#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 166 of 1
why is it that two subnormal series don't have to have the same number of terms to be equivalent, but they have to have the same length? aren't they the same thing?
is there a name for all groups for which the lattice normal subgroups is distributive
can somebody tell me what a jordan-holder decomposition is, i know the theorem but i haven't been able to find out what that means
like what does it mean for G_1 to have a jordan holder decompositoin lol, i know it means that it has a composition series
does it mean a group G that has a unique composition series or some shit?
You can def google this or look up an algebra book
well jordan holder is a theorem as far as i'm aware
google has not told me what it means for a group to have a jordan holder decomposition
This should be in dummit and foote where they mention J-H decomp
in trying to find a decomposition for finitely generated modules over a PID is it fine to just think about them as abelian groups (iso to Z/(n)
and then try to find a decomp that way
or do you run into technical problems
Yes, it is
sanity check: if $R$ is a PID and $p, q$ are prime, then $R/(p^nq^m) \simeq R/(p^n) \oplus R/(q^m)$?
okeyokay
and the length of a composition series for $R/(p^nq^m)$ is $m + n$?
okeyokay
this is false for R = Z in general
But yeah ifbyou change it slightly this is just Chinese remainder
Wait wat
I thought it was true if R = Z
Death sentence
wait sorry am I high
oh
so need to assume p and q are distinct primes?
Ofc
Cmon chat why would they be different letters if they were the same prime
Well yeah cause CRT
WTF!!!!!
I've been doing mathematics for far too long to still be falling prey to this and yet here we are
🤯 🤯
or 2 and -2
how do you do the second part
Im sure its not difficult
C_P(A) is the centralizer of A
Seems like it should be an application of orbit-stabiliser but I can't quite see the right action
mmh it might not be as easy as I thought
a bit of context: For the first part, they hint to use the following lemma. You prove it by taking C=C_P(A) and if A<C, then since both A and C are normal you can find L normal such that A<L<=C with [L:A] prime, and since A is abelian and it follows that L is also abelian and normal, contradicting maximality.
But not sure if how you prove the first part is related to how you prove the second part
the factorial makes it look so weird, because everything is a power of p
it was just that P acts on conjugation on A \ {1} therefore you get a homomorphism P-->Sym(A \ {1})
Nice
(i looked up a solution)
So it's an action of P on A\{1}.
yeah like I did see we had to act on A\ {1} but idk why i didnt think of the most obvious one
When I think about a field k as a vector space over itself is it's dual vector space also itself k?
its 1 dimensional
so yes
thinking of a field as a vector space over itself is kinda trivial tho, the fun part is when you have extensions of fields L<K and you think of K as an L-vector space
Part 1 question 1?
Sorry if it's in frensh I can reformulate the question
Prove that A is equivalent to that matrice
unreadable
Forgive my goofy ahh phone
I can't afford a decent iphone
I've answer most of it because all the other parts are based on the first 3 questions but I had to skip the first one
Since it requires to study the base of the ker(A) and the Im(A)
Can someone help me with the first exercise of Harris algebraic geometry first course.
If S is a set of d points not contained in a line then S is the zero locus of a polynomial of degree d-1 and less.
I think since they aren't on a line there exists two linearly indep p,q in S
So I can extend to a basis {p,q,v3,...vn} then pick some coordinate function v=v^i has kerv contains p and q. Then for any w besides p and q in S I can extend to a basis {w,W2,..,wn} then any w^i coordinate function vanishes on w.
Then the product of w^i for each w(bad notation) and v is degree d-1 or less.
But I'm not sure how to show S contains Z(wi *v) the vanishing set so this is an equality.
Do I have to construct my bases more carefully?
Hello
If we have a finite ring with odd number of elements
Then 2 is invertible
My solution:
A finite ring with odd number of elements. So the group (A,+) has odd order so from lagrange there is no element a ≠0 with 2a=0 so 2a=0 implies a=0. If I take the function f:A->A f(x)=2x. f(x)=f(y) implies 2(x-y)=0 so x=y so f injective and because A finite f bijective so there is c in A s.t. 2c=1 so 2 invertible
1+1
Is my solution ok?
Because another solution I saw it was smth like this:
Let k=charA>=2
Let k=2t+1 so 2t+1=0 so 2(t+1)=1 so 2 invertible
And k=2t+1 beacuse k divides the order of (A,+) which is odd
If the reals are the unique complete ordered field up to isomorphism, what is the analogous characterization for the rationals, if any?
Field of fractions for Z, is inside every char 0 field, something like that
so maybe like, the largest field contained inside every char 0 field?
More like the only field contained inside every char 0 field
So it's like "the smallest" characteristic 0 field
Analogous to Z/p being the smallest field of char p
These smallest fields are usually called prime fields (taking their name from Z/p I guess)
C is the unique algebraicly closed field of char 0 of it's cardinality (same with other cardinals)
ok dumb question/i think this is true/i'm too lazy to prove it/just verifying, if we're trying to show that gHg^{-1} = K and we've already shown gHg^{-1} \subseteq K will g^{-1}Kg \subseteq H complete the proof
Sure but I should note that if the group is finite then you’re already done
Provided H and K are the same size :)
totally not trying to show that G transitive implies all stabilizers are conjugate
oh ya true
You should try showing it for all groups tho.
this?
or this
Yes and yes, why not
damn bro ur tryna be lang, getting me to prove all results of group theory
is the action of a quotient group on a set well-defined? i'm considering S as a G/N set with action given by ((gN), s) = gs. if xN = yN then y = xn for some n in N, so (xN)s = xs = yns = y(ns) = ys = (yN)s. here's the trouble tho - i'm assuming ns = s since n is in N and functinos as the identity - is this sound logic?
i have a solution anyone wanna monitor it for me see if its correct or not?
uh this one isnt that hard i dont think
compared to
classify all finite groups at least...
this one is actually covered in undergrad 
wait huh
group is either abelian or nonabelian
f.g. abelian groups were already classified right and finite abelian groups are classified
yes.
oh i misread u i thought u wrote abelian
yh this ones the nightmare
nvm this works did it in the wrong order
yea lol
i wonder if it'll be completed in our lifetimes
im failing to read this what. 
