#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 162 of 1
/s.
How can i show a group of order 312 is not simple
,w prime factors of 312
Should I look at some sylow subgroup?
yeah
With normalizer index 1
312 = 8*3*13
Look at ||padding 13||
||So there would be 14 sylow 13 groups if not 1 (as it must be less than 8*3, but 14 doesn’t divide 24||
I really enjoy this image.
@long nebula can i throw 1 into S
Yes

Lol oops this was an exercise I gave cat bread
Did I make more typos
😭
pain
yes it should contain 1
you didn't claim that the multiplicative set was non-empty and it didn't need to include a 1
but
if it's a stand alone exercise I think it's fine
If R doesn’t even have a 1, you might wanna consider other ways to write “1” in Q
the problem with it being in a book is that further sections could use localisations
R has a 1
and if you weren't able to do the exercise...? you can see my problem now
R is established to be a comm ring
(with unity)
yeah but some authors don’t imply unital 😭
Or, ya know, S u {1} is also closed
I've NEVER seen multiplicatively closed sets defined without 1
is this really that common?
so see if you can find a map from R into RxS that's a ring homomorphism
u(ad-bc) = 0 momento
so now R -> (RxS) where phi(r)=(r,1) is an RH
yur
That indeed works when 1 is S 
Yeah why wouldn’t it
we're literally looking for this map lol
that's the (first half of this) exercise
And showing that things are units

(1,s)
Show it
(s,1)(1,s)=(s1,1s)=(1,1)
cannot think of a commutative ring with zero divisors that aren't nilpotent
ok thought of one
subring of M_2(Z) with everything 0 except either the top or bottom corner
well observe that if there are differing elements s,t in S then (s,1) and (t,1) must be different as (1,s) is clearly an inverse for (s,1) but now if we multiply (1,s) by (t,1) we get t=s if (1,s)(t,1)=1
Z/6Z
If S has zero divisors it won’t be injective
which is iso to Z[x,y]/(xy) yeah
well no because if you take 3 and square it you get 3, so if you take it and square it you get 3 and then obviously if you take that and square it y-
idk why I didn't think Z/6Z wouldn't work lmfao
any square free integer works
You’ll never get 0 because your zero divisors (2, 3, 4) don’t have both 2, 3 in their prime factorisation
no no cause if you square 2 you'll get 4, and if you multiply that by 2 you get 2, which when you square you g-
And integer with more than one distinct prime factor works - if p, q divide n, then both p, q are zero divisors that aren’t nilpotent
I think I meant (in my head anyway) a ring where none of the zero divisors are nilpotent but you are correct
(Actually no - no prime works)
anyway I feel like we've gotten a little distracted 
I have nothing to be distracted from rn 
I meant cat bread's question
the dude seems off doing their own thing anyway so w/e lets talk about uhhhhhh category extenstions or something
what
thank goodness you're back it's tiring filling dead air
Guess the question is, does multiplicatively closed include empty product?
TRUE
maybe I should actually do the problems before assigning them
usually I do, but I didn't bother with this one

hanging
i was gonna say (r,1)+(1,s)=(1,s)
I think if S has zero divisors you also have to be a little careful with defining the equivalence relation
Which I didn't think about at first
(rs+1)/s
Ye
I think you can still show non-injectivity even without the u
@wet zodiac imma just go ahead and tell you, consider (a,b) ~ (c,d) iff there exists t in S such that t(ad-bc) = 0
wait a minute
nah it's basically the same you just have extra letters floating around
Does t have to be in S 
I copied it from wikipedia 
wikipedia LIES
If not just choosing t=0 would make it a little redundant
r where
is in R and r maps onto the same element in RxS
Ah fair
I mean any other outside of S thing that isn’t 0
you've kind of shown that two elements map to the same thing I think
It should still be in S. If you just imagine S={1} you would be saying any zero divisor is 0
Ah Yee
you know r/1+1/s = 1/s so what can you conclude about r/1
r/1 must be 0
which is in the image of ur map
yur
ok i think going the other way isnt that bad then
and hence we have proven that the set of all zero divisors is an ideal thank u and goodnight
that's non-units
yeah arent zero divisors non-units
there are non-units that aren't zero divisors
xD
Every ring is locally local
they whipped out the
eric whipped out the fancy 1800s newspaper font in the pset
im scared
At
it's AWAY FROM you FRAUD @long nebula
yeah it's just mathfrak
Nah geometrically it should be at
yeah geometrically cause u zoom in
Fraktur (German: [fʁakˈtuːɐ̯] ) is a calligraphic hand of the Latin alphabet and any of several blackletter typefaces derived from this hand. Letters are designed such that the individual strokes are broken apart; in this way it is often contrasted with the curves of the Antiqua (common) typefaces where the letters are designed to flow and strok...
but this ain't geometry!!! I ain't got my compass and set square out for this one!!
😭 is it actually, I've heard at
So localizing with respect to element 2 is localizing away from 2, localizing at the prime 2 is localizing at 2
it's a convention thing
$\mathfrak{i}$ $\mathfrak{love}$ $\mathfrak{cats}$
weakest eric's pset enjoyer:
oh does it differ by field
yours is far more common I was just trolling
ahhh okay ty
localise at the prime 0 I dare you I double dog dare you
that's the next part of the q
Q = Z_0 

oh.... bro actually took the double dog dare...
assuming R is an integral domain
the next part is to prove that R is integral iff 0 is prime
and then prove the localization is a field
egads!!! I keep spoiling things!!! Gadzooks!!
why is that not here yet 

next q is discrete valuation ring
I meant the integral iff 0 prime but yes
and then eric talks about nonstandard model of the reals
eric wtf
ultrafilters
LOLLLLL
bros doing model theory....
good practice for thinking about maximal ideals
filters are dual to ideals

(ideal in the order theory sense, which is based off the ring theory sense)
mods. Ban this user
Hmm, is there like a universal construction that takes a lattice and constructs a ring with that lattice of ideals
sounds like stone rep
so u know the errr "free functor"
yeah
it will be easy to generate a ring with that lattice as a sublattice
what if instead of learning about integers in middle school, we only knew about local rings 
What is G+?
because he left and rejoine dprobably
because I left the server and rejoined and haven't been bothered to reapply

and it's funnier if I'm just "pending"
Graduate+
it's even funnier if you get denied
This man, G+ Him.

