#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 164 of 1
which clearly isn't the case here
but I think if you're mapping into a field you can do it analogously? maybe?
nah, cause if you pick x -> k for any k then wtf does the element 1/(x-k) get mapped to
or am I getting confused
yh that is the problem
Infinity duh
so true....
I mean that half-unironically. Freely adjoin infinity, and you can probably make it like a semi-ring homomorphism? or something?
I think I'm gonna be sick
wheely time
😭
can somebody please explain these equalities at the bottom to me? i can't understand it for the life of me... i don't understand why $\pi(\sigma) \pi(\tau)f(x_1, \dots, x_n) \neq \pi(\sigma)f(x_{\tau(1)}, \dots, x_{\tau(n)})$ and also the second equality
okeyokay
since we have $\pi(\sigma)(\pi(\tau) = f(x_1, \dots, x_n)) = \pi(\sigma)f(x{\tau(1)}, \dots, x_{\tau(n)})$
okeyokay
oh look it's a wreath product
whatever fuck latex
Wew Lads Tbh
it's applied first
as is standard for wanting to show something is a group action you wanna show that g(hx) = (gh)x
so you first apply the outermost element and apply the second one
huh ok
$\pi(\sigma)(\pi(\tau)f(x_i)) = \pi(\sigma)f(x_{\tau(i)}) = f(x_{\sigma(\tau(i))} = f(x_{\sigma\tau(i)})$
Wew Lads Tbh
not sure why they didn't just do this
okeyokay
is it just to emphasize that you're projecting the permutations onto the indices or some shit
I don't know
it seems like the authors are just allergic to defining what a group action is and are so skirting around the issue
nah lang defined a group action earlier
Someone told me to ask here so hope you can help me
Let $z\in\overline{\mathbb{Z}}$ an algebraic integer of conjugates $z_1,...,z_n$. Let $P\in\mathbb{Q}[X]$ also be a polynomial of degree at most $n−1$, and $p\in\mathbb{N}$ a prime number. Which of the following statements are always true?
All $P(z_1),...,P(z_n)$ are conjugates of $P(z)$. \
The conjugates of $P(z)$ are among $P(z_1),...,P(z_n)$. \
If $P(z)$ is an algebraic integer, then $P\in\mathbb{Z}[X]$ \
The sequence $z,z^2,z^3,...$ of the powers of z contains at least one term worth 0 or 1 modulo p. \
$\overline{\mathbb{Z}}$ modulo $p$, i.e. $\overline{\mathbb{Z}}/p\overline{\mathbb{Z }}$ is a field \
There are an infinity of algebraic integers two to two distinct modulo p.
Joseph.P
So the P(zi) will be all the conjugates of P(z), yes.
If P(z) = 1/2 z, and z=2, then P(z) is an integer even though P doesn't have integer coefficients. If you mean that P(z) is an algebraic integer for every z, then it must have integer coefficients.
Is it all ?
I'm a little bit confused as to this proof - for instance, wouldn't saying that a 3-cycle may come in the form of (rab) cover the case for a 3-cycle coming in the form (sab)?
barZ/p will not be a field, and will be infinite.
I'm not sure whether z^n is eventually 0 or 1 mod p, but that seems plausible
But for z=1+sqrt(2) I think it’s never congruent to 0 or 1 mod 5
If you raise it to the 12 power you get 1 modulo 5
,w calculate ((1+\sqrt(2))^{12}-1))/5
That’s wrong
modulo 5\bar{Z} I presume
(1 + sqrt(2))^12 = 1 + 19600 + 138600sqrt(2)
,w calculate (1+sqrt(2))^12
,w 1 + 19600 + 138600sqrt(2)
you do seem to be slightly off but it doesn't matter, this is still 1 mod 5\bar{Z}
lets expand it out properly
,w expand (1+sqrt(2))^12
just a slight numerical error
I tried the combination 1,3,4 but it’s wrong
Yeah, I just wrote down one too many zeros
What do you mean 1,3,4?
The statements : the first one, the third and the fourth
What do you mean you tried the combination?
Why p=/=2^s+1
In the question I have to check a box if they’re right so I checked the first, the third and the fourth
Oh thought the 3rd was right
1/2 * 2 is an integer even though 1/2 is not
If s = rt with t odd, then
2^rt + 1 is congruent to 0 modulo 2^r + 1
The fourth was wrong
Coolio. Wonder what a counter example could be
$\dfrac{1+\sqrt{17}}{2}$
Joseph.P
Tq
can i get a hint for finishing this problem? i assumed p > 2 (the case that p = 2 was already proven in lang) and assumed for contradiction that [G: N_H] was not equal to 1. Since [G: N_H] = k for 2 \leq k \leq p, if 2 \leq k \leq p - 1 then that's our contradiction since [G:H] = p implies that we must have [G: N_H] dividing that index p which is impossible. however i'm a bit stuck on the case that [G:N_H] = p
<@&286206848099549185>
no vlue
Try left multiplication on the cosets
Or something like that, since the orbit of H would be p right?
I guess a useful trick is that H is normal iff the action of H on G/H is trivial.
Permutation on p elements, kernel of index p or smth
ok i'm still trying to understand this but yea
I guess that doesn’t as easily just say it’s H oop, but it’s contained in H
i don't understand the conjugate and kernel part of the proof tho as well so i'll have to think about that
See that the kernel is a subgroup of H?