huh. its done?
all finite groups are classified
arent they
or is it only simple ones...
ah simple ones.
say we define the action of $G/N$ on $S$ by $(gN, s) \mapsto gs$. if $xN = yN$, then $x^{-1}yN = N$ whence $y = xn$ for some $n \in N$. but then $(xN)s = xs$ and $(yN)s = (xnN)s = (xN)s = xs$
okeyokay
but ig if u classify the simple ones uve at least classified up to maximal quotient kinda 
yea i meant all finite groups ig
gN . s = g . s
a quotient group is just a group
so like, idk the issue
then u just need to show
gs = hs
for g, h in N
But yeah if you think of like
or something like that
an action of a group K on a set X as a hom K -> Sym(X)
then that is useful here
Like basically to define an action of G/N on S is to define a homo G/N -> Sym(S)
which is equivalent to a map G -> Sym(S) such that N is sent to 1
right if ur quotienting by the kernel of an action, that always works
i.e. an action of G on S such that N acts trivially
i'm unsure what the condition N < stab(x) for some x is needed tho for..
i didn't use it in my proof, i used everything else tho
yea but i wanted to check if the action made sense
or is it that group actions are always well-defined..?
well like being well-defined is a vague concept right like
yea but whenever i'm working with representatives, i just check just in case
What you have in mind is using a G-action to define a G/N-action ig
yea, basically
you didn't say S was already a G-set in your original question iirc
am i high or does d) follow immediately from a)
since order or orbit is equal to index of stabilizer
also
tryna show that if G/Z(G) is cyclic, G is abelian
lazy proof (?): G - Z(G) is cyclic and thus abelian, Z(G) is obviously abelian, and G - Z(G) U Z(G) = G is therefore ableian
abelian
?
does that work or nah
the complement of Z(G) in G
That isn't a subgroup or anything...
try again brah
Doesn't even contain the identity
And a union of abelian subgroups can be non abelian
e.g. S3 is a union of its proper subgroups
lol true
ah shit
@white oxide if i made an endomorph function names it u for R^n associated to A
rg(u)=rg(A)=r>=1
then dim(ker(u))=n-r
after that we will consider a basis for ker(u) equale to (e1,........,er)
using incomplete basis theorem
we complete it with (er+1,.......,en)
then we get B=(e1,.....,er,er+1,......,en)
B is a basis for R^n therefore E'=vect(e1,......,er)
R^n=E'+ker(u) supplementary
we declare another fucntion u1 which is the restriction of u at E' that hold value on Im(u)
ker(u1)=ker(u) intersectioned with E'={0
u1 is injetiv
and E' and Im(u) have same dimension thus u1 is bijectiv
so u1:E'------>Im(u) is isomorph
for all 1<i<r ei in E' => u1(ei)=u(ei)
the basis (u(e1),.......,u(er)) for R^n
we complete it using trhe same incomplete basis theorem
we get C=(u(e1),.............,u(er),f(r+1),.......,f(n)) for R^n
so P is pass matrix for de R^n basis -> B
same for Q pass matrix from R^n basis -> C
then we get the result A=QA'P^(-1)
which answers the 1 question
is that correcT? i tried to translte it as accurate as possible
wtf
sorry bro i'm not reading allat 😭
i'm not the right person for that too cuz 1) i'm an idiot 2) my lin alg shit
come on i tried my hardest tryna figure out that question T-T
so whom i should be asking?
its like you just made up completely new notation
im a frensh student
you should get better at math communication
not english
Im not english either
bruh Im pretty sure its "french" not "frensh"
motif
ok
true
so is there anyone who can help me
yea king there are tons of people who can here
but
problem is
we cant understand u much
do u have a specific like
problem
ill try and explain
how do you know the word gofy
goofy?
yeah
wdym?
idk the french thing sounds like an excuse
put some work in being clear, that is all
dont send shity pictures no one (not even you) can read
bro me knowing good english doesnt have anything to do with me sucking at terminologies
well not everyone has iphones you know T-T
yeah again
ill try and resend it form another better phone
phones below 100 euros have good enough camera to take a photograph of a text
only nontrivial right
my currenecy is way weaker then the euro or a dollar
didn't you live in France?
ok but you study in french, right
Hopefully this one is clearer
France is not the only french speaking country
so you live in france?
in morocco for engeneering called CPGE
i've never said that
I just asked
how was that last one?
your phone can't rotate pictures because is not an iphone?
this one is way better no?
no i was in a hurry
sorry
cant you rotate it on ur phone?
like save the pic and edit it rotated
Couldn't find an attached image in the last 10 messages.
too late
sorry im a such a burden to deal with all i want is my asuestions answered
,rotate
Couldn't find an attached image in the last 10 messages.
fuk

I think you are trolling
if you are not I apologize
but Im stepping out of this
there we are
is it better now?
just help me out i would apreciate it very veery much
here is my answer
bear with me @rotund aurora please
or not you do you
so let $K$ be a p-subgroup of $G$. idk if this works, but if we could show that $[G: N_G(K)] = 1$ then we'll be done since that'll imply that $K$ is normal in $G$. so i'm considering $[N_G\bigl(N_G(K)\bigl): N_G(K)] \equiv [G: N_G(K)] \text{mod } p$, which yields $[N_G(K): N_G(K)] = 1 \equiv [G: N_G(K)] \text{mod } p$. is this the right line of attack? it feels wrong for some reason
okeyokay
the second Sylow theorem doesn't really tell me anything since the Sylow $p$-subgroups of $G$ are well $G$ itself right
okeyokay
here I just took $H = N_G(K)$
okeyokay
My solution: || it is enough to show it has a normal subgroup of order p, but p-groups have non-trivial center (use the class equation)||
Hopefully I didnt clown
also i used this theorem
ooh ok i'll take a look if someone says that my solution fails per usual
Ok, I think my solution works: Let $K$ be a $p$-subgroup of $G$. Take $H = N_G(K)$ as in Lemma 5.5; then $[N_G\bigl(N_G(K)\bigl):N_G(K)] \equiv [G:N_G(K)] \text{ mod }p$. But $[N_G\bigl(N_G(K)\bigl):N_G(K)] = [N_G(K):N_G(K)] = 1 \equiv [G: N_G(K)] \text{ mod } p$ . Since $[G:N_G(K)] \geq 1$ and divides $|G| = p^n$, we cannot have $[G: N_G(K)] = kp + 1$ for $k \geq 1$. Hence $[G:N_G(K)] = 1$ and $K$ is normal in $G$.