Aka the thing you should be jagr
anyway catbread what's the uhhh local valutation ring exercise
We're afraid of what he'll do if he gets access to #grad
discrete not local (same thing really)
actually use the vc? 
oh
I just copied this problem from my lecturer LOL
I don't know anything about valuations besides what's in this problem tbh
I mean its enough to cover the important valuations anyways
i know NOTHING
i only know as much as is needed to define the p-adics 
it's all just deg(-) really isn't it
oh yeah I suppose you can get a valuation out of a completion
I added the bit about F[[x]] motivating the definition of local
neat
But the rest was just an exercise I had to do
I thought we were on hiatus lol
yeah ik
wait duh it's (can be made into) a graded ring of course you can
after the hiatus
Maybe we can do some basic module theory, or I could do a pset on properties of polynomial rings
I think what I had scheduled was an intro to field theory but that can wait
will i be able to use multilinear algebra in my linalg class
Depends how far your class goes

But the determinant is an important example
hello class this is a matrix and this is the krondecker product and this is the tensor product and this is how the tensor product is used in the compressible euler equations
So if you learn multilinear stuff you'll better understand the determinant
YES
stress tensor, or as I like to call it, some garbage + the strain tensor
learn multilinear stuff to better understand
, got it
learn multilinear stuff to horrify my prof better understand the determinant
wew what did you do before getting into rep theory again
wew does rep theory? 
no wew just trolls this server as a job
we hire him to raise the standards for trolls
wew is a hilarious troll
a troll's job is to make everyone laugh while mildly inconveniencing people at worst
if you can't do that you're not a troll
you are a jerk
ahhh I really like question a)
nothing I was just an undergrad but I've done lots of fluid dynamics stuff
I do jacked up wacky rep theory
ah okay
I remember being stuck on that for a while
I also changed the order of the parts, so that used to be the last part of the q
I recall reading in a paper that ||The set {a in Frac(R) | \nu(a) > x} for any x in Z is an ideal if you take nu(0) = \infty as you should||
which is also just obvious
i want to learn how to write wicked sick problem sets like this
this makes sense
oh wait you've only defined it for F^{\times}
annoying
don't care tbh
ok ||now I've shown that R-I_0 = R-{blah blah : blah > 0} = R^\times so that's local done||
wait not quite actually whoops
Just got fucking destroyed by a quiz
how would one show that $M_p \simeq M/pM$? I did some dumb shit like $m \mapsto m + pM$
okeyokay
Where $M$ is a module and $M_p = m \in M$ such that $pm = 0$
okeyokay
And p is a prime
yeah that map seems correct then
the kernel of that map is M_p
oh wait yeah now I see
wait is that right
M_p is the kernel of the map "multiply by p".
That is cursed notation lol
then you get it by first iso
Localization of a module :-p
Eisenbud used the structure theorem after we took the quiz and obtained the isomorphism that way
Either way I got a 10% on that shit
I mean this is not true as stated
Only think I was able to show was that (1/2, 1/3) was cyclic as a Z-sub module of Q lol
But shouldn't it be pM simeq M/M_p?
i mean take M = Z, p =2, then you are saying 0 = Z/2Z
I guess under certain hypotheses it'd be fine
This will make characteristic 2 so much easier to deal with.
idk, i swear to god it was like if p is a prime and M is a finitely-generated module and R is a PID show that M_p is isomorphic to M/pM
the M = Z as a Z-module in question
It's probably what tropos said
oh yea maybe i misinterpreted the definition of M_p or something but it was definitely show M_p is isomorphic to something
lol some kid completed the quiz in 10 seconds and i got depressed
other questions involved decomposing such and such into cyclic modules
i forget something of that nature
help me with these two problems please
Q1 Define the sign function from Sn to { 1, -1}. Check that it is well defined and is a group hom. Discuss the kernel of this hom.
Q2 Show that An has no non trivial normal subgroups for n >= 5
Hom(R, M_p)?
Or something like Hom(R/p, M)?
nah definitely not a Hom in the question
idk let me ask a friend. i swear to god it was that
Because I know you asked a question like that here
ye but unfortunately he didn't put any questions on the hw or related to the hw on the quiz
Tropo’s sounds right
well there was that one on jordan canonical form for #7 but i skipped that shit
also M is torsion
idk if that changes things
i'm too lazy to check, i'm doing anal rn
So I'm guessing you know about odd an even permutations, and can guess what the map from Sn -> ±1 should be.
So the main problem is showing that being odd/even is well defined. By multiplying an element with its own inverse you can reduce this to showing that the identity is not odd.
You can do this with a little bit of induction and seeing what happens when you swap the order of transpositions.
For Q2 the usual proof is just checking a bunch of cases, to show that a normal subgroup contains 3 cycles. Then show that An is generated by 3 cycles.
I know if there exists a subgroup of order p, then it must be normal in G and there must also exists a subgroup of order q.
Do you have Cauchy’s theorem?
This is an exericise before Cauchy's
Do you have Lagrange’s theorem at least?
Yep
why specifc p > q
Okay, then if it didn’t have such a subgroup it would only have order q elements and the identity
Maybe from there you can do something?
I don’t know off the top of my head but knowing that each order q element generates an order q subgroup, and all of these intersect trivially you can like write pq - 1 as a product of q-1
This is partitioning up G\{e} into H\{e} where H is a subgroup of order q
And from that I think you might be able to get a contradiction?
