1) |-> (a,c)(x)(e, g) yeah I agree
'i think I feel ok about this now
Do you mind explaining this proof? How does the base case work haha
I think here you’re implicitly using the isomorphism between R^2 (x) R^2 and R^4 but that’s fine
Proving maschke’s theorem is not something I can do off of the top of my head. I don’t think that proof is anywhere near sufficient to convince me
It’s assuming indecomposable <=> irreducible which is not certain
I didn' tknow the name so I can look more into it now haha
Take for example, the F_2[Z/2]-module corresponding to the representation sending the generator of Z/2 to the matrix (1,1)(0,1) over F_2, this clearly has a subrepresentation(the first column of the matrix (1,0) is fixed) but cannot be decomposed as the sum of this subspace with another subspace
You won’t need to worry about this because you’re working over characteristic 0 but it’s still something that needs to be addressed
oh interesting
I see
I have my midterm in 2 days, do you have any good advice on how to study algebra?
I feel like I didn't pick up good study habits in algebra 1 haha
Nothing in particular that wouldn’t just be general advice
okie
The base case is just that a 1 dimensional vector space doesn't have any nontrivial subspaces. For the induction case they use that any submodule is a direct summand (which they presumably have proven earlier?)
As wew says, this is not something obvious. Typically you would prove it by defining a G-invariant inner product on your representation, and then taking orthogonal complement with respect to it
is C* the conjugate transpose when looking at modules of k[G]?
because they are described by G -> C* right?
The multiplicative group of complex numbers is what I would think.
oooh
I see
so we have the example in our notes of C[G] where G is the dihedral group of odd order. How would I classify all of the simple modules of it?
what does it mean to map D_n -> C*?
So a representation is a map G -> GLn(C) where n is the dimension. So a map Dn -> C* would be a 1-dimensional representation of Dn
ah ok
So there would also be 2d reprsentations but those won't be G -> C*
just G -> GL2(C)
So you can classify the 1-dimensional representations, just by computing these homomorphisms.
To classify as irreducible ones, do you know about characters?
not really
Woah, Dn -> C* is a representation?
Hmmm, do you know that every irreducible representation is a summand of the regular module?
Alright, then you start looking for representations, and then whenever you find them you mod out all the summands of it in the regular module. When you've killed everything you know you have all of them
Well, there you have your classification
ohhhh there are many a whimiscal and mystical manner in which you may find a bounty of representations
lol
number 1 is to just consider any obvious group action associated with your group
dihedral groups for example have a very obvious group action on an n-gon, giving you lots of 2 dimensional representations
A_4 on the tetrahedron etc. etc.
wow
S_n on a set of size n
that one in particular gets you the permutation matrices
finding irreducibles is a bit more tricky and that's where I'd just pass to character theory
Is this what you learn in representation theory?
but there's methods like lifting and inducing representations
So let's say I have G = Z/3 and I want to look for it's representations over Q
I need to take the course
over Q
oh NO
you don't no
sad
I have the identity map?
This is representation theory of (finite) groups yes
you always have the trivial representation
right
and also basically compact groups 
..maybe I should have learnt this in undergrad algebra course
Like I have this theorem that I want to use
yeah this is Artin-Wedderburn decomposition
this tells me the dimension I'm looking for right?
very standard
If you have an undergrad algebra course called "representation theory"
dim(Q[G]) in this case is 3
and we already have 1
so we need 2 more right?
does that mean it's 2 more 1-d representations? Since 2 can't be squared? Or does the e_i take account here
This gives vibe of "introduction to algebra".
we definitely don't have anymore 1-d representations
ohreally?
yeah
yup, then we can just map our generator to it
there should be one cause SL_2(Z) is a subgroup of GL_2(Q) and it has elements of order 6
what it actually is??? not sure
if it had a rational eigenvalue there would be a Q-subspace fixed under the action of G
Eigenspace is precisely the subspace fixed under the action, if I recall correctly
As always, I can be wrong
yeah, so the action by G is multiplying by our (0, -1)(1, -1) matrix
rigrht
if this had a rational eigenvalue, then there would be a subspace (the eigenspace, as you said) that would be fixed under that multiplication
hence a 1 dimensional subrep
ah
So now we have dimension 2, but we need to divide it by e_i right, so e_i is the dimension of the endomorphism of this representation?
what does the dimension of the endomorphisms mean?
well we can see that e_i should be 2 because we need 1+2^2/e_i = 3
the endomorphisms of a module are themselves a module
right, I remember proving that. How is dimension defined in this case? Amount of elements in the basis?
I remember there isn't a definition of dimension for moduels right?
just as it's always definied
oh ok
ah
I've gtg now but I hope this as helped
Is there ever an instance that a Cayley table can be used as a proof?
would you accept a truth table as a proof in logic?
Idk, it has been like a year and a half since I looked at them... I didn't devote too much time to em anyway
Wouldn’t you?
idk I'd say they're on the same level of legitimacy here
I probably would
unless the specification was to not use one
Sure, if you want to prove that two groups are isomorphic, and you write down both Cayley tables and they're the same. That would be a proof.
