#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 161 of 1
xi
oh facts
it is, but its also an in my opinion better way to see, why we need to impose that its abelian
$\phi$ is so fucking basic
okeyokay
yea i'll check it out later, looked elegant bro
wannabe empty set
also xi is really easy to write actually
start with a horizontal bar, then without lifting your pen start writing a c, and then an s
"don't real"
Capital Xi in first pic, then lowercase xi and zeta in second
ugh. okay so I defined $\xi: M \to M' \oplus M''$ by $\xi(m) = \bigl(\psi(m), g(m)\bigl)$, it worked, cool. assumed 1 held and defined $\phi: M' \oplus M'' \to M$ by $(m', m'') \mapsto f(m') + \varphi(m'')$. also an isomorphism. I was able to show 2 by letting $\psi = \pi_{M'} \circ \phi^{-1}$. but assuming 2 and trying to show 1, I just took $\xi$ and let $\varphi = \xi^{-1} \circ \iota_{M''}$. the problem was trying to determine an inverse image of $\xi^{-1}(0, m'')$; could I just assume that $g(m) = m''$ by the definition of $\xi$ and $m \in \text{Ker }\psi$?
okeyokay
do you have like your whole proof written down
i think that would be easier to read
Yeah, I’m aboutta latex it
Like in 15-20 minutes
And then I have to do two more things in this dumb Lang exercise
But I’ll send the full proof of proposition 3.2
\noindent 1. First, we prove Proposition 3.2. Suppose $0 \to M' \xrightarrow{f} M \xrightarrow{g} M'' \to 0$ splits. Let $\psi$ be such that $\psi \circ f = 1_{M'}$, and $\varphi$ such that $g \circ \varphi = 1_{M''}$. Define $\xi: M \to M' \oplus M''$ by $\xi(m) = \bigl(\psi(m), g(m)\bigl)$. Clearly $\xi$ is a homomorphism (since $\psi$ and $g$ are homomorphisms). $\xi$ is surjective since $\psi$ and $g$ are surjective. If $\xi(m) = 0$, then in particular $m \in \text{Ker }g = \text{Im }f$. Hence $m = f(m')$ for some $m' \in M'$, and $\psi(m) = \psi\bigl(f(m')\bigl) = 0$. But $\psi \circ f = 1_{M'}$, so $m' = 0$, whence $m = 0$.
\
\
We have already seen that $M = \text{Im }\varphi \oplus \text{Ker }g$. Observe that any $x \in M$ can be expressed as [x = x - f\bigl(\psi(x)\bigl) + f\bigl(\psi(x)\bigl)] where $x - f\bigl(\psi(x)\bigl) \medspace \in \text{Ker }\psi$ and $f\bigl(\psi(x)\bigl) \medspace \in \text{Im }f$. Thus $M = \text{Im f} + \text{Ker }\psi$. If $y \in \text{Im }f \cap \text{Ker }\psi$, then $y = f(m')$ for some $m\ in M'$. But then $\psi(y) = \psi\bigl(f(m')\bigl) = m'$, so $m' = 0$ since $\psi \circ f = 1_{M'}$. Hence $f(m') = f(0) = 0 = y$, and $M = \text{Im }f \oplus \text{Ker }\psi$.
okeyokay
I'm too lazy to check right now lol
@balmy belfry Come talk in the big boy channel
Okay
Yay
I made it guys!
a = n^k
b = n^z
Cuz G is cyclic
ab = n^{k + z}
Right
What are a and b?
Random elements of G
Then ab = n^{z + k}
Then ab = n^zn^k
Then ab = ba
Lmfao that’s like the 4th time I proved that and then forgotten how it’s done
Fuck
Is this valid tho
Looks good to me
Idk ask more questions
anyone?
It’s not math
Oh
Gave you the studying! selfrole.
Removed the studying! role from you.
nice!
You already have the selfroles studying!, do you want to remove them? (y(es)/n(o))
(Tip: use ,iamnot to remove roles without this prompt.)
Session timed out waiting for user response.
yeah, seems legit
What’s a sub module
You're not ready
Ok
Can we ask questions about vector spaces here
Where do you ask questions about modules ? I assume here
But if you know what a subspace of a vector space is
A submodule of a module is the same
Ofc

Probably #linear-algebra
But if modules are over rings
And modules are here
And vec spaces are over fields
This is the place

I know the types of questions you're going to ask
#linear-algebra is a better place for them
Ok
Yeah I know
Linear algebra sounds cooler too
Cuz groups sound boring asf
Algebra sounds funner
Okay take off-topic discussion somewhere else lol
But I can’t
I’m studying role
A subspace (if you allow the scalars to be from a division ring instead of any arbitrary ring lol)
Don't talk here then
Okay
Why division ring?