I guess if q is 2, then you can’t
Hmmmm
🗿 sorry
I can deal with q=2 separately
I don’t know if the numerics line up tho ¯_(ツ)_/¯
It seems there's no specific reason, since it also works when O(G) = p^2
not the right channel
HELP IDK THE CHANNELS
Well it's less interesting / easier to show in that case lol. Just that you're showing it has both p and q order subgroups so it's just odd to mention
I’m pretty sure this problem is going to go into classification of groups of order pq
Where it matters which is p and which is q
Don't think they do. For example 5*3 - 1 is divisible by 3-1
If q > 3, then pq-1 is not divisible by q-1?
13*5-1 is divisible by 5-1
I just started rings. I have a question about a problem. A finite ring with char(A)=p prime and a in A-{0} nilpotent. Show there is s>=1 s.t. a^p^s =0
I dont understand isn't obvious we can make s large enough?
Sure looks like it?
strangely worded problem lol. Should be obvious provided you can prove a * 0 = 0 for all a in A
Yeah..
The solution to the problem: let t>=2 with a^t=0. If (t,p^k)=1 then a=0 false. So p divides t so t=p^s × m with m not divisible by p. So (a^p^s)^m=0 and (m,p)=1 and from here we get the only possible solution m=1, otherwise contradiction with a≠0.
I dont understand why this problem exists

how do you conclude tha p divides t
gcd(t, p) can be 1
in fact
if a^n = 0 for a in A, then a^k = 0 for all k >= n
So uhh that conclusion makes 0 sense
actually, none of it makes sense
I think you can use m^2, for a local ring (R,m)
with m being the faithful R/m^2-module?
I've been stuck on this problem for a day and I still have no clue.
What I know is that $\langle A,B,C \rangle$ is isomorphic to $Q_8$, the quaternion group of order 8.
Meno
The induced conjugation action is supposed to be $\operatorname{conj}_g(S):=gSg^{-1}= {gsg^{-1}|s\in S$ where $S \in X$. But it is not technically a group action by $G'$ on $X$.
Meno
With some choice we can have R/m^2 itself being simple. Not necessarily local, I shouldn’t have mentioned local. like k[x]/(x^2), it’s a simple k[x] module, generated by x+(x^2) and have (x^2) as its annihilator
k[x]/(x^2) is generated by 1 + (x^2)
Sorry my bad, yes , 1+(x^2)
Hence it's not simple
For commutative rings primitive = maximal, since all ideals are two-sided
You can translate what this kernel is in a different way, like matrices that are commutative with A,B and C
Oh, yes. R/I always have sub module J/I for I contained in J… I only considered choosing a cyclic module completely forgot it should have no proper submodules…
that means kernel is a centralizer of X, but it is not even an homomorphism...
I have no idea how this induced conjugation is a group action
I probably have to think of another kind of mapping
Consider the ring of 2x2 matrices over C. Then C^2 is a simple module.
This has annihilator (0) which is not a maximal (left) ideal. It is maximal two sided though...
I am reading Rotman and he defines signum of a permutation in a way I've never seen before. While it works, what's the intuition behind this?
A similar example, let V be an infinite dimensional vector space. And let R be be End(V). Then V is a simple module with annihilator (0).
I think I have some ideas now
the image of S could be isomorphic to X
which I think is likely to be true
I guess you can think of the identity as the product of n "1-cycles". Then multiplying by a transposition will merge two cycles, reducing t and changing the sign
but that means I'm mapping gSg^{-1} to S
That makes a lot of sense. Thank you
It seems a nicer definition than the usual "count inversions" one, since it doesn't depend on fixing an order of the set we're permuting.
I just calculated. If I didn’t calculate wrong , X is the orbit of A under conjugation. I let an element of the group be (a,b;c,d), I checked whether ||a^2+b^2 and c^2+d^2 are 1 and -1 when ac+bd=1 or -1, and a^2+b^2=c^2+d^2=1 or -1 when ac+bd=0||
Why do you say it's not "technically" a group action?
because it supposed to be GxX \to X if it is an action and with some property, but the mapping given above does not map to X but some other set. However, I think that the image is in fact isomorphic to X, so we indeed have a group action.
You just need to calculate that they do map X into X, it’s not an obvious fact without any calculation…
Like this… need calculation to verify…
I am not sure if that is true? You are saying that the conjugacy class of A := ${gAg^{-1} | g\in GL(2,3)}$ is equal to $X$ ? But X is a set of subsets?
Meno
Yes this is what I checked. {gAg^-1: g}=X={+/-A, +/-B, +/-C}
!
Now this being said, kernel can be also obtained as intersection of C , uCu^-1, and vCv^-1, where C is the subgroup of matrices commuting A, where u,v are matrices such that B=uAu^-1, C=vAv^-1 . I don’t know which one is more convenient I haven’t calculated the kernel yet…
So you can see that the 6 matrices ±A, ±B, ±C are exactly the matrices with determinant 1 and trace 0.
These are preserved by conjugation, so gAg^- will again be one of these. And then g{±A}g^- = {±gAg^-}
So this does indeed give an action of G on X
Oh this is a lot more convenient
After calculation, I think you are right @terse crystal that indeed the orbit of A is the set ${\pm A, \pm B, \pm C}
though $X$ is not that set, $X = {{\pm A}, {\pm B}, {\pm C}}$
Yes, though by what jagr said you didn’t actually need this calculation 😂 I mean if you calculate kernel as matrices that commute A,B,C, you didn’t need the fact that there is one orbit actually
Meno
Well you still have to calculate that these are all the matrices with determinant 1 and trace 0. But that calculation is slightly easier
A lot easier…
So you mean that A,B,C are the only matrices in GL(2,3) s.t. it has det = 1 and Tr =0?
Yes, those and -A, -B, -C
Oh I didn’t notice that X is {{+/-A},…} not {+/-A,… }, then call Y={+/-A,.. }. G’ acts on Y so it acts on X, kernel is bigger than what I said previously… (like C should be {g : gA=+/-Ag})
You are right I have just proved that this is true.
If you want a more clever / non-brute force way to find the kernel
||Q8 has the property that every subgroup is normal||
||±A are the two generators of the subgroup generated by A (and similar for B and C), so Q8 permutes these, hence fixes {±A}||
||So Q8 is in the kernel, but |G'|/|Q8| = 24/8 = 6 = |S3|, so the kernel is Q8||
That is very smart @rocky cloak , I would like to point out a typo in your answer that |G'|=48
Multiplication is hard sometimes
A beautiful result...
