#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 171 of 1
google is your friend
No way
Ppl loveeee to say that
Its like ppl come out of the shadows just to say it
Look them up then
yeah it's 140
As they should.
Could have set the upper limit on j as 15-i
landau's function is LAME we only know the asymtoptic behaviour how boring
oohh look at me I can run in (n-1)n/2 time instead of n^2 guess what nerd they're still O(n^2) :blazed2the9s:
Yeah my remark was more about calming my nerves than pointing out a flaw.
dw you are absolutely right
it would remove the "and k > 0" bit too
lets see what the speed up actually is
Are there any interesting open problems involving it?
dunno
(I didn't bother to check OEIS, so much for practising what I preach)
probably a few
such a thing as asymptotically defined groups?
you can take Landau's for any integer
but yeah you can take the limit of groups, or rings, or modules or... etc.
they're not analytic though
Yes, it is a function on ℕ. You don't necessarily need to think in the context of groups while talking about it.
What do you mean by 'take the limit of...' in this context?
limit/colimit
and I suppose to keep the analysis analogy alive, w.r.t a poset category
i meant groups defined by a set of asymptotic relations but alright
the Riemann hypothesis
see the wikipedia article
The Landau function g(n) is the maximal order of an element of the symmetric group of degree n; it is also the largest product of powers of primes whose sum is ≤ n. The main result of this article is that the property " For all ≥ 1, log g(n) < sqrt( li −1 (n)) " (where li-1 denotes the inverse function of the logarithmic integral) is equivalent ...
superchampion numbers
For sigma a cycle and sigma^n a cycle, is supp(sigma^n) always the same as supp(sigma)
supp(-) is the set of points that aren't fixed right
Ya
then yes this should be true
sigma and sigma^n would be cycles of the same length, and thus conjugate in the symmetric group, so they fix the same number of elements, so |supp(sigma)| = |supp(sigma^n)|
and we have supp(sigma^n) \subseteq supp(sigma)
Why should they be cycles of the same length?
Well we would need extra conditions i think
you can't multiply a cycle by itself to get a cycle of a different length
sigma^n not being the 1 cycle for starters
you can get a product of cycles
but maybe that is the only exception aha
the identity isn't a 1-cycle it's a product of 1-cycles
I did think about sigma^n = Id
i didn't realise that was the convention on cycles mb
has to be exactly one element with orbit of size > 1
yeah good point, because if we consider 1-cycles as like, valid
then in S_n we can only have n-length cycles
so perhaps this notion isn't the way to go
lets just assume we can replace "\sigma^n also a cycle" with "(n, o(\sigma)) = 1"
I think I'd say the identity is the product of no cycles. And then just have 1-cycles not be a thing
Fairs
Might change that definition depending on context
Anyway if gcd(n, o(sigma)) = d, then sigma^n should be the product of d disjoint o(sigma)/d-cycles right?
yes, exactly why I replaced the condition with what I did
I have a question on this proof
it only shows $(a+H)(b+H)\subset ab+H$, but how to show $ab+H\subset (a+H)(b+H)$?
I try to write $ab+h=(a+0)(b+a^{-1}h)$, but there is no guarantee for the multiplicative inverse exists
WT
It doesn't really make sense to ask if ab + H is contained in (a + H)(b + H), because the point of the theorem is to show the definition of (a + H)(b + H) as ab + H is even well defined. Like (a + H)(b + H) isn't a "thing" until you define it and show that that definition is well defined, meaning it doesn't depend on the representative of a + H or b + H
defining (a + H)(b + H) as ab + H could be meaningless, but the theorem shows that if H satisfies the properties of the theorem (which is called being an ideal btw) then that definition actually works
if define $AB={ab| a\in A, b\in B}$, here A=a+H, B=b+H, and H is the ideal, can we show $ab+H\subset (a+H)(b+H)$?
WT
A = B = 2 + 4Z is a simple counterexample
AB contains thinsg that are 4 mod 8
but ab+H would be 4Z
thank you!
yes, I try to factorize it, but not work
so when the proof says "well define", it means: if $a+H=x+H, b+H=y+H$, then we need to show $(a+H)(b+H)=(x+H)(y+H)$ by using the definition $(a+H)(b+H)=ab+H$, do I understand correct?
WT
yeah exactly
in that case you need to show ab + H and xy + H are the same coset
same thing as with group cosets, except the property of H being a normal subgroup is replaced with H being an ideal
a good example when something is not well defined would be like defining a map f: R / H -> R by f(r + H) = r
yes, this depends on the rep
exactly yeah
and theoretically the map f: (R / H) x (R / H) -> R / H defined by f(a + H, b + H) = ab + H also depends on the representatives
unless H is an ideal, in which case it doesn't!
thank you for clarify this, just now I was confused by the definition, since I thought the set product is same as $AB={ab| a\in A, b\in B}$, but actually it is not (and shouldn't be)
WT
lol no thats actually a great question, I've never really thought about it!
like if a + H and b + H are cosets is the set product (a + H)(b + H) also a coset, and is it equal to ab + H
lol thats a smart question
in the group theory, we have $(aH)(bH)=(ab)H$, where H is normal, and this definition is consistent to the natural way $AB={ab| a\in A, b\in B}$
WT
because the "set product" in group theory is actually the "set addition" in ring theory, right?
so we have to give another definition for the set multiplication rule in the ring theory

the name for the operation is just a name
although we call it multiplication, its just whatever operation it is
theres 1 operation in a group
theres 2 in a ring
With regards to groups, we often refer to it as addition if its abelian
So with regards to this, a ring is an abelian group (the addition) with a monoid structure (the multiplication) that is compatible (distributivity)
we happen to write shorthands like AB = {ab} for convenience in some cases but... this is more notation than anything else.
Like us often writing AB = {ab : a in A, b in B} is unrelated to how we need to define multiplication of cosets <-- this is determined by how the natural group structure on the quotient set needs to be defined.
it is on purpose to make homomorphism to be a homomorhisim, right?
so they define the product rule in this way?
so you have your quotient set
whenever we can define a group operation on that which is compatible with the original group, we have a quotient group
S set
~ subset S x S, equivalence relation
[a] := {x in S : a ~ x} equivalence class represented by a
S/~ := {[a] : a in S}, quotient set
Then, we need
* : S x S -> S, group operation on S
# : S/~ x S/~ -> S/~, group operation on S/~ which satisfies:
[a] # [b] = [a * b]
[a] # [b] = [a * b] this key property makes this triangle commute. And indeed makes those maps all homomorphisms
The equivalence class represented by a is the map
[.] : S -> S/~
which is pi in that commutative diagram
have you worked on an example
well for one, split up and G and H, since you've shown they're both cyclic by (i) then what do you know about cyclic groups
there's a generator
right and what can you say about the subgroups of cyclic groups
they're also cyclic
work backwards from there to G times H
uhh
I'm working on this rn
By 6.1 they mean this
@abstract rock im dying help ;-;
😭
I think by Theorem 6.1 they mean Theorem 6.1 in the text, not Problem 6.1
That might help.