Why do you have N(N(K)) : N(K) = G: N(K) mod p ?
okeyokay
Yeah, how do you derive G : N(K) =1 mod p?
you mean congruent to 1 mod p?
Wait its the lemma you shared
Ye
But K is not a Sylow subgroup
So you dont know N(N(K))=N(K)
Oh well. Guess I’ll return to this problem tmrw then ig
<@&268886789983436800>
@rotund aurora
?
Okay bro, can you find a normal subgroup of G for me?
I'm not sure what your strategy even is tho, you want to show normal p-subgroups exist for all p^b less than the order of the group, but you are starting with a given p-subgroup K of undefined order. You wanted to show that every p-subgroup K is normal, which doesn't smell true, although idk
It’s order is p^n for some n yeah? So, didn’t I help you out with a similar sounding exercise before?
Namely, if its index is the smallest prime (though this is just a first guess, idk if you can easily find one oop)
What is an example of a nonabelian group where all its subgroups are normal 
If it exists at all
Mmh interesting
That, or finding an order p = p^1 subgroup, which goes from the bottom since you need one of those anyway. And you can find one since that one thing about finding a cycle for prime divisors
Yeah Pauli matrices
Yeah you can do that
Yeah Q8 is a fun example of that, I asked that question in my group theory class and the prof added it as an assignment lol
Hm let $R$ be a commutative ring, $n \ge 1$ an integer and $E_{ij} \in M_n(R)$ be the matrix with $(i,j)$th entry $=1$ and all other entries $0$. I'm trying to show that if $Y$ is a left $M_n(R)$-module, then $Y \cong X^n$ where $X = E_{11} \cdot Y$ and $M_n(R)$ acts on $X^n$ by matrix multiplication (on the left). I can show that $Y = \bigoplus_i E_{ii} \cdot Y$ and that there are isomorphisms $E_{II} \cdot Y \cong E_{11}\cdot Y$ of $R$-modules, but I'm struggling to show that this assembles to an actual $M_n(R)$-module isomorphism - any ideas?
potato
I mean the isomorphisms $E_{11}\cdot Y \to E_{ii} \cdot Y$ are just given by multiplication by the matrix $E_{i,1}$, so we have a map $X^n \to Y$ given by adding together the maps $E_{i,1}$, but idk how to show that is an $M_n(R)$-module hom
potato
Are you able to show that
M_n(R) is the direct sum of M_n(R)E_ii as a left module?
If so you have that Y = Hom(Sum M_n(R)E_ii, Y) = Sum E_ii Y
Hm I already have that
Well then your done
You could also just do it explicitly, like write out what the matrix E_i,j does to both sides, and see that this is a homomorphism
Hm how am I done
Okay sorry I now realise I wrote it unclearly (probs cause i am too tired)
I meant I'm struggling to show that the maps all assemble into an isomorphism X^n -> Y
where i mean like you send (E_{11} . Y )^n -> sum E_ii Y = Y via the various isos
However, I've now done it - I just used the fact that that map is R-linar, so it suffices to check it on the various E_{ij}
and that removes much of the clutter :)
Any subgroup K of order p^k, the orbit X containing K (under conjugate operation by G) , you have either |X|=1 or p| |X|.
G conjugate acts on subgroups of order p^k I meant
I’m afraid to read this since your hints are usually solutions

But you don’t need it to be a Mn(R) module isomorphism. X is not even a Mn(R) module. It’s X^n that is a Mn(R) module by matrix multiplication. R modules isomorphism E11 Y -> Eii Y is sufficient for us to have X^n isomorphic to sum Eii Y as Mn(R) modules since Mn(R) acts as matrix multiplication on both sides…
It’s like R module isomorphisms Xi -> Yi gives us Mn(R) module isomorphism sum Xi -> sum Yi I think?
I am not sure about your multiplication by Ei1 part… I multiply by P=I+E1i+Ei1-E11-Eii
I am not sure. I only revealed orbits either have 1 or have tp many elements. Now recall what normal subgroup means
11 hours late but I don’t care
Q_8 is basically the ONLY example of a Hamiltonian group
I say basically because you can direct product with an elementary abelian 2-group and a finite abelian 2’-group to get more but that’s cheap
I know the pi \pred \rho shenanigans can be applied elsewhere and all, but what the heck would the \subset one look like if we don’t have 1 on the left?
I feel like this is the wrong direction to not know what’s going on but I’m kinda working backwards so 
yo yo
is a not necessairly direct sum
of projective R-modules projective?
no right?
cuz i dont have that universal property
i mean showing you don't have the UP is equivalent to showing it's not projective
Trying to think of an explicit counterexample
what
what up
universal propertty?
okay
yea thats what i thought cuz the proof is literalyl just the "up"
over Z_6 , Z_2 and Z_3 are both projective R-modules
what is Z_2 + Z_3 haha
yea
its on an exam paper sadly
so its probably a typo
R is a ring with 1 does that do anything?
to most people rings always have 1 so doesn't really change it lol
yeah ig
for me its literally a heaven moment
Trying to slam the diagrams together in my head
cool cool
tysm everyone
except ttpa
How hard do you need to slam your head to slam the diagrams together in your head
only thing is some of these have infinite sums
but the 2nd answer is nice
Ax + Ay as an A-module where A = k[x,y]
40kN
trueeeeeeeeeeeeeee
yea that was nice
ty
internal sums are horrible
There’s a difference?
sum, not direct sum
Oh well nobody cares about internal sums
direct sum would be easy
Ok yeah this question sucks
I wondered why it wasn’t just “by the universal property of the coproduct ur chatting shite”
projective = free over poly ring
Ah ok
apparently there is now a nice proof but originally v hard it seems
well like part of quillen's fields lol
yea i just did it but i juist realized
that i used the UP of the direct sum
and that like h o i = g o f o i --> h= g o f something like that
which is the UP right?