It's 8*6 at least, that's all I know
it's indeed 48
@rocky cloak For the last line of your answer, what is your reasoning that |G'|/|Q8| = |S3| indicate that Q8 is the kernel? I know that $GL(2,3)/C_G(Q_8) \simeq Aut(Q_8)/Inn(Q_8)\simeq Out(Q_8) \simeq S_3$, which shows that $Q_8$ is indeed the kernel. But this argument is pretty ugly....
Meno
In fact, I might be wrong.
So assuming you have already shown that the homomorphism is surjective, then you know the kernel has order 8
And Q8 is contained in the kernel, so they must be equal
That's clean
And for surjectivity I guess you can use that two matrices are similar iff they have the same Jordan form
it is surjective, as A , B and C are similar to each other
Thanks for the help! @rocky cloak @terse crystal I've got stuck on this one for too long. 😦
yo is the set of all linear operators that have finite column space
is this a tw-sided ideal
?
Yes
ty
how do these two preceding paragraphs imply that G is the disjoint union of the cosets of H? i've already seen this result multiple times, but i can never fully comprehend why it's the case. okay, sure aH, bH not equal implies that they're disjoint, but how do we know that they're not equal in the first place? moreover, how do we know that they make up G?
i've never fully comprehended lagrange ig
disjoint union = partition = mutually exclusive and exhaustive
these cosets must combine to make up G, because every a is in its own coset aH
for any two cosets aH and bH, there are two possibilities: they are either the same or different
if they are the same then that’s that
if they are different, then one of the cosets contains an element that is not a member of the other
and through groumps theory you can show that distinct cosets are very distinct, in the sense that they are disjoint
Groumps
hmmm okay i think that helps, but what i'm confused about is how do we know that a_1H, a_2H, \dots, a_nH where a_i \in G are disjoint?
See the paragraph right above where you underlined it
If they’re distinct, they’re disjoint
Just apply that to when aH =/= bH
being a disjoint collection can potentially mean one of two things
either the collection is disjoint as a whole but not pairwise, meaning that the entire collection has empty intersection but two members might overlap
or the collection is pairwise disjoint, meaning that no two members share an object
pairwise disjointedness implies disjointedness as a whole, so we just need to consider two distinct cosets aH, bH and show that they cannot possibly overlap
This is a fun little proof if you haven’t done it before
Alternatively, you can show that they come from an equivalence relation, from which it's clear it's a partition
ohhh okay so I basically have to show that for any a_1H and a_2H with a_1, a_2 in G that they're disjoint?
Another fun little exercise!
bruh i should know this by now but the proof of lagrange always confused me lol
Equal or disjoint cause you can have a_1 = a_2
well no because if a1 =a2h with h in H then clearly
Yeah ok
Lemme write it out clearly
$aH \cap bH = \emptyset$ or $aH$
i guess i'm confused about is what if aH = bH
ye
Wew Lads Tbh
And if the intersection is aH then clearly aH = bH
Then it’s not counted twice in your disjoint union?
what we're trying to say is that any two cosets are either identical, meaning they contain exactly the same elements, or disjoint, meaning they share no elements
so for any two cosets, it's all or nothing
Yeah when we write out a bunch of a_iH it’s almost always the case that the a_is are a transversal of H (in whatever)
I mean you can take the disjoint Union of two equal sets it’s called the coproduct lol
Guys seeing representation theory I dont see its point. Can anyone give example of some group which is difficult but its property becomes clear when seeing at representation. Also is there a strategy on how do I represent a group such that I get good informative representaions. Please give me motivation
It’s a fair point to bring up
You can very easily detect normal subgroups from the irreducible reps of a group by looking at their kernels, for example
The latter question is very vague and has many answers
incidentally i'm reading about it rn
🤯
Corrupted by categories
If you want a general motivation. Linear algebra is solved, group theory is not. Turning group theory into linear algebra solves group theory
Do u have some concrete example or how would you try to find a representation for your group. I am willing to accept heuristics. The question is also vauge.
The classic example is an abelian group, where you decompose it according to the structure theorem and then build the reps back up from the cyclic terms in the decomposition
But uhhh
D_8 is a nice example
Jacobian conjecture said:
Who?
Scratch that - S_3 is even nicer
No lifting nonsense required
We have the trivial rep because we always have the trivial rep
And then we have the map sending permutations to their sign (which is one dimensional)
And then we have the two representation given by how it acts on a triangle (S_3 \cong D_3)
These are all of the irreducible reps for S_3 but for a bigger group you’d start off similarly - starting off looking at basic group actions
And then get reps from them in the standard way and then you can then get new reps by taking tensor products of stuff and then decomposing into irreducibles using the inner product and stuff
Or inducing/lifting from subgroups blah blah blah
This is sort of a false dichotomy. Whether or not the representation theory of a group is an easily computed invariant is a completely different question to what the point of representation theory is.
For example Physicists and chemists are not typically interested in groups, but in representations of groups, because in those contexts groups always appear as acting on some space.
Representations are the interesting thing. Why even care about groups if not to study their representations?
here, would the best approach be to show that (x^2 + 1) is maximal in Q[x]?
should be pretty easy hopefully
What do you know about Q[x]
List as many adjectives as possible
Depending on what you know, it makes it easier or harder
cute
there is a very nice website https://ringtheory.herokuapp.com/

The exercise specifically says to use these Q[x] is a PID, what do you know about primes in aPID?
yea wait let me think about this
oh wait primes are irreducibles right
That's true
oh wait
is it true that irreducibl epolynomials generate maximal ideals
i remember that as a theorem
oh oh let me try this
iirc
its a.... set?
so it suffices to show that x^2 + 1 is irreducible in Q[x]
x - i is a factor sotrue
nah yea i will this seems to easy
too easy
like to just use that result
but worst comes to worse i'll cite that theorem
😹
ok time to prove: primes are irreducibles in PIDs, irreducibles generate maximal ideals in F[x]
now i forgot my irreducible tests
Bro it’s a quadratic
might be the name
Just check if it has a root

A degree <=3 polynomial over a field is irreducible iff it has no roots
thats a gud one
OH YEA FACTS LMAOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOO
So in fact the more general statement that nonzero prime ideals in a PiD are maximal, is true
i'll try to prove this then
ye
So scalar multiplication in modules is a ring action
. : R -> End(M)
If we take M over R/ker ., now this action is injective im wondering if there's anything special about the new module as a result? I don't think its quite free but 
This is just rando thoughts
$x \mapsto i$ and $1 \mapsto 1$ works for the isomorphism right
okeyokay
yh.
o ig faithful is the word for injective actions
ok yh found faithful module, cool.