A very tedious proof, but yk whatever
Like you want to use the classification of the irreducible representations of Dn you just did, or you want it from first principles?
going off the idea that $\mathbb{C}[x]/(f(x))$ determines a $\mathbb{C}$-space of dimension degree $f(x)$ and extending the definition for $\mathbb{C}[[x]]/(f(x))$ for deg $f(x)=\infty$ , how would one determine what the infinite-dimensional vector space would look like? I was thinking about the example of $f(x)=exp(x)$ since then we can leave out questions about open sets.
Honestly I don't expect there's going to be any nice way to describe this
nastydasty
yeah I'm trying to think of a clever way to do this
I mean C[[x]] is a complete archimedean ring right
or valued ring
shit that's not correct
C[[x]] is the completion of C[x] wrt a particular metric is what I mean
So I'm wondering if we can use this to say a particular thing about the quotients in general, but I can't see it clearly
However you should be aware that any series in C[[x]] with a nonzero constant term is a unit, so with f(x) = exp(x) you have the trivial quotient.
well a nicely tamed version of C[[x]] would be constructed with a metric in mind right?
what about exp(x)-1 then, to remove the unit
I really couldn't say 🤷
again I sincerely don't think there's gonna be a nice answer here
At least not an entirely algebraic one. This feels like you could tackle it via some complex analysis.
the cosets themselves would just be offset copies of whatever surface e^x-1 makes I think?
I'm thinking of these like coordinate rings of varieties but like
bigger
cause they're not polynomials
i had an idea that maybe you oculd up with an inner product against these offset copies
Yeah it would be like coordinate rings of varieties with some sort of crazy topology. My idea is that we have to guarantee that these series converge
as a sort of bound between the zeroes
then again, I doubt e^x-1 is maximal cause C[[x]] is local
so any zariski-analog would be boring
but this sounds promising
i don't work with rings much so do you mind explaining what you mean
I need to go do work, but put simply my kernel-of-an-idea is that we could treat these formal series as functions if we have some kind of guarantee that they converge, which might be enforceable via a topology on a space.
But I kinda doubt 🙊
well there's a usual topology on the space of analytic complex functions, which should be our space
hmm, the only paper i find about this only shows there's a nice choice (sup seminorm) for nice domains (nice being pseudoconvex) (https://arxiv.org/pdf/0707.1876.pdf)
In C[[x]] any polynomial with nonzero constant term is a unit, so any polynomial is just x^n times a unit. Hence every ideal is equal to (x^n) for some n.
So such quotients just look like C[x]/x^n
but the question remains not nice for polynomial with zero constant term without a topology then?
Nothing they said involves anything about a constant or a topology
What do you mean? There's no topology involved
oh i misread, apologies
yeah I forgot that fun fact earlier
I knew there was something about (x^n) but I forgot
I guess if you introduce topology, like only consider the subring of those power series where things converge it might get interesting
A definition of automorphism. Can I say automorphism is a definiton when there is a function f from G1 to G1, where we map g1 in G1 to g2 in G1, g1 may equivalent to g2 or g1 not equal to g2?
that was my hope, that when you only care about the functions that converge say uniformly you get atleast a reasonably wierd frechet space over all such f C[[x]]/(f(x))
for example exp(-x^2) would be nice
although you're bringing up equivalences so you could be talking about automorphisms/autoequivalences of categories
but i dont know how to approach building up the space
so I writes from G1 to G1, and I want to make sure if automorphism refers to map an element in G1 to another element in G1?I assume G1 to G1 means a specific isomorphism and also means a group to itself
g2 does not need to be conjugate (which is probably what you mean by equivalent) nor equal to g1
take the automorphism of Z/3Z sending the generator g to g^2, for example
so if both g1 and g2 are all in G1, then it finishes the automorphism right?
Everywhere convergent power series are just entire functions. So you could look into the ring of entire functions, but it's probably a wild beast
I actually feel kind of confused about what does conjugate mean, does that means like if a and b are in G1, then we can map into the result such as a^-1ba?
what's a good place to start learning about that ring? i've already some background complex analysis
Then you're probably more equiped than me 😛
But yeah, idk. Maybe ask #advanced-analysis or something
All it is is a isomorphism $\phi$ such that $\phi \colon G \rightarrow G$. There's nothing more to it
WewGhostTbh
I feel like you're confusing yourself with all this g_1, g_2 nonsense
if phi doesn't map into G, or isn't an isomorphism, it isn't an automorphism
hmm, i'll think on it after i gather some ideas
$a, b \in G$ are conjugate if and only if there exists some $g \in G$ such that $gag^{-1} = b$ yes
thanks!