*of index p
i guess so
yeah
yea makes sense
if g in G is sent to the identity permutation then gHg^{-1} = H so g is a subset of H or rather that doesn't make any sense
idk
i don't understand why the orbit would be p, there are p cosets of H including H, how does that imply that there are p copies of xHx^{-1} for x in G
and what the hell does it mean for G to operate on an orbit
that's saying G operating on Gs
or G operating on xHx^{-1}
like g(xHx^{-1})
I’d rather say g |-> gH
Which id think is better than conjugation shenanigans
Clearly hits all p cosets of H
ok sure
And is (iso to) subgroup of S_p
alr imma come back to this problem i'm starting to get frustrated lmfaoooo
thanks tho
Take the kernel of G’s operation on G/H
clearly a normal subgroup of G, and a subgroup of H
Since gH =/= H for g not in H
What’s the index of the kernel? What’s the index of the kernel in H
@white oxide to see either of these indexes, consider ||1st iso lol|| and ||lagrange||
is \Phi common notation in galois theory?
saying that for $x^2 + ax + b \in F[x]$, where $F(\sqrt{a^2 - 4b})$ is the extension, $\Phi(-a/2 + (\sqrt{a^2 - 4b})/2) = -a/2 - (\sqrt{a^2 - 4b})/2$
Hsna¹
A subset yes but you should deduce what it is directly.
g acts on cosets of H, so g mapped to identity permutation iff gaH=aH for any a, meaning g is in intersection of aHa^-1.
Ker=intersection of aHa^-1, consider prime factors of |G/ker| (any prime factor q of [G:ker], can q<p? can q>p?)
isn't D4 a subgroup of the group containing all of the symetries on a cube?
Yes
(Well, isomorphic to)
Wdym exactly?
forget that
Well it's not so difficult to determine the group of symmetries of a cube, I think
the group of rotational symmetries of a cube is D4+90 and 270 degree roations in pitch and yaw
right?
It is generated by those elements yes
Wdym generated
Every rotation is a combination of those
But not every rotation is one of those
Say rotation about an axis that passes through opposite corners
Or opposite edges
generate means you take some elements and combine them in every possible way to get more elements
E.g. the subset {6, 8} of the group of integers generates the subgroup of even integers
Since every even integer is a sum/difference of a bunch of 6s and 8s
oh right those are counted as elements too
is there an isomorphism between S1xR+ and RxR?
What group structure does R+ have? Did you mean to post in #point-set-topology? Add context please.
Oh, no I see now.
Hint: torsion
uhh, the positive real numbers under multiplication?
the question is the same as "is there an isomorphism between complex numbers in polar form and rectangual form" (i think, that is why i'm asking)
More like wheter the additive and multiplicative group of complex numbers are isomorphic.
There's a very natural homomorphism from one to the other, but it's not injective.
at the pole they become redditors?
and those redditors make the mapping homo(morphic)???

hmm
the subgroup generated by (1,1)(0,1)
and non-trivial
Non-trivial in what way?
it's not... the trivial subgroup.....
as in not trivial subgp yea
so is every non-proper subgroup so w/e
I would be more interested in an example where the trivial group isn't normal 😉
generated over matrix multiplication of itself?
that tends to be how you generate subgroups yes
It will consist of matrices of the form (1, n; 0, 1) for n an integer
But won't it have to generate the Id at some point to be a group then? and if it does then it becomes cyclic and hence abelian which would make it normal?
Or am I making a mistake somewhere?
You have to do M^n for all n in Z
So Id is when n = 0
And inverses appear as negative n
M being that matrix ofc
Subgroups of abelian groups are normal, but abelian subgroups need not be normal.
oh yea fair, sheesh, what a mistake
thanks
No, this isn’t correct
R x R is not the multiplicative group of complex numbers
It is the additive group
ceral2
anyway it's clear to see that S1xR and RxR cannot be isomorphic, the former has torsion
Upon the witnessing?
theflamesofbabylon I have been trolled once more tearsofthenile
I want to see these emojis someday
what the fuck could those emojis be
Fantastic 10/10
Why in a finite ring A with an odd number of elements, 2 is in U(A)
How do you show that G acts on itself by left translation g.s:= gs?
just check that that defines a group action
I am just confused about the definition of left translation, what exactly is it? rest I can figure out
So then check that G acts on itself by translation, simply plug in the definition
It should immediately come together
gotcha
Can someone help me with that
Hint: think about what you know about the group of units of Z/nZ
What could the characteristic of A be?
An odd number?
Indeed, do you see why?
Yeah from lagrange theorem on (A,+)
And do you then see why 2 is a unit?
This may be the time to consider this, then
So if the characteristic is 2n-1
characteristic + 1 is e- ffs
1+1=2?
What could a multiplicative inverse to 2 be
aña
this method is way smarter than what I had in mind lol
More generally, for a finite ring A, n is a unit iff it is relatively prime to |A|.
thanks, i'll look at this in a bit
i'm still trying to understand lang's example, or rather how the index of H in G being 2 implies that the orbit is of order 2
clearly one of the elements in the orbit has to be H
I’m surprised at least one is real
they're all real
so the other coset of H is of the form gH, and if the orbit is 2, that would imply that the orbit would look like {H, aHa^{-1}} for some a in G, i'm trying to see how this is true or implied
i'm also still uncertain as to what it means to operate on an orbit, i'm guessing he means that G operates on the set of subgroups under conjugation and happens to operate on H that way
our action is conjugation right
yea
then H being index 2 implies H is normal so the orbit is size 1
I’d rather use a |-> aH
sharp what pack were u smokin
I have said multiple times to use left multiplication
nah im just tryna understand lang's proof
me trying to infer the theorem statement from a dodgy proof
let me post the proof/example gentlemen
I'll scroll up for ONCE and only this ONCE
He’s trying to show smallest prime divisor index normal
nah i got u
wew gone scrolling
I'm back from my pilgrimage
oops
I dislike this proof but I can't remember the one I like...