You just show that any r|mn, you can find a|m, b|n such that r=ab
This case gcd(m,n)=1, but I think it’s not needed here
Don’t know what 6.1 is in your book. But the only thing needed to prove CRT, probably is that I+J=I+K=J+K=R, then I+JK=R, where I,J,K are ideals of R
Let G be a finite group with identity element $e$. Suppose there exists $x \neq e$ such that $x = x^{-1}$. Show that $|G|$ is even. \
How to prove this without using Lagrange theorem?
wlmmm
With Lagrange theorem, you can consider the subgroup H = {e, x} and it's over. But I'm not allowed to use it for this question
on this problem, not sure how to do part b.
For other elements other than order two elements, x and x^-1 always appear in pairs
How does it prove that the number of elements y such that y = y^-1 is even?
I see that there are even elements in {z : z \neq z^(-1)}, but I don't see how it helps
Oh I am dumb. My bad. Now this:
(left) multiplication by x is a permutation of G of order 2, since this permutation can’t have fix point, so it’s disjoint union of 2-cycles
Take one x such that x=x^-1 I mean
if anyone has any hints or just a general approach ping me
Nice, thank you
can't use rings. We only studied direct product so far
You are proving chinese remainder theorem and you can’t use the concept of ring. Interesting…
yeh we only know group theory so far
Okay then the idea is the same. a1,…, an, any two relatively prime, show ai and product of rest of aj are relatively prime
Like a1 and a2a3…an are relatively prime for example
uhh
anyone?
I don’t have any smart way. By brutally considering elements of order 4, I found out that mapping (x,1), (1,i), (1,j) to ||(x,1), (1,r), (x,s)|| works
Whose inverse is ||mapping (x,1), (1,r),(1,s) to (x,1), (1,i), (x,-j)||
I listed elements of order 4 of two groups, and they should match. So I tried then it naturally emerged
Presentations of them can make it clear that what I wrote is well defined:
<x,r,s | relators of D8, x^2=r^2, x commutes with r,s>
<x,i,j | relators of Q8, x^2=i^2, x commutes with i,j>
They are equivalent. The condition of the second one forces it to be a subring as well.
For it to be a subring means that it's close under multiplication by elements of N. To be an ideal, you must be closed under multiplcation with any other element of R, which is a stronger condition.
it requires the subgroup is with the same multiplicative operation as in R, right?
We have a group of symmetries in n space where n is bigger than 2.
Do reflections still needed to generate the group?
The subgroup part is with respect to the addition operation.
Or can every reflection be decomposed into a product of rotations in n > 2 dimensions.
And then this extra condition is with multiplication.
The classic examples of ideals are nZ as an ideal in Z. The fact that this is an ideal means that it is an additive subgroup of Z (simple to check), and that, whenever you take an element of nZ, say nk, and multiply it by another integer, say m, you get an element of nZ again (indeed: you get (nk)*m = n*(km) in nZ)
this is what i am confused, i know the subgroup part is with respect to addition operation, but to make it become a subring, we need to define the multiplication, but this definition didn't say, so it means to use the same multiplicative operation as in R, right?
That helps alot actually, thank you!
Try to summarize this in one sentence, with the specific groups involved
reviewing most definitions of a subring they should dictate that a subring of a ring is a set that is closed under the additive operation of the ring and the multiplicative operation of the ring
So for this, i think that since N is normal in G and is contained in both A and B, then N is normal in both A and B as well. i’m not sure if that helps me but i’m stuck regardless
So the costs of A in B look like bA, what is the condition for two bs to correspond to the same coset.
What is the condition for the cosets of A/N in B/N? Can you see how the cosets naturally correspond to one another?
Not sure I understand your question. I don’t know whether you were asking about group of isometrics of R^n. And I think it’s the other way round, like rotation factored into product of reflections. There is a result called Cartan-Dieudonne theorem, which says any orthogonal transformation (isometries this case) is product of <=n many reflections.
is aut(F_p)=Z_p* in general
or uh
i mean Z_(p-1)*
?
or is it like Z_(phi(p-1))
or actually
there are no nontrivial automorphisms since 0 maps to 0 and 1 maps to 1??
in this case it's just all the integers less than or equal to n, geq 1, coprime to n
$U(n) = \set{m | 1 \leq n \leq m, \gcd(m, n) = 1}$
im talking about fields tho
sure, if n is prime
it holds in general anyway
but F_p has no nontrivial automorphisms?
Z/pZ?
um
so 2 maps to 2
oh I was thinking about them as groups
yeah
no I mean
the group of group automorphisms on Z/nZ is isomorphic to U(n)
and if n is a prime
it's still true
as fields yes, F_p has no non-trivial automorphisms
oh ok ty
Indeed any field automorphism is in particular an additive group automorphism sending 1 -> 1
and that determines where everything is sent
and F_q is always galois over F_p since x^q=x is separable over F_q?
Yes, and the Galois group is cyclic of order log_p(q)
oh thank you
q=p^r, Aut(Fq)=Gal(Fq/Fp)=<f>, where f(x)=x^p, order(f)=r. So when r=1, Aut(Fp) has only the identity map.
Uh, sounds like #real-complex-analysis to me.
(Tho I don't see what you mean by "ring of sets")
A ring of sets is just a lattice of sets
Ah. Ordered by inclusion, I guess
Ah sorry, let me ask my questiom in real complex analysis 🙏
Hi, guys. I am thinking of if this is true: if A is a commutative ring with 1 such that dimA<infty, then A is Noetherian. I think this is not true, because one is about prime ideals, one is about ideals. Chain of prime ideals is finite may not imply chain of ideals is finite. Let p be a prime ideals, then p might be a smallest prime ideal containing infinitely many ideals.
But i cannot think of any counterexample
Thank you! But i cannot see how i can use this characterization
Oh
This is a counterexample of dimA=0 but not noetherian
Valuation rings are noetherian iff they are DVRs. However, there exist valuation rings that are not DVRs.
or that, yes 🙂
Thank you! That is also lots of counterexamples😊
Another example could be an infinite product of fields. Which would be reduced and 0-dimensional, but not Noetherian.
So then you have your pick of
Connected 0-dimensional,
Reduced 0-dimensional, or
Integral domain 1-dimensional
I'm guessing connected+reduced+0-dimensional is impossible...?
Bit confused. Suppose I have a PID R and an irred. element p. Is R/pR the same as R/(p)?
Yes, pR and (p) are both notations for the principal ideal generated by p.
Awesome thanks. Thought someone (not here) claimed otherwise and got confused haha
hopefully you can see why they both notate the same thing
I mean. I thought pR was the set {pr | r in R} and (p) is defined exactly the same?
exactly
Yeah but I started doubting whether I remembered (p) correctly when someone said it wasn't so I just hopped on here to be sure haha
Perhaps for some people, (p) is just a singular tuple containing p
Not necessarily true when R isn't commutative
Which may be the issue others said idk
But it was specified to be a PID.
Yes, I'm saying it isn't necessarily true more generally and that may be why someone else said that (p) wasn't just pR
Oh yeah I guess that would be it since I did not mention PID to the other person
Anyone have an argument or counterexample to this?
I.e. connected reduced 0-dimensional commutative ring that is not a field
Is the product of infinitely many copies of a field k connected?
