#groups-rings-fields

1 messages · Page 161 of 1

white oxide
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what's a cool greek letter

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other than \varphi and \psi

hushed hamlet
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xi

white oxide
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oh facts

coral spindle
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\varpi

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JOKES

hushed hamlet
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it is, but its also an in my opinion better way to see, why we need to impose that its abelian

white oxide
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$\phi$ is so fucking basic

cloud walrusBOT
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okeyokay

white oxide
hollow mica
hushed hamlet
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also xi is really easy to write actually

white oxide
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i just scribble a line down lmfao

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kinda like a quarter rest

hushed hamlet
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start with a horizontal bar, then without lifting your pen start writing a c, and then an s

white oxide
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ah

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you do it properly

hushed hamlet
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ya

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i put emphasis on handwriting

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even tho mine is only mediocre

cloud walrusBOT
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Dragonslayer Sharp

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Dragonslayer Sharp

crystal turtle
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"don't real"

white oxide
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bro said don't real

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what the fuck is the first one

crystal turtle
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Capital Xi in first pic, then lowercase xi and zeta in second

coral shale
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and here i thought we were discussing math

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but no its just some squiggles

white oxide
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ugh. okay so I defined $\xi: M \to M' \oplus M''$ by $\xi(m) = \bigl(\psi(m), g(m)\bigl)$, it worked, cool. assumed 1 held and defined $\phi: M' \oplus M'' \to M$ by $(m', m'') \mapsto f(m') + \varphi(m'')$. also an isomorphism. I was able to show 2 by letting $\psi = \pi_{M'} \circ \phi^{-1}$. but assuming 2 and trying to show 1, I just took $\xi$ and let $\varphi = \xi^{-1} \circ \iota_{M''}$. the problem was trying to determine an inverse image of $\xi^{-1}(0, m'')$; could I just assume that $g(m) = m''$ by the definition of $\xi$ and $m \in \text{Ker }\psi$?

cloud walrusBOT
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okeyokay

hushed hamlet
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do you have like your whole proof written down

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i think that would be easier to read

white oxide
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Yeah, I’m aboutta latex it

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Like in 15-20 minutes

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And then I have to do two more things in this dumb Lang exercise

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But I’ll send the full proof of proposition 3.2

white oxide
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\noindent 1. First, we prove Proposition 3.2. Suppose $0 \to M' \xrightarrow{f} M \xrightarrow{g} M'' \to 0$ splits. Let $\psi$ be such that $\psi \circ f = 1_{M'}$, and $\varphi$ such that $g \circ \varphi = 1_{M''}$. Define $\xi: M \to M' \oplus M''$ by $\xi(m) = \bigl(\psi(m), g(m)\bigl)$. Clearly $\xi$ is a homomorphism (since $\psi$ and $g$ are homomorphisms). $\xi$ is surjective since $\psi$ and $g$ are surjective. If $\xi(m) = 0$, then in particular $m \in \text{Ker }g = \text{Im }f$. Hence $m = f(m')$ for some $m' \in M'$, and $\psi(m) = \psi\bigl(f(m')\bigl) = 0$. But $\psi \circ f = 1_{M'}$, so $m' = 0$, whence $m = 0$.
\
\
We have already seen that $M = \text{Im }\varphi \oplus \text{Ker }g$. Observe that any $x \in M$ can be expressed as [x = x - f\bigl(\psi(x)\bigl) + f\bigl(\psi(x)\bigl)] where $x - f\bigl(\psi(x)\bigl) \medspace \in \text{Ker }\psi$ and $f\bigl(\psi(x)\bigl) \medspace \in \text{Im }f$. Thus $M = \text{Im f} + \text{Ker }\psi$. If $y \in \text{Im }f \cap \text{Ker }\psi$, then $y = f(m')$ for some $m\ in M'$. But then $\psi(y) = \psi\bigl(f(m')\bigl) = m'$, so $m' = 0$ since $\psi \circ f = 1_{M'}$. Hence $f(m') = f(0) = 0 = y$, and $M = \text{Im }f \oplus \text{Ker }\psi$.

cloud walrusBOT
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okeyokay

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okeyokay

white oxide
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I'm assuming that this submodule is $N = \text{Ker } \psi$?

cloud walrusBOT
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okeyokay

white oxide
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I'm too lazy to check right now lol

steel light
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@balmy belfry Come talk in the big boy channel

balmy belfry
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Okay

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Yay

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I made it guys!

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a = n^k

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b = n^z

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Cuz G is cyclic

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ab = n^{k + z}

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Right

steel light
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What are a and b?

balmy belfry
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Random elements of G

balmy belfry
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Then ab = n^zn^k

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Then ab = ba

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Lmfao that’s like the 4th time I proved that and then forgotten how it’s done

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Fuck

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Is this valid tho

steel light
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Looks good to me

balmy belfry
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Grape juice

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Well what now

steel light
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Idk ask more questions

balmy belfry
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Let’s see

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First isomorphism theorem.. no

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Yeah I ran out

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You ask some

steel light
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LOL

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I have other HW to do

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due tom

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I cannot

balmy belfry
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With that

white oxide
steel light
balmy belfry
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Oh

balmy belfry
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How do I give myself studying

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And take it away

steel light
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bot channel

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,iam studying

cloud walrusBOT
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Gave you the studying! selfrole.

steel light
#

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oops

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LMFAO

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,iamnot studying

cloud walrusBOT
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Removed the studying! role from you.

steel light
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like that amukh

long nebula
balmy belfry
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I studying role now :D

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,Iam studying

cloud walrusBOT
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You already have the selfroles studying!, do you want to remove them? (y(es)/n(o))
(Tip: use ,iamnot to remove roles without this prompt.)

balmy belfry
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Sthu texit bot

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Nobody even asked

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Lol

cloud walrusBOT
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Session timed out waiting for user response.

long nebula
balmy belfry
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What’s a sub module

long nebula
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You're not ready

balmy belfry
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Ok

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Can we ask questions about vector spaces here

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Where do you ask questions about modules ? I assume here

long nebula
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But if you know what a subspace of a vector space is

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A submodule of a module is the same

long nebula
balmy belfry
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And modules are here

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And vec spaces are over fields

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This is the place

long nebula
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I know the types of questions you're going to ask

balmy belfry
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Ok

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Yeah I know

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Linear algebra sounds cooler too

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Cuz groups sound boring asf

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Algebra sounds funner

long nebula
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Okay take off-topic discussion somewhere else lol

balmy belfry
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I’m studying role

white oxide
long nebula
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Don't talk here then

balmy belfry
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Okay

long nebula
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Oh

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You're talking about vector subspaces lol nvm

white oxide
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Ye lol

white oxide
balmy belfry
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no

long geyser
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bro is speaking facts

balmy belfry
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i said they sound boring

long geyser
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imagine having only one binary operation

balmy belfry
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fr bruh

long geyser
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can't be me

balmy belfry
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2 is always better than 1

long geyser
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can't even multiply by scalars

balmy belfry
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fr

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the fris isomorph theo in vec space is so much better than the group version like bffr

chilly ocean
noble saddle
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the biggest failing of the education system is the pervasive idea that groups are just rings with one less operation

chilly ocean
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groups are symmetries of spaces and rings are the functions on the spaces

long geyser
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that is a pervasive idea?

south patrol
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it's wrong anyway

noble saddle
south patrol
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really?