G/H = {H, aH} if aHa^-1 = H we're done, aHa^-1 = aH => Ha^-1 = H => H = Ha
The one I was thinking is G acting on left on G/H
hmm
why should aHa¡
bro really hit me with the ¡
lmao I couldnt see the keyboard well because dark and autohotkey wasnt activated
I was gonna edit but too late
I even opened minecraft education by accident, didnt even know that existed or was in my computer
I ain't gonna question whatever the fuck your workflow is here
"if [G: N_H] = p, then the orbit of H under the conjugation by elements of G on the set of subgroups is of order p, and G operates on this orbit. in this way we get a homomorphism of G into the group of permutations of p elements. since there is one conjugate of H unequal to H, then the kernel of our homomorphism is normal, of index 2, hence equal to H, which is normal, a contradiction which concludes the proof."
yeah yeah???
QED?
wait sharp ur right left multiplication on cosets is easier
wait
WTF HOW DOES G OPERATE ON THE ORBIT IS IT JUST BY LEFT MULTIPLICATION OR CONJUGATION
The text you pasted literally says conjugation
nah bro we got G operating on G operating on the set of subgroups by conjugation
that's crazy
anyways
what would this homomorphism even be given by
my guy lang waving his magic wand
(Also, g |-> g^-1Hg?)
My guy
usually the actions are pretty natural, like if you're working with cosets you just slap it with left multiplication; but if you're working with normal subgroups, you slap it on both sides with conjugation
Well if it’s normal, the conjugation one is trivial
wait my fault how would this be G acting on G/H if we're left multiplying H by g in G
Anyhow, kernel of this is evidently a subgroup of H
g |-> gH
yeah tf you mean how is G acting on it?
fasho
yeah?
oh shit that's crazy

What’s G:Kernel
wait bro bro isn't this only if G is abelian, cuz h x (aH) = haH = H iff haH = ahH = H you feel me
tf u on about blud
Have you ever done a quotient group
Those aren’t always abelian
nah, i've done a factor group tho


loll
K is a normal subgroup of H
mhm
What’s G:K
shittt maneee, it's greater than or equal to the index of H in G i believe
Try Lagrange
ye it is
[G: K] = [G: H][H : K]
oops
i can smell a contradiction a brewing
LOL
i saw that Wew
What are we doing now
theflamesofbabylon
waiting for okay to realize
someone play the jeopardy theme
anyways it's p but i'm trying to reach a contradiction
||G/H = {H, xH} then xH = H => x \in H so xH = Hx. Now assume x not in H, so xH \neq H. G/H is a partition of G so xH = G-H, likewise for Hx, so xH = G-H = Hx and so the left/right cosets are equal so H is normal||
this isn't related to ur action proof
such over kill for the p = 2 case
gg
Would be nice if you could generalize this strategy for p>2, but I don't think you can....
neither do I
u have to do the action garbage
but even then it's a trivial consequence of schur's lemma ;3
Welp, when we eventually get that H:K = 1 then big W
I guess the nice thing about p=2 is you don't have to worry about whether G is divisible by any smaller primes
Other way around
cereal2
Do I want to know what this "cereal2" stuff means?
Daybroken memes
:theninecelestialsphereschimewithsuchasweethum:
What is that supposed to be
@white oxide have you seen it yet
I made that one up
yeah that one
yea, i underestand that [H: K] = 1 implies that the kernel is all of H and hence is normal in G but my dumbass is still trying to get to [H: K] = 1
oh is our morphism the canonical surjection
Sure can’t be trivial
No, we’re permuting elements of G/H, a set of size p 
I wonder what a helpful group homomorphism may be 
oh is it H
map everything to the identity
why would you guess H
idk rlly
I prefer the proof where ||H acts on G/H by left multiplication||
||The orbit of gH can't contain H, so must have size < p, but must also divide the order of H||
||So it must have size 1, and hgH = gH, which implies Hg=gH||
||I think that's what's going on here but they're so lost in the weeds the light of god cannot guide them ||

Nah, sharps seems to be hinting that ||G/K is a subgroup of Sp||
I was going for ||K divides p!||
I cannot follow any argument that's going on here ngl
ok wait, so if we want to get [G: K]/p = p we want to get [G: K] = p or the quotient group G/K to be of size p
I don't know the answer to this question and I'm tired of pretending that I do
huh
?
No
bruh
Try G -> S_{G/K}
bruv
First iso says G/K -> S_p
hao
can you prove this by appealing to the burnside ring of G or is that circular
I have no idea what the burnside ring is 😭
Usually, I'm helping answer questions, but I actually have a question I was hoping somone can clarify for me. Is the group U(12) a subset of the integers modulo n? I'm not sure if I should be putting equivalences symbols around my Cayley table. I feel like it is since otherwise 11^2=121 which would be outside the group if it wasn't a subgroup of Z_{12}
$U(12)={[a]:\gcd(a,12)=1,\ a\in\mathbb Z}$ is this correct?
logician
Yeah but you could also list em
yeah sharp I'm not buying this actually. S_p is p-transitive, how do we know the action of G on K is also p-transtitive?
it's definitely 2-transitive but we've done that 
It’s not an isomorphism it’s an injection
I was seeing U(12)={1,5,7,11} but I imagine technically it's {[1],[5],[7],[11]}?
right ok now I'm on board
yeah it's 1,5,7,11
||so G/K divides p!, so it’s p||
ok i'm not going crazy rightt his would imply G/K is of order p!