Oh
You're talking about vector subspaces lol nvm
Ye lol
Bro said groups are boring
no
bro is speaking facts
i said they sound boring
imagine having only one binary operation
fr bruh
can't be me
2 is always better than 1
can't even multiply by scalars
fr
the fris isomorph theo in vec space is so much better than the group version like bffr

the biggest failing of the education system is the pervasive idea that groups are just rings with one less operation
groups are symmetries of spaces and rings are the functions on the spaces
that is a pervasive idea?
it's wrong anyway
among undergraduate students who have taken algebra 1, I feel like yes
at least, I sure have heard it expressed fairly often
yes, agreed
I have literally never heard this
Wholly nonsensical, anyhow, since not all groups are abelian
The symmetries/functions perspective doesn’t matter much, its completely ill typed
(Also the other axioms and usually existence of 1 I suppose)
Although, to be fair, an abelian group is just a ring without the monoid structure*
*internal to Ab
Especially without identity
Since then like
Yep take an arbitrary Ab & zero multiplication it
Let's maybe crop my uni outta that
doxxed!!!!
we love some selfdox

yo one time
someone called my number
at 5am
and he went yo bro i found your number on doxedbin
and ur fucked
so i was like ?? whats that and stuff
Oh that was me
turns out the post literally had my name , some shirtless pics of me and where my country is
thats it
lmfao it was so funny
and my number ofc but nobody seemed to care sadly
like it was that only one guy
😦
yea its from this server 100%
i got it
let R be a simple ring and let M be any left ideal in R
consider D = Hom_R(M,M)
this is a division ring ( every map here has trivial kernel and full image )
now consider Hom_D(M,M)
R is isomorphic to Hom_D(M,M) with the isomoprhism r --> phi_r = ra for a in M
once we get the details we have Hom_D(M,M) is R
then yeah M is a left ideal , consider it as a left R-module
then i think M is like 1-dimensional?
and if so u then just like the matrix corresponding to the Hom and we are done
or better consider it as a right R-module
not left
does this work
why is $p^n(y) \in (x_1)$? is it because $(p^n)$ is an ideal and hence $p^ny \in \text{Ker }\varphi$ where $\varphi(\bar{a}) = \bar{a}\bar{y}$ and hence $p^ny \in (x_1)$?
okeyokay
can any gs pls explain why s = r implies that y has the same period as y bar
<@&286206848099549185>
bro wasted no time
care to help out big man?
idk modules sorry
Does period mean the same thing as order?
I take it R is a PID?
Information like this is generally quite helpful to include
yeah
the c is throwing me off i think
i understand that the period of y is the generator m of the kernel a maps to ay
ok so
the least such element such that ay is in (x1) or in other words in the kernel
is p^r
and this is an ideal
hence if r = s
then p^r = p^s
so like we have to show that
(p^s) = (p^n)?
nvm i don't get this shit at all
it looks like, if s < r, then you'll find some other representative y' of \overline{y} such that the period of y' is the same as \overline{y}
like it looks like that might be the next step in the proof, not super sure of this tho
fucking lang man
okay
i'll consider that thanks
how is one supposed to read like 25 pages of lang per week and do 7 hard ass exercises rip
i should prob drop out of this course tbf
since \overline{y} has period p^n by assumption, p^n is a generator of the kernel of the map a --> a* \overline{y}. In particular, that's why p^n * \overline{y} = 0 in E/(x_1), or in other words, why the representative of the coset y satisfies p^n * y in (x_1)
idk if that makes sense
okay thanks, i'll probably return to this later
i've been trying to do math at night but apparently it still doesn't work
thanks
same
Here sigma is the permutation of the set {1,2,3,...,n}, which means it is a bijection from {1,2,3,...,n} to {1,2,3,...,n}. So sigma(n)=1 means this permutation sends n to 1 in the set {1,2,3,...,n}.
ooh i see, thank you 
(no one saw anything)
I think the usage of word "isomorphism" to refer to a bijection of sets is confusing in this context
Sorry it's my bad. I should have say bijection. English is not my first language and I just couldn't find the correct word.
Updated
Nice. My explanation would be:
A permutation is a bijection from a set to itself, hence the function notation
woah!
ok good
Doesn’t this work for any domain R?
Do we even need finitely generated?
And like
The proof is the same with those looser assumptions
Yes
Does it even have to have all zero divisors gone? (I mean ofc otherwise the fractions are scuffed but you know what I mean)
what would a map from M to Q even look like? I'm assuming it's determined by the coefficients in any linear combination which make up an element m of M since the coefficients are in R
idk
Aight just making it wasn’t some weird coefficient thing, as opposed to some n thing
Consider, \phi(rm) = r \phi(m) yeah?
This is the definition
Consider: multiplicative inverses
okeyokay
Yes
What about n= n*1
hmmmmmmmmm
ready for this? $\varphi(m) = \varphi(m + 0) = \varphi(m) + \varphi(am) = \varphi(m) + a\varphi(m) = (a \cdot 1)\varphi(m) = a\varphi(m) = \varphi(am) = 0$, for $a \in R$ such that $am = 0$
okeyokay
🤯
huh
lmfao
why is phi m + a phi m = a phi m
idk
"Trick the grader" distributive law
what about 1/a phi (am)
fax
hm ok
ye
i thought of this earlier but like
this is equivalent to showing that the exponents for every element of M are invertible right
or am i TRIPPIN
Things are invertible
Ah wait we’re not making this a Q module that way oop
But yeah things in Q are invertible
\phi(m) is in Q
So x\phi(m) is in R for some x ye?
And that’s integral
|R| <= |Q| u heard it here first folks
is it really that? $m \in M$, $a \in R$ such that $am = 0$, $\varphi \in \text{Hom}_R(M, Q)$ arbitrary, $\varphi(m) = \varphi(a^{-1}am) = a^{-1}\varphi(am) = 0$
okeyokay
if it's anything like the proof for the tensor version of this (which is should be they're adjoint) then yeah probably
damn bro that's crazy
Well, you can’t just do 1/a ig since it’s not as a Q module, but that’s the idea
foock
It falls out from here
so true bestie...