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aren't groups usually taught before rings anyway

noble saddle
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at least, I sure have heard it expressed fairly often

crystal turtle
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who the hell has that opinion sully

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that's a pretty bad idea of groups

noble saddle
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yes, agreed

topaz solar
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Wholly nonsensical, anyhow, since not all groups are abelian

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The symmetries/functions perspective doesn’t matter much, its completely ill typed

south patrol
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Although, to be fair, an abelian group is just a ring without the monoid structure*
*internal to Ab

topaz solar
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Especially without identity

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Since then like

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Yep take an arbitrary Ab & zero multiplication it

last spoke
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Let's maybe crop my uni outta that

chilly ocean
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doxxed!!!!

rotund dragon
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we love some selfdox

last spoke
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Oh I'll doxx myself plenty, come find me bitches

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Anyways that was my test today

crystal turtle
void cosmos
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someone called my number

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at 5am

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and he went yo bro i found your number on doxedbin

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and ur fucked

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so i was like ?? whats that and stuff

last spoke
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Oh that was me

void cosmos
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turns out the post literally had my name , some shirtless pics of me and where my country is

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thats it

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lmfao it was so funny

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and my number ofc but nobody seemed to care sadly

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like it was that only one guy

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😦

void cosmos
void cosmos
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i got it

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let R be a simple ring and let M be any left ideal in R

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consider D = Hom_R(M,M)

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this is a division ring ( every map here has trivial kernel and full image )

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now consider Hom_D(M,M)

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R is isomorphic to Hom_D(M,M) with the isomoprhism r --> phi_r = ra for a in M

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once we get the details we have Hom_D(M,M) is R

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then yeah M is a left ideal , consider it as a left R-module

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then i think M is like 1-dimensional?

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and if so u then just like the matrix corresponding to the Hom and we are done

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or better consider it as a right R-module

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not left

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does this work

white oxide
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why is $p^n(y) \in (x_1)$? is it because $(p^n)$ is an ideal and hence $p^ny \in \text{Ker }\varphi$ where $\varphi(\bar{a}) = \bar{a}\bar{y}$ and hence $p^ny \in (x_1)$?

cloud walrusBOT
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okeyokay

white oxide
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can any gs pls explain why s = r implies that y has the same period as y bar

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<@&286206848099549185>

hollow mica
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bro wasted no time

white oxide
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care to help out big man?

hollow mica
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idk modules sorry

agile burrow
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Does period mean the same thing as order?

white oxide
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im not sure

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here's the definition

crystal turtle
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I take it R is a PID?

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Information like this is generally quite helpful to include

white oxide
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yeah

white oxide
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i understand that the period of y is the generator m of the kernel a maps to ay

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ok so

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the least such element such that ay is in (x1) or in other words in the kernel

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is p^r

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and this is an ideal

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hence if r = s

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then p^r = p^s

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so like we have to show that

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(p^s) = (p^n)?

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nvm i don't get this shit at all

crystal turtle
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it looks like, if s < r, then you'll find some other representative y' of \overline{y} such that the period of y' is the same as \overline{y}

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like it looks like that might be the next step in the proof, not super sure of this tho

white oxide
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fucking lang man

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okay

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i'll consider that thanks

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how is one supposed to read like 25 pages of lang per week and do 7 hard ass exercises rip

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i should prob drop out of this course tbf

crystal turtle
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since \overline{y} has period p^n by assumption, p^n is a generator of the kernel of the map a --> a* \overline{y}. In particular, that's why p^n * \overline{y} = 0 in E/(x_1), or in other words, why the representative of the coset y satisfies p^n * y in (x_1)

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idk if that makes sense

white oxide
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okay thanks, i'll probably return to this later

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i've been trying to do math at night but apparently it still doesn't work

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thanks

pliant haven
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what does the =1 exactly mean here?

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is it like, its normal state?

peak root
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Here sigma is the permutation of the set {1,2,3,...,n}, which means it is a bijection from {1,2,3,...,n} to {1,2,3,...,n}. So sigma(n)=1 means this permutation sends n to 1 in the set {1,2,3,...,n}.

coral shale
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(no one saw anything)

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I think the usage of word "isomorphism" to refer to a bijection of sets is confusing in this context

peak root
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Updated

coral shale
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Nice. My explanation would be:
A permutation is a bijection from a set to itself, hence the function notation

delicate orchid
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woah!

white oxide
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ladies and gentlemen

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i don't need the structur etheorem for this problem right

topaz solar
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I don’t think so?

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Is PID even essential here hurmm

white oxide
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ok good

quiet pelican
topaz solar
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Yeah that’s what I’m thinking opencry

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x in M -> nx = 0 for some n ye?

quiet pelican
topaz solar
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Does it even have to have all zero divisors gone? (I mean ofc otherwise the fractions are scuffed but you know what I mean)

white oxide
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what would a map from M to Q even look like? I'm assuming it's determined by the coefficients in any linear combination which make up an element m of M since the coefficients are in R

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idk

topaz solar
# quiet pelican Yes

Aight just making it wasn’t some weird coefficient thing, as opposed to some n thing

topaz solar
white oxide
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yuh

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that was the first thing i thought of

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cuz like

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Ya know

topaz solar
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This is the definition

white oxide
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torsion

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well yes

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definition of r-module homomorphism

topaz solar
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Consider: multiplicative inverses

white oxide
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hrmmmm

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$\varphi(r^{-1}rm) = r^{-1}\varphi(rm)$

cloud walrusBOT
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okeyokay

white oxide
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:kek:

topaz solar
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Yes

topaz solar
white oxide
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hmmmmmmmmm