It does not
bruh
what's the order of S_p then
the symmetric group on p letters
is it not p!
?
thanks for the clarification I imagine the equivalence classes symbols are only dropped for ease rather than constantly putting them around just like Z_n={[1],[2],...,[n-1]} in reality but most people just refer to Z_n as Z_n={1,2,3,...,n-1}
dawg ur saying that G/K is isomorphic to S_p
you did phrase it really annoyingly
that implies they have the same order
I thought that's what you meant as well
this entire proof is fucking stupid can I just add that on top as a little treat
I’m not a group theorist 
me neither
It's just a matter of definition. Like you can define Z_n to be the set {0, 1, ..., n-1} where the group operation is a * b = (a+b) mod n
it isn't actualyl I just think you're introducing it way too early
Or you can define it as a quotient group, using equivalence classes
the original post was only about p = 2
I’m not, since A -> B gives an injection A/ker -> B
aight ok fair
The question he asked was because he had an assigned exercise for whatever p iirc
Yeah, and G:K = p * H:K
and the image is a subgroup
mb mb, as u were sarge
the books defines it as the positive integers less than that are relatively prime to 12. Since I was asked to write the cayley table for U(12) I was looking at 11 times 11 and that's 121, but since 121 isn't in {1,5,7,11} I figured 121=1 since leaves remainder 1 upon division by 12. Based on the fact that U(12) is a group and hence closed under the operation 11(11) must be in U(12).
so it has ordering dividing p!
Yep
Now conclude G:K = p
Not as slick as jagr’s but it’ll get there eventually
Once you have that, H:K = 1 is immediate
Yes, so 11*11 should be 1 in this group yes. Whether you want to think of that as the group operation being multiplication modulo 12, or you want to think of 11 as representing the equivalence class of 11 modulo 12 is up to you I guess
This where you finally use the assumptions
thanks for the help guys
No contradictions here too
I wanted to take a moment to express my heartfelt gratitude for your invaluable assistance with a math problem that had been causing me quite a bit of frustration. Your timely help not only resolved my mathematical dilemma but also gave me a renewed sense of confidence in tackling such challenges.
Your willingness to offer your expertise and the patience with which you guided me through the problem were truly commendable. It is not every day that one encounters someone so generous with their time and knowledge. Your assistance went above and beyond what I expected, and I am deeply grateful for your kindness.
I believe that your name, Dragonslayer Sharp, truly reflects your abilities and dedication to helping others conquer their academic obstacles. You are a real-life math hero!
Please accept my sincere thanks once again. Your support has made a significant difference in my academic journey, and I will always remember your kindness. If there's ever an opportunity for me to return the favor or assist you in any way, please do not hesitate to reach out.

hmmm... fusion system p-power index implies normal rizz? rizzed up?
Saturated with rizz, even
actually wait I'm not even sure if that's true it might be weakly normal
Horrible
Why are you like this
yeah ok "d"ragonslayer "s"harp I got a problem for you nerd

idk i'm a very grateful person, my gratitude gets out of control sometimes
but fr thanks dude
Tears of the nile
it's just like
we got S_{p^k} acting on it's Sylow p-subgroup S and I need the automorphism groups of different subgroups of S that this generates
Yeah that sounds horrific
it's known for S itself and there's only one other subgroup I need for p \neq 2
0 shot that this is solvable in less than 3 pages
remains to be seen
the other problem I have is way harder because it actually involves a proof rather than just computation
I mean this sounds annoying to compute and build the relevant intermediary results
How bad is the other problem
the other problem can be summerised as "Clifford's theorem for fusion systems"
I don’t know that one so 
uhhh
yeah np
$H \trianglelefteq G$ $\chi \in \text{Irr}(G) \Rightarrow \chi|H = e\sum{i=1}^t \psi^{g_i}$ for some $\psi \in \text{Irr}(H)$
Wew Lads Tbh
Yep that’s rep theory I can’t help in the slightest
the rep theorist is doing rep theory no way...
I don’t know anything about rep
my discord status was something I was thinking about the other day
wait would it even make sense to consider the kernel since the kernel is all elements that get sent to the identity, but G/H need not have a group structure since we don't know if H is normal yet right
or am i SMOKING
it's the kernel of the group action right
iirc
so the kernel would just be all the points that fix G/H?
oh shit that's crazy
these are more commonly called "fixed points" but sharp is a nerd
no, sorry, Stab_{G}(G/H) or whatever
that is, the kernel of the action is the kernel of the homomorphism into the permutations
u can either be an orb 🔮 or a stab 🔪
uhh prove that for any action GxX -> X the set Stab_G(Y) = {g \in G : gy = y for all y in Y} is a subgroup of G for every subset Y of X @white oxide if u want another exercise
ok i'll do this thx
found a paper that does it for me (for k = 2...) hahahahahah I WON
W I guess
here d and c are homomorphisms right
and i'm assuming we just send the basis x_i in F to some b_i in M
oh wait no
we send the x_i to whatever values the x_i are sent to under the map c
i believe
since b surjective
wait no
c(x_i) = b(y_i) for some y_i in M, yes?
maps are homomorphism of left R-modules
it says.
reading is hard
reading is hard
that's exactly what i said!