I just mean countably many copies, ig
No, connected means not the product of other rings
If a,b,c,d are linearly independent vectors in the quaternions (viewed as a vector space of R), are xa, xb, xc, xd linearly independent for nonzero x in the quaternions?
Yes
not too hard to see for yourself after expressing x in terms of a, b, c, d and multiplying (although tedious)
You can also just argue by contrapositive: if pxa+qxb+rxc+sxd=0 is a linear combination, then rewrite to xpa+xqb+xrc+xsd=0 (since the real coefficients commute with everything), and then multiply the whole thing by x^-1 from the left. That gives a linear combination of a, b, c, d.
Funny answer; If you normalise x so that it is a unit, then Norm(xy) = Norm(y) for each y, so the multiplication by x map is an orthogonal map. Hence multiplying by x not only preserves linearly independent sets but also orthogonal ones lol
and
xa=ya⇒x=y
Proof:
ax=ay
⇔a⁻¹(ax)=a⁻1(ay)
⇔(a⁻¹a)x=(a⁻¹a)y
⇔e⋅x=e⋅y
⇔x=y ∎
Similarly for xa=ya⇒x=y ∎
3. In the integers modulo 4 ring Z₄ do all the non-identity elements form a group with regard to multiplication?
Solution:
Z₄={0,1,2,3}
No because {1,2,3} is not closed under multiplication modulo 4
2⋅2=4 mod 4=0∉{1,2,3}```
update: oh, by the ring identity it is meant the multiplicative identity so I should check {0,2,3} not {1,2,3}
```Answer:
No because {0,2,3} is not closed under multiplication modulo 4:
3⋅3=9 mod 4=1∉ (not belong to) {0, 2, 3}``` <- is my answer correct?
yes
Hi,
I am stuck at understanding this problem. Can someone help me?
I do understand that the question asking for a subgroup of transformations which stabilises the line.
That is the line y=0, means (x,0)
Am I right?
Correct, the line is the set {(x,0):x\in \R}
What have you tried so far
Thank you
say we have a matrix of the form 2*2,
a b
c d
Now to stabilise the line y = 0, say we have a point (x,y). We consider the transformation, (ax + cy, by +dy). This is what I did, I think now according to the question, we are supposed to have the resultant transformation of the following form i.e (ax, 0).
So ax + c0, b0 + d* 0?
double check your (ax + cy, by +dy)
I didnt get that
oh, but how?
redo it and find out
The matrix that flips row i and row j is in U(n), right?
Yeah
I just had a quick question I wanted to check (moved from advanced algebra to here).
If f: R --> S is a ring homomorphism and M, N are S-modules, I need to show there is a canonical homomorphism of R-modules
M (x)_R N --> M (x)_S N
This is just simply defining a map F(r m (x) n ) = f(r) m (x) n and extending R-linearly right? So basically restricting scalars on the tensor product
yea
FUCK
Standard inner product is invariant under permuting entries
Is what it comes down to ig
permutation matrices appear in the image of the standard rep of S_n for some n, and are thus unitary :pack:
Guys, I am reading DF and whilst it's a good book, I find it has so much in it compared to, for example, 'Contemporary ab alg'. Take for example the order of an element in a group defined as, the smallest positive integer n, such that $x^n = 1$ . This does not seem to be in other books, what is its importance?
NoName
order is pretty important, what?
I know order of group, but this is defined as order of element...
Every where else it is the number of elements in a group...
any intro algebra book will define this term
if it doesnt seem to be in other books, you just didnt look hard enough
Maybe it's later on, DF seems to dive into things from the start, where as other books come back to it in more detail it seems
its the order of the subgroup generated by that element as well, so ...
DF is just very wordy, especially in the beginning
well, books generally cover more than lectures
My lectures go straight from groups to subgroups, where as here, he does types of group and actions first...
sec 1.7
and 1.6 is homo and isomorphisms
My lectures do that much later lol
I guess I will be jumping around a lot
I think from now on, I will just use DF as a reference...
so automorphism is an isomorphism mapping from one group to itself
if the group is say finite
then there are n! bijections possible
so what I am trying to understand is that...
only some of these bijections are iso/automorphic right?
Yes
The order of an element in a group is the smallest number of times you have to use that element to get the group's identity element. It's important because it helps understand the group's structure, and plays a role in things like cryptography. Different books cover it to different extents.
I have a ring R = {0, a, 1 - a, 1} st a^2 = a. Is this isomorphic to something known?
The only commutative rings of order 4 I know are Z/4Z, Z/2Z x Z/2Z, Z[x]/(2, x^2 + x + 1) and Z[x]/(2, x^2)
Third one is the field of 4 elements
Z/2Z x Z/2Z ?
But none of these seem to be isomorphic to that
looks like the sum of two Z_2 rings
a = (1, 0), 1 - a = (0, 1) it seems like.
just write 1-a as 1+a and its more obvious
I did a mistake in checking the multiplication
oh right are these the only commutative rings of order 4?
Thanks 
Yes, they are in fact the only (unital) rings of order 4.
Thanks for the confirmation

If sigma is a cycle , and ord(sigma^n)=ord(sigma), can we say that sigma^n is a cycle?
Yes
How can i show that?
I showed that orders are the same, now i just need to conclude with sigma^n must be a cycle
Hint: sigma^n decomposes as a product of disjoint cycles no matter what. Try arguing that all the cycles have the same order, and see why this gives you what you want
All cycles in the disjoint cycle decomposition of sigma^n have same order?
That’s what I’m suggesting you try and prove.
🫡
I know that the order of a permutation is the lcm of the order of each cycle in its disjoint cycle decomposition
@coral spindle so is it that having the orders be the same means that u can show that the supports are the same?
(1234) and (5678) both have order 4 but their supports are disjoint
Poo
(12)(345) and (123456) are a counterexample btw kian
I see
Feels like this part shouldnt be too hard.
Ok so firstly, to show a permutation is a cycle, u can do that by choosing an arbitrary element in support and show that it at least takes |support| iterations to reach the same element, right?
drop the 6, nerd
anyway
cycles act transitively on their support, so if you can show you can get from any element to any other via your permutation it must be a cycle
for the fans in the back you get the orbits of the action by directly looking at the cycle decomposition! such fun!
wowowow
“oh thats really fun” - 🪭
Ok makes sense but how i said it was also correct?
😟
yeah I think so
what's the actual problem we're trying to solve here lol
Lol
Up here wew
oh ok
I have already given a hint but we've veered off-course
Showing that if sigma is a cycle and order(sigma)=order(sigma^n) then sigma^n is a cycle
they map to the same element in the burnside ring over S_n :pack:
This was part of a bigger proof about n and order(sigma) being coprime
I used something like that to show order(sigma)=order(sigma^n)
kian was it you I had the discussion about what happens if |sigma| and n aren't coprime - like what cycles it decomposes into
or was that someone else
So what about this?
Given a in support(sigma^n = tau) whats the minimum j so that tau^j(a) = a?