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ready for this? $\varphi(m) = \varphi(m + 0) = \varphi(m) + \varphi(am) = \varphi(m) + a\varphi(m) = (a \cdot 1)\varphi(m) = a\varphi(m) = \varphi(am) = 0$, for $a \in R$ such that $am = 0$

cloud walrusBOT
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okeyokay

white oxide
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🤯

topaz solar
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huh

white oxide
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lmfao

topaz solar
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why is phi m + a phi m = a phi m

white oxide
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idk

topaz solar
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Well I mean yeah since it’s all 0 but

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That’s what you’re trying to prove

white oxide
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oh oops

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i forgot the distributive law

topaz solar
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real

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Anyhow, ye am = 0

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And also

summer path
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"Trick the grader" distributive law

topaz solar
#

what about 1/a phi (am)

white oxide
white oxide
white oxide
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i thought of this earlier but like

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this is equivalent to showing that the exponents for every element of M are invertible right

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or am i TRIPPIN

topaz solar
#

huh

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That’s

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Being a field?

white oxide
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wait what

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R a PID tho

topaz solar
#

Things are invertible

white oxide
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and a in R

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wat

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wait why

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integral domain is not a division ring right

topaz solar
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Ah wait we’re not making this a Q module that way oop

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But yeah things in Q are invertible

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\phi(m) is in Q

white oxide
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ohhh

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ah

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ok that makes sense then

topaz solar
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So x\phi(m) is in R for some x ye?

white oxide
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and yea i guess R is embedded into Q anyhow

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yup

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ok gotcha

topaz solar
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And that’s integral

white oxide
#

proof should be easy now

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hopefully

delicate orchid
white oxide
#

is it really that? $m \in M$, $a \in R$ such that $am = 0$, $\varphi \in \text{Hom}_R(M, Q)$ arbitrary, $\varphi(m) = \varphi(a^{-1}am) = a^{-1}\varphi(am) = 0$

cloud walrusBOT
#

okeyokay

delicate orchid
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if it's anything like the proof for the tensor version of this (which is should be they're adjoint) then yeah probably

white oxide
#

damn bro that's crazy

topaz solar
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Well, you can’t just do 1/a ig since it’s not as a Q module, but that’s the idea

white oxide
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foock

cloud walrusBOT
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Dragonslayer Sharp

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Dragonslayer Sharp

topaz solar
#

It falls out from here

delicate orchid
#

so true bestie...

topaz solar
#

That’s how the tensor one goes, m (x) 1 = m (x) n/n = nm (x) 1/n = 0

delicate orchid
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can we do this directly through the adjoint

topaz solar
#

directly

topaz solar
delicate orchid
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yeah DUH

topaz solar
#

this is way nicer than the adjoint

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But

delicate orchid
#

yeah but adjoint is cooler

topaz solar
#

Uhhh Hom(A (x) Q, B) ~= Hom(A, Hom(Q, B)) no?

delicate orchid
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Hom(X,Hom(Y, Z)) = Hom(X \otimes Y, Z)

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if we wrote them the wrong way around just pretend we're in R-mod^op or whatever

topaz solar
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Issue is, that’s Q -> B

delicate orchid
#

pain and suffering

tough raven
# cloud walrus **okeyokay**

M is not a module over the field of fractions so you can't apply a^{-1} to elements of the domain.
What you do have is
φ(m) = a^{-1} a φ(m) = a^{-1} φ(am) = a^{-1} φ(0) = a^{-1} 0 = 0,
choosing any non-zero a such that am = 0.

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(That is, the idea is the same but keep the a^{-1} applied “outside the φ”.)

white oxide
cloud walrusBOT
#

okeyokay

topaz solar
cloud walrusBOT
#

Dragonslayer Sharp

delicate orchid
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like the tensor one :breakfast:

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wait

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our ring is a domain right

topaz solar
#

Yes

delicate orchid
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ok good

topaz solar
#

Otherwise Q is scuffed

delicate orchid
#

it's not THAT scuffed

topaz solar
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Since, ya know, dividing by zero divisors bad

tough raven
topaz solar
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Disgusting

tough raven
#

Of course, who knows if a is invertible anymore?

summer path
white oxide
topaz solar
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Bro you can’t apply a^-1 to m

tough raven
topaz solar
#

it ain’t a Q module chief

delicate orchid
tough raven
tough raven
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(inb4 the extension of scalars to Q is 0)

delicate orchid
#

coextenstion of scalars

tough raven
#

Hmmm.

delicate orchid
#

has anyone actually ever performed a coextenstion of scalars

tough raven
#

Yes.

topaz solar
#

Poor soul

delicate orchid
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I refuse to believe it

tough raven
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There is a right adjoint to restriction of scalars, just like extension of scalars is the left adjoint.

white oxide
#

i need a hint!

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😹

quiet pelican
white oxide
#

bro got it instantly

topaz solar
#

I mean yeah

quiet pelican
#

Please don’t call me that

white oxide
#

bro is gender neutral

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but aight gotchu

topaz solar
delicate orchid
#

everything is gender neutral because we are not FRENCH with their stupid le la lalalala leellelele

topaz solar
#

Apply earlier problem

tough raven
# tough raven Yes.

IIRC, for R -> S, you send a left R-module M to Hom_R(S,M), where S is viewed as a (R,S)-bimodule.

delicate orchid
#

yeah it follows pretty quickly from the previous problem

topaz solar
#

Literally immediate

white oxide
#

:(

topaz solar
#

Enough clowning

delicate orchid
#

I love how u can just quotient by the torsion elements... R-mod is so nice...

topaz solar
#

What’s ker phi

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my child

quiet pelican
#

Come on tablet
Die so I can do some category theory

white oxide
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oh wait.... if I can show that Hom_R(M/M_tors, Q) is zero then I'm done!

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wait nvm

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M not torsion

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oh wait....

quiet pelican
white oxide
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thanks dudet i'll take a look if i'ms tuck

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oh wait

white oxide
#

if M is torsion then it's trivial

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holy shit

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i'm a math god

topaz solar
#

but yeah what if M isn’t torsion

delicate orchid
topaz solar
#

What’s ker phi

topaz solar
delicate orchid
#

I hate category theory. All groups are S_n and all categories are FinDimVect

tender kestrel
#

Hello brilliant people! I need to decide between taking either differential geometry or topology class for this semester. I'd only take one before I graduate and might go to different school for masters where I'm not sure math class would be so available to engineering student. I want to study Lie groups and apply to robotics.

white oxide
#

I appreciate being called brilliant

tender kestrel
#

well okey what do you think?

topaz solar
#

Idk just take one and read a book on the other gg

white oxide
cloud walrusBOT
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okeyokay

tender kestrel
#

Thanks!

void cosmos
rocky cloak
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Maybe you want to assume R artinian and take M to be a minimal left ideal

void cosmos
#

yews

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yes

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but R is finite right?

