#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 159 of 1
like consider these "additive factors" of 1 but only the finite indices of them
and then any element is the sum of those
does this work
Yurr
lmfao math is literally made up i sweare
okay so
wait so thats it
its artnian
cuz simple rings are artinian
Yup
simple modules are Artinian, simple rings need not be.
(Simple rings are not related to semisimple rings)
what
In case you wanted to go on a needles tangent 
how
do simple rings need not be
they literally have no 2-sided ideals
buyt they can left ones tho
have*
Yeah, they can still have loads of left ones
yea
and they can be garabge
they cna be full of garbage literally
full of league players
who knows
okay..
but i mean
i have it as the direct sum of semisimple modules which each should be isomophric to a submodule ( by the direct sum property )
right?
can somebody explain to me how this hypothetical operation would have been defined? I'm a little confused about that part
like I get that the action of A on End(M) is given by (af)(x) = af(x) but what f(x) would we choose, or how would it be well-defined
oh right
wait
f_a(r) = ar
oh
cuz am is in M
actually what i wrote and deleted was correct. i just misread myself
$a \mapsto f_a$?
okeyokay
yea
A hint for a quick solution is Chinese remainder theorem.
yo eren jeager
what does it mean for a monomorphism to split
an epimorphism*
that is there exists a right inverse?
as in splitting lemma or what
:o
idk the point of the terminology but maybe i'm not algebra pilled enough
If A ->> B splits, then A = B(+)C splits into the sum of two summands
I mean yes agreed
but perhaps it is worth it lol i just find it weird given it makes perfect sense in any cat
please don't call me daddy
yeah
That's not how that works
it literally is
kirby in algebra channel 
rare occurrence
Surely, nobody cares about categories that aren't additive
hey can we maybe not engage in creep behavior and make other users uncomfortable?
sure why not
Just to be clear, $V is a k[X]$-module where the action of $p(x) \in K[x]$ is given by $p(x)v = $\psi(p(x))v$ where $\psi$ is the association map?
okeyokay
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that's not for you to decide
i mean it does make me a bit uncomfy lol like it is a bit weird to be called daddy by somebody i don't know on the internet lol
now yeah cuz now he/she just said that
didnt say it last time but its okay i have no intentions on making anybody uncomfy obv
The map is called \rho here, but yeah
cool king didnt mean to
jk jk
you have such a horrible attitude good lord
oh right thanks
bruh.
saying they is only 4 letters instead of typing 6 for he/she 😭
what, their pronouns are they/them
Yeah there are pronoun roles to check, that's what the squares mean
yea i know about them but i just forgot or idk
yellow is they/them, blue is he/him, red is she/her, grey is any or ask
i thought in no way can someone comment on me saying he/her but still u managed to win
Yeah i know about your pronouns i just cant be assed to use the right one
sorry haha
i literally said he/she
jesus christ
some lol

...
wtf is going on here
i just default to they/them to be safe. some people don't like he or she.
yea mb from now on i will be calling potet they/them
how does a non binary samurai kill people? ||they/them||
oh boy
but its okay
new bladewood pfp 
why is he not banned for this
hahahahhaa
oh okay i meant like
The idea makes sense in any category so feels funny to give a name for it that only makes sense in additive cats
i thought gray is any, slightly tinted green is ask
Or whatever the correct level of generality is
he/she is not a substitute for they
this is not an ok attitude and repeatedly ignoring pronouns is against our rules
There are people who do not go by either he or she
I mean theyre also called sections and retractions (which only makes sense in the context of fibrations)
Okay fair this may be my bias lol
ya know there's definitely a point where you just admit to being wrong and move on
how is this still going on
okay say i call you by a wrong pronoun ( which i allegedly now did against potet ) wouldnt you just go like " hey can u please call me she" thank you?
If you can't read the room and stop your behavior when you make other people uncomfortable, you're not welcome here
if you "can't be assed" to follow people's pronouns then we can't be assed to have you around
thats not what potet do tho
yo sorry to interrupt can i ask an aa question or is the third world war still going on
why are you quoting someone else for me Hhahahaha
ask away!