Hmm faithful module seems to be the same as torsion-free to me... maybe im missing something 
oh nvm not
Torsion-free modules can still cheat on their spouses
$$\bigoplus_{n=2}^{\infty} \mathbb Z/n$$
Is faithful and torsion
jagr2808
So in particular, if you have a zero divisor in the kernel
you have non faithful, can be torsion
Uh so like, I think torsion-free implies all elements of kernel of the ring action are zero-divisors. Very tentative thought...
I guess it depends what exactly is meant by "torsion free" if the ring is not a domain
i think u disregard zero divisors
here, where do you use the fact that Q[x] is a PID? irreducibles implies maximal ideals, which i'm pretty sure doesn't require that the domain is a PID. maximal ideals implies quotient by maximal ideals is a field, which i'm also pretty sure doesn't use PID hypotheses or whatever
wait so is there a non-faithful torsion-free module over a domain (which would disprove what i wrote)
Let's call this the annihilator of the module rather than the kernel of the ring action. It's true that at least in the definition I know this does ignore zero divisors, but it should be noted this is not sufficient – the module that jagr described has trivial annihilator
ill have a thonk
Irreducibles need not generate maximal ideals in general
shuri learns new terms 
there must have been somea ssumption made earlier in the chapter?
here F is a field as i'm sure ur aware
F[x] is a PID
(because F is a field uwu)
Cereal2
oh so the more general statement would be that an ideal (p) of a PID is maximal iff p is prime over that PID
or you can interchange p being prime with irreducible
since primes are irreducibles in PIDs?
Yeah, so in a UFD we have irreducible implies prime, in a PID we have (nonzero) prime implies maximal. (And PIDs are also UFDs)
ah okay, that makes sense
thanks
a is irreducible if a = bc implies that either b or c is a unit right
Yes
ok cool, gonna try to prove prime iff irreducible in PID
altho i do remember reading a proof about it
but like i forget it
(and we exclude units from being irreducible)
ah ok
So you could frame it as a = bc implies exactly one of b and c is a unit
ye, if b is a unit then we are done, otherwise suppose b is not a unit, something something a contained in the ideal generated by c
maybe
idk i just need to use the fact that R is a PID
if I can show that (c) = R then i'm done
products in R-mod were the usual cartesian products and coproducts were direct sums (only finitely many entries are nonzero)?
Yeah sure
finite biproduct moment
is there a phrase for describing when 2 elements of group are the basis for a free subgroup
like "interact freely" or something
Have no non-trivial realtors?
realtor lmao
We do need a word synonymous with “linearly independent” for groups I agree
yeah
like when elements are a minimal generating set
which is different from the non-trivial relators thing i guess
I think I’ve seen the term “free basis”
Hey guys, does anybody know how i can prove that if an infinite extension $F \supset k$ has an intermediate field $E$ such that $ F \supset E$ and $E \supset k$ are separable, than $F \supset k$ is separable? In fact, I'm not even sure if thats true. I was only able to prove the result in the case where $F \supset k$ is finite
Maricotinha
Let a be an element of F, and let f(x) = a0 + a1x + ... anx^n be it's minimal polynomial over E.
Then k < k(a0, ..., an) < k(a0, ..., an)(a) are finite seperable extensions.
ooh cool so same proof as for alebraic extensions
Yeah, the nice thing about algebraic extensions is that you can always reduce to finite ones
Is it true that if $\theta^{-1} (1, 2, 3, 4,..., n) \theta = (2, 1, 3, 4..., n)$ then $\theta$ is an odd permutation?
elgato
It’s a general fact that
theta^-1(n1,…,nk)theta = (theta(n1),…,theta(nk)) [or maybe it’s theta^-1 you apply, but it doesn’t matter here]
So what your assumption is saying is that theta simply permutes 1 and 2
So it’s odd
So basically if x is conjugate to y, then there's a unique theta s.t theta^{-1} x theta = y
For instance x and theta could be disjoint
yep (2,1, 3, ..., n) = (n, 2, 1, 3, ..., n-1),
I was assuming that this is in S_n
indeed
In that case my argument works because the element is an n-cycle
From that equation you know what every number is sent to. If this was in like S_1000n, then there’s a lot of stuff you don’t know what theta does to
i'm still a little confused, suppose $n = 4$, then $(2, 1, 3, 4) = (4, 2, 1, 3)$, and $(1, 3, 4) (1, 2, 3, 4) (1, 4, 3) = (4, 2, 1, 3)$ , and we found a even $\theta$ satisfies the equation
elgato
I don't think that equation works
Left side maps 3 -> 1 -> 2 -> 2, whereas the right side maps 3 -> 4
a commutative semisimple ring is just a finite product of fields right? cuz the matrix rings are isomoprhic to subrings hwich are commutative
like the matrix rings are actually going to be like 1x1
correct?