WewGhostTbh
I got it, really appreciate that!
g1 and g2 are just element that I assume in G1, it can also be named as a and b. I just want to confirm if it is correct to map an element from G1 to another element in G1, like if G1 is D4, and it maps from r^2->r^3, is it still be considered as automorphism
that specific map will not be an automorphism because it won't be a homomorphism
you're mapping an element of order 2 to an element of order 4
an actual example would be r -> r^3
and fixing s
lemme double check that actually
because that doesn't satisfy isomorphism if the order is not consistent ?
if f is a homomorphism then the order of f(x) must divide the order of x
yeah that map works
another good example of automorphisms are conjugation maps, f(a) = gag^-1 for some fixed g
If f(r^2) maps to r^3, then f(e)=r^2, which can't be correct, so I at least need to make sure that e maps to e here, is that correct?
understood, it satisfies preservation and it is also bijective
yeah, hopefully you can see why f(ab) = f(a)f(b) there
f(ab)=f(a)f(b)=ga(g^-1g)bg^-1->gabg^-1
yup!
Another question is can I treat r1,r2,r3 the same rotation r while treating f1,f2,f3 as same reflection, I got the final answer f^3=f and it reaches reflection, does it make sense?
Sort of. Like you have a homomorphism Dn -> Z/2 that maps rotations to 0 and reflections to 1. So applying this all rotations become "the same" and all reflections become "the same". But if course the final answer doesn't have to be f, it could be some other reflection
In this question, is it possible to mean r1 is not same as r2 while f1 is not same as f2?
Because in that case I get r1r2r3^-2*f1f2f3, but it seems to have no answer of whether it is rotation or reflection, I even can not make sure how many times does the graph rotate in which direction, but reflection should always be the same, do you think this idea is correct?
Given a ring R, is every subgroup S of the additive group of R an ideal of R?
Usually not. That would have made the definition of ideal a bit redundant I guess.
Every ideal is obviously a subgroup of the additive group, but I don't know about the inverse
Think about a counterexample
That fails for fields of char 0
Like in very specific cases you can have every subgroup be an ideal. Like R =Z and R=Z/n
I think in every other case it should fail
I'm not sure why you say there's no answer about whether it's a reflection or rotation. It's a reflection, by the argument from before. I'm not sure which idea your asking is correct either
I mean if r1,r2,r3 are all different, f1,f2,f3 are all different, it can't give the exact answer, so I can regard all ri and all fi to be the same right?
Do you know what n is?
it should be 3 from context
you just need it to be some f or some r
Like the ri are rotations and the fi are reflections, so they're "the same" in the sense that their all rotations/reflections
Other than that I don't know what you mean
You mean in Z/n? Then n is a (positive) integer
just about if r1=r2=r3, f1=f2=f3, if that's correct, then I get conclusion about f1,f2 or f3, which is just reflection, that's correct right?
I mean the answer is the same no matter what n is
oh, you're right, I misread it
If their all equal then you get a reflection just like you would if they weren't equal, yes
Imagine applying these rotations and flips to a paper cutout of the polyhedron. Specifically, one where you drew a big A on one side of the paper and a B on the other.
Every time you rotate, you stay on the same side. Every time you flip, you swap sides. The question is, in a sense, asking which side you end up on eventually. If it's a rotation, you should end on the same side you started on. If it's a reflection, you should end on the other side.
in working in $\mathbb{Z}[x]$, why does this approach not work to show that any ideal generated by $n$ elements is principal? say we're considering the ideal $(f_1(x), f_2(x), \dots, f_n(x))$. take some element of minimal degree $h(x)$, and divide $f_1(x)g_1(x) + \dots + f_n(x)g_n(x)$ by $h(x)$. then you get $g_i(x)f_i(x) = h(x)q_i(x) + r_i(x)$ where $0 \leq \text{deg}r_i < \text{deg}g_i$, so all the $r_i$s are zero since $g_i$ is of minimal degree. hence each summand can be written as a multiple of $g_i$ and hence the ideal is generated by $g_i$
okeyokay
How do you know you can divide stuff by h
Hence why the proof doesn't work
yeah but why is he trying to prove this at all
cause I presumed it was an exercise?
trying to show that every maximal ideal in Z[x] is generated by two elements and i wanted to try something lmao
like
i'm assuming that it's generated by n > 2 elements
and trying to derive a contradiction or smt idek lol
The confusing part is that the question doesn't tell me if r1=r2=r3, so we can just considering the case when r1=r2=r3, f1=f2=f3, then we end up on reflection. Otherwise, we discuss if it's on the same side we started on, then it is rotation. If end up on different side, then reflection. Is that true?
They may not be equal. They probably aren't.
if it's on the same side we started on, then it is rotation. If end up on different side, then reflection.
Yes.
Ok, I think I got it, really appreciate that
Just grab a sticky note, treat it as a square, and try this for yourself
Is it like an exercise, or are you doing on your own little quest?
there's a swag way to do it
what else do you know about maximal ideals
other than they are the head honchos
lol
i mean now i'm quotienting out by it
and i know that it's a field
which has no nontrivial proper ideals
yur
the way I'm viewing it is, we need to quotient Z by something to get F[x] for some field F, and then quotient by an irreducible polynomial to get some field F'
okeyokay
i forgot all of my field theory and stuf fholy shit
Can you please stop prefacing your questions with some variation of "I'm stupid"
that's a pretty boring example
this is just F_p
assuming you meant F_p[x]/(x-1)
oh yea meant that my bad
degree 1 polynomial => degree 1 field extenstion so you don't go anywhere
ok wow this proof was nowhere near as easy as I remember it being wtf
this shit is kind of cracked
What y’all trying to do
krull dimension of Z[x] is 2
Maximal ideal has 2 gen?
yea
aka maximal ideals are of the form (p, f(x))
say we have some polynomials f_1, ... f_n and a maximal ideal I = (p, f_1, ..., f_n) , then Z[x]/(p, f_1, ..., f_n) = F_p[x]/(f_1, ..., f_n) = F_q for some q by maximality. So F_p[x]/(f_1, ..., f_n) = F_p[x]/(g) for some irreducible polynomial g, as F_p[x] is a PID.