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or does that say nothing

rocky cloak
#

Yeah, if it's finite it's artinian, but you still need to assume M is minimal

void cosmos
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yea ofc

rocky cloak
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Also M won't be 1-dimensional in general. Can be n-dimensional for any finite n

void cosmos
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so its simple as an R-modu;e

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with n being the mulitplicity ?

rocky cloak
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So you end up proving that R is the nxn matrix ring over D, then M will be n dimensional

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This is also happens to be the multiplicity of M in R in the sense that R is isomorphic to M^n as a left module

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And yes M is simple

void cosmos
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yea got it

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thank you king of kigns

white oxide
#

I had an oopsie moment while tutoring today

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If W is the direct sum of a bunch of vector spaces are their pairwise intersections trivial or is there entire intersection trivial or is the intersection of all of them except one and that one trivial

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😭😭😭

rocky cloak
white oxide
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ah okay

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Thanks

rocky cloak
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Yeah, so the intersection of one with the sum of all the others is the thing that needs to be trivial.

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Alternatively you can think of it iteratively. I.e.

A+B+C = (A+B)+C

So you want A and B to intersect trivially and you want (A+B) and C to intersect trivially, and that will be enough for it to be direct

delicate orchid
rocky cloak
delicate orchid
#

I've sat here for 5 minutes now and cannot for the life of me figure out why that isn't true

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is it an edge case with infinity?

rocky cloak
#

Or infinitely many if you prefer

delicate orchid
#

I'm still not following, am I just getting my wires crossed that the forgetful functor Vect -> Set is additive?

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ah yeah the underlying set of a direct sum is the product of sets

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ok now I buy it

rocky cloak
#

Consider the 1D subspaces spanned by [1, 0], [0, 1] and [1, 1]

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Yeah, forgetful functor preserves limits not colimits

delicate orchid
#

been working in too many categories with biproducts....

rocky cloak
#

Additive categories my beloved

south patrol
#

Every good forgetful functor has both left and right adjoints

crystal turtle
#

except we know the only good categories are the topological ones~ /s

crystal turtle
#

categories are just glorified topological spaces sotrue

white oxide
#

why is this true? underlined in blue!

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nvm

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i guess it makes sense

crystal turtle
white oxide
#

cuz when you multiply it by p^s then you get p^r

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which is an exponent for E

white oxide
#

can smbdy pls explain why we must have n + r - s \leq r

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or how p^r being an exponent for E implies it

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oh

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well i don't rlly see how it implies it

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wait

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oh yea because ap^{n + r - s} is in (x1) and is not zero

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?

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oh yea and if it was greater than r then it would be zero which contradicts the fact that it's nonzero

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or am i smokin

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can somebody explain how this implies that the above term is a representative for ybar

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is it because p^{s - n}cx_1 is in (x_1) and thus we have y + (x_1) where y is an original representative for ybar

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and it's in x_1 because it's less than n

#

here, why can we conclude that $a_iy_i = 0$ for all $i$? $a_i\bar{y_i} = 0 \implies a_iy_i \in (x_1)$, which doesn't imply that $a_iy_i = 0$

cloud walrusBOT
#

okeyokay

white oxide
#

because the kernel in $E/(x_1)$ is the elements sent to $(x_1)$ and not to $0 \in E$

cloud walrusBOT
#

okeyokay

coral shale
#

it says let the y bars be independent

#

in lemma 7.6 premise

white oxide
#

hm okay thanks

crystal turtle
#

that depends

terse crystal
#

We can’t know how many when the group is not given. Say it has m many, but we do know that m=1 mod p

#

By sylow

crystal turtle
#

for instance, C_4 (or Z/4) has 1 element of order 2, but V_4 (C_2 x C_2) has 3

#

so it depends on the structure of the group, but you should be able to determine this at least for certain types of groups. For instance, it'll be easier for cyclic groups

south patrol
#

Hm saying m=1 mod p by Sylow doesn't seem the best reasoning unless I'm confusing something?

crystal turtle
#

yeah that's for sylow P subgroups, right?

#

not necessarily p subgroups/ele's of order p

terse crystal
#

The proof of sylow by bourbaki didn’t say anything about the power right, p^r | |G|, the proof didn’t require r be maximal

crystal turtle
#

iirc it's for maximal exponent

south patrol
#

I think that is true though yes that is a good point

#

It is often just stated with maximal but holds more generally

crystal turtle
#

oh okay

terse crystal
#

Yeah. At least the proof by bourbaki didn’t require that. The excellent proof using group action one

south patrol
#

Wait 1 second

crystal turtle
#

but this is still not good reasoning

#

Because that counts subgroups

#

not elements of order whatever

south patrol
#

Well there is an elementary argument anyway lol

crystal turtle
#

For instance, Z/p has 1 p-subgroup, but p-1 elements of order p

terse crystal
#

Oh, yeah my bad… sorry, yeah not the same thing… a p order subgroup have p-1 many …

south patrol
#

I mean each distinct subgroup of G of order p will have p-1 elements of order p

#

and these are pairwise distinct

#

so we have n(p-1) where n is the # of such subgroups lol

#

But then hm # of such subgroups

#

I don't think there is any nice way to enumerate them right idk

crystal turtle
#

well if we don't know it for cyclic we definitely don't know it in general KEK but it seems like we should be able to say something at least?

terse crystal
#

Yeah… can’t tell us how many, only to show that there exist, at least p-1 many…

crystal turtle
terse crystal
#

At least it’s a way. Right? equivalently hard😂. You know how many p order elements iff you know how many p order subgroups…

terse crystal
#

q is also a prime?