like
put down on paper
not sent here i was spacing out
are u proud
here's what i have so far
i guess i'm just trying to show that linearly independent in M iff linearly independent in M/T(M)
where T(M) denotes the torsion submodule
idk how to show the other direction
do i just consider ${x_1 + T(M), \dots, x_n + T(M)}$ in $N + T(M)$? and then show that they're linearly indep and maximal
ana(functor)mono(morphism)
something like,
[ x_1 + T(M) = r_2(x_2 + T(M) + \cdots + r_n(x_n + T(M)) = r_2x_2 + \cdots + r_nx_n + T(M) ]
implies
[ x_1 = r_2x_2 + \cdots + r_nx_n ]
contradiction to linear independence in $M$?
ana(functor)mono(morphism)
On the right track but I think it’s not rigorous enough
Σ r_i x_i +T(M)=0 gives you
r Σ( r_i x_i ) =Σr r_i x_i =0 like this
It’s like max {m: m linear independent elements in M} =max {n: n linear independent elements in M/T(M)}, anything in the former correspondent a thing in the latter, so is the converse direction , so two maximum are the same. Things like this
hmm okay
imma try to fill in the details
im not quite sure how this concludes linear independence
is it just that \sum r r_i x_i = 0 \mod T(M) implies rr_i = 0 \mod T(M)?
it's not mod T(M) it's that if \sum r_ix_i = 0 (mod T(M)) then \sum rr_ix_i = 0 (in R) for some r != 0, so use the fact that the x_i are independent and R is an integral domain
I have a problem: Show every element in a finite filed can be written as a sume of two squares
My try:
K finite field then |K|=p^k with p prime. Since K is a finite field then K is commutative
If p=2 then |K|=2^k then |K*|=2^k -1
So for every x in K* we have (x^2^(k-1))^2=x
So every element in K is a square and we are done
If p>2
Let phi:K*->K*, phi(x)=x^2
If phi(a)=phi(b) then a^2=b^2 then 0=a^2-b^2=(a-b)(a+b) (because K commutative)
Because K is a field 0 doesnt have non-zero divisors
So a=b or a=-b
What should I do here?
I dont think phi is injective.. then it will be a bijection so every element will be a square and this is false
It’s not , but you have this: inverse image has exactly two elements
I mean non-zero x^2 has exactly two inverse images x and -x
So any r in the field, you let X={a^2: a}, Y={r-b^2: b}. Consider what cardinality of X and Y are
Yeah
Thx
Np
what are we inducting on? the order of a group?
yeah
If you read the proof, you’d see what you’re inducting on
What can we say about a ring A with 1+1≠0
it has >=3 elements
dumb question, would this show that every free projective module is the direct sum of a free module? here since every module is the homomorphic image of a projective module, i would just take F/M' to be the homomorphic image of P (idk if this works lol) and M' a submodule of P, i feel like this doesn't work for some reason
using the fact that every free module is projective and i believe quotiening about by a module still preserves the module being free
i believe quotiening about by a module still preserves the module being free
F(x)/(x^2)
nvm then
you have the right idea with that triangle though
just need to rearrange some things - remember you want P to be a direct summand - so your free module should probably go in the middle
and then you do a little trolling to find a section, hence the sequence splits
OHH
i thought it meant like
oops
that it had F as a factor
in the direct sum
oops
no no, it means if P is projective then there exists some Q s.t. P (+) Q is free
but u got that now
wait maybe i misworded the exercise... so for the right direction of 1b i have to show that F = P \oplus Q for some Q right
the second or the first thing
proving that every proejctive module is a direct summand of a free module
yeah
ah ok thx
i have a notational question if thats ok
what is I(phi_2) and I_n-1(phi_2) here
this is from Eisenbud commalg
uh
which i did not read
ijust found this theorem but the book is massive
and i do not think i could search for the first instance of these notations in a reasonable amt of time lol
my brain hurts 🫠… too many G’s in one place
Abhorrent notation 
I think that’s the worst thing I’ve seen all day
Firstly just write the triangle for G’_i normal in G_i
oh no
Ryx (Home for flowers)
just got back to working on this problem
this works right
here i took F to be the free-module with the property that P is the homomorphic of it lol
oops
pinged twice
my b
Np
That’s the correct diagram and I think you’ve written that c is a section for g so yup!
Aka right inverse
Ah is that not standard terminology? ;3
It is
In general, if $G$, $H$, and $F$ are groups, is it true that $G*(H\times F)=(GH)\times F$, where $$ is the free product and $\times$ is the direct product?
Eve
Probably not. If you take H={e}, you won’t have G free product F isomorphic to G product F
I feel like usually two distinct operations on objects like this would rarely satisfy (X*Y)xZ=X*(YxZ) for distinct products * and x. Much more common to see some sort of distributivity I think? But you still shouldn't have that here I think
Ah yeah, that makes sense. Thanks!
F x H ~= H x F
Consider how asymmetric that is
So that should be a big red flag
I've been stuck on 13.2.9 in Dummit and Foote for a minute, specifically in trying to prove a necessary condition for an extension of the form $\mathbb{Q}(\sqrt{a + \sqrt{b}})$ being biquadratic (i.e. it being equal to $\mathbb{Q}(\sqrt{n}, \sqrt{m})$ for some $n, m, nm$ not squares). My guess is that the condition is $a^2 - b$ being a square and $b$ not being a square, mainly because we're asked to prove that this is the case if and only if $\sqrt{a + \sqrt{b}} = \sqrt{m} + \sqrt{n}$ for some $n, m, nm$ not squares earlier in the problem and not out of any genius insight. I've been able to do the rest of the exercise, including proving that $a^2 - b$ being a square implies biquadratic. "Just" having trouble with the converse of that. tysm i ❤️ u guys
992qqoloy
G is a residually finite group iff the intersection of subgroups of finite index in it is trivial. Seemingly, this property is preserved under quotients. However, the quotient of residually finite group is not necesarily residually finite. How is this possible?