I view section and retractions as neutral words but I suppose they do only really "make sense" in more geometric contexts etc but fair lol
so that is a good point, thanks
you didn't just make a mistake, you were corrected and then said you can't be assed to use the correct ones
that is what you said
corrected by not even the same person
what is the purpose of studying representations? is it that we can gain more information about the vector space by studying the algebraic structures which "act" on that vector space or more or less the other way around?
the person you misgendered didn't want to make a fuss out of it
i called potet he/she mutliple times and THEY did not have any problems
just because someone else had to say it for them doesn't mean they're totally fine with it
its just some other they/them commented on it for no reason idr who
moamen, honestly, either apologize and own up to your mistake, or leave
"for no reason" you're really close to a line
who could i have known if i am misgendering you if you arent even bothered enough to comment on it
like whats the point
but again
there's literally roles for this
if potet felt uncomfy for me calling them he/her
because there's a little symbol right next to the name?
i apologize for sure for potet
which tells you which pronouns to use
okay i mean i don't massively care but others will/do care
ikr
i literally know
you just called potato him again
💀
hello?
for call him he/her
potet themselves dont care why is there some other they/them just ocmmenting for no reason hahaha
but again it's okay
mb potet
yeah mb typo
why do you say they don't care?
they cared enough to set that as their pronoun role
it literally does queen
Okay enough
don't call me queen and don't tell me whether people care about you misgendering them
Yeah a big part of algebra is gaining information about something by studying its actions
I'm not some other they/them, it was more just me commenting on it because you've referred to people as he/her before, including me, and I did not comment on it in the past
I made a slight joke about it because he/she is 6 characters so you're putting in more effort than just saying they as a default pronoun
Anyway carry on
For example you can study groups by looking at how they act on other objects
The point of the representations is to gain info about the group
why lin spaces gud
in particular
Because LA nice
more like LA is well understood, and other stuff is not so well understood, so ooga booga make other stuff into linalg problems 
Yeah, we already understand a lot about vector spaces
So if we can turn groups into actions on vector spaces, then we gain information about the group
Vector spaces are fun spaces because they behave nicely most of the time

I don’t know enough reps, but I don’t see why it couldnt but it would suck relatively
can
maybe u get monoids instead of groups or something?
rando guess
So representations are the way algebraic structures appear "in the wild". A symmetry group acts on something, and if you want to understand that action you want to know how a representation breaks down into simpler pieces and what those pieces can be.
Just think about groups that appear in physics. They're all matrix groups acting on some space. The action is the important thing, not necessarily the group or even the space
Well depends what you mean by rep theory lol
ur missing field inverse but what does that mean
If you have a quiver and like functor it into k- finite Vect, you can say some cool stuff too
In fact, iirc, the first reps course I saw was phrasedd in terms of reps of modules
But it’s hard to just point towards basis dimensions and grassmanians on modules in general
If you have particularly nice ones ig sure but idk why you’d do this then
ok so is there a rep theory for monoids?
not sure what id have to do
as opposed to automorphisms
take endo...
idk what that is opencry
Uhhh directed multi graphs
I think they like conditions like no A->A and no A->B->A too for alg combo
Sure, a monoid is a category and there is representation theory of categories
just skip to rep of cat then...
I happen to know something about this
Rep theory of syntactic category of the theory of monoids
representation theory of groups/rings/algebras/quivers are all just representation theory of categories
Yes, there is a monoid-specific rep theory and a fair bit of active research is happening on modular monoid reps atm
Interesting
how useful is representation theory of category?
There are nice results regarding the semisimplicity of monoid rings, for example as one might expect, (von Neumann) inverse monoids produce semisimple complex monoid rings
Is the charactersitic 0 case well understood?