I got this far and tried to use the corrispondence theorem to shoehorm (g) backwards but it didn't work
i thought c wasn't going to be so bad judging off of a and b
Well, if your thing just has a polynomial and no integer, you’d be able to stick some integer in there and violate maximality
ok but that doesn't invalidate the cases of (p, f, g)
why is algebra so hard 😭
this guy on stack exchange is taking localisations which is insane
So gotta be a prime so it stays integral, then you do def get F_p[x]/(f’), but there’s maybe something like
f’ = g’
my other classes need to stop having "modules" as a section on the canvas, it's giving me PTSD
like by correspondence I can get that (f_1, ..., f_k) is a subideal of (g) in Z[x] which isn't very useful
Can’t you get there’s a sub ideal in the opposite direction
indeed less trivial
ok this localisation looks completely unneeded. Passing to Q[x] to show that (f) isn't maximal is deranged
Why doesn't it work? Doesn't this just show your ideal equals (p, g)
if you could explain how I'd be very happy
did I get the correspondence theorem backwards again
ideals of R/I are J containing I
(g) maximal
yeah ok...? still not following
So (g) = (f_1, …, f_n) over da F_p[x]
It's the correspondence theorem. The ideals containing p are in one two one correspondence with ideals of R/p
I think
yeah so there are no ideal that contain (f_1, ..., f_n) and (g) in F_p[x], completely agree there
how does this show that they're equal
soceity if F_p[x] was local
Well, (f_1, …, f_n) <= (g)
I mean, g is literally the thing that makes it a principal ideal inF_p?
So (p, g) is an ideal, which corresponds to the ideal (g) in Fp[x]. (p, f1, ...) is an ideal which corresponds to (g) in Fp[x]. So by the correspondence theorem, they are the same ideal
The tricky part I guess is showing that an ideal that doesn't intersect Z can't be maximal
well no that's the easy part
The flames of Babylon
(p, f, ..., f_n) strictly contains (f, ..., f_n) and is proper
Is it obvious that it's proper?
yeah it's pretty obvious
the (f, ... ,f_n) part can't access the 0th degree term
and the (p) part is obviously proper
probably something to do with Z[x] being a valuation ring
I mean it's clearly not for all p, but I guess since there are infinitely many primes it's fine
actually yeah, it's because Z[x] is a valuation ring
it's this fuckin subtle bullshit that's the hard part
The isomorphism theorems strike again
I still don't really understand how we're concluding R/I \cong R/J => I =J but I'll just take ur word on it
my ring theory is shit anyway
I don’t think we’re quite concluding that
yeah thanks i'm going to look back at this when i return to this problem
lol i thought it was an easy question and was getting mad at myself but turns out it's not ig
I mean it's just "there is a bijection between ideal of R/p and ideals of R that contain p"
So looking at ideals that contain p is the same as looking at ideals of R/p
yeah, that's the correspondence theorem, I'm aware
and then R/p is a field so the only ideals of R that contain p are p and R, which can also be seen by maximality
Right, but there's nothing else going on
No R/p is Z/p[x]
I feel pretty confused about a collection of 12 integers. In my understanding, phi(56)=phi(2^3*8)=24, so we have 24 integers as a group st we can find closure, identity, and inverse. Could anyone explain what does this question mean?
ohhh I got it now
thanks
the only ideals that contain (p, f_1, ..., f_n) is R and (p, g) and the only ideals that contain (p, g) are (p, f_1, ..., f_n) and R, both ideals are proper so we have to have (p, f_1, ..., f_n) = (p, g) as they contain one another
These 12 integers are a subgroup of the group of 24
*more precisely, these 12 residue classes
I can pick 1, (5,45), (3,19),(9,25),15,(11,51),(17,33), just make sure we can get identity and inverse and find 12 integers out of all 24 integers, is that true?
12 residue classes, I understand it as any 12 integers out of 24 integers have different residues mod 56, is that true?