The image of a finite index subgroup under homomorphism still has finite index, no?
No
Consider Z -> Z x Z/2Z by x -> (0, x mod 2)
Then 2Z maps to the identity which is not finite index
Another thing where it could (and does, because (prove this) the image of a subgroup of finite index under a surjective homomorphism has finite index in the image) is that a subgroup of finite index could map to the whole group
ah
And taking intersections and images don’t commute
quotients are surjective homomorphisms tho right
so finite index would be preserved under quotients
But can’t just move the intersection in & out of the map
oh bruh
im lost at the second part of the proof
why does every submodule of I/S intersect pi(M) non trivially?
because you modded out by S, the largest submodule that was avoiding M
lmfao yeah obviously
cuz if not then itw ould be contained in S
by maximality
sorry mb
it's okay 
why does
like
why is the chain nonempty
with zorn?
is it because
it has no essential extensinos so that there must exist a bigger module such that it has alteast 1 submodule not intersecting M?
@rotund aurora is the highlighted part the part where it uses what u just said?
thajt the category has enough injectives?
like that may not always be possible in general right?
yes
tysm
you dont even need to have injectives
Any hints about the following quesiton
In a general category I think you dont need to have injectives
Im just learning about this
An arbitrary Abelian category need not even have projectives
oh a nice example is the category of finitely generated abelian groups
yea ik that
its true in R-mod
If you restrict further to finite Abelian groups, there are neither projectives nor injectives
you can prove that injectives in Ab are the divisible groups @void cosmos , which are not finitely generated
yea i can
No, that's not true. Finitely generated R-modules do indeed have enough projectives.
wait
yea ur right
i meant
like
no "projective hull"
or is that not true also
If I'm not mistaken, there is only one injective finitely generated Z-module up to isomorphism, namely 0.
They’re called projective covers usually
if you have two abelian categories A and B, then B^A defined to be the category where the objects are additive functors A-->B and the morphisms the natural transformations between them, need not be additive or anything right?
you do have zero object
and you can add natural transformations, but what you get need not be a natural transformation I think
wait I think it works
I was missing the bilinearity axiom
well idk if the rest of axioms are satisfied, I'll check
Is it true though? I proved K is either D_2n or a subgroup of <a>. When K has an element of the form ba^k, we can deduce that a^2 is in K, then K=D_2n.
Otherwise K is a subgroup of <a>. I don’t think it has to be <a>. When n=9, <a^3> is normal right
indeed, there is a normal subgroup <a^d> for each divisor d of n
Yeah
do you have kernels?
What’s the first step in proving firs iso theo
define the map
you just do it you just fuckin do it you just prove the theorem that's all there is to it
Step 0) open a fucking book
Step 1) actually fucking read it (literally impossible)
Step 0) have intuition
Step 1) verify the intuition is correct
Or step 1) actually go reread the explanation that Dami very politely wrote out for you that you evidently didn't read well enough
Altho actually he might not have had a proof there
You could try to understand it just for sets, so if f : X -> Y is any set function, define the equivalence relation x ~ y iff f(x) = f(y). This is called the kernel equivalence with respect to f, and the equivalence classes correspond (bijectively) to points in the image of f. Specifically, if you have f(x) = y, then you also have f(z) = y for any z in [x]~. In other words, im(F) ~= X / ~
This will in fact become an abelian category.
Prime example being if A is the category of finitely generated projective R-modules and B = Ab, then this is exactly Mod R.
I could prove that Nat(F,G) will satisfy the axioms of an abelian group, but what if it's not a set?
I could prove that the category is additive I think, at least if I assume that Nat(F,G) is a set for all additive functors F,G, but how do I show that its abelian? For example, how do you show that kernels and cokernels exist?
every component of a natural transformation will have a kernel, but Im not sure how you can put all of these together and form a natural transformation
Taking kernels is functorial
Yeah, you would need to assume either that A is essentially small, or deal with foundations somehow.
Once that issue is sidesteped you can compute kernels and cokernels pointwise. And check for yourself that this does indeed give you a natural transformation
nts if I should put this question under this channel or combinatorial structures but could someone help me with this question??
What's the Bose–Mesner algebra?
Hell, are they using the word scheme in an informal sense lol
From what I've learnt it's just that a matrix can be defined by <I,J,A> matrices
That's not really a helpful explanation. It sounds like this is some very specialist definitions that you will have to explain, or hope that another specialist is present
From the definition I can look up, the algebra you're interested in is (for some enumeration of the group elements) generated by matrices D_i which have 1 in position (x, y) whenever xy^-1 is in C_i and 0 elsewhere.
Does the seem right?
never heard of the bose-mesner algebra lol, but the center of C[G] is just C^n where n is the number of conjugacy classes of G, which just comes from representation theory, that C[G] is the direct sum of all matrix algebras End(V_{lambda}) where V_{lambda} are the irreducible G-modules, which are parameterized by conjugacy classes, no clue if that helps though!
Yes but we were introduced to it much earlier when we looked at strongly regular graphs so the way I saw it was that we can define some matrix with a bose mesner algebra which will be a linear combination of I J and A matrices.
If so then just writing down what multiplication by Sum_Ci x should exactly give you the matrices D_i
damn ok I need to think about this for a second and then I'll get back to you
So using the hint, you just consider each element of g as a permutation matrix (given by how it permutes g by left multiplication)
conjugacy classes are all disjoint right?