No not really
👍
If you know what a set and a function are you’re good to go imo
good stuff, I think I know what those are 🙂
can i do that tho?
inclusion
Which one

any includers ?
Then your UP is just saying i is a monomorphism which isn't particularly enlightening
But there is one inclusion for each summand
yea truee
oh Universal Property
so that's why it is odd to say "the inclusion"
oh got it
what i said was
since for every P_i u can find a map to A ( projective )
u have a map from the direct sum to A
such that ....
then i got to g o f o i = h o i
( i want to show g of = h )
Yes you can lift individually and then glue together
🏋️♂️
equivalence relations, quotient set.
Ok thanks
I think if R is a Dedekind domain than any (finite) sum of projective modules is projective. At least assuming the projectives are finitely generated
Nakayama algebras also has this property, but for stupid reasons.
Elementary number theory
uh well I know none of that 😦
good observation, specially the arithmetic in Z/nZ
(actually-elementary NT, not the field "elementary NT")
Learn modulo arithmetic (up to inverses)
ok
You may also encounter stuff like Euler totient function, Fermat's little theorem, Chinese remainder theorem etc
in pure maths anyway
Tho treatment of those in groups/rings may look different from treatment in NT or oly math
hm you probably won't need much elementary nt right
you don't really
like most of those things can be easily proven using groups
i didn't use any in my first course for example
the only thing that comes to mind is bezout's
oh we just proved bezout as part of the course though lol
Dis prob not prerequisite ye
maybe knowing about modular arithematic for examples would be good
yeah, same for mine
but yes that is true ^
But may encounter
i think understanding modular arithmetic is good
I can just get this from a disctrete maths book right?
Ye cuz many example come from mod
D&F chapter 0 covers it iirc
does this problem require any linear algebra?
Not really no.
Just requires you to know about modules over a pid
okay that's good to know, i'm certain the next problem does
yea i have to review that, that concept is very weak for me
i have a vague idea (?) of how to approach this - would it be similar to classifying a finitely generated abelian group in that you look at the order of the elements?
the finitely generated abelian group case is the PID-module structure theorem but just specifically over Z
yus
lol "thinking of x as a prime element"
sorry but what does that even mean
it just straight up is a prime element lol
oh wait that's fax
wait dumb question, by $\frac{k[x]}{(x - 1)^2 x^3)}$ he means $k[x]/((x - 1)^2 x^3)$ right
okeyokay
of course?
have some confidence in yourself dude
i don't have any confidence in myself when it comes to math
you should probably fix that
hey at least i can list the axioms for a group
lets hear it.
time to shake you up on this one 
Certainly! The axioms for a group are the fundamental properties that a set G with an operation • must satisfy to be considered a group. There are four axioms for a group:
Closure Axiom (Closure Under •):
For all elements a and b in G, the result of the operation a • b must also be an element of G:
∀a, b ∈ G, a • b ∈ G.
Associativity Axiom (Associative Property):
The operation • on G must be associative, meaning the grouping of elements does not affect the result of the operation:
∀a, b, c ∈ G, (a • b) • c = a • (b • c).
Existence of an Identity Element:
There exists a unique element e in G, often denoted as the "identity element" or "neutral element," such that for any element a in G, the following equalities hold:
∀a ∈ G, e • a = a • e = a.
Existence of Inverse Elements:
For every element a in G, there exists a unique element a⁻¹ in G, often called the "inverse" of a, such that the following equalities hold:
∀a ∈ G, a • a⁻¹ = a⁻¹ • a = e.
the "Certainly!" makes this read like chatgpt
the closure axiom. cringe
no? I typed this out myself!
There exists a unique element e in G
Interesting choice, but this is not standard, let's say.
i said it "read like chatgpt" not was chatgpt
but I think I prefer this possibly
cant remember why for now
For every element a in G, there exists a unique element a⁻¹ in G
I dont agree with (as in like) this, however 🚫
too strong
why can't i react to this
someones blocked 
😹
Let G a set, * : G x G -> G, an associative binary operation.
(G, *) is a group iff the identity and inverse axioms hold.
The weaker form I'm used to seeing is:
- (exists e)(forall g in G) eg = ge = g
- (exists an identity e)(forall g in G)(exists h in G) gh = hg = e
Then your 1st 2 props will be showing identity unique, inverse unique
also isn't it enough to say left identity and left inverse exist and then you can prove existence of their right counterparts
I asked about this a good while back tbh #groups-rings-fields message
possibly, not so sure.
gut instinct... that doesnt quite sound right to me ngl
in a monoid, you can have things with left inverses, no right
Any tips on blackboxing what an inverse limit is? for someone who doesn't care about algebra
what are you looking for when you are asking for "tips" to blackbox
just a working definition that I can use for probability
the definition is what is in the middle no?
thats interesting
right, i believe the all elements having a left inverse forces it
or at least, thats the only difference i can discern from the monoid case
Sorry, idk I'm just trying to know how to think about them, definition on wikipedia is not helping
I think you can draw the diagram
if you keep throwing out structure you can have left/right identities too
nvm they have an appendix on this stuff that I need to read through
i learned that this kind of result existed from https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=KufsL2VgELo but i didn't know the precise statement
This is the most information-dense introduction to group theory you'll see on this website. If you're a computer scientist like me and have always wondered what group theory is useful for and why it even exists and furthermore don't want to bother spending hours learning the basics, this is the video for you. We cover everything from the basic h...
ok so brief overview/attempting to remember the proof for structure theorem for f.g. modules over a PID: 1. show that every f.g. module over a PID is equal to a direct sum of a torsion module and a free module 2. show that this torsion module is equal to a direct sum of A(p)s where A(p) is the subgroup of all a in A such that some power of p kills a 3. show that each of these A(p)s is a direct sum of cyclic R-modules (this follows from the assumption that every a in A(p) is of order a power a prime) 4. combine everything and enjoy
oh woah
that's sick
In general, if an element has a right inverse and a left inverse, then the two inverses are equal.