That’s how the tensor one goes, m (x) 1 = m (x) n/n = nm (x) 1/n = 0
can we do this directly through the adjoint
directly
||na/b = 0 my child||
yeah DUH
yeah but adjoint is cooler
Uhhh Hom(A (x) Q, B) ~= Hom(A, Hom(Q, B)) no?
Hom(X,Hom(Y, Z)) = Hom(X \otimes Y, Z)
if we wrote them the wrong way around just pretend we're in R-mod^op or whatever
pain and suffering
M is not a module over the field of fractions so you can't apply a^{-1} to elements of the domain.
What you do have is
φ(m) = a^{-1} a φ(m) = a^{-1} φ(am) = a^{-1} φ(0) = a^{-1} 0 = 0,
choosing any non-zero a such that am = 0.
(That is, the idea is the same but keep the a^{-1} applied “outside the φ”.)
so in this case it would just be $\frac{\varphi(am)}{a}$
okeyokay
ah
I mentioned this oop, after realizing it’s not tensor shenanigans
Dragonslayer Sharp
Yes
ok good
Otherwise Q is scuffed
it's not THAT scuffed
Since, ya know, dividing by zero divisors bad
Total field of fractions. 🥱
Disgusting

sorry how is a^{-1} \varphi(am) not the same as applying a^{-1} to elements of the domain? since \varphi(am) is in Q
Bro you can’t apply a^-1 to m
Keep in mind that Q is the codomain here.
it ain’t a Q module chief
I simply do not care. Multiply them.
I'm saying here that a^{-1}m and a^{-1}am do not make sense for m in M.
Extension of scalars lessgo
(inb4 the extension of scalars to Q is 0)
ah gotcha thanks
coextenstion of scalars
Hmmm.
has anyone actually ever performed a coextenstion of scalars
Yes.
Poor soul
I refuse to believe it
There is a right adjoint to restriction of scalars, just like extension of scalars is the left adjoint.
||Every homomorphism sends the torsion elements to 0||
bro got it instantly
I mean yeah
I literally have she/her pronoun role
Please don’t call me that
consider \phi: M —> Q
everything is gender neutral because we are not FRENCH with their stupid le la lalalala leellelele
Apply earlier problem
IIRC, for R -> S, you send a left R-module M to Hom_R(S,M), where S is viewed as a (R,S)-bimodule.
yeah it follows pretty quickly from the previous problem
Literally immediate
:(
Enough clowning
I love how u can just quotient by the torsion elements... R-mod is so nice...
Come on tablet
Die so I can do some category theory
oh wait.... if I can show that Hom_R(M/M_tors, Q) is zero then I'm done!
wait nvm
M not torsion
oh wait....
||What you want to show is that every element of Hom(M, Q) factors through the projection onto M/M_tors||
Yes 
but yeah what if M isn’t torsion
very categorical way of thinking about it, I'd just construct an explicit iso lol ||which is basically the same thing actually - fair point||
What’s ker phi
I’d think about it that way tbh, iso theorem moment
I mean #groups-rings-fields message
I hate category theory. All groups are S_n and all categories are FinDimVect
Sylow in shambles
Hello brilliant people! I need to decide between taking either differential geometry or topology class for this semester. I'd only take one before I graduate and might go to different school for masters where I'm not sure math class would be so available to engineering student. I want to study Lie groups and apply to robotics.
I appreciate being called brilliant
well okey what do you think?
Idk just take one and read a book on the other gg
$\varphi \mapsto \varphi'$ where $\varphi'(m + M_{\text{tors}}) = \varphi(m)$
okeyokay
well, I think that's probably how I'll go about. Maybe overthinking too much lol
Thanks!
anyone
This is not necessarily a division ring, for example of M equals R this just equals R^op
Maybe you want to assume R artinian and take M to be a minimal left ideal
Yeah, if it's finite it's artinian, but you still need to assume M is minimal
yea ofc
Also M won't be 1-dimensional in general. Can be n-dimensional for any finite n
So you end up proving that R is the nxn matrix ring over D, then M will be n dimensional
This is also happens to be the multiplicity of M in R in the sense that R is isomorphic to M^n as a left module
And yes M is simple
I had an oopsie moment while tutoring today
If W is the direct sum of a bunch of vector spaces are their pairwise intersections trivial or is there entire intersection trivial or is the intersection of all of them except one and that one trivial
😭😭😭
So if you have A+B+C direct, then you will have that the intersections
(A+B) n C, (A+C) n B and (B+C) n A
Are trivial. In particular this also holds pairwise
Yeah, so the intersection of one with the sum of all the others is the thing that needs to be trivial.
Alternatively you can think of it iteratively. I.e.
A+B+C = (A+B)+C
So you want A and B to intersect trivially and you want (A+B) and C to intersect trivially, and that will be enough for it to be direct
think of direct sums as disjoint unions of sets
Might be dangouos, since if sets pairwise intersect trivially, then they are disjoint. Which is not true for vector spaces and direct sums
I've sat here for 5 minutes now and cannot for the life of me figure out why that isn't true
is it an edge case with infinity?
Consider 3 lines in R^2
Or infinitely many if you prefer
I'm still not following, am I just getting my wires crossed that the forgetful functor Vect -> Set is additive?
ah yeah the underlying set of a direct sum is the product of sets
ok now I buy it
Consider the 1D subspaces spanned by [1, 0], [0, 1] and [1, 1]
Yeah, forgetful functor preserves limits not colimits
been working in too many categories with biproducts....