Yes
since conjugacy is an equivalence relation, yeah
Thank you for the help. I think this question is actually a fair bit easier than I thought.
my lack of knowledge in group theory is exposing me rn, the definitions helped a lot.
can I get a hint in showing F(A oplus B)=F(A) oplus F(B), for an additive functor between additive categories?
There is a way of characterising direct sums in additive categories
That's the hint. You've probably seen this characterisation if you're following a book.
you mean besides the definition right
Of course.
I dont think I know, but I can try to figure out
if you write it, spoiler it plz
I mean ig its some sum of maps equaling zero or something, then you just take the F
Yeah. The split short exact sequence, under F they still form a split short exact sequence
lol I did say spoiler it
but I realized
essentially, we are using that A oplus B is both a product and a coproduct right
What you're using is that the biproduct can be expressed using a addition of morphisms
I.e. ||that the identity on A+B is the sum of the two projections||
I may be mistaken but although this does work in Abelian categories, I think the splitting lemma does not hold in a general additive category. This is nice but not what I was thinking of. Jagr has spilled the beans
Yeah, you need the category to be weakly idempotent complete
Though I don't think cogwheels meant to use the splitting lemma
I thought biproduct exists in any additive category
Not abelian necessarily I mean
ngl I just thought that was straight up the definition of an additive functor
This is the idea I had in mind. It says Abelian but it works in any additive category. I know because I wrote it.
I don’t know what splitting lemma is. I mean those morphisms i,j,p,q, pi=1, qj=1, ip+jq=1 thing…
It's an interesting fact that between additive categories a functor preserves addition of morphisms iff it preserves finite biproducts.
I think a similar thing should be in whatshisname's intro to homological algebra
oh right that's what we're doing
Rotman! Rotman's book.
yeah
It might be an exercise, I don't recall
that's the book Im using
Nice
but I didnt read that lemma
The 10 chapters book?
because it seemed convoluted
and the next prop is that, so I figured to try to prove it on my own
Honestly I think I should quit math and take up soothsaying
I did get the essential idea of the lemma before reading the lemma
Hi, what is this from? Is it from a textbook? If not what textbook you use for this course you are learning?
Splitting lemma is basically if you have one side (i.e. i and p) then you can construct the other side (j and q).
But yeah for a biproduct you have both anyway.
its page 304 in Rotman, Lemma 5.87, in case anyone is interested
Oh that. I see, thanks
Perhaps I'm not seeing it (I certainly can't visualise the diagrams right now) but I think you would have to assume that the functor has an image in every isomorphism class to prove that this is a coproduct
You would necessarily have the retract and section, that much is clear, but at least in my head I don't see this being sufficient
I mean you don't need anything about the functor really. Once you have the section and retraction that sum to the identity, then you have a biproduct. And it's straightforward to prove that a biproduct is both a product and coproduct.
this is the problem with learning stuff through osmosis I keep thinking things are the definitions of things but they're actually lemmas
Yeah you only need F is additive, F(0)=0, F(1)=1 I think. Nothing else
Oh so just additive …
And you said “additive F”
The content has been taken from these books
Thanks a lot☺️. All fields I want to read. I always want to read some algebraic combinatorics.
What are the rules for sharing pdf textbooks because I have the spectra of graphs book downloaded if you want me to send it over
touches on association schemes and designs in it but the other books in the reading list are definitely better for it
That's not permitted on this server, but who's to say what happens when you google "spectra of graphs type:pdf"
I guess the server can't police what people dm each other in their own time
I would be very upset if I recieved a direct message containing such content... I might even start crying....
Thank you! I have found links to all of them. They are probably all famous books so I found all.
what's this matrix A here? Adjacency?
I think so
smells like the adjacency matrix
yeah
Yea just adjacency matrix of a graph
absolutelly
wonder what tr A^4 encapsulates
you're probably just doing homology at that point tbh
I'm doing my research thesis in graph theory so was nose deep in that book for a while
ah yeah it is very homological - higher powers correspond to longer paths which in my deranged mind is the same thing as taking some sort of nerve
2n I think
Cycle of length n, corresponding n ways of selecting a vertex as beginning /ending point, and 2 orientations
I buy it
What is this from? Is it graph theory ?
spectra of graphs
If you get through chapter 1 in that book you can solve the blackboard problems from Good Will Hunting with ease lol
my indicator for progress is if I understand the maths in movies
only true indicator
Hello, I’m struggling with an exercise. Let M be a module over a PID A. If M is a torsion module, there is just a finite number of primary components M_p that are not zero and the set of elements annihilated by p is of finite dimension over A/pA, show that M is artinian.
I don’t know how to show that the primary component M_p is artinian by using the fact that the set of elements annihilated by p is also artinian.
Does someone see how to do this ? Thank you.
is the functor A-->Hom(A,-) always left exact
do you just mean the functor Hom(A, -) or is something weird going on here
you have a category C, and you send every object A to the functor Hom(A,-)
ah ok so it is something more interesting
so you have a functor C-->Set^C
yur
actually let me try writing things down
yeah same
So what would it mean for this to be exact in an arbitraty category?
Since apparently you are not working in even an additive category C
I presumed the category was at least exact
also
a natural transformation Hom(A, -) -> Hom(B, -) is just a function A -> B right
actually I'll verify it one sec
well you get a natrural transformation out of each one at least
wait this functor is contravariant right
ah wait you can show this with yoneda
nifty
covariant
Hom(-, A) is contravariant
I think its contravariant
lemme think
so f : A-> B gets mapped to a natural transformation f' : Hom(A, -) -> Hom(B, -) with f' = f \circ (-)
this is the action of Hom(-, whatever) on morphisms so should be contravariant yes
a lot of bifunctorality nonsense
So if we have an exact sequence 0 -> A -> B -> C -> 0
this gets mapped to uhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhh Hom(C, -) -> Hom(B, -) -> Hom(A, -) ? (cause we don't know if it's left exact yet)
ye
considering how similar the actions of F and Hom(-, A) are on morphisms could we mimic the proof?
only issue there is that Hom(-, A) is not left exact
bruh the zero should be on the left right
if we want left exactness
It maps colimits to limits. So should be left exact for any reasonable definition of left exact.