#

Yes I think so, assuming this q is also a prime

#

This result is good, we can show it has p-1 many order p elements without it though

#

(Because U(Z/qZ) is cyclic of order q-1, A cyclic group of n elements, any divisor d of n, there exists exactly one subgroup of order d)

#

(Actually if you are talking about U(Z/mZ) in general we always can calculate number of elements of certain order. U(Z/mZ) is a very good group, we know how it can be factored into cyclic groups)

sonic coral
#

how would i go about showing that all the non identity elements of H(F_p) for p>2 prime has order p. H is the heisenberg group of size 3. I know that H(F_p) has order p^3 but how would i eliminate the elements having order p^2 or p^3.

white oxide
#

could i please get help with this problem

#

i have no clue where to start lol

#

offering payment of $20 for solution

chilly ocean
#

Let K be a splitting field of x^4+8 over Q. What is a basis of K
?

white oxide
#

is this a hint

chilly ocean
#

No unrelated

white oxide
#

lmao

terse crystal
# white oxide yo

You have complex eigenvalues $\sqrt{a}i$ and $-\sqrt{a}i$ now right?
When you have $A(x+yi)=(r+si)(x+yi)$ for complex eigenvalue $r+si$ and complex eigenvector $x+yi$. Notice that right now you have $A\begin{pmatrix}x&y\end{pmatrix}=\begin{pmatrix}x&y\end{pmatrix}\begin{pmatrix}r&s\-s&r\end{pmatrix}$

cloud walrusBOT
#

Cogwheels of the mind

terse crystal
white oxide
#

Thanks for the help, I gave up tho cuz it’s late at night and the problem set is due soon

#

I’ll just lose a few points it’s all good

#

I’ll prob return tho and follow ur hints

rocky cloak
white oxide
rocky cloak
#

And you see how it applies?

white oxide
#

No

#

I don’t even know what Jordan form is

rocky cloak
#

You don't need the Jordan form

#

A module over R[x] is a vector space where x acts by some matrix

#

If that matrix is A, what do you think the resulting module should be?

#

The module will be ||R[x]/(x^2 + a)^2||

This has a cannonical basis ||1, x, x^2, x^3||,

||Expressing A in this basis|| is the R-canonical form

white oxide
#

thank you, i'll probably return to this problem later. my brain literally turns off at night and i can't do any form of math lol

summer path
#

On the other hand, my brain turns off during the day monkey

timber blaze
topaz solar
#

Well, ht is in H, and t^-1 k is in K

#

Does this make sense @timber blaze ?

timber blaze
topaz solar
#

well, if t isn't in both, then ht and t^-1k wont be in H, K respectively

timber blaze
#

aha

#

thanks 👍

hybrid pike
#

My abstract algebra exam went well and I couldn’t have done it without help from the people here so ty all ❤️

lime badge
#

Quick question: Let R be an integral domain with field of fractions K and let M be a finitely generated R-module. The tensor product $V = M \otimes_R K$ is a $K$-vector space. I need to show $\text{dim}_K V$ equals the rank of $M$ as an R-module

cloud walrusBOT
#

Eternal Way

lime badge
#

My intuition is just that I take the generating set of M and tensor by 1 but I wanted to make this more precise

rocky cloak
#

What is your definition of rank?

lime badge
#

Rank of a finitely generated module M is the max number of linearly independent of elements of M

rocky cloak
#

I see, so what you want to prove is that {m} is linearly independent iff {m(x)1} is

lime badge
#

We want to prove {m \otimes 1} is a maximal linearly independent set of V right?

rocky cloak
#

Yes

lime badge
#

Ok perfect, thanks!

lime badge
# rocky cloak Yes

So showing the set of {m otimes 1} is linearly independent over K is not hard. As for showing it generates V = M otimes_R K, isn't this obvious by the structure of the tensor product?

rocky cloak
lime badge
rocky cloak
#

Then a maximally linearly independent set consist of the single element m = (1, 0)

#

Which doesn't generate M

lime badge
#

When my book says "generate", it merely means that there's a surjective homomorphism between M and the free-module on some indexing set A

rocky cloak
#

Indeed, that's the usual definition of generates

#

But a maximally linearly independent set need not be a generating set

#

As per the above example

lime badge
#

I agree. But I was trying to show that {m otimes 1} is a basis for V = M \otimes_R K over K

rocky cloak
#

Yes, when over a field maximally linearly independent implies basis implies generating

lime badge
#

Right, and every element of V can be written as $\sum_i k_i m_i \otimes k'_i$, where $k_i, k'_i$ are elements of $K$.

But $\sum_i k_i m_i \otimes k'_i = \sum_i k_i k'_i m_i \otimes 1 = \sum_i \tilde{k}_i (m_i \otimes 1)$

cloud walrusBOT
#

Eternal Way

rocky cloak
#

It's not immediately obvious

lime badge
#

Why does it not immediately follow from how the tensor product relations are defined?

#

In the sense that it should follow from the construction we use to show the existence of the tensor product in R-mod

rocky cloak
#

So the elements of the tensor product are sums of things of the form m(x)k for m in M and k in K.

So if m_i generated M, it would follow. But since there can be m not in the span of m_i, you need some argument for why m(x)k is in the span of m_i(x)1

#

For example in the above example if m is the element (1, 1) in Z(+)Z/2. How do you know it is in the span of (1,0)(x)1?

lime badge
#

But aren't we assuming {m_i} is a generating set for M? {m_i} isn't necessarily a basis, but that shouldn't matter for this

rocky cloak
#

We are assuming m_i is a maximally linearly independent set

lime badge
#

Ah damn

rocky cloak
#

Like in the example M = Z(+)Z/2, the maximally linearly independent set does not generate

lime badge
rocky cloak
#

That should work yeah

lime badge
#

And here, are you saying {m} is linearly independent over R iff {m otimes 1} is linearly independent over K or are both to be considered lin indep over K?

rocky cloak
#

Yeah {m} linearly independent over R iff {m otimes 1} linearly independent over K

lime badge
# rocky cloak Yeah {m} linearly independent over R iff {m otimes 1} linearly independent over ...

Ok, I showed this.

To show maximality of {m_i otimes 1} for V over K, we can do a proof by contradiction and suppose it isn't. Then we can add an element v of V to {m otimes 1} to complete it to a basis. v can be expressed as a linear combination of m' otimes 1 with coeffs in K, where m' are not necessarily equal to the m in {m otimes 1}.

So {v, m otimes 1} is in particular linearly independent over K. But then this implies {m' otimes 1, m otimes 1} is linearly independent over K which implies (by what we proved) that {m, m'} is linearly independent over R, contradicting the maximality of {m} in M

lime badge
#

Thanks a lot for your help!

#

As usual 😄

south patrol
#

I believe a fancy way to do this is to show that taking exterior powers commutes with extension of scalars

#

Lol

rocky cloak
lime badge
#

I have another question. Let $k \subseteq k(\alpha) = F$ be a finite simple field extension. I need to show that $\alpha$ is separable over $k$ iff $F \otimes_k F$ is reduced as a ring.