Additive categories my beloved
Every good forgetful functor has both left and right adjoints
categories with biproducts 
except we know the only good categories are the topological ones~ /s
yeah, like Cat
categories are just glorified topological spaces 
ah that makes sense thanks
why is this true? underlined in blue!
nvm
i guess it makes sense

W or L rhyme tho
can smbdy pls explain why we must have n + r - s \leq r
or how p^r being an exponent for E implies it
oh
well i don't rlly see how it implies it
wait
oh yea because ap^{n + r - s} is in (x1) and is not zero
?
oh yea and if it was greater than r then it would be zero which contradicts the fact that it's nonzero
or am i smokin
can somebody explain how this implies that the above term is a representative for ybar
is it because p^{s - n}cx_1 is in (x_1) and thus we have y + (x_1) where y is an original representative for ybar
and it's in x_1 because it's less than n
here, why can we conclude that $a_iy_i = 0$ for all $i$? $a_i\bar{y_i} = 0 \implies a_iy_i \in (x_1)$, which doesn't imply that $a_iy_i = 0$
okeyokay
because the kernel in $E/(x_1)$ is the elements sent to $(x_1)$ and not to $0 \in E$
okeyokay
looks like an independence condition
it says let the y bars be independent
in lemma 7.6 premise
hm okay thanks
that depends
We can’t know how many when the group is not given. Say it has m many, but we do know that m=1 mod p
By sylow
for instance, C_4 (or Z/4) has 1 element of order 2, but V_4 (C_2 x C_2) has 3
so it depends on the structure of the group, but you should be able to determine this at least for certain types of groups. For instance, it'll be easier for cyclic groups
Hm saying m=1 mod p by Sylow doesn't seem the best reasoning unless I'm confusing something?
yeah that's for sylow P subgroups, right?
not necessarily p subgroups/ele's of order p
The proof of sylow by bourbaki didn’t say anything about the power right, p^r | |G|, the proof didn’t require r be maximal
iirc it's for maximal exponent
I think that is true though yes that is a good point
It is often just stated with maximal but holds more generally
oh okay
Yeah. At least the proof by bourbaki didn’t require that. The excellent proof using group action one
Wait 1 second
but this is still not good reasoning
Because that counts subgroups
not elements of order whatever
Well there is an elementary argument anyway lol
For instance, Z/p has 1 p-subgroup, but p-1 elements of order p
Oh, yeah my bad… sorry, yeah not the same thing… a p order subgroup have p-1 many …
I mean each distinct subgroup of G of order p will have p-1 elements of order p
and these are pairwise distinct
so we have n(p-1) where n is the # of such subgroups lol
But then hm # of such subgroups
I don't think there is any nice way to enumerate them right idk
well if we don't know it for cyclic we definitely don't know it in general
but it seems like we should be able to say something at least?
Yeah… can’t tell us how many, only to show that there exist, at least p-1 many…

At least it’s a way. Right? equivalently hard😂. You know how many p order elements iff you know how many p order subgroups…
q is also a prime?
Yes I think so, assuming this q is also a prime
This result is good, we can show it has p-1 many order p elements without it though
(Because U(Z/qZ) is cyclic of order q-1, A cyclic group of n elements, any divisor d of n, there exists exactly one subgroup of order d)
(Actually if you are talking about U(Z/mZ) in general we always can calculate number of elements of certain order. U(Z/mZ) is a very good group, we know how it can be factored into cyclic groups)
how would i go about showing that all the non identity elements of H(F_p) for p>2 prime has order p. H is the heisenberg group of size 3. I know that H(F_p) has order p^3 but how would i eliminate the elements having order p^2 or p^3.
yo
could i please get help with this problem
i have no clue where to start lol
offering payment of $20 for solution
Let K be a splitting field of x^4+8 over Q. What is a basis of K
?
is this a hint
No unrelated
lmao
You have complex eigenvalues $\sqrt{a}i$ and $-\sqrt{a}i$ now right?
When you have $A(x+yi)=(r+si)(x+yi)$ for complex eigenvalue $r+si$ and complex eigenvector $x+yi$. Notice that right now you have $A\begin{pmatrix}x&y\end{pmatrix}=\begin{pmatrix}x&y\end{pmatrix}\begin{pmatrix}r&s\-s&r\end{pmatrix}$
Cogwheels of the mind
Consider basis of F[x]/(p(x)) where p(x) Is irreducible
Thanks for the help, I gave up tho cuz it’s late at night and the problem set is due soon
I’ll just lose a few points it’s all good
I’ll prob return tho and follow ur hints
Do you know the structure theorem?
Yeah
And you see how it applies?
You don't need the Jordan form
A module over R[x] is a vector space where x acts by some matrix
If that matrix is A, what do you think the resulting module should be?
The module will be ||R[x]/(x^2 + a)^2||
This has a cannonical basis ||1, x, x^2, x^3||,
||Expressing A in this basis|| is the R-canonical form
thank you, i'll probably return to this problem later. my brain literally turns off at night and i can't do any form of math lol
On the other hand, my brain turns off during the day 
Why
yea i get that but why cant we do this with any t not in h intersection k
well, if t isn't in both, then ht and t^-1k wont be in H, K respectively
My abstract algebra exam went well and I couldn’t have done it without help from the people here so ty all ❤️
Quick question: Let R be an integral domain with field of fractions K and let M be a finitely generated R-module. The tensor product $V = M \otimes_R K$ is a $K$-vector space. I need to show $\text{dim}_K V$ equals the rank of $M$ as an R-module
Eternal Way
My intuition is just that I take the generating set of M and tensor by 1 but I wanted to make this more precise
What is your definition of rank?