Proposition from my textbook says that tau^j = tau^i iff i = j mod (order tau)
Since order of tau is order of sigma = k then
tau^k(a) = a = tau^j(a) iff j = k mod k so k divides j so j cant be smaller than k
So given any element in support(tau) it takes at least order(sigma) to reach same element, and since sigma is cycle then order(sigma) = |support(sigma)|
For sure we know |support(tau)| <= |support(sigma)| , and since it took at least |support(sigma)| iterations to reach the same element, |support(tau)| = |support(sigma)| so tau is a cycle
Lol am i just saying a whole lot of nothing
that's true iff tau is a cycle
otherwise each element is on a smaller orbit and therefore has a smaller order
if tau is (1 2 3) (4 5) then order(tau) = 6, but order(a) = 2 or 3 depending on the orbit of a
actually that's not quite true
you did say sigma is a cycle and tau a power of sigma ?
right
yeah what im trying to show rn is if sigma is a cycle and order(sigma)=order(sigma^n), then sigma^n is a cycle
I was just writing tau to not write sigma^n all the time
then looking at a decomposition like this, you actually see that every orbit has the same length (because it's isomorphic to a certain kZ/lZ)
in which case ord(a) = ord(tau) still holds
don't need it
it's just a habit of always saying "by isomorphism to the group for which this structural property is most obvious to me"
let l = ord(sigma) be the length of the cycle
writing s for sigma
then each element has orbit (a, s^n(a), s^(2n)(a), ..., s^(kn)(a)) before it inevitably loops
so tau will be sigma's cycle sampled evenly into subcycles
like if sigma = (2 3 4 5 6 1)
then sigma² = (3 5 1) (2 4 6) and sigma² has order 3
and every element has order 3 by sigma²
so the order of the element is always the order of the permutation, iff that permutation is a product of disjoint, equal length cycles
anyways, you'll always get a structure like this
where k is such that (k+1)n = 0 mod l
Ok ok i see what ur saying but its gonna take a min for me to digest lol
so you know you well get that form of permutation, and then order(s) = order(tau) forces the structure to be single cycle of length l
yeah I'm using a certain insight about how the powers behave that is not quite obvious, but very good to know
Wait so doesnt that work then
Cuz tau= sigma^n and sigma is a cycle
yes then tau is a cycle
since its order is the same as sigma's
because if there's m cycles, they're all of length l/m
and so tau is of order l/m
but presumably it wouldn't have been
Yeah
basically what was said earlier, you may notice
Indeed
For reference, there's a really nice simple proof that all the cycles in the decomposition have the same length. They are all conjugate via some power of sigma: supposing 1 and i are in some (possibly distinct) cycles in the decomposition of sigma^n, since conjugation by sigma^(i-1) will preserve sigma^n and therefore send the cycle containing 1 to the one containing i, we must conclude that they are of the same length.
The rest is history.
Hey guys, just a quick question. If $f: R \rightarrow S$ is a ring homomorphism and we have a homomorphism of S-modules $\phi: N_1 \rightarrow N_2$, I need to show that $\phi$ is an iso iff the corresponding map given by restriction of scalars to R is an iso. One direction is obvious, the other direction is where I was confused
Eternal Way
Are you able to show that a homomorphism of modules is an isomorphism iff it is a bijection?
Well that's precisely what I was confused by, since it seems I get that anyway by assuming the map restricted to R is an iso. I feel like I have to make some argument involving the ring S
I'm unsure what you're confused about? You are able to show that a bijective homomorphism is an isomorphism yes? Once you have that it's pretty obvious
Yes, I know a bijective homomorphism is an iso
Right, but then phi is bijective as a function and badaboom
I guess it felt weird at first that injectivity and surjectivity doesn't really depend on the ring R or S
Modules are abelian groups first and foremost
Ah true. Ok, that's clear now. Thanks!
Everything about injectivity and exactness and all that stuff is just about the underlying abelian groups really
abelian groups are Z-modules too 😎😎😎
Yeah, its obvious now that I think about it this way
Thanks as usual 🙂
And I guess a similar logic imples the restriction functor is faithfully exact, right?
Indeed it is
Perfect
Last question: if i: k --> F is a finite field extension of degree d and W is an F-vector space of dimension n, its clear that W when restricted to k has dimension dn
Similarly, if V is a k-vector space of dimension m, the extension of V given by tensoring by F has dimension m as an F-vector space
There's a third extension given by taking V --> Hom_k(F,V). I'm a bit confused how to compute the dimension as an F-vector space of this last one
So F = k^d and V = k^m, so Hom_k(F, V) can be seen as the set of mxd matrices
Man
That should've been really obvious
Oh but this would be matrices with coefficients in k
Yes, but you can deduce the dimension over F from that
Yeah fair, its m
That's pretty interesting
The fact that the last two have the same dimension as F vector spaces is just the hom-tensor duality in action, right
Yeah, you have D(F(x)V) = Hom(F, DV)
And since V and DV have the same dimension, things work out
It's still true if V is infinite dimensional though. In which case I guess you can use that Hom(F, V) = (DF)(x)V because F is finitely generated projective.
I'll get to projective and injective modules in a bit
That's the last two sections in this chapter of Aluffi
here, by assigning each ordered set to it's "opposite" ordered set, do we just reverse the order of the relations or smt? presumably this is because D is not the opposite functor, since if it were, it would just assign each set to itself right and only reverse the morphisms
Just the order of relations. So x <= y becomes y <= x
(also, the "functor" C --> C^op which takes f : X --> Y to f^op : Y^op --> X^op is not actually a functor btw, since it does not preserve composition)
i don't understand what the purpose of D is here lol
well
i guess if I can show that D is an equivalence then the equivalence class generated by it and the identity functor constitute the two equivalence classes
and hence the automorphism class group has at least two elements
i mean
isn't D an equivalence since DD is naturally isomorphic to the identity functor on C?
am i overthinking this problem
but then we have to show that the equivalence classes are disjoint right
i'm dumb and my brain's not working how is a left module A over a commutative ring R a R-R bimodule if we define ra = ar
more specifically how is the associativity condition r(as) = (ra)s satisfied
ok so r, s in R, a in A
r(as) = r(sa) = (rs)a = a(rs) = (ar)s = (ra)s right?
@white oxide
I think this works
Yes
What equivalence classes?
Isn't the automorphism class group just the group of all automorphisms of the category?
up to natural isomorphism
It's saying that for each divisor d of n, you have a unique subgroup of order d (the one generated by n/d), and hence a unique factor group up to isomorphism.
The homomorphism Z/n -> Z/d is not unique though. There are d of them, and phi(d) of them are surjective.
Does that answer your question?
why does a unique factor group for each divisor of n determine a homomorphic image?
That's the first isomorphism theorem. If N is a normal subgroup of G, then there is a surjective homomorphism G -> G/N
wait what
is that equivalent to this statement
or is it a different result
I mean I guess it's not really a result at all, is just the definition of a factor group
exactly
the first isomorphism theorem pops out nearly for free with the definition of normal subgroups
really goes to show the power of a good definition
How can I interpret lemma 3.2.9?
some a and b in G can be deemed equivalent if their combination is part of a subgroup ? Or something like that?
are you familiar with equivalence relations?