Now its obvious that it wants me to do something like $F \otimes_k \frac{k[x]}{f(x)} \cong \frac{F[x]}{f(x)}$, where $f(x)$ is the minimal polynomial of $\alpha$ and use CRT to split up the factors of f(x), but my concern is that f(x) does not necessarily split over $F$

cloud walrusBOT
#

Eternal Way

south patrol
#

One of the directions is easy

#

But yeah tbh this doesn't seem like it'll be particularly pleasant to prove so this is a worse method nvm lol

rocky cloak
south patrol
#

Just thought it'd be a nice structural result but not applied to this specific case

rocky cloak
#

But the rank over Z is 0, while dimension over F2 is n

south patrol
#

Sure point taken

#

mb

rocky cloak
#

Would have been nice though

south patrol
#

I guess sure like the Z action would factor through to give a Z/2 action

lime badge
cloud walrusBOT
#

Eternal Way

halcyon peak
#

consider the equation fh = g^r in a larger field where all polynomial splits, then all roots of f are roots of g, this can only happen when alpha is not sep, otherwise u get f divides g since all roots are distinct, which leads to \bar{g} = 0

#

conversely if alpha is not sep, assume chark = p, and f = g^{p^k}, it's easy to see \bar{g} is the nilpotent element

lime badge
#

Or is that what you're saying? I guess I'm not seeing why this contradicts f having no multiple roots over its splitting field

halcyon peak
#

if it has multiple roots then u cannot deduce f divides g

#

like f = (x-a)^p and g = x-a

lime badge
#

Ah ok, thanks!

#

And conversely, suppose $F \otimes_k F$ is reduced and assume by contradiction that alpha was not separable over $k$. Then it has multiple roots, so $f(x) = (x-\alpha)^t h(x)$ for some $t > 1$ and some h(x) that's relatively prime to $(x-\alpha)^t$. By CRT, one of the factors of $F \otimes_k F \cong F[x]/((f(x))$ is $F[x]/(x-\alpha)^t$ and this is clearly not a reduced ring

cloud walrusBOT
#

Eternal Way

alpine island
#

I'm gonna start calling GCD domains GCDomains

crystal turtle
#

greatest common domains

hollow mica
#

has to be R

spare totem
#

I don't have lot of experience with analysis

#

I am wondering how can I approach this problem

#

by the way, deg is defined as deg(a + bi) = a^2 + b^2

quiet pelican
spare totem
#

I do know that deg(r) will always be lower than deg(m)

quiet pelican
#

Also, without further restriction (I suspect there is one, it’s pretty standard) it should be 0

spare totem
#

so idk, probably 1

quiet pelican
spare totem
#

uhhh

quiet pelican
#

If we require deg(r) < deg(m) which is standard, then it is 1

spare totem
#

oh okay okay

#

Thank you

#

I have this one more question, sorry for being so nosy about this

#

How do I talk about permutations and dihedral groups

#

having multiplication and addition operations

#

This group theory course (some online MOOC) was second course (but first for me) so I am probably missing something

terse crystal
#

What is the ring in those cases?

#

R[G], you gave us different G, but didn’t give us R

quiet pelican
# spare totem

The group ring is \bZ[G] where the multiplication is given by distributing and multiplying the basis vectors as if they were elements of G

quiet pelican
terse crystal
#

I see, makes sense

quiet pelican
#

I suspect you get the same answer for any integral domain

#

(Well, the 3 non-integral ones are non integral for any R, not even necessarily integral, not sure about the integral ones)

terse crystal
quiet pelican
terse crystal
#

thanks… nvm, tensor product of two integral domains over Z is not necessarily an integral domain. I thought I wrote them as a tensor product then it is integral…

chilly ocean
#

Hello

#

Does someone knows more groups classified by the order? Like a group of order p is cyclic or group of order p^2 abelian, group of order pq with p<q and q is not congruent with 1 mod p is cyclic or group of order p^2 q with p<q and q non congruent with 1 mod p is abelian

#

This type of classification, not for groups with order less than 15 or something like this

delicate orchid
#

add more than two prime factors and everything goes to hell but uhhh maybe look at Burnside's p,q theorem

chilly ocean
#

What an inverse of 3 in F_9?

topaz solar
south patrol
#

There isn't one

#

3 = 0 in F_9

#

The issue is presumably that F_9 is not just Z/9Z, unfortunately

#

In fact, the fact that 3 does not have an inverse in Z/9Z is a proof that the latter is not a field lol

chilly ocean
#

How can F_(p^2) be a field? p and 2p don't have inverses

chilly radish
#

it's of characteristic p

#

Both of those are equal to 0 in that field

#

Did you read what potato said

south patrol
chilly ocean
#

Textbook says that any finite field is isomorphic to F_(p^n)

south patrol
#

Yes

chilly ocean
#

How many elements in F_9

crystal turtle
wraith cargo
wraith cargo
#

yes I did
So that means that F_9 has 9 elements

chilly ocean
#

Please tell me that every 9 elements explicitly

wraith cargo
#

I don't know if there's an explicit description of all the 9 elements

#

what you can do explicitly is see how the field is constructed

chilly ocean
#

What does F_(p^n) mean....

crystal turtle
#

If not, that might be a better place to start than on discord

south patrol
#

Well we can give explicit descriptions for all 9 elements in particular models of it lol

#

but it can be constructed in various ways

#

and ultimately ig not that important since all isomorphic

crystal turtle
#

sure, you can give such a field structure on any set with 9 elements

south patrol
#

Yeah

crystal turtle
#

it's just not meaningful what the elements are if you do that. And the usual construction won't have a particularly enlightening description of the elements unless you actually just work it out

south patrol
#

As a group it is just Z/3 x Z/3, but you have to give it a different multiplication

void cosmos
#

why is an artinian primitive ring simple?

void cosmos
#

is htis even true

#

primitive rings have 0 jacobson cuz 0 is the annihilator of something

#

so artiniain primiitve rings are just semisimple ones no?

sly crescent
#

Addition and multiplication work modulo 3 for the real and imaginary parts

terse crystal
hollow tartan
#

Why is this true? |G| <= |Z|/4. For finite non abelian groups Z is the center. I was looking at the bound of the prob that 2 elements in a non abelian group commute

crystal turtle
#

Z is the center of G?

hollow tartan
#

Yes

crystal turtle
#

Z is subset of G. How is its cardinality larger

hollow tartan
#

Other way sry

crystal turtle
#

hmm okay a bit more reasonable, |Z| <= |G|/4. Under what conditions is this true?

#

nonabelian in general i guess?