Hmm, okay so how do you pick this prime p (or argue that it exists) do you like at like the gcd or the lcm of the coefficients of the polynomials or something?
how are we able to view B = A[\alpha] by considering this tower?
yeah so I'd just focus on the constant terms of each of these polynomials, then pick a prime coprime to all of them
this doesn't generalise nicely to R[x] with R a PID but I don't care
ah no wait hmm
Well I mean for the ideal (2x + 1) you can't add 2 and still have a proper ideal, so you have to look at the other coefficients as well
And without some restrictions on which generators you use, things like (x^2 + 1, x^2 - 2x) can cause trouble as well
even just looking at the constant terms I'm not sure my idea works if any two of them are coprime
because if B is an A-algebra, doesn't that mean that B is an A-module?
this is probably why the geezer on stack exchange used a localisation to move up to Q[x]
They're using induction
Like adjoin one element at a time
is that the full proof?
yes
Yeah if you pass to Q[x] then your ideal is generated by just one polynomial, and then it's not so hard to find a p
exactly
yeah dw I don't get it either then.
at this point i don't even know what an A-algebra is, something like a module over A with a bilinear product
but i don't even know what a bilinear product is
ah ok lol
we're gonna do induction
absolutely no inductive step
great.
love lang
The inductive step is B = A[alpha]
but then they say you can assume that by considering a tower?
is it just poorly written?
No, they're saying because of the tower we can use induction, so we may as well assume B = A[alpha]
And that case is apearantly proven earlier
I'm going to go back to doing something that makes sense. Like cohomology of finite categories in arbitary modules
That's what it is yes. Bilinear just means linear in both arguments. So
x * (ay + bz) = a(x*y) + b(x*z)
And similarly in the other argument
Sometimes you might also assume the multiplication is associative or has a unit
it's like you can multiply vectors in a vector space
It's like a ring, but also a module
wanting them to be rings are why some weirdos don't require rings to have units
Rings in general can be a little tricky, so it's nice to have some nice base ring (or field) that can restrict things a bit
bilinear forms 
that reminds me jagr you said a really nice way of thinking about modules a while back that I can't remember the details of
you said something like "a module is a ring with a map" or something like that
Hmmm, like a module is a ring homomorphism R -> End_Ab(M)?
I prefer "a module is just an additive functor"
a module is something that transforms like a module
here what does B[C] mean?
They say it in the parenthesis
the ring algebra B[C]
oh yea i meant more like
or as I like to call it, the ring B[C]
homedawg...
ok maybe I shouldn't have joked about "ring algebras" cause you took me seriously
Could someone answer this question?
<5,15> is a subgroup of phi(56), find its elements
Could you explain it in depth, I think <5,15> includes identity, and 5 has inverse 45 while 15 has inverse itself? But there are only 4 elements here?
5*15 mod 56 is 19
so it generates 1,(5,45),(19,3)(23, 39),(13), (9,25),(27),15
i think that's exactly 12 elements here
it seems that I ignored closure...
it seems so!
ok i have a couple questions about this proof 😹1) how does showing that a has a factorization show the uniqueness portion of a is not any arbitrary element of A, and is instead chosen to be the generator satisfying the maximal condition? 2) wtf is he even doing logically at the bottom paragraph with contradiction and stuff
huh, another source using "factorial", strange.
lang's just tryna be different
like he says "we note that a cannot be irreducible" then proceeds to show that a is a factorization of irreducible elements?? even though earlier on he said that (otherwise it has a factorization)??? like wtf is he even contradicting here
lol ur good i'm reading the lang supplement rn and it's helping
what does the supplement say
also... if ur book needs a supplement to understand it I think something has gone wrong
LMFAO i mean it's lang
page 17
he has commentary on almost every page which is nice
:uponthewitnessing:
holy fuck he uses "entire ring" instead of integral domain
who does this guy think he is
na fr what is he doing
I expected to see something like the talmud
wait yeah this is just the proof of PID => UFD
this is why language should be standardised
i did not know that noetherian induction is a thing
yeah inducting on lattices other than (N, \leq) comes up sometimes
cool
‘‘To prove that every nonzero nonunit a∈A has a factorization into
irreducibles, assume by Noetherian induction, applied to the nonzero principal ideals, that every nonunit
that generates a larger ideal than (a) can be so factored. Now if a is itself irreducible, there is nothing
to prove, while if there is a nontrivial factorization a = bc, then b and c each generate larger ideals
than a, so by our inductive hypothesis, each may be factored into irreducibles. Multiplying together these
factorizations, we get a factorization of a into irreducibles, as required.’’
this supplement is written way better than the book
yeah this is way more clear lol
Is there only 2 subgroups here? i only figured out {<r>} and {<sr>} starting by assuming element x=s^i*r( meaning to figure out it must have r as cycle and discuss it into whether we have s here, then by closure)
(sr)(sr) = s (sr^{-1}) r = 1. So that is order 2.
There are two more subgroups of order 4, which is generated by two elements
Hint but not full answer: ||Some power of rotation + reflection for one of them|| and ||some power of rotation + (rotation and reflection)|| for the other
subgroups of order 4, I understand it as a subgroup with four elements actually
Do you think this question mean all elements with order 4 besides identity?
D4 has 8 elements I think
it is about r,r^2,r^3,e, and as we multiply s, we get 8 results
I think sugroups of order 4 means a group containing 4 elements right?
So I acutally doubt why we see sr has order 2 here, because it seems irrelevant to how many orders of an element
Yeah some people would call it D_8 instead. Just clarifying.
I actually regard D_8 as r has smallest order 8.
How would you think of the answer to this question? Like how many kind of subgroups do you think here?