Yeah
I know what the lemma mechanically means
And how its used in the next part to prove Langrages theorem
Hm im looking at the text right below and i think that example helps
With congruence mod n and the subgroup nZ
A subgroup of G inherently defines some equivalence with the elements of G
^something like thr
LOL?
Ok
Is this sort of what lemma 3.2.9 is saying
fuckin chatGPT posting unironically
I sometimes use my own words just so u know
I use chatgpt if it's too long.
To explain or I'm just lazy.
It's unintelligible but I'm lazy right now.
here's how you interpret it, if ab^-1 in H then ab^-1H = H => b^-1H = a^-1H
it's basically a proof that cosets are equivalence classes
Can u give an interpretation using words like an intuitive one is what im trying to do
Im not rlly sure what u wrote out
they give you a very explicit example underneath, this is building up to quotient groups
well i'm not seeing what you're not getting lol
Lol yeah im just trying to get a good intuitive understanding of it all, lagrange thm
I do “understand” it
the proof or the statement of lagrange
I understand the proof and statement of lagrange in the sense of, each step makes sense logically and whatever
cause if it's the proof I can draw some pictures
But im just tryna see some of the “big picture” ideas a little better
If you want to i think thatd be great
so the main idea is that, because ab^-1 \in H is an equivalence relation (or more to the point, a ~ b if and only if aH = bH is an equivalence relation, which makes it more clear why we care) we have that the cosets aH, bH are equivalence classes - hopefully you can see why |aH| = |bH|?
anyway |aH| = |H| for all a because multiplying by any element in a group is a bijection, cause they're invertible, so |aH| = |H| = |bH|
and since the cosets are equivalence classes they're also disjoint sets
so we start with this picture, with our subgroup H inside of our big group G
then because all of our cosets are the same size and disjoint, our cosets will look like squares of the same size:
and since every element of G is in some coset (g is in gH), we can divide up our big rectangle into rectangles of size |H| like this
so, since we've evenly divided up |G| into some (here, six) copies of |H|, we have to have that |H| divides |G|
this is lagrange's theorem
I like group theory so much more than analysis
based
category theory moment
?
This is very annoying to read because it's an image, and you have made it very unclear what problem it is you're attacking
Anyway, yes in essence this is number theory. Hint: think about what the lcm does to powers of p
hm can you give me another small hint?
sorry
Hint: lcm(5, 25, 125) = 125.
this says n=p^c * q with c the maximum exponent of p in the factorizations of the orders
and again c must be >=k
i got it
i think
ok so we have x an element of order p^c * q with q not divisible by p and x>=k
if we look at the element x^(p^(r-k)*q)
the order of this element is the ord(x)/gcd(ord(x),p^(r-k)*q)
and we get that the order of this element is p^k
it is ok?
Yup
reverse the arrows and you get a new definition
heh heh
nvm
why is a magma called a magma
The earliest reference I can find that uses the word is Serre's book on Lie algebras from '65. He does not explain the terminology.
and here i thought it came from condensed matter for whatever reason
man must have been hot terminology back then
it’s named after the magma CAS
it definitely spread like fire
It's called a magma because it magma brain hurt
Ok I have thought about this in past and have insane take
So the other term around is groupoid yeah? But that conflicts with categorical groupoids so magmas started getting called "Ore groupoids" after their inventor
So it's a magma because it's an ore groupoid? Maybe? The word magma in French can also mean something like a chaotic mixture iirc, pardon my French but something like "propositions constituent un magma incohérente"
So it could be both of these
It's a bourbakism tho, serre didn't coin it
@coral spindle
I just said “Two nondisjoint cycles sigma and tau commute iff one is a power of the other”
Is that still correct?
Im trying to solve this solve this problem using a direct proof. I seem to be stuck in the work i posted. I was hoping it would simplify all down to b*a. can someone tell me the answere or give me a hint?
consider expanding the equation in the problem statement
What do you mean?
This if I do this, can I say that the only way the bottom equation is true is if the two arbitrary elements a, b commute (the two elements underlined in red) this means G is abelian. is this a valid way to prove it?
Depends if G is a group or not.
G is given to be a group by the problem! @cobalt heath
So you need to use properties of groups
(I wish ppl learned just the def of monoids so that they know what is unique with groups)
I understand how to do it now
Oh, my bad.
(Yep, inverted element is important in groups)
Ive been doing math for too long today. What should be obvious isn't anymore lol
Ah, that feeling =P

Can you formally prove that any r^i =/= s for any i in D_2n? Like, can we do it without any pictures?
Depends on definition, but you don’t need any pictures
It’s just that pictures demonstrate them well.
I mean like, the relations came from pictures right
Oh wait I think I was asking the wrong question
Like is it possible to prove that r^I =/= s for any D_2n
Geometric symmetries forming relations, which is demonstrated by pictures.
Yes, I believe
You can construct D_2n with transformation matrices.
Ahh so use a different formulation?
Well I think it is possible with any formulation.
Which is why I am asking: which formulation did you learn it with?
Like we were introduced to the group with this as a relation
In terms of rotations and flipping of an n-gon?
We weren't taught any other formulations but I just found it on the wiki page
I presume here I can ask questions about Modules right?
So I'm trying to characterize the submodules of the Un(F) module F^n. Here, F is a field, and Un(F) is the ring of upper triangular matrices over F.
What do I do here? I only know that for a particular left module structure, there exists a ring homomorphism between the ring and the Endomorphism ring of the module.
So, here there exists a ring homomorphism between Un(F) and End(F^n) which is NOT (my hope was ruined) isomorphic to GL(n, F) but rather Mn(F)
But I need to find submodules
Riku
GL(n, F) is Aut(F^n), M_n(F) is End(F^n)
Oof
my bad yeah
Ohh wait
Holy shit so
The pi is actually just a map from Un(F) to Mn(F). But yeah does it add anything
Btw I do see the trivial module is a submodule, and also the whole F^n is one.
If I consider a non-trivial proper submodule, it must contain a non-zero element.
Now, any non-zero vector v in F^n can be realized as a product of a square matrix and a column vector. If I can make sure the matrix can also be upper triangular, we have essentially proved this module is simple.
F^n isn’t simple, (0,….,0,1) should be a sub module
You mean the module generated by that vector?
Hard to do the matrix multiplication in my head
Nvm, I was wrong
So if we can show for any vector v in F^n there exists an upper triangular matrix A and another vector u such that Au = v then it's simple, so if not true counterexample must exist
Oh wait lenme see
Indeed upper triangular matrices as like those that preserve the "standard flag"
I just ignored the fact that they weren’t 1s on the diagonal and treated the entire thing like Aff_{n-1}(F) ngl

Then thought about orbits under the action of that on F^n
Okay wait so these are the only submodules right?
If we have zero on the first element, i think the generated set doesn't stay multiplicatively closed anymore
It won’t, cause of the element at (2,1) in ur matrix
And obviously since this is a field we’re acting on we can’t have a subspace of (x_1,…,0) without just setting one of the x_is to 0
I say obviously but maybe it’s not so clear to you (consider just the diagonal matrices acting on (x_1,…,0))
Oh right, zero divisors don't exist
And other sums don't contribute
Yeahh
Thankss

It’s more that everything non-zero has an inverse but close enough!
hi I am having trouble exhibiting a homomorphism f: G ----> Aut(G). I am watching these lecture series by Harvard extension school.