Rank of a finitely generated module M is the max number of linearly independent of elements of M
I see, so what you want to prove is that {m} is linearly independent iff {m(x)1} is
We want to prove {m \otimes 1} is a maximal linearly independent set of V right?
Yes
Ok perfect, thanks!
Congrats!
So showing the set of {m otimes 1} is linearly independent over K is not hard. As for showing it generates V = M otimes_R K, isn't this obvious by the structure of the tensor product?
I wouldn't say that it's obvious, since {m} doesn't necessarily generate M.
What you can do is prove that this is a maximally linearly independent set, and then linear algebra gives you that it's a basis
Wait, we're assuming M is a f.g. module with generating set {m_i}
No, for example take R=Z and M = Z(+)Z/2
Then a maximally linearly independent set consist of the single element m = (1, 0)
Which doesn't generate M
When my book says "generate", it merely means that there's a surjective homomorphism between M and the free-module on some indexing set A
Indeed, that's the usual definition of generates
But a maximally linearly independent set need not be a generating set
As per the above example
I agree. But I was trying to show that {m otimes 1} is a basis for V = M \otimes_R K over K
Yes, when over a field maximally linearly independent implies basis implies generating
Right, and every element of V can be written as $\sum_i k_i m_i \otimes k'_i$, where $k_i, k'_i$ are elements of $K$.
But $\sum_i k_i m_i \otimes k'_i = \sum_i k_i k'_i m_i \otimes 1 = \sum_i \tilde{k}_i (m_i \otimes 1)$
Eternal Way
That's true, but is something one would need to show
It's not immediately obvious
Why does it not immediately follow from how the tensor product relations are defined?
In the sense that it should follow from the construction we use to show the existence of the tensor product in R-mod
So the elements of the tensor product are sums of things of the form m(x)k for m in M and k in K.
So if m_i generated M, it would follow. But since there can be m not in the span of m_i, you need some argument for why m(x)k is in the span of m_i(x)1
For example in the above example if m is the element (1, 1) in Z(+)Z/2. How do you know it is in the span of (1,0)(x)1?
But aren't we assuming {m_i} is a generating set for M? {m_i} isn't necessarily a basis, but that shouldn't matter for this
No, that's not what we're assuming
We are assuming m_i is a maximally linearly independent set
Ah damn
Like in the example M = Z(+)Z/2, the maximally linearly independent set does not generate
My bad. So I've showed {m_i otimes 1} is independent from the fact that {m_i} is independent. To show {m_i otimes 1} is maximal, I suppose we can do a proof by contradiction. I suspect proving the backwards direction here will help me with this right?
That should work yeah
And here, are you saying {m} is linearly independent over R iff {m otimes 1} is linearly independent over K or are both to be considered lin indep over K?
Yeah {m} linearly independent over R iff {m otimes 1} linearly independent over K
Ok, I showed this.
To show maximality of {m_i otimes 1} for V over K, we can do a proof by contradiction and suppose it isn't. Then we can add an element v of V to {m otimes 1} to complete it to a basis. v can be expressed as a linear combination of m' otimes 1 with coeffs in K, where m' are not necessarily equal to the m in {m otimes 1}.
So {v, m otimes 1} is in particular linearly independent over K. But then this implies {m' otimes 1, m otimes 1} is linearly independent over K which implies (by what we proved) that {m, m'} is linearly independent over R, contradicting the maximality of {m} in M
Nice
I believe a fancy way to do this is to show that taking exterior powers commutes with extension of scalars
Lol
How do you detect the rank from the exterior algebra?
I have another question. Let $k \subseteq k(\alpha) = F$ be a finite simple field extension. I need to show that $\alpha$ is separable over $k$ iff $F \otimes_k F$ is reduced as a ring.
Now its obvious that it wants me to do something like $F \otimes_k \frac{k[x]}{f(x)} \cong \frac{F[x]}{f(x)}$, where $f(x)$ is the minimal polynomial of $\alpha$ and use CRT to split up the factors of f(x), but my concern is that f(x) does not necessarily split over $F$
Eternal Way
Okay so tbh I don't have a proper answer lol it seems more tedious than I realised, but it should be the case (i suppose is the case) that for a module over an integral domain, the highest non-zero power is the size of the largest linearly independent subset
One of the directions is easy
But yeah tbh this doesn't seem like it'll be particularly pleasant to prove so this is a worse method nvm lol
Hmmm, but something like (Z/2)^n
It should have the same exterior algebra over F2 and Z right
Just thought it'd be a nice structural result but not applied to this specific case
But the rank over Z is 0, while dimension over F2 is n
Would have been nice though
Wait why is this the case
I guess sure like the Z action would factor through to give a Z/2 action
Ah actually, I just need to argue that $F \otimes_k F \cong F[x]/(f(x))$ is reduced. If it wasn't, then it would have a non-zero nilpotent element $g(x) + (f(x))$ such that $g(x)^r \in f(x)$ for some power r. So $f(x)h(x) = g(x)^r$. But I can say alpha is a root of g(x) since f vanishes at alpha.
How can I use this to argue a contradiction with alpha being separable?