Some hints:
||The product of two reflections is a rotation, so any subgroup of order 4 contains a rotation||
||If you contain a reflection you contain r^2, which generators a normal subgroup||
||D4 / r^2 = (C2)^2, how many subgroups of order 2 does it have?||
does D4/r^2 means D4 without r^2? And could you tell subgroup of order 2 means a group containing 2 elements or each non-identity element has order 2?
If you take an element of order n, the subgroup generated by it has n elements, so it's kinda relevant yeah
By D4/r^2 I mean the quotient group of D4 modulo the subgroup generated by r^2 .
Group of order 2, means group with 2 elements.
Not sure if they’ve done quotient groups yet
The way to find them at your level would to just bash elements together
I know where is the problem, i assume srsr as s^2r^2 here...
I didn't learn quotient group yet
Alright, then I'll modify my hint to say that the subgroup contains r^2, which other element could you add to make a subgroup of order 4?
I can conclude additional subgroup{e,sr^2,r^2, s}
and another one is just e, r, r^2, r^3
Yeah, that's 2. Any other elements of D4?
r with other exponent like r^3 will generate r with all exponents here, which can not work, but if there is no rotation, then only s and e in a subgroup, so I think none of them
So there are 2 elements that don't apear in the subgroups you've listed
You mean sr and sr^3 right?
Yeah, maybe try creating a subgroup containing them
e, sr, sr^3, r^2
Not sure where you got s from
No s here
<sr, sr^3> = {e, sr, sr^3, r^2} so yeah that’s all of them
Well, if it has r, it has all the powers of r, which is 4 elements.
So without r, there is <s, r^2>. That’s 4 in a klein group setup.
If it has two reflections, you can combine them for a rotation. <s,r^2s> is the one above, and <s,rs> and <s,sr> include r, so too many elements.
Then yeah, <sr,rs>
Consider the subgroup lattice of a semidirect product…
I haven't learned that actually
we are just covering up to isomorphism and homomorphism
Yeah I know, you obviously haven’t
Is there an easy way to think of the subgroups of a semidirect product using the factors?
No it’s usually quite awful!
We’re just extending a very nice group by a very nice group here so it works
I am thinking m would be the multiple of 6 in order to get 5-cycle here because alpha are disjoint cycles, and the purpose is to eliminate 2-cycle and 3-cycle by letting them be identity, is it true or is there anything that I miss here?
Yup that’s true
OK, really appreciate the response
Yeah that's a good argument
If you'd like you can also give a sufficient condition on m - not much harder
You mean mine? which sufficient condition you would give on m?
I think more than one elements implies the order is at least 2, when the order is prime, then done, otherwise, all numbers are product of prime numbers, so (g^k)*m must exist where m is the component of product prime, do you think it is true?
Well, just 6|m and 5 doesn't divide m
should be necessary and sufficient
Hm this is a bit unclear
Like what do you mean "(g^k)*m must exist"
i guess you mean adding that it is necessary and sufficient for 6|m
no like you need 5 does not | m as well
I see, but actually 6 and 5 co-prime, so i didn't consider that at that time
i mean say if the order of g is not prime, it should be composite, then composite is the product of prime say n=a*b where a is a single prime or a product of prime numbers while b is a prime here, so if we have smallest order n, then we have g^n=(g^a)^b here so there exists element that has prime order
Why are simple groups so important in group theory? I know that by the Jordan-Hölder theorem you can in a sense "decompose" a group into simple groups, but I really don't see how this decomposition is enlightening in any way
What I mean is what does a composition series of a group tell you about the group that actually makes you understand it better in some way
It's more the other way around. If we better understand simple groups then Jordan Holder may allow us to reduce other problems to simple groups
Do you have some example?
Of when can you reduce some bigger problem into a simple group problem
I think another question I have is why are normal subgroups so important, because I really haven't trully grasped that yet so I guess I'd need to understand that better in the first place
This one is a little bit easier to motivate: They are precisely the subgroups which we can quotient by, and get a group again. There are a variety of reasons why this is important. For example, there are several important properties that, if it holds from a group G, then it holds for any quotient group G/N (a rather silly one is being simple >.<).
It can also give connections between two groups that we would like to understand, but one of them might be easier to understand. In particular, this is seen by the first isomorphism theorem: for a group homomorphism f : G --> H, we have (1) ker(f) is normal and (2) that G/ker(f) ~= im(f).
Now, along those lines, one purpose of knowing that a group G is simple is that it actually classifies what the group homomorphisms out of G look like. Since ker(f) is normal, it must either be that ker(f) = G, and hence f is the constant identity map, or that ker(f) = {e}, and hence f is injective. Or in otherwords, G is (isomorphic to) a subgroup of H.
Among, of course, many other reasons to care about normal subgroups, as well as simple groups.
Vague question, but what are good ways to think about tensor products in the realm of commutative algebra?
The hom-tensor adjunction, or more simply, the fact that they define bilinear maps.
How do we prove this simple fact? If a and b are mth and nth primitive roots of unity where m and n are coprime, then ab is a primitive mnᵗʰ root of unity.