The attached picture explains the homomorphism. I do not understand how he came up with such a map.
Do you agree that this does in fact define a homomorphism?
From what I understood this is sort of a natural homomorphism bw a given group and the Aut(G).
I mean, I think I could prove that this is infact a homomorphism.
OK, great.
So your trouble is more to understand why that homomorphism is interesting?
The map should be something that takes an element g, in G to the function in the Aut(G) ? Is that right?
Yes.
Honestly, yes you are right. But, I read bits about this from here and there and I am confused about this whole thing.
now in this ss, he has written that f(g)(h) = ghg^-1
So he is talking about the functions in the Aut(G) right?
Aut is isomorphism from a set G to itself, so he is talking about this isomorphism which takes an element h in Aut(G) to h itself?
perhaps if we write it as $g \overset{f}{\mapsto} (h \overset{f(g)}{\mapsto} ghg^{-1})$ it's a bit clearer?
f is the homomorphism G -> Aut(G).
That means f(g) must be an automorphism, that is, an isomorphism G->G.
f(g)(h) is what that isomorphism maps h to.
Does that make the notation clearer?
Wew Lads Tbh
it sends g to (the map which sends h to ghg^-1 for any h in G)
So this h to ghg^-1 , is this the isomorphism that we are talking about?
Ohhhh
I think I need to re-watch it again by keeping this in mind. Thanks tho, I somewhat understood that
@delicate orchid thanku
Where does discussion of homological algebra with modules belong to?
Thanks!
Yep, eventually got it.
Heyo! Does anyone know anything about generators for the group $\mathrm{SL}(3,{\bf Z}[t])$?
Matplotlib
The natural map coming from setting t to zero is a group homomorphism since the determinant is still +/-1
I think it might be nice to describe the structure of this group by describing the structure of the kernel of that map, however I’m not sure if you’ll get a minimal set of generators
if you make a restriction on the degree polynomials you'd care to know about atleast you'll be able to have a system of equalities that will be easily solvable with computer (and that should grow cubicly for n)
but there's nothing outright nice about that space (outside the aforementioned natural map)
for polynomials in one variable, there is a "factor theorem" stating that if P(a) = 0 then (x-a) is a factor of the polynomial. This follows from the polynomial division algorithm.
One may also factor things like P(a,b,c) = (a+b+c)^3-(a^3+b^3+c^3) by noting that P(a,-a,c) = 0 so (b-a) is a factor. This works because you can consider the multivariable polynomial P(a,b,c) as a single variable polynomial in b with a and c fixed, and plug in -a and notice it's a root, and then apply the factor theorem and see the resulting equation holds for all choices of a,b,c.
Repeating this reasoning 2 more times, we see that
P(a,b,c) = Q*(a+b)
P(a,b,c) = R*(b+c)
P(a,b,c) = S*(a+c)
Why is it possible to combine these three equations and deduce that
P(a,b,c) = K(a+b)(b+c)(a+c)?
I tried looking up a multivariable version of the factor theorem online, but I ended up stumbling upon Grobner bases, which I don't actually understand and I don't know how it would help formulate the factor theorem for multivariable polynomials without having to go through the motions of reinterpreting polynomials as single variable polynomials with all other variables fixed
Starting from one of your equalities, say P=Q*(a+b) from the other two you know that since (a+b) is a monomial that isnt divisible by the other two monomials, Q is divisible by those monomials
if you see that you can follow similarly from R and S, then there is some GCD between the three
Grobner bases formalize that in the language of ideals in ring theory, which can be more succinctly defined in terms of varieties
or something like that, its been a bit
Mmmh yes ofc, but that doesn't tell me much about the group itself, does it?
Anyways, that was a random question I asked myself earlier. A shower thought if you wish, I don't really have a precise question anyways!
Thanks for your quick output 
so if A|BC and not A|B then A|C is what you're saying with this part? If A|C and A is a monomial then any factorization of C into primes will involve a term that is A?
Yes it does! Because you can explicitly describe the structure of the kernel
I mean, that's just one evaluation map out of the Z worth of it there are?
Yes any of them would do
for some reason an alarm bell in my mind tells me to remind you this should be true for nice enough polynomials (coefficients from a field or PID, isnt an infinite polynomial), but yes since you've already shown that P has monomial factors as shown then the other factors must factor out those monomials as well
was there a motivation for this group?
Not particularly, as I said it was more of a shower thought 
lol ok
I'm still trying to understand why it should be easier to describe the kernel of this evaluation map 
I understand that if I know this kernel, I can understand the whole group. But that's like saying if you know perfectly the pure braid group you can fit the general braid group in a SES...
i dunno the kernel doesnt seem all too interesting tbh
Matplotlib
but all the members of the kernel are just elements P of SL(3,Z[t]) such that P=I_3+t(R) for some R in SL(3,Z[t])
well, for any such R we know there is certainly a P in that kernel
Now that I think about it, what about the natural map $$\mathrm{SL}(3,{\bf Z}[t])\to\bigoplus_{n\in{\bf Z}}\mathrm{SL}(3,{\bf Z})$$
given as all possible evaluations?
Matplotlib
R should actually be a traceless matrix
Thats (of course!) injective
But the image is pretty annoying to describe
Yeah I would assume so
Wait, isn't it surjective?
I'm thinking interpolation, but integers, but still surjective
Although it’s not really a map of groups
Is it not? Each individual projection is a group homomorphism
In fact there is not such a map
That's like concatenation of 3² evaluation map for each projection
Ah, my bad, it's true that it sometimes differs xD
In this case in particular you’d be imposing impossible conditions on the polynomials
Yeah well I'm being dumb because it very much does indeed
Like having infinitely many roots
But there is a map to the direct product and the image is a bit like a direct sum in some way
I definitely meant the product when writing this \bigoplus
Naaaaah I need a rest, this is not surjective; you can interpolate one matrix, but not infinitely many
Yes like I said the image is a bit like a direct sum

Probably Lagrange interpolation gives some explicit description of the image, though not particularly nice for finding generators
But Lagrange won't give integer polynomials though
But yeah, some kind of interpolation
It will! Not so hard to see
You can just multiply out by d! Where d is the degree
Ah, but you're cheating, you're being clever there! 
You're clever! even
Another approach could be to look at the maps $$\mathrm{SL}(3,{\bf Z}[t])\to\mathrm{SL}(3,{\bf Z}[t]/I)$$
for some ideal $I$ of ${\bf Z}[t]$, a special case being reduction mod a prime with $I=\langle p,t\rangle$
Matplotlib
Anyway, I'll stop there because, again, #showerThought, and I'm not even sure it's an interesting one 
This was my original approach with I = (t)
It’s an interesting question! Definitely doable but not totally obvious
But also it’s hard to find a well-defined question, what makes a set of generators a “satisfying” answer? For instance there are probably countably many
Of course there's going to be countably many, it would be more than surprising if there were not! 