Well yes sorta but also it fucking sucks
Like I think there's very little in general we can say
I’ve seen quiver-y reps connected with cluster algebras and triangulations of (oriented) Riemannian surfaces w/ boundary
but we do have individual nice results
yes afaik there is rep theory on everything
statistics
depends what you mean by useful
Inch resting
Oh I mean like
Idk i suppose I mean how fruitful does it seem as a field of study more generally
even if it's just interesting in its own right
it's categories, of course it's not 
but that isn't really smth that can be quantified well usually lol
One example where it is well-understood is this: there is a paper on these things called R-trivial monoids, where they argue their representation theory is the most general way to analyse monoid actions on Markov chains. I'll find the paper.
We develop a general theory of Markov chains realizable as random walks on
$\mathscr R$-trivial monoids. It provides explicit and simple formulas for the
eigenvalues of the transition matrix, for multiplicities of the eigenvalues via
Möbius inversion along a lattice, a condition for diagonalizability of the
transition matrix and some techniques ...
The semigroup group did a reading group on this paper at my institution, which I participated in
Rep theory on categories is still 'viewing things' as acting on linear spaces or not any more?
every time a mathematician is asked whether something that's dead useless was useful:
yea, I dunno why either tbh lmfao
Every time someone asks what something is used for, DarQ comes along
i wonder if he found a use for measure theory
Anyway
what's probability theory used for
literally everything
I was gonna mention that there are some nice results known (perhaps Stuart Margolis told me about this? I cannot remember) about this but I can't bloody remember
So for a finite category its representation theory is the same as the rep theory of its path algebra, which is finite dimensional. And rep theory of fintie dimensonal algebras is a big field. Any abelian category with enough projectives is the module category on its category of projectives, there is some active research in generalizing things from rep theory of algebras to exact categories.
But just pure categories in general, idk...
super sully 
Ultimate in toxicity
noice
please sphere this cube
If it were anywhere, it would be in this godforsaken channel
i wonder what the most super reacted message is on this server
Thanks for the insights. Time to bump rep theory up on the list todo
rep theory is already on my todo list
yes but it gets a higher seat now
rep theory is fun
Chill, discussy, & alg chill are bad too
im not sure what my highest is
Representation theory has been on my to do list for too long.
this is alg chill
Ben Steinberg has a book on complex representation theory of finite monoids btw 👀 it's a little heavy on the category theory but it's good
why would you split aa into 3 channels smh
i think you made a typo -
should be "so" instead of "but"
Well ok that was an unfair thing for me to say
i expected to be sullied for that lol
The thing is they jump straight into the however many adjunctions of all the restriction-induction stuff without talking about the background very much
Like it's fairly clear if you know about Frobenius reciprocity, but if you don't I saw it to be quite confusing
It's a lot to deal with
Woah category theory is a helpful tool if you know enough but if you don't then it can be confusing and impenetrable? :O colour me surprised
I'll say more about the rep theory of monoids because I can't help myself...
Unfortunately the irreducible representations are fundamentally not very interesting. They boil down (in a mildly subtle way) to the representations of the maximal subgroups of the monoid. As it turns out these maximal subgroups can be embedded in an interesting way in the monoid, but in any case at some point you will just be doing group theory.
The non-irreps are, as one might expect, extremely difficult to get and frankly I don't know if we understand them even in relatively nice cases. Perhaps the book talks about that
tox usually hangs out in combinatorial structures
Tox tends to hang out in the back of my brain calling me mean names
Steinberg wrote a paper fairly recently in which he put a bit more into the modular representation theory of monoids. For those uninitiated, this is in a field of positive characteristic rather than C. He formulated some conjectures (which I confess I have not looked into) but recently Eisele I believe found a counterexample to one (or perhaps two?) by computer-aided search
I have nowt more to say about monoid reps
I can now say: this is funny
Is there a type of ring quotient where you take things to 1 rather than 0? or just cant make sense?
addition sounds like it would be hard with that
Well if something, say a, is sent to 1, then a - 1 is sent to 0 :)
im just thinking here about trying to quotient with fields
hmm but yh. So these things are kinda indivisible
also like
what's nice about 0 is that 0 + 0 = 0 and 0 * anything = 0 lol
so that you can quotient out by subgroups nicely
or whatever
The fundamental stupid trick of algebra: if the difference between two things is zero, they're equal.