(and are two-sided inverses)
am aware
Ye
now to actually see if i can apply the theorem to classifying such modules..
this proof has so much machinery involved lol
why is it that C contains an element of order n2/why do we need that condition? why is it not C contains an order of p^n_2?
seems a typo to me
thank god i'm sane
wait i'm confused, how does (i) hold? it seems that all of the proofs have led up to condition (ii) - does it have to do anything with condition 6.11?
Is my proof okay?
why does x being non-zero in R imply that it has an inverse?
R is a ring
it doesn't in general, but if x isn't in I then consider the ideal (I, x) generated by I and x, and consider that I \subset (I, x) but I is maximal
consider R = Z
Hello
If we have a ring A with x^3 is in {0,1} for every x in A, find A
We dont know if A is finite or not
We can see Z_2 and F_4 fields work
I picked x which is not 0 and not 1
Oh another thing 1+1=0 so char A =2
And I showed x^2=x+1, (x+1)^2=x and x^3=1
Yeah, so the module is a direct sum of modules of the form R/p^n , using lemma 6.11 you can group all those with the largest exponent together into one cyclic module, which will be R/rt
Now I want to show that A doesnt have order >4
ohhh, right! thank you
I picked y in A different by 0,1,x,1+x
Again y^3=1, y^2=y+1 and (y+1)^2=y
How I can show A commutative
Beacuse if A commutative I can get a contradiction
We dont know if it is a boole ring right?
If x=x^2 then x=x+1 and false
So it is not a boole.. if there is x≠0,1
Are you missing some assumptions?
Because F2[x,y]/(x, y)^2 has order 8.
Wait, yeah I'm being silly
x^3 is 0 or 1
okeyokay
not to distract from the thread above but are homomorphism between rings unique?
Not usually, no
i cant think of a counter example
R[x] -> R[x]
Given by g(x) |-> g(f(x))
Is a ring homomorphism for any choice of f
For example
complex conjugate
Or just x -> nx in Z
For any ring there is a unique ring homomorphism Z -> R though
wait so is it only between the same ring that this holds?
No that was just a random example.
For example
Z[x] -> R
g(x) |-> g(r)
Is a ring homomorphism for any ring R and element r in R
?
wait
Which rings are subrings?
when you say homomorphisms between rings you mean two homomorphisms f, g between the same two rings R and S?
yea
i confused R with Z (the integers)
i guess i just see how R could be Z and so Z is a subring. Also since theres always a unique homomorphism between Z and R im trying to think about what the limitations are of this
i barely understand any of this i feel like i never really got a deep understanding of homomorphisms. Like what is the connection between distinct homomorphisms between two rings?
or am i just thinking this is some possibly deep thing and its not important
I'm not sure I understand your question, like you're asking how two homomorphisms can be related?
yea like if i look at the set of all homomorphisms between two rings is there some interesting connection between these homomorphisms
Consider Z[x] -> R
Pretty sure each of those are determined by where it sends x (as long as you’re sensible with unital rings)
yea that makes sense
there are exactly two field automorphisms on C (isomorphism from C to itself) that preserve the real line
namely the identity function and the complex conjugate
Complex automorphisms which don’t preserve the real line 
I mean there are ways that homomorphism can be related, like they can be conjugate. There are also rings for which the set of homomorphism from that ring has some nice interpretation. Like
Hom(Z[x], R) can be identified with R and
Hom[Z[x, x^-], R) can be identified with the unit group of R
And there is exactly one field automorphism on the real line.
what is Z[x, x^-] ?
but that does make sense
do they exist
idk if they do this is the limit of my knowledge
to me learning that isomorphic rings are the same ring was super awesome and im really trying to get the same understanding with homomorphisms. The best analogy i can make is that they are somewhat similar to going from an abstract vector space to R^n but thats an isomorphism so...
Polynomials where you allow negative powers of x
Something something transcendence basis & choice
pain
But they’re discontinuous
Think of it more like a linear map
And A -> B homomorphism can sometimes be thought of as an interpretation of one in the other
Think first iso, a surjective A -> B gives you an iso A/ker <-> B
So you’re interpreting B in terms of A, in that sense
Or, if you know B well, each map A->B can give you a bit of information on A, since A/ker f <-> image of f
So this is interpreting A in terms of B in a sense, but that’s a thing from looking at all the maps (and will not always tell you everything about A)
Maybe you want to start by splitting M into indecomposable cyclic modules
also I still have no idea how the subset containment thing should look even after napping L
do you mean M or M(x)?
this might be the dumbest thing ill ever say in this server, but do you think that this information is related somehow to information theory?
Presumably
f < g if
||f(x)ksi - g(x)ksi|| < epsilon ksi
Right but that’s the curvy \pred
M first, then use that to find M(x)
hm ok
Should it be like, fk - gk = 0 or smth
oh yea since all maps dont tell you everything about A
For some \xi or wtv
what if there existed a ring R not isomorphic to A such that if you knew all maps from A to R then you would understand A completely ?
I know some characterization of \pred in terms of ideals but idk about \subset
Seems weirdly symmetric though...
Such confusing notation
Welcome to representation theory my friend
That’s why I’m confused 
Yeah me too
no idea what that is other than people saying its hard lol
F.1.1 on the latter & F.4.4 on the former is kinda what I’d like to see something akin to
the idea of maps losing information can be used to think about "observing" a hidden state via a map A -> B where you can directly see B
i'm sorry, i have no idea how to do this/start this; i know that in the case of when R = Z, and we're working with a finite abelian group, you just find the prime decomposition of the order and check the order of the elements. here I have no idea how to start, since I don't even think M is finite
Hmm, so 1_G will just be like the trivial representation. And this condition is that pi has the trivial representation as a submodule. But the dimensions don't quite match, so maybe some multiplicity stuff...