The question was very vague indeed; someone else might want to give a presentation of the group (most likely there won't be a presentation with either finitely many generators or finitely many relations anyways)
Thanks for the chit chat 
why is C the algebraic closure of R
or i mean why is R[i] the algebraic closure
actually nvm
This is essentially what the fundamental theorem of algebra says
Let's say we take C[0,1] as a R[x] module with the multiplication structure pv = p(T)(v) where T is the indefinite integral operator.
How do I show this module has a trivial Annihilator?
If this is required - I have proved both Polynomials over [0,1] and C^\infty[0,1] are submodules of C[0,1] over this structure
Riku
Okay uh that might not be true for any f 
But well if one such f does exist - let's assume it does. For that f to satisfy this equation, we need all coefficients a_n to be zero.
Now let's say the polynomial p we started with is non-zero, hence, one of these coefficients is actually not zero. But then, that particular function we found before does not satisfy the condition anymore, then p fails to belong to the Annihilator.
Hence, finding even one such f is sufficient, right?
I think then the constant function f(x) = 1 for all x in [0,1] works
Hi! Does someone have an idea or any references regarding classification of the subgroups of $(\mathbb{C},+)$ ?
LF
So far I've found a classification of the subgroups of (R, +), so we have those plus those rotated in the complex plane as subgroups of (C, +)
And you can have a discrete group generated by finitely many elements
what is your classification of subgroups of (R, +)?
Do you think there are other discrete subgroups or are the other subgroups dense?
either dense or generated by a single element (of the form pZ)
I dont think i need to (or can) classifiy the dense groups further
ok so you are just interested in the discrete subgroups then?
the dense subgroups seem to be headache-inducing
indeed i have given up on those
i think its more about topology than groups
but for the subgroups of (C, +) i think we can have a subgroup that is dense on a line of the complex plane
does that make sense?
yeah i see
so you're wondering if all the non-dense subgroups are either lattices or isomorphic to Z x (a subgroup of R)
yes well put
https://mathoverflow.net/questions/335657/subgroups-of-mathbbrn looks like this is what you want, if it's right
Hence G=D⊕M where D is dense in E and M is lattice
I just asked a question over in #elementary-number-theory about cyclic groups of composite order, wasn't sure if it belonged there or here, if anyone sees this and wants to take a look i would appreciate it :)
If G is a subgroup of SL(2,q) that doesn't contain just upper triangular matrices, can we always get an element of G whose trace is not 2?
Answer: yes, lol
I guess I just thought of an argument as I typed it
No I don't think that's right
If you take certain conjugate subgroups of the upper triangular matrices you will typically not just get upper triangular ones, unless this group is just too small.
Let me see if I can cook up an example really quickly.
Yeah indeed the simplest example I could think of worked
If we denote G = U(B) as the subgroup of upper unitriangular matrices, then conjugation by the element [0 -1 \ 1 0], which is always an element of SL_2(q), gives us the subgroup of lower unitriangular matrices.
You can calculate this by hand very easily.
And more importantly, they're all of trace 2.
Ah, damn
The condition on the subgroup would probably be that it's not conjugate to a subgroup of the unipotent radical of any Borel, but I don't know if you'd need some weird conditions on the stability of the Borel under the Frobenius map. I can't see that quickly.
In any case, the point is that the condition is probably not going to be nice.
That being said, there is one very nice almost-condition which is admittedly way too strong: let the order of G be coprime to q — then all the elements are semisimple, and there oughtn't be too many semisimple elements in SL_2(q) with trace 2
I'd have to work this out, I'm so bad with this stuff but oh well
I think if q divides the order of G, then it must be all of SL(2, q)
That's definitely not true
Think about the upper unitriangular matrices
There are exactly q of them
But anyway, you can quite easily see this via elementary group theory too: we know about Sylow subgroups, so there must be a subgroup of order q (the Sylow p-subgroup) which cannot be the whole of SL(2,q)
Hold on, I think that's not what I meant
How do we know this is not upper triangular?
It is...
Yeah, I mean something that's not upper triangular, and has order divisible by q
But anyway, you can also just use the example that I gave earlier to get a different Sylow p-subgroup. Just conjugate.
Yeah
So I've now gotten a subgroup of order exactly q that isn't upper triangular.
In fact, since the normaliser of this Sylow is just B – all upper triangular matrices – if you just pick any non-upper-triangular matrix and conjugate, you'll get a group of order q that contains at least one non-upper-triangular matrix :)
I don't think it's trivial to see that the normaliser of U(B) is B, but it happens to be true.
I forget the proof.
I'll get back to you in a bit, in a seminar lol, but thanks!
something to do with them preserving the standard flag perhaps? Conjugating would change the flag meaning the resultant group isn't the same
Oh yeah that makes sense. I guess I was worried the det = 1 condition would screw things up but it just doesn't
Is there a classification of infinite simple groups?
There’s a “”big”” (it’s at least got a few texts on it) conjecture that all simple groups satisfying a certain condition are of a certain type so
Wew can probably say more on how it’s doomed but
The Janko 42069 group
Even the parts of the conjecture we know about more (“”close to finite”” ones), we still can’t say yes or no to the conjecture
And what we do know draws a lot from the classification of finite simple groups, if you believe that result
which conjecture is this
Cherlin-Zil’ber, the “algebraicity conjecture” or smth
I think I have that first one right
ah I see the term "omega-stable" so this is definitely your area
In model theory, a stable group is a group that is stable in the sense of stability theory.
An important class of examples is provided by groups of finite Morley rank (see below).
yeah that's exactly what I'm reading rn
So, free group on 2 generators ain’t omega stable
So this is rather restrictive
They’re stable but the omega in front is a specific size bound thing, and implies totally transcendental, which implies superstable
guessing that's to do with the Morley rank gizmo
Ye, they can’t have finite Morley rank
and in turn I guess that's because F(2) contains F("\omega")
In fact, their Morley rank > w for all ordinals w
Yeah basically I think that would do it
Morley rank 
Make some infinite binary tree thing
i get excited when i hear a term i've never heard of lol
in this channel of all lol
uponthewitnessing
oh yeah duh because something in model theory is a vector space or somesuch
Like taking your generators for a F(omega) iso subgroup (x_n), make it like vertex t splitting to branches tx_n and tx_n^-1?
I remember you talking to the wall about that at some point sharp
It’s more like it can only be split up into infinite sets that many times
a... vertex? of what
what graph is here
But in the particular case of finite RM simple groups, they should be algebraic groups (linked on the page)
I was linking via reply to an infinite binary tree remark
yeah and what does that tree corrispond to 
I cannot emphasise enough how much I feel like a first year ug walking into a lecture on cohomology
If you can build out some binary tree based on formulas which ramifies like trees (with the different branches being incompatible), it has RM \infty
Basically we just crunch any hope of nice ramifying
This
Anyhow we make a bunch of subgroups
I do not know what a formula is, or what ramification means here, or what incompatible means here 
So the ones to the left are larger
And as you go to the right, two adjacent branches have trivial intersection?