Yeah
tysm
Really all you need is that a commutative simple ring is a field I guess and that is clear
Well hm
yea
I think anyway that that is enougg
but whenever i see semisimple i just think artin
also
there is a proof that
i can do but there is a detail that jaeger poitned out but i just realiezed i dont get it now
okay so every finite simple ring is just a matrix ring
and the proof goes like
S is artinian so we have a minimal left ideal
so consider like this weird map which i see alot
which is define D = Hom_S(M,M) ( M being the minimal left ideal )
and then S is isomorphic to Hom_D(M,M)
now Hom_D(M,M) is a matrix ring but i dont really see how
like i thought it would be 1-dimensional
but jaeger said it can be any n-dimenisonal
Yep, i was wrong about that one, lol
i thought left side maps 3 to 4 as well ..
i'm applying the mapping from left to right
If you compose them left to right that works lol
real ones composre right to left

I go left to right…..
So I was very confused
I am still kinda confused, but it will pass in time
it's function composition
Not for me
so right to left
I am just confusing myself is all….
Interesting Chmonkey
I have never met someone outside my uni who does permutations like that
I just accidentally did that cuz I did group theory in my second qtr
And was young and noob
And just don’t wanna switch
Ah okay
I think I’ve seen a book that does permutations left to right once
I don’t remember which tho

xfg is immoral. gfx is perfect.
xcuse your face
why does zorn lemma implie axiom of choice
or is this not here
its literally in my algebra past paper tho its so weird
equivalent.
Axiom of choice → well-ordering → transfinite induction → Zorn
why the hell it would be in an algebra paper, though.
Zorn → there is a maximal subset A ⊂ S s.t. there is a function on A sending x to an element of x → choice
(Probably)
(all proofs carried out in ZF)
Might be nice to use choice subsets of A = union S, or disjoint union maybe
Am I totally off my rocker or is this not H?
methinks it might have a few things possibly not in H
f^-1(f(S)) be called saturation of S with respect to a function f
Ah wait if we unroll definitions do we get $\phi^{-1}(\phi(H))={g\in G:\phi(g)=\phi(h)\textrm{ for some }h\in H}={hk:k\in K, h\in H}=HK$?
person2709505
^
Groovy
The only matrix ring that is commutative is the 1x1-matrix ring. So if you're assuming commutativity, it will be 1-dimensional.
For a noncommutative example, let S be the 2x2 complex matrix ring, then M = C^2 = S(1,0;0,0) is a minimal left ideal with End_S(M) = C. Here M is 2 dimensional over C.
I mean, Zorn is the one you need if you want to prove stuff in algebra. So it makes some sense you'd want to prove it.
well i think a lot of courses blackbox 
We just took as an axiom lol
I'm struggling to see why this is true, I can see the inclusion $f^{-1}\bigl(f(x)\bigl) \subseteq xH$ since $f(g) = f(x) \implies e' = f(xg^{-1}) \implies xg^{-1} \in xH$ (I think at least, I'm not really sure about that either) but since $xH = {xh \mid h \in \text{Ker }f} \implies f(xh) = f(x)f(h) = e' \implies f(x) = f^{-1}(h)$, but this is in terms of $f^{-1}$
okeyokay
alternatively it's pretty easy to see that xH = Hx, but I just want to see how this argument works
the set of elements that get mapped to x is clearly Hx
so the preimage of f(x) is Hx
well y is in H iff f(y) = e. So we should have z in xH (or Hx) iff z = xy for some y in H, in which case f(z)=f(x)f(y)=f(x)
more generally f^-1(f(A)) = ker(f)A for A \leq G
So z is in f^{-1} ( {f(x)} ); this is the inverse image
ohhh right bc they become the identity
oops
ah okay that makes sense
oh yeah obviously
yeah
thank you sm
can somebody help me understand why the kernel of f contains N?
N is the intersection of all normal subgroups
the kernel is a normal subgroup that contains H
@white oxide
np
Try the same counterexample
Yeah ok
Idk why I had that written in some notes
Lmao
I think I just meant UFD because I use no PIDness
If R is Noetherian then dim R[[x]] = dim R + 1
:o
Least integer n st every ideal is generated by n elements
AM defines dim A as the supremum over the length of all chains of prime ideals. I imagine these two don't always correlate?
yo am i doing this question right??? i did some shit with floor and ceiling functions lmfao, it seems right and i'll post the proof in a minute but like doesn't seem very algebra-y
like
It’s a geometric argument
ah
The norm is not the usual modulus. It's lacking the sqrt
ah.
would this argument work?
Not well-defined: 0.49999... = 0.5, but they would be mapped to different numbers
Can someone verify for me whether a direct limit of groups is an equivalence relation on the disjoint union or the direct sum?
You know that at least one of ceil(x) an floor(x) is less than or equal to 1/2 away. So you always have a choice. Pick one for each x in R. If you oppose using axiom of choice, modify it in a way so that you don't have to make infinitely many choices
Wait sorry I’m a little confused, why are they equal? Like I know that the sequence that that’s contained in has limit equal to 5, but that term is not specifically equal to 5 right
the disjoint union
this is the same as 0.9999... = 1. idk the best short but formal justification, but if you consider the sequences of truncated decimals {0.9, 0.99, 0.999, ...} they clearly converge to the same real number
ye but like one of those terms is not equal to the number 1 right
like
the sequence (0.9, 0.99, ...) = 1 sure
but like i'm just confused about one of those terms being precisely equal to 1
sure but decimal representation is not perfect. It should be defined (if done with convergence) as a limiting process
hm ok yea you're prob right
i'll consider this then
0 . x_1 x_2 x_3 ... := lim{ (0. x_1), (0. x_1 x_2), ... } or something like that
Ryx (Home for flowers)
hmm ok
Is the following true?
If $G_0 \to G_1\to...\to G_n\to 1$ such that $x\to y \Rightarrow \mathrm{aut}(x)=y$, then $G_0$ is a cyclic group.
Waffles
what are x and y
here they mean the literal sum of the Rxi right? not the internal direct sum or whatever
moamen this your @void cosmos t
yea
ok thx
a direct sum is just the usual sum with that each summand is disjoint from the sum of the rest
its just like a type of sum
they are groups
external and internal ithink it means like
which thing u have first
i dont htink they matter tbh
idk much about the difference tbh
but i dont think they matter
oh wait i thought it was like tuples such that each element in the product was disjoint from the rest
they are if the indices are finite
like the direct sum is the same as the direct product
over finite indices
So this is a sequence like $G_0 \to Aut(G_0) \to Aut(Aut(G_0)) \to \cdots \to Aut^n(G_0) = 1$?