Ye 1 is the trivial rep
They do some “functions of positive type” stuff but I’m not familiar with this subject so
This is mostly stuff in terms of the representations rather than some modules
So you do exactly the same thing, but instead of considering the primes in Z you look at the primes in k[x]
I know that the \pred one doesn’t depend on multiplicities though
hell i'm having trouble seeing that M is finitely generated 💀 bc (x, x) is not a generator and same with (1, 1) since it's over R
Finitely generated does not mean generated by a single element. It means generated by finitely many. For example 2 in this case
(1,0) and (0,1)
yea but isn't it over R? so if we're multiplying by elements of R how do we get say (x^7, 2x^5)
are we viewing it as a k[x] module?
thats really interesting im gonna look more into that
If you multiply (1, 0) by x^7 you get (x^7, 0)
oh so the scalars do come from k[x]
Yes
oh i thought it was just some arbitrary PID R
ok hopefully that makes life easier
thanks
so how are we supposed to characterize M if we don't know it's order?
oh would it just be the decomposition of (x-1)^2x^3 into irreducible polynomials so like R/(x - 1)^2 and R/(x^3) and then direct sum with the other decomposition?
so I could just think of it like
decompose $\mathbb{Z}/(p_1^{n_1}p_2^{n_2}) \oplus \mathbb{Z}/(p_3^{n_3}p_4^{n_4})$ into a direct sum of cyclic modules?
okeyokay
well here p3 and p4 would be equal since they're both x
ok, so $k[x]/((x - 2)x^2))$ is either isomorphic to $k[x]/(x - 2) \oplus k[x]/(x^2)$ or $k[x]/(x - 2) \oplus k[x]/(x) \oplus k[x]/(x)$. but $k[x]/((x - 2)x^2))$ contains an element of order $x^2$ (namely $(x - 2)$) so we must have $k[x]/((x - 2)x^2)) \simeq k[x]/(x - 2) \oplus k[x]/(x^2)$
okeyokay
right?
so $k[x]/((x - 1)^2x^3) \oplus k[x]/((x - 2)x^2) \simeq k[x]/(x - 1)^2 \oplus k[x]/(x^2) \oplus k[x]/(x - 2) \oplus k[x]/(x^2)$?
okeyokay

pls 😭😭😭 if someone could verify I would be very grateful
You swapped an x^3 for an x^2 there, but otherwise correct
Thank god
Thank you so much
Had a question I was hoping someone else can confirm for me. In the following screenshot, isn't the "g in G" before the sentence beginning "show that", actually redundant.
I'm saying that "Let G be a group and g in G" should really just be "Let G be a group."
nevermind
i think the g in the definition and the g in the problem statement aren't the same g, this is an abuse of notation
yea it's redundant because it's defined in Z(G)
I didn't read that it was center. In fact yeah this is bad to have the g in G before
but that first g doesn't make sense i think...
was it D&F
nah it's called Abstract Algebra Theory and Applications by Thomas Judson
and then I had another question too I was hoping you guys could confirm for me as well
I mean it's a good text but yea these kinda mishaps aren't helpful ahaha
anyway, my other question is:
I'm asked to prove
If $(xy)^2=xy$ for all $x,y\in G$, show that $G$ is abelian.
logician
that's literally the problem statement
I can assume G is a group, right?
it doesn't make sense otherwise
Unless your text is considering more general stuff like semigroups, then yeah and then it would be bad to use G for semigroup
But in a group theory section, G = group
yea that's the notation they've stuck to very on and off
I think I can assume G is a group here because I mean it doesn't really make any sense otherwise. I won't be able to prove associativity or anything else since the operation isn't clear
yes G is a group
I mean eventually this gets absorbed into your assumptions lol. Once you mode past basic defs of binary operations, you'll always be working with some specific structure. And it's probably in these sections gonna be a group structure; if it wasn't, they'd make it clear
that's what I was thinking. We're in the subgroup section rn so we should already know group definitions
thanks for the confirmation and help
This is kind of a weird problem, since the trivial group is the only one that satisfies this
yeah
I mean the trivial subgroup group {e}=G satisfies it for sure, but wait how do we know it's the only group that does?
Let y equal e, then x^2 = x, cancel one x gives x = e
hmm
that was actually a question on one of my quizzes lol
it said show that given a group G, x^2=x iff x=e. super easy
but yea it's a special case of the other problem
(xy)^2 = e would have been at least a little more interesting
true. I'm gonna ask my prof tmrw if any other groups G satisfy (xy)^2=xy for all x,y in G.
It'll be interesting to see if he comes up with anything else other than {e}
It's just {e}
for this reason
<x,y | xyxyy^-1x^-1> there
since this shows any arbitrary element x must in fact be equal to e
hmmm
that problem statement seems a bit stronger than intended
yea
I mean
just incase you can't see this, pick whatever element "z" you want and then set y = x^-1z
I'm gonna let this stew in my mind for a bit. x=e iff x^2=x makes sense to be rn, but not much else since it seems like that's only when y=e
Yeah I feel like (xy)^2 = e would have been a much more natural exercise
what's the point of having (xy)^2 = xy for all x,y anyways? Why not just show x^2 = x for all x implies trivial?
All around strange
I love this textbook
wait now I get why it's only {e}
because if y wasn't equal to x=e, then y=xy=(xy)^2=y^2 which is the same as x^2=x since x=e.
meaning every element equals the square of itself
The point is that if something is true for all x and y, then it is in particular true when y=e
right
I was using the fact here that if G was a group containing e and some other element y, then since G is closed under the operation y=ey=(ey)^2=y^2. Which only happens (based on the problem I proved on my quiz) exactly when y=e.
since y=e is both a necessary and sufficient condition for y=y^2
aight yea now I see it
ring multiplication allowing for nontrivial elements to satisfy x^2 = x 
Scary things like 0
oh judson does groups before rings
non-0,1 idempotents
Still not scarier than 0
but 0 is the most understood element!
Not just redundant, confusing
here, would $M(x) = k[x]/(x - 1) \oplus k[x]/(x - 2)$?
okeyokay
and the generators would be $(x - 1)$, $(x - 2)$?
okeyokay
wait a minute.. that wouldn't be possible since (x - 1) isn't even in M(x)
wait is it just that $M(x) = k[x]/(x - 1)^2 \oplus k[x]/(x - 2)$, with generators $(x - 1)^2, (x - 2)$?
okeyokay
since $f(x)x^i \in \bigl((x - 1)^2x^3\bigl)$ implies that $f(x)$ is a multiple of $(x - 1)^2$
okeyokay
actually wait no
okay, here's my thought process: so $M(x) = \bigl((x - 1)^2\bigl) \oplus \bigl((x - 2)\bigl)$. now Ann($(x - 1)^2$) = $(x^3)$ and Ann$(x - 2)$ = $(x^2)$. thus we have $M(x) \simeq k[x]/(x^3) \oplus k[x]/(x^2)$, right?
okeyokay
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for more information.