Outside of the normal algebraic way of thinking about them, that they describe bilinear maps as linear ones, tensor products are the right algebraic structure to talk about functions on the intersection of varieties, in that C[x,y]/(f, g) is the tensor product of C[x]/(f) and C[x]/(g)
Or I guess more generally that functions on product spaces are tensor products of the individual function spaces
I think I got it. But it's kind of convoluted.
The roots of unity form an abelian group under multiplication
Well, I just did it but it isn't elegant. I'm sure there is some theorem of group theory which gives the result quickly.
Considering μₘₙ as a group containing μₘ and μₙ as subgroups
Yes this is great
But their orders are ϕ(m) and ϕ(n)
Oh yes sorry lmao
So this doesn't really work
Can I share the argument I wrote?
Sure
I'm not that pleased with it but it works
The way I would do it is to show that mu_m and mu_n intersect trivially
Which you can do Galois-theoretically
for example
if memory serves
Moderators!!!
lol
As you can see, this isn't very elegant.
It’s also obvious that they intersect trivially when m, n coprime, just think about the orders of elements
Wait lol
No they aren't
Well
the orders of the groups of primitive roots are that
But you can just consider the orders of the elements, which was what my original argument was
Sadge
Wow I wish I’d thought of that….
Yes
Hmm
Oh. Are you saying the element ζₘ has order m?
Oh jeez. I am so confused today.
The number of primitive roots is ϕ(m), not the order of the group.
I'm sorry. You were absolutely right.
Dw.
Can we use this to prove that ϕ is multiplicative or something? That would be cool!
φ is multiplicative on coprime numbers: if m and n are coprime then φ(mn) = φ(m)φ(n). But this is not true in general (take m=n)
In the context of number-theoretic functions, a function f is said to be multiplicative if f(mn) = f(m)f(n) whenever m and n are coprime.
Yur. If it’s just straight up a homomorphism it’s totally multiplicative
Ah, I did not know that
I don't like numbers.
Let p and q be distinct primes. Then is there a characterisation of all positive integers n for which there exist simple groups of order pⁿq?
There will never exist any simple groups of those orders, by burnsides all groups of order p^aq^b are solvable
Oh wait abelian groups
There are no simple abelian groups of non-prime order. There we go
No. The one that states what I said it states about p^aq^b groups
I didn't mention abelian groups
Ah ok. Could you provide a link or something to what it is?
??? It was a specific case burnsides wouldn’t have covered
Because simple abelian groups are solvable
Thanks!
burnsides has nice sideburns
But all of them are prime order so we don’t care!
So the characterization is n=0
0 is positive now… I will inform the field theorists…
is there an analogous statement for non abelian groups? bc A5 is not abelian but simple with nonprime order
Yeah sorry, I had gotten confused
Yeah it’s called the classification of finite simple groups
can you explain the proof to us?
also this is a very funny statement to read out of context
oh true
eagerly awaiting your five volume proof wew!
Saur good
237985 years of character theory with ONE real world use
what ur fucked up alg top homology computations?
involving rep theory makes sense cause uknow Z[G] and what not but character theory specifically
Nah that was my summer project
ah
Uhh this is like
So the starting point is like equivariant topology stuff which involves the representation ring
But then it gets harder and idk how
I'd be surprised if character theory is involved
it's very uhhh K[G] with K a field ykwim
As opposed to not very K[G]?
it's the vibe
x^n + 1 = (x^m + 1)^2^k
Check that x^m + 1 is seperable by taking the derivative, thus has m distinct roots.
And I guess you mean your field to be algebraically closed or something, since if not you can of course face fewer roots of unity
Oh yes, over an algebraic closure or a splitting field.
the derivative result is so cool
1 = -1, I completely forgot that is true, haha.
But R_m is local
R_m is local, so J(R_m) = m
it's ok I can never remember nakayama's either
the only one i learned was 4
I don't recall ever seeing that one being used
I learned it as 1 and 3
rats
Very useful to show the existence of projective covers
projective
this dude does cocohomology!!! ho ho ho he he he ha ha ha
It is actually over a field
Like in K-theory one often works with like RO(G) and R(G)
oh you're doing K-theory
can u commit to something it's hard to keep up PLEASE
then yeah they appear in like, the Aitayh-Segal theorem
which is a pretty fundemental K-theory result
there's an analog for fusion systems 
Another thing is that you can define the adam operations on k-theory using the corresponding things for representations
oh really how come
the situation just straight up lifts to fusion systems
you can't do like, BG/EG you need the nerve of some related category, but can't just use the fusion system itself
so it's little bit more annoying
because they generate S4
tada!!
specifically I think it's because (1234)(12) = (134) which is a 3-cycle
order of S_4 is 24 = 2^3*3, the group generated by (1234) and (12) is at least order 8 (powers of (1234) and then those powers of (1234) times (12))
so you have a 3 cycle on top of that you have to have the whole group by lagrange
Not sure on this part
So any subgrp containing (1234) and (12) will have at least order 8. There is also an element of order 3 in there cuz (1234)(12) is a 3 cycle
And the facts we r using is that orders of elements divide order of group and also lagrange thm right
yeah so 3 also divides the order of <(1234), (12)>, so <(1234), (12)> has order 8*3 at least
but it can be at most 8*3, so it has to actually just be 8*3
Hm okay sure
Oh
Nice
What about order 12
Wew has a nicer argument than what I was thinking about
Unsurprisingly lol
Only order 12 subgroup of S4 is A4 kian
This isn't a4 as it contains a 2 cycle
What about if we didnt know what a4 was
I might be being stupid rn cuz im really tired
I think the way I'd do this is uh
without appealing to that, we have the identity element, (1234)^n for n = 1,2,3 and then (12) on it's own
so there are at least 5 elements all of order either 4 or 2, so again by lagrange...