#

I see

hollow tartan
south patrol
#

Do you understand what they said before

crystal turtle
#

Yeah so if G/Z is cyclic, then G is abelian iirc

#

Which would be the contrapositive of the third line

south patrol
#

Yeah that is a nice problem to do

#

Not too hard

#

And then every group of order <= 3 is cyclic so |G|/|Z| = |G/Z| >= 4

crystal turtle
#

In particular, we know what groups of order 1, 2, and 3 look like

#

damn

#

got sniped

hollow tartan
#

Oh okay it's basically the point of non commutativeness

crystal turtle
lusty marlin
#

Does there exist a 'nice' characterisation of all algebraic numbers that are the root of some polynomial with non-negative integer coefficients?

wraith cargo
icy bear
#

is $(a^{-1})^{n} = (a^{n})^{-1}$ only true for abelian groups?

cloud walrusBOT
#

gabi the ancient

crystal turtle
#

Always

#

Even for nonabelian

icy bear
#

oh

#

Imma try proving it

#

oh it's actually kinda obvious damn

#

ty ryx

#

what's n(a) supposed to be?

coral shale
#

possibly order

icy bear
#

I supposed it's just an integer that changes with a but idk

coral shale
#

huh weird

#

oh right yeah yeah

#

n is a variable

#

that depends on a

#

weird notation

#

H = {a in G | exists n > 1 : a^n = e}

icy bear
#

I think the point is that the integer power is not fixed for all elements

coral shale
#

in words - H is the elements with finite order

icy bear
#

what's order

crystal turtle
#

Bad way of writing it but yes, elements of finite order

coral shale
#

Also, note this statement holds more generally. G need not be abelian

crystal turtle
#

No

#

I don't think so

coral shale
#

eh really?

#

ill have a think

coral shale
crystal turtle
#

You might be able to come up with a counter example with matrices? Idk infinite nonabelian groups

coral shale
#

im lost ryx lol

#

i feel like the axioms hold - i rechecked kek

crystal turtle
#

||I don't think in general if nonabelian that a and b having finite order implies ab does too||

coral shale
#

oh am i being dumb

#

shit ur right

crystal turtle
#

This is true for finite nonabelian groups for obvious reasons

coral shale
#

yh u can make a free group

icy bear
coral shale
#

<a, b | aa, bb>

abab...abab is never the Identity

icy bear
#

I mean now I'm scared of having done something dumb but

#

I think I did actually

#

shit

#

or not

coral shale
#

just show, lets see

lusty marlin
icy bear
#

my argument to say that it's closed, that is, (a.b)^k = e for some k is that using the least common multiple, you can multiply both n(a) and n(b) so that they become equal, so since the group is abelian, you can factor the multiple exponent

coral shale
#

nahhh...

icy bear
#

but I'm not sure of something

coral shale
#

ohhh

#

wait

south patrol
#

Or just n(a)n(b)

coral shale
#

ok yeah fairs

#

but like potato said

#

god this na nb stuff opencry

icy bear
south patrol
#

Why sully lol

icy bear
#

idk I hate it when I over complicate my arguments without realising there's a much easier way

coral shale
#

eh its fine.

#

that was a decent idea

south patrol
#

Oh dw I mean tbf your thing is optimal

crystal turtle
icy bear
#

:0

crystal turtle
#

But just taking na nb is easier

south patrol
#

Assuming n(a) is the order of a ryx

#

xd

coral shale
#

well theres a few reasons

#

yeah

#

why that notation is bad

#

n(a) need not be unique, and isnt

crystal turtle
#

Wait I don't think so lol

south patrol
#

would be way easier to just say in words lol subsetof finite order elements

icy bear
coral shale
#

thats kindof cursed

south patrol
#

Oh

coral shale
#

why would u not bring it up at the start Xd

south patrol
#

Interesting this'd be before that lol

icy bear
coral shale
#

also, to note: if g^n is never e, then we say "the order is infinite"

icy bear
#

I'm reeally in the start of the book yet

crystal turtle
#

So nevermind that I just said some dumb shit

coral shale
#

im too lazy to think

coral shale
#

multiplying and adding gg

icy bear
coral shale
#

its a pretty hard exercise

#

if its in the beginning

#

but alright

icy bear
#

nah

coral shale
#

i mean like - bringing up the notion of infinite groups this early lol

#

even if implicit

crystal turtle
#

Why must groups be finite catThink

coral shale
#

im used to seeing finite groups introduced first

#

before moving on

#

because we do order, lagrange, etc

icy bear
#

it's all mixed up, most groups presented are finite but sometimes infinite groups appear

crystal turtle
white oxide
#

what they mean by "the most general combination of sets under which it will work"?

open sluice
#

you want associativity to hold for as many sets as possible

#

I don’t know the context but it sounds like there are some sets this does not hold for

#

so try and come up with a general rule that permits associativity

white oxide
#

hm ok

#

ty

coral steeple
#

Background: we proved that if a,b are positive integers, then aZ+bZ=dZ for some integer d. In my proof, I showed this constructively by defining $d=\operatorname{min}(a\mathbb{Z}+b\mathbb{Z}\cap{1,2,3,\dotsc})$. We then defined gcd(a,b)=d.

cloud walrusBOT
#

person2709505

coral steeple
#

I would like to know if there is a more self-contained solution possible than this:

#

I know it is possible to show that $g:=\prod_{p\textrm{ prime and }p\mid a,b}p$ is the largest integer that divides $a,b$, so we obtain $d\leq g$. Supposing $d<g$, use division with remainder to see that $g=qd+r,; 0\leq r<d$. Rearranging, $g-r=qd$, so $g-r\in aZ+bZ$. Since $r$ cannot be in $dZ$ by definition of $d$, $g$ is in $dZ$ only if $r=0$, i.e. $g=d$. The proof now reduces to the classical Bezout's identity.

cloud walrusBOT
#

person2709505

coral steeple
#

I have been thinking about this on and off for months now lmao

#

Oog this doesn't even work nevermind

white oxide
#

here, do we have to use the fact that Z is a noetherian domain?

coral spindle
#

You can if you want

#

It is a convenient way to prove that

white oxide
#

but it's not necessary right because i don't remember the argument at all lol

#

or wait no the euclidean algorithim has to terminate

south patrol
#

Hm I wouldn't both to consider the noetherian property

white oxide
#

yea i guess the exercise is assuming that i don't know it

#

which tbf i'm not that familiar, something something ascending chain condition of ideals

#

any ascending chain of ideals is finite there we go

#

i'm a little bit confused about the nature of the hint tho since it doesn't apply to any arbitrary ideal in Z

#

hm

rocky cloak
white oxide
#

huh okay

#

i'll consider that

rocky cloak
#

The hint will give you that any finitely generated ideal is principal. Then to rule out infinitely generated ones you can use that natural numbers are well ordered.