Eternal Way
consider the equation fh = g^r in a larger field where all polynomial splits, then all roots of f are roots of g, this can only happen when alpha is not sep, otherwise u get f divides g since all roots are distinct, which leads to \bar{g} = 0
conversely if alpha is not sep, assume chark = p, and f = g^{p^k}, it's easy to see \bar{g} is the nilpotent element
So you're saying fh = g^r implies all roots of f are roots of g. Could you clarify why it contradicts the separability of alpha? If all roots of f are roots of g, g is in the ideal (f(x)) and so represents the 0 element in F[x]/(f(x)) after all
Or is that what you're saying? I guess I'm not seeing why this contradicts f having no multiple roots over its splitting field
yes
if it has multiple roots then u cannot deduce f divides g
like f = (x-a)^p and g = x-a
Ah ok, thanks!
And conversely, suppose $F \otimes_k F$ is reduced and assume by contradiction that alpha was not separable over $k$. Then it has multiple roots, so $f(x) = (x-\alpha)^t h(x)$ for some $t > 1$ and some h(x) that's relatively prime to $(x-\alpha)^t$. By CRT, one of the factors of $F \otimes_k F \cong F[x]/((f(x))$ is $F[x]/(x-\alpha)^t$ and this is clearly not a reduced ring
Eternal Way
I'm gonna start calling GCD domains GCDomains
greatest common domains
has to be R
I don't have lot of experience with analysis
I am wondering how can I approach this problem
by the way, deg is defined as deg(a + bi) = a^2 + b^2
What
The
Why
That has better, more standard notation
I do know that deg(r) will always be lower than deg(m)
Also, without further restriction (I suspect there is one, it’s pretty standard) it should be 0
so idk, probably 1
oh can you explain why
With the standard one, this is right
uhhh
Let q = 0, r = n \in \bZ and let m = 1
Then deg(m)/deg(r) = 1/n^2
If we require deg(r) < deg(m) which is standard, then it is 1
oh okay okay
Thank you
I have this one more question, sorry for being so nosy about this
How do I talk about permutations and dihedral groups
having multiplication and addition operations
This group theory course (some online MOOC) was second course (but first for me) so I am probably missing something
What is the ring in those cases?
R[G], you gave us different G, but didn’t give us R
The group ring is \bZ[G] where the multiplication is given by distributing and multiplying the basis vectors as if they were elements of G
I’m going to assume over \bZ with no further context here
I see, makes sense
OH
Thank you so much
I suspect you get the same answer for any integral domain
(Well, the 3 non-integral ones are non integral for any R, not even necessarily integral, not sure about the integral ones)
Do we have R[G] isomorphic R \otimes Z[G] , otimes over Z?
Yes I think we should
Yes
thanks… nvm, tensor product of two integral domains over Z is not necessarily an integral domain. I thought I wrote them as a tensor product then it is integral…
Hello
Does someone knows more groups classified by the order? Like a group of order p is cyclic or group of order p^2 abelian, group of order pq with p<q and q is not congruent with 1 mod p is cyclic or group of order p^2 q with p<q and q non congruent with 1 mod p is abelian
This type of classification, not for groups with order less than 15 or something like this
add more than two prime factors and everything goes to hell but uhhh maybe look at Burnside's p,q theorem
What an inverse of 3 in F_9?
Is 3 in F_9
There isn't one
3 = 0 in F_9
The issue is presumably that F_9 is not just Z/9Z, unfortunately
In fact, the fact that 3 does not have an inverse in Z/9Z is a proof that the latter is not a field lol
How can F_(p^2) be a field? p and 2p don't have inverses
it's of characteristic p
Both of those are equal to 0 in that field
Did you read what potato said

Textbook says that any finite field is isomorphic to F_(p^n)
Yes
How many elements in F_9

determining the number of elements in F_(p^n) (field with p^n elements) is an NP-hard problem
U said "with p^n elements "
yes I did
So that means that F_9 has 9 elements
Please tell me that every 9 elements explicitly
I don't know if there's an explicit description of all the 9 elements
what you can do explicitly is see how the field is constructed
What does F_(p^n) mean....
Presumably you are reading a textbook. Have you read in the textbook how this field is actually constructed?
If not, that might be a better place to start than on discord
Well we can give explicit descriptions for all 9 elements in particular models of it lol
but it can be constructed in various ways
and ultimately ig not that important since all isomorphic
sure, you can give such a field structure on any set with 9 elements
Yeah
it's just not meaningful what the elements are if you do that. And the usual construction won't have a particularly enlightening description of the elements unless you actually just work it out
As a group it is just Z/3 x Z/3, but you have to give it a different multiplication
why is an artinian primitive ring simple?
is htis even true
primitive rings have 0 jacobson cuz 0 is the annihilator of something
so artiniain primiitve rings are just semisimple ones no?
0, 1, -1, i, 1+i, -1+i, -i, 1-i, -1-i
Addition and multiplication work modulo 3 for the real and imaginary parts
People have classified groups of order p^r with r up to 7… I don’t know any reference but I am sure you can find many paper about r=3 case…
Why is this true? |G| <= |Z|/4. For finite non abelian groups Z is the center. I was looking at the bound of the prob that 2 elements in a non abelian group commute
Z is the center of G?
Yes
Other way sry
hmm okay a bit more reasonable, |Z| <= |G|/4. Under what conditions is this true?
nonabelian in general i guess?