By conjugation we get (12),(23),(34), (41) and those generate S4
I believe actually for any n, (12),...,(n-1,n), (n,1) generate S_n
yeah, S_n is rank n
Is argument by order the best way here? A transposition (s,t) and an n cycle (s, t, ....) will always generate S_n, as it is easy to see how to get a bunch of other transpositions by conjugation.
yeah ok I could generally prove that fact
You can do this by induction on n - basically take a permutation f, multiple by these guys so f fixes one point, then induct
but we're working in S_4 specifically so why not just use low level machinery
Sure
Hehe
Beat you to it ig lol
consider the uhhhhhhhhhh standard representation
But yeah for this thing probably wew's is nicest
By a similar argument you can show any p cycle and any 2 cycle generate Sp for prime p
Nice exercise
stinky exercise...
I have to look at this later when im not as sleep deprived
I'm actually kind of warming up to this method instead of mine if you know beforehand that these generate S_4
If you have (1234) and (12) in the grp then the subgroup needs to be at least order 12 cause (1234) has order 4 and (1234)(12) has order 3
Thts true right
I dont get this
so the group is at least order 8
cause 4 has to divide the order of <(1234), (12)> and there's at least 5 elements
do you know this result btw, if you know this result we won't have to worry about this nonsense
I dont
Ok yea
But i think im still stuck on why cant it be order 12
4 3 and 2 divide 12
no, there are no elements of order 8 in S_4 
we've established that <(1234), (12)> is at least order 8
it also has an element of order 3 in it, and so is at least order 3*8
it is contained in a group S_4 of order 24 = 3*8, so it must be the entire S_4
I get what u saying but why cant this be order 12
<(1234),(12)> is at least order 8 because that has order 4 so there are 4 distinct elementd and multippy each one by (12) u get a different element
sure
Ok so any subgroup that contains those 2 must be at least order 8
Le Grange
Is that just equal order 8? Why are we saying at least
If <(1234),(12)> is order 8 then any subgroup containing those elements has <(1234),(12)> as a subgroup so the subgroup needs to be divisible by 8 so it cant be 12
yur
So im pretty sure i was hung up on the fact that we said at least
When it was really = to 8
Like we know for sure <(1234),(12)> order is 8
NO! It's order 24!!!
Fail
that's the entire point!!!
(1234)^n(12)(1234)^-n = (n+1,n+2 mod 4), this is a generating set of S_4
yeah there we go
ergo entire group is S_4
Loolll yeah i just said it before
so you had this fact
I just said “IF it was order 8 then it wouldnt work cuz …”
Then i said its order 8
Lol
Ok yeah wtf it cant be order 8 cuz of that so it has to he order 24
Oops i cant say the r word
I was being r lol
Thx
So for dihedral groups, what are the main things to keep in mind?
I know they are subgroups of Sn
D_2n = <a,b| a^n = b^2 = 1, bab = a^-1> and that's it
That represent rigid motion symmetries of n gons
Yeah
And that thing
uhh centre is trivial for n odd, iso to C_2 for n even uhhh
Yeah the book just also did some subgroup diagram of D4 and stuff
they're metacyclic 
And did it based on orders and lagrange
My midterm is tmr brw
Btw
I feel like a lot of early material is based around orders
And lagrange
Cyclic stuff and all that
I see
this is true of every finite group btw
Only 5 yrs actually seems surprising to me tho
yurrr
We covered that but im not rlly sure how we will be tested on it
Seems kind of like a “oh ok cool” kind of thing
you might be asked to compute an explicit embedding
for example, can you find an embedding of C_2 x C_2 into S_4
What is C?
cyclic
I'm not using Z/nZ because these aren't rings
yeah all abelian stuff is basically just Z/nZ
I dont think we got there yet
just usually more than one Z/nZ
yeah you won't see the structure theorem for a while
I thought this was just cool
Like basically finding formula for how many coprime ints less than n but using all this stuff
Like its cool the answer to a “simple” question can be solved using this stuff
yeah that corollary is like, a specific application of a much larger ring theoretic result called the chinese remainder theorem
Oh cool
something i remember from my intro to groups course that might be on a test will be showing that there are multiple cayley tables for the same group
Hm wdym by that?
Cayley table is just a mult table right
A group should just have one multiplication table right?
Or are u saying groups of same order could have different tables
Like group order 6 is either cyclic of S3
You can shuffle the rows and columns I guess
Or