Or rather than subgroups we’re doing coset nonsense
So we have an infinitely descending chain of proper subgroups
So it’s very infinite
Me whenever Sharp rants
hell I barely even know what ramfiication means in algebra it's just the funny group :smoked:
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Ramification_group
Me whenever anyone here rants
By ramification I mean splitting lmao, not a fancy formal term
anyway back to doing REAL work like finding out what the f*lp the sylow p-subgroups of G_2(p) are
and splitting here means...?
f*lp
We get disjoint cosets of our descending chain of subgroups
sharp everything you've been saying has been a fancy formal term and if this was my first interaction with you I would be complaining to the mods about a new crank in the advanced channels
and I'd expect you to fully do the same for me
right, ok I can actually understand this
So we can draw this graph out in terms of cosets, left->right being that the left contains the right
that's a pretty strong condition no?
Yeah lmfao
We can still have things of infinite Morley rank that this doesn’t happen to
I might do a wellness check on this Morely fella...
If it’s “totally transcendental” (RM isn’t \infty), then we can replace an intersect of arbitrarily many definable subgroups with an intersection of finitely many of em
Since no descending chains
It should be noted, these chains have to be definable subgroups, so there can be nonsense that isn’t definable
I could define them
But that’s basically saying you need some stronger principles (choice, for example) to make them, or that they’re not naturally reachable with our operations
So finite RM in particular is even stronger
yeah so lemme just recall
You can’t split it up into infinitely many sets infinitely often
definable means you can create the group using a first order(?) formula in the model(?) of groups?
it was something like that anyway
yur
but like you can access the elements and stuff is what I mean
the example I recall from before is that the centre of a group is definable?
You can’t just pick out particular x in G too easily
Yes
although I can't remember if the formula you used was "fixed under conjugation" or "maximal subgroup with C_G(H) = G"
you could "assign" each element to it's cyclic subgroup ig
x is our predicate variable, the input, and y is bound by \forall
That’s hard to say “y is in <x>”
Since x^n = y for some n has n range over Z
right nevermind, ignore my cyclic bullshit
we have \phi(x) : xy = yx \forall y
no. no I don't think I will
L
But yeah saying y is in a subgroup generated by x is harder I think
If you know that all your orders are, say, bounded by n, then it’s easy
Wait a minute, don’t Sylow subgroups have niceness
well that's ok because all groups are finite

depends what you mean by niceness
So yeah this helps out I think
F_p-SWAG spaces ykwim
"ermmm aktually... the correct terminology would be F_p-comple-" RAAHAHHHHHHH
Well actually we might have some unbounded order nonsense ig but
Elements order p^k but k unbounded?
Anyhow, definable subgroups are very nice in finite RM since they’re kinda finite-y
“omega stable” groups don’t allow this to happen either btw, but it’s stronger than simply asking it not happen since we’re bounding some size of “we have only so many kinds of elements” stuff strongly
They can have infinite ordinal (but not the RM=\infty unbounded kind) of Morley rank
(This stuff should look like krull dimension stuff?)
:3 also yeah I definitely jargonize this stuff but it’s not too bad if you learn it from some more sane source
so glad the mathematics I do is sane and resonable, anyway time to try and find the pattern in these numbers!
Reminds me of the cranks which spent years looking at OEIS
i was unironically in this situation when a computer scientist gave me a somewhat nice problem
beware of computer scientists, they are the devil's shepherd
I'm not actually just staring at these numbers - I don't really care about more than the first 2 cycles of them
Yeah so I think what I wanted is a subgroup that doesn’t contain any conjugate of an upper triangular subgroup, rather than just not containing an upper triangular subgroup
In this case your argument for conjugation fails
I don’t know any rep theory but essentially I want a rep that’s isomorphic/conjugate to one that’s upper triangular
so you want a subgroup of GL that doesn't contain gBg^-1 for any g
if so, the trivial subgroup satisfies this
This is the statement about the SL: Let H ⊆ GL(2,Fl) be a subgroup with l | #H. Then either H contains SL(2, Fl), or H is contained in some Borel subgroup.
Then indeed, since all Sylow p-subgroups are conjugate, this is clear
Wth, I mistyped
Just done Sylow p-subgroups and heard the concept of conjugates with relation to orbits etc. Taking this as a spoiler for my next lecture 😆 (/j)
I’m saying it can’t also be the trivial subgroup, because that’s contained in Borel
The different containments are confusing me, but this is what I was trying to ask, but removing the l | #H condition
When I say upper triangular I don’t mean the Borel subgroup (which was why I tried to avoid saying that), I just mean anything without a non-upper triangular matrix in it, or any conjugate
ok I admit it. I have no idea what you want answered. Post the full problem statement please?
do you want a proof that B covers SL in the subgroup lattice?
the existence of a subgroup of GL that intersects trivially with the upper triangular matrices and all of their conjugates?
what is it
disregard this suggestion, the inclusions were confusing me as well
Yeah very sorry, it’s a mess trying to ask a question during a seminar lol
no worries
I only care about subgroups up to conjugacy. I have a subgroup G of SL that’s not contained in the Borel subgroup B or any conjugate of it, and I want to prove that it has an element of trace not 2. It does not necessarily intersect trivially with B nor any of its conjugates.
the borel subgroup of SL I presume?
Yeah
ah ok I think that was a source of confusion, I was thinking borel of GL
it's a good thing I have the character table of SL_2(q) ready haha
ME TOO BABES
ok really stupid question but borel of SL_2 is unitriangular matrices right
good observation
Upper triangular. The unipotent radical of the borel is unitriangular
I can prove what I want assuming some hardcore results in number theory + an open conjecture, but obviously this should be an elementary question
this does not seem elementary to me at all lol
there are many many different conjugates of the borel subgroup here
and even once I do characterise them, I have absolutely no idea what the trace has to do with anything
everything inside the borel subgroup has trace +/- 2, so anything conjugate to something inside a borel subgroup must certainly have trace \pm 2. So if we somehow show that everything with trace \pm 2 is conjugate to something inside the borel subgroup then we're done, because your G has something outside of any conjugate of the borel subgroup and thus cannot have trace \pm 2 - how to show from there the trace must be positive I do not know
for q = p I believe this result because the borel subgroup is very large inside SL but idk if it's true for q = p^k
oh thank heavens
It’s not elementary in the sense that it’s group theory that I don’t know, but it’s elementary in the sense that it should be a purely group theory proof
right then yeah I think we can do it pure group theory, maybe
there are p+1 conjugates to the borel subgroup, meaning we have a highest bound on the number of elements conjugate to something inside the borel subgroup at (2p-1)(p+1)
Are the Borel subgroups of a compact Lie group just its maximal tori?
how should i go about proving that the torsion subgroup is closed in an abelian group
How about this?
M has trace 2 means the characteristic polynomial is x^2 - 2x + 1, so M is conjugate (in GL) to an upper triangular matrix. Hence M has order dividing q. So if G is a group consisting only of matrices with trace 2, then it is a p-group, hence contained in the p-sylow subgroup
If x^n = 1, and y^m = 1, what about x*y?
Lol I thought they meant closed as in a closed subgroup
(xy)^(nm)=1
but where does the abelianness come in
oh wwait
nvm i see now

mfw xyxy=x^2 y^2 is abelian
it has to be abelian or you can't rearrange

why sully