Ryx (Home for flowers)
Am I understanding correct?
Yes!
hmm ok i'll have to review that then
just think of the first isomorphism that comes to mind
sorry if my notation is a little weird lol
Huh. Lemma think on this but if I had to guess, I don't(?) think it's true that Aut^n(G) being trivial for some n implies G is cyclic
oh so internal direct sum each of the Ai is actually a submodule of their sum, external direct sum is the tuples with the disjointness property
and the internal direct sum and external direct sum are isomorphic i believe?
You're good, just wanted to double check!
i meant showing that the direct sum is isomoorphic to the direct produc
when the indices are finite
the external and internal sum are more like
say u have two subspaces
then the sum u form is the internal one
( if they have trivial intersection )
oh ye
oh yea
while the external is more like XD external
ye that makes sense
some shit like that im sure someone more knowledgable can help
but throughout hungerford
it did not use any of that external internal shit
but i think if u managed to do like the exercises of the projective/ionjective modules then u are good enough wiht like
produts and coproducts and their universal properties and stuff
so dont worry about it
ah okay thanks
they are not isomorphic but one is a subset of the other
ye
the direct sum is a subset of th eproduct
cuz with the direct sum the elements are now nonzero for only finitely many indices
See this: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Automorphisms_of_the_symmetric_and_alternating_groups
Aut(S_3) is C_2, the cyclic group on two elements, of which there's only one automorphism. So S_3 satisfies Aut(Aut(S_3)) = 1 but S_3 is not cyclic of course 🙃
isnt Aut(S_3)=S_3?
It's one of the exceptional cases listed
but hmm
you're right
Oh
duh, I misread it
By Krulls principle ideal theorem, the minimal prime above an ideal generated by n elements has height at most n. So if every ideal can be generated by n elements, the Krull dimension is <= n. But there are 1 dimensional rings that are not principal ideal rings.
Should this question have gone into #advanced-algebra ? I wasn't sure because I'm completely self studied.
If there's a small counterexample, you'd be able to find it here: https://people.maths.bris.ac.uk/~matyd/GroupNames/. Just click on a group's name (on the left) and it tells you Aut(G) (on the right). I can't find any counterexamples though
In fact, it seems as though only small cyclic groups eventually have trivial Aut^n groups. Most others seem to eventually be constant at some other group which is isomorphic to its own automorphism group, say S_n or D_4 or ...
Related paper https://www.jstor.org/stable/119135
ooh thanks jagr
I figured something like this would be true, though I'm surprised it holds for all groups, not just finite. But interesting that they only state that it terminates in finitely many terms for centerless finite groups (or a slight generalization of finite), as opposed to all finite groups.
Shouldn't be too hard to cook up a finite group such that the automorphism groups grow quite rapidly I would think
can somebody please explain to me why $b_i \in G_{i + 1} - G_i$? I understand that the sequence splitting implies that $G_{i + 1} \simeq G_i \oplus Rb_i$, and here's exercise 15. if we label the inclusion map $f$ as in exercise 15, then we get that the image of $f$ is $G_i$ which makes sense, but I'm having trouble seeing that the kernel of $G_{i + 1} \to G_{i +1}/G_i$ is $Rb_i$
okeyokay
It would necessarily have to be one which never has trivial center though. That's the hard part
Do the groups have to be finite? If not there is a counter example here
https://mathoverflow.net/a/198339/157483
I should of said, but i was only thinking of finite groups
ok nvm i don't think my reasoning makes sense
Alright, then from what I can infer from the comments on MO it must be cyclic
ok I understand that G_{i + 1}/G_i isomorphic to Rb_i implies that G_{i + 1} = G_i \oplus Rb_i, but I don't understand why b is in G_{i + 1} - G_i
ohhhh
wait i think i get it now
cuz it's the image of the canonical projection
wait
nvm
cuz that would imply that G_i is the kernel of the inclusion map which is absurd
If b was in G_i, the sum wouldn't be very direct
lol good point
oops
ok thanks
Okay so to elaborate, I think this might actually be true. Let G be a finite group.
We know that if G is nonabelian, its automorphism group is not cyclic (https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/1898050/if-g-is-non-abelian-show-that-autg-is-not-cyclic). [ As a side note: we also know that Aut(S_3) = S_3 and for other nonabelian groups, their automorphism group must have order at least 8 (https://link.springer.com/content/pdf/10.1007/BF01160361.pdf Theorem 6) ]
We also know that if G is abelian and not cyclic, we can decompose it into A x B for some abelian groups A and B. Then Aut(A x B) has a noncyclic subgroup generated by the automorphisms (a, b) --> (a^{-1}, b) and (a, b) --> (a, b^{-1}) [at least, this should not be cyclic?]. Thus, Aut(A x B) = Aut(G) is not cyclic.
In either case, G noncylic ==> Aut(G) noncylic. By contrapositive, if G is a finite group and Aut(G) is cyclic, then G must be cyclic itself (this fails for infinite groups!). In particular, since the trivial group is cyclic, the only finite groups whose Aut^n(G) is trivial for some n must be cyclic themselves (this should follow by induction I think).
There is also a book/long paper on this: https://sites.math.rutgers.edu/~sthomas/tower.pdf problem in general.
This was a very interesting question!
Thanks so much. I just was scribbling on paper and came up with this conjecture. Also thank @rocky cloak
Can anyone explain from p(x bar) =p(x) bar I didn't get that part
And why they have represented p(x bar) as
p(x)(mod p(x))
So this is really saying in different notation pi•p=p•pi... it's just that canonical homorphic images "image under the quotient map" gets special notation
As for why this is the case, p is a polynomial, so one can write it out term by term and see this property using the definition of pi being a homomorphism
is "freeness" necesarily preserved by limits?
not quite sure what branch of group theory this is
Okay thanks !