Here you could also use that Z is Noetherian I suppose. Though I feel like you would use this exercise to prove that fact, so...

south patrol
#

Tbh this is a bit silly imo lol like the easiest method doesn't use the Euclidean algorithm

white oxide
#

that was my thought

south patrol
#

The hint I would give (which is really not much of a hint): If I is an ideal and I = aZ, what is a way to characterise a in terms of I? Think about this lol

south patrol
rocky cloak
south patrol
#

Well I would merely use the fact that Z is Euclidean and to show Z is Euclidean doesn't actually need the Euclidean algorithm right, only the division algorithm

#

Anyway this has the advantage of not needing to worry about # of generators lol

rocky cloak
#

Oh yeah sure, I was just using "the Euclidean algorithm" and "Euclidean division" interchangeably here

south patrol
#

Ah okay

rocky cloak
#

But yeah you only need Euclidean division

south patrol
#

Yeah the way the question is described implies they mean the actual algorithm

#

I believe

white oxide
#

so if it were the case that if I were infinitely generated, then I must be Z?

rocky cloak
#

Well Z is not infinitely generated (generated by 1)

white oxide
#

ye but like

#

well i guess you could have countably many elements generating the ideal excluding 1

#

cuz i'm just trying to rule out the case that proper ideals of Z are infinitely generated

rocky cloak
#

I mean you can always add redundad generators. There isn't really a distinction between proper and non proper ideals there

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All ideals are finitely generated, so in particular the proper ones are

white oxide
rocky cloak
#

I'm confused, all ideals of Z are generated by a single element. That's the exercise you're doing

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If it's generated by a single element that's finitely generated

white oxide
#

ya but isn't that assuming that's the case before actually proving the claim if that makes any sense

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sorry i'm probably confused

rocky cloak
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Sure, I'm just saying that Z is not infinitely generated

white oxide
#

ye

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ohhh

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so proper ideals can't be infinitely generated

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?

rocky cloak
#

Like in general they can, but the statement "if I is infinitely generated, it must be Z" is strange

white oxide
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yea i suppose

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yea

rocky cloak
#

Okay, I'm sorry. I threw you off I guess

white oxide
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nah that's my fault, thank you

white oxide
cloud walrusBOT
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okeyokay

south patrol
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Yup

white oxide
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sick

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wait this seems trivial but i'm still confused on why no ideal of Z is infinitely generated

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assuming that we don't know that Z is a PID

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is it just because Z is generated by 1?

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oh wait any ideal which is infinitely generated must be contained in (1) which is finitely generated oops

topaz solar
white oxide
#

wit

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wait

rocky cloak
#

Are you able to use that to prove it is principal?

topaz solar
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This feels way easier than, ya know

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Invoking Euclidean shenanigans

rocky cloak
#

You still have to invoke Euclidean shenanigans

topaz solar
#

Significantly less that what it seems like they were suggesting

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In the problem hint

white oxide
white oxide
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Oops

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Replied to wrong person

white oxide
rocky cloak
#

An interesting similar example is Q as an abelian group. For any p and q rational numbers there is an integer x and rational r such that

p = xq + r

With |r| < |q|.

With this you can prove that any finitely generated subgroup of Q is principal, but there are infinitely generated subgroups of Q

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(in particular Q itself)

delicate orchid
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Z is infinite so if an ideal is infinitely generated it must be (Z) :iwon:

south patrol
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it weird

topaz solar
south patrol
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Ye

wet zodiac
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where should i start

delicate orchid
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well what's the first map that comes to mind

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actually no - what do you think S^-1R looks like, keeping the hint in mind

wet zodiac
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it should look like uhh

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since S is closed under multiplication it should look like a ring RxS with addition defined as (r,s)+(t,u)=(ru+ts,su) and multiplication as (r,s)(t,u)=(rt,su)

delicate orchid
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uhh lemme think for a sec

wet zodiac
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with the same equivalance relation we have as in the hint

delicate orchid
#

yeah that's right

delicate orchid
wet zodiac
delicate orchid
#

consider the fact that the underlying set is RxS

wet zodiac
#

wdym

delicate orchid
#

so there's a pretty obvious set map from R into RxS

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which you can show is a ring homomorphism

wet zodiac
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R -> RxS via phi(r)=(r,s) for some fixed s?

rocky cloak
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You may want to adjoin a certain nice element to S, before doing the construction

delicate orchid
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oh whoops I thought we already had that!

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yes, definitely - my apologies

wet zodiac
#

what

rocky cloak
#

What is a very nice element of R when it comes to multiplication?

wet zodiac
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1

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but why adjoin 1 to S

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oh wait a minute

delicate orchid
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yeah wait a minute

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1 being in S doesn't follow from being multiplicatively cloesd

rocky cloak
#

You don't have to adjoin 1, it just makes it easier

white oxide
#

consider min{I \cap N} = k

delicate orchid
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who tf cares about multiplicatively closed sets that aren't monoids bro on the 9 circles of heaven

white oxide
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if g is in I such that g is not a multiple of k write g = kq + r where k > r >= 0

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but this implies that r is zero since k is minimal

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i believe

rocky cloak
delicate orchid
delicate orchid
rocky cloak
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You may have a problem since they never assume S to be nonempty though.

rocky cloak
delicate orchid
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but you ||wrote a 1 in!||

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||how can you "cancel" the fraction without a 1 in S?||

rocky cloak
wet zodiac
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i will get ice cream and return to this problem

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i need sugar

white oxide
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wait yea

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wtf

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why did i need euclidean algorithim for this shit

delicate orchid
#

the non-empty thing is far more worrysome though

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I'll admit I just don't understand how you're supposed to do it without 1 but doing it with the empty set seems suspcious

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maybe you shouldn't have definitions be exercises in books you know what a crazy concept

rocky cloak
delicate orchid
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hmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmm

rocky cloak
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I mean you can localized with respect to any set just using universal property, but then the construction won't be of the form RxS

delicate orchid
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I suppose that's the important part of the localisation ig

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do you still get all the nice exactness properties with a general set

rocky cloak
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I mean the construction will just be take the multiplicatively closed set (with 1) generated by S, and proceed

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So yeah, should have the same nice properties

chilly ocean
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If H is a p sylow subgroup of a finite group G and K is a subgoup of G then always H intersected with K is a p sylow subgroup of K?

quiet pelican
chilly ocean
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Thx

quiet pelican
delicate orchid
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pretty clearly p = 3

crystal turtle
#

...

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Duh

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I was just checking it micose knew NervousSweat