I see
Do you understand what they said before
Yeah so if G/Z is cyclic, then G is abelian iirc
Which would be the contrapositive of the third line
Yeah that is a nice problem to do
Not too hard
And then every group of order <= 3 is cyclic so |G|/|Z| = |G/Z| >= 4
In particular, we know what groups of order 1, 2, and 3 look like
damn
got sniped
Oh okay it's basically the point of non commutativeness
it's exercise 3.1.36 in dummit and foote. I knew i had seen this before lol
Does there exist a 'nice' characterisation of all algebraic numbers that are the root of some polynomial with non-negative integer coefficients?
This would require a notion of an integral closure of a semiring that I'm not sure exists
is $(a^{-1})^{n} = (a^{n})^{-1}$ only true for abelian groups?
gabi the ancient
oh
Imma try proving it
oh it's actually kinda obvious damn
ty ryx
what's n(a) supposed to be?
possibly order
I supposed it's just an integer that changes with a but idk
huh weird
oh right yeah yeah
n is a variable
that depends on a
weird notation
H = {a in G | exists n > 1 : a^n = e}
I think the point is that the integer power is not fixed for all elements
in words - H is the elements with finite order
what's order
Bad way of writing it but yes, elements of finite order
Also, note this statement holds more generally. G need not be abelian
n = ord(g) is smallest positive n that makes g^n = e
You might be able to come up with a counter example with matrices? Idk infinite nonabelian groups
||I don't think in general if nonabelian that a and b having finite order implies ab does too||
This is true for finite nonabelian groups for obvious reasons
yh u can make a free group
:0 first time I had to use (a little little bit of) number theory to solve a group theory problem, nice
<a, b | aa, bb>
abab...abab is never the Identity
im curious how
I mean now I'm scared of having done something dumb but
I think I did actually
shit
or not
just show, lets see
What do you mean by 'require a notion of'? Using such a notion seems to just be another way of writing the set I described.
my argument to say that it's closed, that is, (a.b)^k = e for some k is that using the least common multiple, you can multiply both n(a) and n(b) so that they become equal, so since the group is abelian, you can factor the multiple exponent
nahhh...
but I'm not sure of something
Or just n(a)n(b)

Why sully lol
idk I hate it when I over complicate my arguments without realising there's a much easier way
Oh dw I mean tbf your thing is optimal
Their least common multiple is the actual order of ab
:0
But just taking na nb is easier
well theres a few reasons
yeah
why that notation is bad
n(a) need not be unique, and isnt
Wait I don't think so lol
would be way easier to just say in words lol subsetof finite order elements
order wasn't presented in the book yet
thats kindof cursed
Oh
why would u not bring it up at the start 
Interesting this'd be before that lol
this book is full of foreshadowing exercises and I think that's one of those
also, to note: if g^n is never e, then we say "the order is infinite"
I'm reeally in the start of the book yet
Even if, take a = 1 and b = 3 in Z/4. Each has order 4 but they add to id
So nevermind that I just said some dumb shit
im too lazy to think
Yeah sure fair
multiplying and adding gg
this is an exercise of the subgroups section, it's really in the beggining
nah
i mean like - bringing up the notion of infinite groups this early lol
even if implicit
Why must groups be finite 
im used to seeing finite groups introduced first
before moving on
because we do order, lagrange, etc
it's all mixed up, most groups presented are finite but sometimes infinite groups appear
This is true under some conditions like relatively prime order, at least for cyclic groups. I don't feel like thinking about it more though
what they mean by "the most general combination of sets under which it will work"?
you want associativity to hold for as many sets as possible
I don’t know the context but it sounds like there are some sets this does not hold for
so try and come up with a general rule that permits associativity
Background: we proved that if a,b are positive integers, then aZ+bZ=dZ for some integer d. In my proof, I showed this constructively by defining $d=\operatorname{min}(a\mathbb{Z}+b\mathbb{Z}\cap{1,2,3,\dotsc})$. We then defined gcd(a,b)=d.
person2709505
I would like to know if there is a more self-contained solution possible than this:
I know it is possible to show that $g:=\prod_{p\textrm{ prime and }p\mid a,b}p$ is the largest integer that divides $a,b$, so we obtain $d\leq g$. Supposing $d<g$, use division with remainder to see that $g=qd+r,; 0\leq r<d$. Rearranging, $g-r=qd$, so $g-r\in aZ+bZ$. Since $r$ cannot be in $dZ$ by definition of $d$, $g$ is in $dZ$ only if $r=0$, i.e. $g=d$. The proof now reduces to the classical Bezout's identity.
person2709505
I have been thinking about this on and off for months now lmao
And if this belongs in #elementary-number-theory lmk
Oog this doesn't even work nevermind
here, do we have to use the fact that Z is a noetherian domain?
but it's not necessary right because i don't remember the argument at all lol
or wait no the euclidean algorithim has to terminate
Hm I wouldn't both to consider the noetherian property
yea i guess the exercise is assuming that i don't know it
which tbf i'm not that familiar, something something ascending chain condition of ideals
any ascending chain of ideals is finite there we go
i'm a little bit confused about the nature of the hint tho since it doesn't apply to any arbitrary ideal in Z
hm
I guess you want to use the fact that the natural numbers are well ordered.
The hint will give you that any finitely generated ideal is principal. Then to rule out infinitely generated ones you can use that natural numbers are well ordered.
Here you could also use that Z is Noetherian I suppose. Though I feel like you would use this exercise to prove that fact, so...