🤓
there's always something obvious i've missed
Ty ❤️
Rotman states this but with R=Z
are these equivalent? Or does the first imply the second (i dont immediately see why)
in Mitchell's book which Rotman references there is only the version for R-mod (and thats what I have seen in other places)
in the wikipedia article they define R explicitly
This doesn't seem correct. It would imply that every ring is the endomorphism ring of some abelian group, which isn't true.
If you drop "full" from the requirement you can certainly do it.
ok
yeah just before he states it without full
and so Mitchell does in another place of his book
but what an error
Is this in Rotmann?
page 316
the standard definition is just preserving finite limits/colimits
for non-abelian cats & non-additive functors
what is the standard notation for coproducts
$\sqcup$
Big Red Dog Theory

Similarly a product is $\sqcap$
Big Red Dog Theory

But it feels like everyone has their own notation
why not just $\times$
Croqueta
thought times was the thing for products

What is Clifford theory about
reps of normal subgroups of a group
lol I was just sully baiting 😭
kinda sucks when you want to do infinite products, and also \times is not the product in Ring, for example
But again it does feel like everyone has their own notation
I am convinced with the cup/cap notation tho
I should import
into my LaTeX
scrungler
See this makes me ick
but yeah that's common
really?
I'd use sqcup for inline products
like $X \sqcup Y$
Idk I just dislike the fact it's just a turned pi for some reason
scrungler
well that's kinda the point lmfao
yeah
it's the dual to product
Purely a silly personal preference
I like that notation a lot personally
"for some reason" you mean the most intuitive reason on the planet?
and don't give me that \sqCAP garbage there is no such thing as a disjoint intersection
Easy solution: only work in categories where the coproduct is $\oplus$
jagr2808
$\amalg$
Dragonslayer Sharp
u probably celebrated when they took the serif away from I
is this saying that if we write $F = S \oplus T$ then $S$ and $T$ are projective?
okeyokay
the second statement is saying that yes
something like this??
wait no d is not from S to M
fuck
oh wait no i just have to switch up S and S \oplus T in the tower i believe
biproduct moment
would it look something like this where d is the map given by S \oplus T being projective
and i is the injection, c is any arbitrary map from S to M
i feel like i'm lost in the weeds
since we have i composed with c restricted to s is c
wait this is not true huh
nvm i'm an idiot
Hm may be easier to not worry about all the diagrams
Or rather, the sequences
The coproduct diagram might still be useful
Sorry I’ve had discord closed for a while. Have you seen the result that a direct sum of modules is projective if and only if each summand is projective? If not, prove it
nah bro you're chillin
well i just looked into hungerford and read that result and that was basically the solution ig lol
Yeah but you can prove that result using the direct summand of a free module thing
yea ig that makes sense
shouldn't it be $N = E \oplus M/(\Delta(M''))$, where we're trying to show $E$ is injective and we have the following diagram (with d not in the picture ofc)
okeyokay
okeyokay
also i'm assuming that i have to define a in some ay
way
bc in the given diagram it's only defined on M
Is this channel modules or adv alg
Idk. It seems to me I can ask algebra questions in any one of them, and I choose the one that no current discussion is going on
was wondering if anyone is onboard with my idea that the symmetries of an regular n-gon (n>3 an integer) is 2n?
What are you talking about, this question?
tr(A^n)=(2n) (number of n-gons) thing?
Possibly? I was thinking of the symmetries of a triangle, square, etc. and thinking about their cayley tables and operations like rotations, or flipping about an axis... I'm talking about regular n-gons
I haven't gotten to tr(A^n) stuff yet so not sure if that's what I'm talking about
I came to 2n using a combinatorial argument
n places to fix vertex 1, then since vertex 2 must always be adjacent to vertex 1, it can go in one of two places hence 2n
Can anyone confirm?
pls tag/ping me
I confirm
thank u!
Hopefully this is the correct place to ask but. If you prove something to be true for the binary field can it be extended to all fields of characteristic 2?
You have to be specific about what property it is that you want to prove…
that (x+y)^2=x^2+y^2
You can directly prove it on any characteristic 2 field then
thank you
can someone give a counterexample
or more
an example
of two nonisomorphic R-modules having the same injective hull
?
ie a counterexample to the statement E(M)= E(N) --> M=N
Any injective module is it's own injective hull, so just take any noninjective module
yes
E.g. Z and Q both have injective hull Q
i am still not good with finding injective hulls in general
as in why is the injective hull of Z , Q
but yeah ig
it makes sense
its minimal
in a sense
tysm
An abelian group is injective if it is divisible. So you can think about what it would mean for a divisible group to contain Z
let $R$ be a PID and $M$ a finitely generated $R$-module. Suppose $M = \langle x \rangle \oplus \langle y \rangle$, with $\text{Ann}(x) = aR, \text{Ann}(y) = bR$, with $a$ and $b$ coprime.
I'm not sure how to show that $M = \langle x + y \rangle$
ana(functor)mono(morphism)
i guess what i'm stuck on is trying to mock a similar proof of the chinese remainder theorem