(You may edit your message to recompile.)
<@&286206848099549185>
😭
sorry i don't want to be annoying anyone else can use this channel ofc
just don't want to die on my midterm soon
I "know things about modules" and can help you, but I don't recognize the notation M(x)
what do you mean by that?
thank you!
yea it's kinda weird notation
$M(x) = {m \in M \mid x^im = 0 \text{ for some i $\geq 0$}}$
okeyokay
Okay so you need conditions for when a polynomial is killed by some power of f(x)
you're on the right track, but you were checking for things that are killed in either the left or right factor of the direct sum. It needs to be killed in both
So (x-1)^2 is not annihilated by a power of x
oh so if I had my generators for M(x) as (x - 1)^2 and (x - 2) separately, then there would be some f(x)(x - 1)^2 that gets killed by some x^i, but this wouldn't necessarily get killed in the right factor, if i understand correctly?
Yes, and you could even take f(x)=1. x^n (x-1)^2 will never be 0 in k[x]/((x-2)x^2)
oh sweet yea i just literally wrote down that counterexample
ok thanks, that makes a lot more sense then
so our generator would just be (x - 1)^2(x - 2) then
how does one prove g^a^b = g^b^a for groups?
wait sorry I'm being an idiot. ((x-1)^2, 0) is an element of M(x)
you were originally correct
M(x) is generated by ((x-1)^2,0) and (0,x-2)
ohh ok no worries
oh yea i forgot about components and everything lol
so $M(x) \simeq k[x]/(x^3) \oplus k[x]/(x^2)$ then?
okeyokay
(put parentheses because it looks like g^(a^b) = g^(b^a) rather than (g^a)^b = (g^b)^a)
you could probably formally approach it by induction
but it's easy enough to just expand it: b copies of g^a vs a copies of g^b
you can prove this with the 1st isom theorem, yes.
Since every cyclic module C over a PID R is isomorphic to R/(r) where (r) = Ann(a), and (a) = C
oh hokay
yeah this result ^ is pretty easy to see with firs tiso
first iso
yo I'm a fucking idiot, I'm assuming that every short exact sequence of unitary $R$-modules is split exact, and trying to show that every unitary $R$-module is hence injective. So I've let [\begin{tikzcd}
& I \
B & A & 0
\arrow[from=2-3, to=2-2]
\arrow["g", from=2-2, to=2-1]
\arrow["f", from=2-2, to=1-2]
\end{tikzcd}]
be any diagram with bottom row exact, the issue is that I can find things mapping from $I$ but not things mapping to $I$ if that makes any sense. would appreciate any hints
okeyokay
it's also annoying since the bottom row has to be any arbitrary exact sequence, so I can't put a factor of I into there or do any tricks
pls tell me this is nontrivial this problem is making me feel like a moron
I need help showing that if G is a finite group then the other or a is odd if and only if a = (b_k)^2^k for some b_k in G. I have done the direction where i’ve supposed that the other of a is odd
So you assume that every exact sequence splits, is there perhaps an exact sequence in your diagram?
Pick k such that 2^k doesn't divide the order of G. What can the order of b_k be? What will then the order of (b_k)^2^k be?
Why does Fulton and Harris use $\mathfrak{S}_n$ for symmetric group :c
:3c
that's fairly common tbh
Common ≠ good
to be fancy of course
well for n = 36 it's this ;3
how the fuck is that an S
Arki
21
i was told to use the contrapositive and show a contradiction where the order of the element is larger than the order of the group
Fraktur y is an abomination
Let's play: guess the letter
V?
B?
That works too I guess
$\mathfrak{Y}$
:3c
What
D
why even use mathfrak
medieval monk aesthetic
How
Why are the exceptional root systems labelled using three different letters, instead of a single letter?
G2, F4, E6, E7, E8
Is there any reason for using three different letters E, F, G
Why not E2, E4, E6, E7, E8?
GPT-4 says there's no reason at all, and Google only gives me clickbait
(Google is useless)
GPT-4
hahahahaha
why?
just look at the coexter graphs
it's pretty obvious why they're labelled in 3 different families
It sometimes helps, actually
I'm responding to this
Well, not really, because you can't generalise from finitely many examples
"Problem of induction" it's called.
what
huh?
the top 4 are literally infinite families
I have absolutely no idea what you're talking about
Are we going Hume
That's not what I said
That's not really what the problem of induction is
there is no "E9"
Basic critical thinking and rigour: You can't generalise an infinite rule from finitely many examples.
there is no "F5"
You're trying to do that by looking at the Dynkin diagrams, which is nonsense
You can't generalise other Es, Fs and Gs, and that way justify the naming.
you're making literally zero sense lmfaoooo these ARE the entire families
there is only one F, one G, and three Es
these were classifed about 100 years ago
I said that there's no reason to use three different letters instead of just one
they have completely different structures 
What are they?
the three familes in question
What are they? Why use three letters?
You're just being rude and not helping
And you're agitating me
all of the Es are simply laced for example
you're the one who called me an idiot
I blew my gasket. Sorry
🤷♂️
Anyway, there might be some logic to a naming scheme that uses three different letters, but looking at Dynkin diagrams isn't enough to find it.
I mean, it's suggestive.
But like, Hume's problem of induction, and all that.
At least in the simply laced case, every graph corresponds to a root system, so the Es do fit into an infinite family. But E9 and above are not finite root systems.
I think you can define root systems for generalizations of F and G as well, but I'm not quite sure how that works
I don't see what Hume has to do with any of this
Hume's theorm of induction is a critism of the scientific method
Nowhere are we justifying anything using finitely many examples anyway
not mathematicians noticing structual patterns and chosing names to reflect them
the names are descriptive not prescriptive
if we did what hume laments against, we would have already proven collatz and riemann. They would be uh laws, just like physical laws
open to be disproved but taken to be true 
But are the names derived from some general (infinitary) principle?