Tbh this is a bit silly imo lol like the easiest method doesn't use the Euclidean algorithm
so i would have to extend it by induction? because the hint only shows that it's true for ideals which are finitely generated by 2 elements right
that was my thought
The hint I would give (which is really not much of a hint): If I is an ideal and I = aZ, what is a way to characterise a in terms of I? Think about this lol
Well (a,b) is simply aZ + bZ so the induction would be virtually immediate
Yeah, you would use induction
How can you do this without using the Euclidean algorithm?
Well I would merely use the fact that Z is Euclidean and to show Z is Euclidean doesn't actually need the Euclidean algorithm right, only the division algorithm
Anyway this has the advantage of not needing to worry about # of generators lol
Oh yeah sure, I was just using "the Euclidean algorithm" and "Euclidean division" interchangeably here
Ah okay
But yeah you only need Euclidean division
Yeah the way the question is described implies they mean the actual algorithm
I believe
so if it were the case that if I were infinitely generated, then I must be Z?
Well Z is not infinitely generated (generated by 1)
ye but like
well i guess you could have countably many elements generating the ideal excluding 1
cuz i'm just trying to rule out the case that proper ideals of Z are infinitely generated
I mean you can always add redundad generators. There isn't really a distinction between proper and non proper ideals there
All ideals are finitely generated, so in particular the proper ones are
oh i didn't know this, i should probably prove it beforehand then
I'm confused, all ideals of Z are generated by a single element. That's the exercise you're doing
If it's generated by a single element that's finitely generated
ya but isn't that assuming that's the case before actually proving the claim if that makes any sense
sorry i'm probably confused
Sure, I'm just saying that Z is not infinitely generated
Like in general they can, but the statement "if I is infinitely generated, it must be Z" is strange
Okay, I'm sorry. I threw you off I guess
nah that's my fault, thank you
ah because if we're assuming that $(a_1, \dots, a_{n - 1}) = (d)$ then $(a_1, \dots, a_n) = (d, a_n)$ which is principal by the base case?
okeyokay
Yup
sick
wait this seems trivial but i'm still confused on why no ideal of Z is infinitely generated
assuming that we don't know that Z is a PID
is it just because Z is generated by 1?
oh wait any ideal which is infinitely generated must be contained in (1) which is finitely generated oops

Since the natural numbers are well ordered any ideal has a minimal positive element
Are you able to use that to prove it is principal?
You still have to invoke Euclidean shenanigans
i'll attemtp
Well the thing is
Oops
Replied to wrong person
I already proved Z is a PID under the assumption that every ideal is finitely generated
An interesting similar example is Q as an abelian group. For any p and q rational numbers there is an integer x and rational r such that
p = xq + r
With |r| < |q|.
With this you can prove that any finitely generated subgroup of Q is principal, but there are infinitely generated subgroups of Q
(in particular Q itself)
Z is infinite so if an ideal is infinitely generated it must be (Z) :iwon:
ye thi is what i was saying lol
it weird
lmao this doesn't work right
Just ||bezout that mf, and/or alternatively see that min N \cap I is very generator lookin?||
Ye
well what's the first map that comes to mind
actually no - what do you think S^-1R looks like, keeping the hint in mind
it should look like uhh
since S is closed under multiplication it should look like a ring RxS with addition defined as (r,s)+(t,u)=(ru+ts,su) and multiplication as (r,s)(t,u)=(rt,su)
uhh lemme think for a sec
with the same equivalance relation we have as in the hint
yeah that's right
so?

consider the fact that the underlying set is RxS
wdym
so there's a pretty obvious set map from R into RxS
which you can show is a ring homomorphism
R -> RxS via phi(r)=(r,s) for some fixed s?
You may want to adjoin a certain nice element to S, before doing the construction
What is a very nice element of R when it comes to multiplication?
yeah wait a minute
1 being in S doesn't follow from being multiplicatively cloesd
You don't have to adjoin 1, it just makes it easier
oh wait i got it
consider min{I \cap N} = k
who tf cares about multiplicatively closed sets that aren't monoids bro on the 9 circles of heaven
if g is in I such that g is not a multiple of k write g = kq + r where k > r >= 0
but this implies that r is zero since k is minimal
i believe
You got it!
I actually do not know how localisations work without a 1 lol I'll leave this to the experts
|| sr/s = r/1||
||but there is no 1||
You may have a problem since they never assume S to be nonempty though.
Exactly, and this shows you don't need 1
but you ||wrote a 1 in!||
||how can you "cancel" the fraction without a 1 in S?||
Yes ||things with 1 can also be written without||
the non-empty thing is far more worrysome though
I'll admit I just don't understand how you're supposed to do it without 1 but doing it with the empty set seems suspcious
maybe you shouldn't have definitions be exercises in books you know what a crazy concept
||pick any s in S, then the map is r |-> sr/s||
hmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmm
I mean you can localized with respect to any set just using universal property, but then the construction won't be of the form RxS
I suppose that's the important part of the localisation ig
do you still get all the nice exactness properties with a general set
I mean the construction will just be take the multiplicatively closed set (with 1) generated by S, and proceed
So yeah, should have the same nice properties
If H is a p sylow subgroup of a finite group G and K is a subgoup of G then always H intersected with K is a p sylow subgroup of K?
Consider G = S_7, H = <(123), (456)>, K = <(123), (457)>
Then K is the sylow p subgroup of K, but H intersect K is not K
More generally, if H and K are distinct sylow p subgroups with non-trivial intersection this fails
Thx
For which p is this?
3
pretty clearly p = 3