Is the property of equality implied of an algebraic strucutre? ie if you have some binary operation on a set S, does a = b imply a*c = b*c for some a, b, c in S?
A binary operation is a function, hence is well defined
So this holds for all binary operations
can you elaborate on that a bit more
A binary operation on a set S is a function •: S x S --> S. The operation a•b is shorthand for •(a, b). By virtue of being a function, x=y implies f(x) = f(y) for any function f (this is what I mean by being well defined. In essence, it's the statement that each element in the domain is mapped to a unique element in the codomain/range)
Thus, if a = b then a•c = •(a, c) = •(b, c) = b•c
And this works for any c in S, whenever a = b is an element of S
Ah, yes that makes sense
x=y implies f(x) = f(y)
helped to think about it like that
I'm studying free groups and I'm kind of struggling to understand how to write proofs involving them. Specifically I'm trying to prove that the free group on 2 generators has a subgroup isomorphic to the free group on 3 generators
My problem is that they seem too abstract of a concept to work with
I guess you can start with index. Suppose the index of this subgroup is j, 2j-j+1=3 gives you j=2. Now you have index being 2, this will help you find out what kind of generators it has
Square of something , you know…
I don't understand what you're saying here tbh
I mean now it becomes finding a subgroup G of it, whose index is 2
index 2 gives you hint, you can let G have generator like, for example, a^2
How do you know its index is 2?
Because index j subgroup G of a free group F of rank n, G is a free group of rank jn-j+1
I saw this in algebraic topology by Rotman in chapter 10. I am sure there exists pure algebraic proof but I didn’t read them…
(F=<a,b>, normal subgroup generated by ||a^2, b^2, abab|| is of index 2)
Oh I should rephrase it. I don’t know its index is 2, but finding a subgroup of index 2 is sufficient
This feels like a rather powerful maneuver to use here, ngl, what if you took something like, ab =/= ba for the generators yeah?
so how do ab and a^2 b^2 compare?
What do you mean by how they compare?
What does <ab, a^2b^2> look like
Well the only thing I see is that you can't make arbitrarily large chains of as or bs
So you are not generating the whole free group <a,b>
Because taking inverses doesnt give you more as or bs as you get inverses
You’ll have a hard time getting a^2 ye
Here’s the thing
This is a free group
What about if it’s 1 or 2 generators
Well 1 generator is just a copy of Z
2 generators wasn't what we were working with in the first place?
Well, if <ab, a^2b^2> is free on 2 elements, can you see a way to add more?
i have
the stupidest question
in existence
why is the quotient of a semisimple module semisimple
cuz quotient preserves artinian , and maximal ideals of the quotient correspond to maximal ideals that contain the ideal so idk how cani say something about the jacobson
Semisimple module M is direct sum of some irreducible submodules M_i, I think you just need to show that (M_i +N)/N is irreducible
G1,G2 are subgroups of G
What's G1G2
G1G2 = {gh | g in G1, h in G2}
Sometimes this might also be used for the subgroup generated by this set, if it doesn't already form a group
Surely generated subgroup would be〈G1G2〉
Surely ideals would be spelled <Ideals>
<\Ideals>
Is it true that if you remove all the invertible functions from a semi-group of set of functions defined over compositions -- you break closure of the binary operation? Can you give an example?
note - the functions have been defined over positive real numbers as domain and co-domain
I have been trying to figure out why we don't get a semi-group here in this case.
For example, take functions N -> N defined by: f(n) = n+1; g(n) = max(0,n-1).
Then neither f nor g is invertible, but g o f is the identity which you've just removed.
Oh great, thanks a lot!
if you take a commutative operation here instead of composition then why does that make it a semigroup necessarily? Is it the non-commutativity of composition that's causing it to break closure?
i'm trying to prove group of order 15 is abelian by showing it's center is of order 15, since the center Z is a subgroup of G, by lagrange, it must have an order of 1, 3, 5 or 15; i have proved o(Z) \neq 3, o(Z) \neq 5 with the class equation, but i can't see why o(Z) can't be 1
Are you familiar with the sylow theorems?
If you have two elements whose composition is invertible, that means each of them has at least a one-sided inverse (to different sides for each). If your semigroup is commutative, that is enough to make each of them invertible in themself, so a counterexample cannot exist then.
for n=15; I think the first part of sylow's just states the existence of subgroups of order 3 and 5,
it's Sylow's third that you want here
Yes (and also the second)
depends what you include under each theorem statement I suppose 
With the third Sylow's, I get subgroups of order 3 and 5 are unique.
Oh cool, that makes sense.
But wait, what if you are defining the set over the commutative operation as a set which as a rule, doesn't contain invertible elements? Not talking about compositions here, just some general operation that gives a Monoid over a commutative operation but I took out all the invertible elements. Why do I get a semigroup, necessarily?
I am confused because not all elements in a monoid have a one-sided inverse right?
yeah so you know that they're normal - see if you can conclude the whole group is abelian from that
(you also know that groups of order 3 and 5 must be cyclic since prime order, and in particular are abelian, which might help)
good point - dunno if you knew that or not
I get it now, something like aba^-1b^-1 = e
lol is this related to graph theory in any way
sorry i have to veirfy a diagram is commutative rn so i thought i'd go back to this LOL
However this is a problem before the Sylow's are introduced, I think the uniqueness of order 5 can also be derived from Cayley's, I wonder if the uniqueness of order 3 can be argued w/o invoking Sylow's (my ultimate goal is to prove group of order 15 is cyclic btw)
categories moreso
simply remove the arrows in the middle to join the cycles ;3
:3c
here, lang means the inverse image of the canonical projection right
:3c
ye
why is rX contained in F? bc what if we have some x in X that's outside the generating set S for F that takes us out of F
r is specifically chosen such that for any x not in S, rx is in F. That's what the preceding paragraph is about
ohh right oops
thanks
What justifies the name "antiderivation" here?
hi
It’s a derivation but the operator is going on the opposite term
@river otter hi idiot
Oh no I’m silly, there’s a small omega there too
Not too sure then