It seems someone suggested there are contexts in which something like E_n exist for general n, but those wouldn't be root systems
Because using 3 different letters suggests there's an infinitary generalisation for the Es, Fs and Gs.
You even get a corresponding lie algebra
https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Kac–Moody_algebra
Though it will be infinite dimensional if it's not a Dynkin diagram
In mathematics, a Kac–Moody algebra (named for Victor Kac and Robert Moody, who independently and simultaneously discovered them in 1968) is a Lie algebra, usually infinite-dimensional, that can be defined by generators and relations through a generalized Cartan matrix. These algebras form a generalization of finite-dimensional semisimple Lie al...
Otherwise I don't know why things are that way.
i dont even know what this is, but its clear to me the subscripts refer to the graph degree
also rip my boys H_3 and H_4
The letters, not the subscripts, damnit
I'm not saying that
because there are multiple possibilities for a 4-graph
Like, why are you here and trying to argue with me?
There's a good reason for A_n, B_n, C_n and D_n. No one's arguing about that.
That's obvious.
did u just want E678 to have different letters
@rocky cloak do the extended familes have coexter-esque systems associated with them? reading the wikipedia page their presentations are very coextery
and if they do are their coexter graphs the obvious extenstions of the finite cases
lol and its worth noting ABCDn dont even make sense in the way you want it because they have different restrictions on n
theyre probably complaining about the subscripts implying the objects are defined for all natural N
but thats not the case
defined for some subsets
A starts at 1, B starts at 2, C starts at 3, and D starts at 4. Makes sense.
Is there a classification of these?
where's 0
0 is not real. The mathematicians who came up with 0 are delusional
I believe so, though I don't know so much about that side.
What I know is for a simply laced diagram, if you consider the representation of a quiver with that underlying graph then the dimension vectors of indecomposable representations are exactly roots in the root system
0 is imaginary 😔
There is also some generalizations of this, which use representations of valued graphs instead of quivers, which then also covers multiply laced graphs
But that wouldn't give you other Es other than the 3 possibilities
So the use of two more letters is not really explained.
And then there's this
https://arxiv.org/abs/2302.01866
We introduce a notion of representation for a class of generalised quivers known as Coxeter quivers. These representations are built using fusion categories associated to $U_q(\mathfrak{s}\mathfrak{l}_2)$ at roots of unity and we show that many of the classical results on representations of quivers can be generalised to this setting. Namely, we ...
Gabriel's theorem uses a subset of the Dynkin diagrams that classify root systems.
So there's no general principle for deriving E, F and G letters.
right so the quiver side works the same
finite root systems
Kac generalizes this to infinite root systems for arbitrary graphs
The pattern for how to define E_n is pretty clear
Does it extend to infinitely many Es? Or does it use the octonions or other non-associative algebra in some way analogous to the A, B, C, D series?
"simply laced" or as I like to call it, an alkane
I'm not seeing it, btw. I look at the Freudenthal magic square construction, and F4 should really be called E4.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Freudenthal_magic_square - Look at the bottom row of that table.
In mathematics, the Freudenthal magic square (or Freudenthal–Tits magic square) is a construction relating several Lie algebras (and their associated Lie groups). It is named after Hans Freudenthal and Jacques Tits, who developed the idea independently. It associates a Lie algebra to a pair of division algebras A, B. The resulting Lie algebras h...
Really, F4 should be called E4.
Question: Ker(phi) is a subset of M which is finitely generated... why isn't this obvious? I must be missing something here
I guess ultimately it's arbitrary how they're divided, but to me it's very useful that the simply laced an non-simply laced are in different families. So you can say stuff like "ADE diagrams"
submodules of finitely-generated modules need not be finitely-generated in general
these are not vector spaces
i think it's always true when your module is over a noetherian ring
oh really huh. thanks. I don't know what a noetharian ring is yet
it's a ring whose finitely-generated modules have finitely-generated submodules 
fun exercise
there's a really slick ||SES argument|| you can do
There is actually an infinitary generalisation of the E series beyond just E6,E7,E8: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/En_(Lie_algebra)
In mathematics, especially in Lie theory, En is the Kac–Moody algebra whose Dynkin diagram is a bifurcating graph with three branches of length 1, 2 and k, with k = n − 4.
In some older books and papers, E2 and E4 are used as names for G2 and F4.
And in fact, E2 and E4 used to be used as names for G2 and F4 respectively.
Even though E4 is actually the same as A4
That's why the names E2 and E4 stopped being used for the other exceptional root systems.
To add further confusion, the classification of finite Coxeter groups is the same thing except that Bn and Cn are the same Coxeter groups and there are two new exceptional Coxeter groups (H3 and H4) and there’s a new infinite family (I2(n)) which includes G2 as a special case.
In the finite Coxeter group case, the corresponding Dynkin diagrams look undirected
If you take the Dynkin diagrams for root systems, and remove the directionality, then B_n and C_n become the same.
Also, the edges in the Coxeter case are weighted.
Can you even express Q as a finite union of proper subspaces? Can I argue with that?
the only proper subspace of Q is the zero space
this is not true for Q^2
Q^2 has an infinite number of proper subspaces
okay, then I can't ig
wait, how do I show that?
it's pretty trivial to show
Just list all the subspaces
ah, okay that makes sense
sure, if you can show that there are infinite distinct field extenstions - but that's straying a bit far from the vector space perspective imo
what does it mean for a space to be one dimensional?
Isn't that just, Q?
They’re isomorphic to Q
The answer I was looking for was “spanned by a single vector”
ah, right
So if you take a finite number of sub spaces which is just unioning spans of individual vectors (because obviously if you take the span of two at once you’ll probably get all of Q^2), try and construct a new vector that doesn’t lie in any of your spans
There we go wow I could not word that right to save my life
gotcha thanks
Geometrically this should be quite clear - you can’t colour in an entire plane with a finite number of lines!
yea, that was the first thing that popped up in my head
I just need to write this down ig

similar result, you can't write R^2 as a countable union of proper subspaces!
oh right, that's neat
🤓