Idk how you'd have a meaningful object otherwise
what the hell are you talking about
I'm a #foundations user
no one uses combinatorial stuctures 
oh god oh fuck, but I can't count
wow, yea this makes a lot of sense to me, i'm not familiar with that much physics lol altho i do remember edward frenkel talking about the group representation or special unitary group or some shit on a podcast
can somebody please give me a hint for this problem? I'm trying to define an isomorphism from M_r to Hom_R(R/(r), M). I know that it can't involve multiplication by m (at least for the examples I tried) because then everything would map to the 0 map and hence not be injective. i've also tried some other maps involving m in M_r, but they all ended up being the 0 map or not being well-defined.
or not even to M lol
i suppose I could go the other way and try to define a function from the Hom group to M_r, maybe something to do with the kernel
but I don't know how to generalize homomorphisms in Hom_R(R/(r), M), or rather what form every homomorphism has if that makes sense
I feel like the canonical way to define a homomorphism $\varphi: R/(r) \to M$ would be $s + (r) \mapsto sm$ but I'm pretty sure this is not well-defined
idk
okeyokay
moreover even if it is canonical other homomorphisms may come in different forms
so i feel like defining a function from Mr to the Hom group is better
but anyways yea if i could get a hint that'd be great
but multiplication is the only way we can transform s + (r) into some element of M right? since M is an R-module
Well
please let it be please let it be....
You seem to be just defining a map without thinking about what you've been given or viewing this map as given
Like
There are two ways to do this problem but let's continue with your way
Suppose you are given a map R/(r) -> M
mhm
How are you going to associate with it and element of M_r
Actually it is probably best to think in terms of "data"
What is a map R/(r) -> M
with the quotient being (r)
woah what is this channel
No it is way simpler
ok thank god
groups rings fields!
uh hm whenever i see like
G/H --> Y or some shit i immediately think first iso
yeah but wheres abstract algebra or modern algebra lol i just find this weird
but like
like #linear-algebra could be "Linear operators-Vector Spaces"
this is algebra lol
oh
ya
i see ur point
yea it's a fun problem
Yes
How do you define maps out of R/(r) ?
this some meta-homo-homo type shit ya feel me
think about this
This is probably the key point to underline imo
it used to be called abstract algebra but we ended up splitting off the very big bren stuff into #advanced-algebra
yo if this problem involves first iso that would be so cool
ok
Well
i see
it is kinda related to it lol
what big brain stuff?
galois?
why not seperate it into "modern algebra" and "abstract algebra"
This is more like a first course in algebra
thats how universities do it
modern algebra
what would modern algebra be
modern and abstract algebra are synonymous in the catalogues I've seen
That's an odd disction imo like
its called modern algebra, and then there is abs alg
Both are modern in some sense and both are abstract ig
this is imo preferable as it is descriptive
Which isn't algebra
so you could say calculus is a weird name
Sure
do you know where the word "calculus" comes from
I mean to say like we needn't be imprisoned by weird naming schemes of unis lol
when we can just describe the topics
yeah but not many of the other channels do this
it is related to arithmetic but historically calculus meant the arithmetic of pebbles--very, very small things
there's a lot of math terminology I hate tbh but we're stuck with it
idk
XD
im just talking for the sake of talking and making conversation
this channel just stands out is all I mean
oh wait, s + (r) |-> phi(s) where phi is some homomorphism from R to M or something
i just had to look up the first iso theorem proof again lol
at least i think
idk
Well it is analogous to the split between #real-complex-analysis and #advanced-analysis too
But ye
Sure so I mean
Basically what I'm getting at is that
oh lol
WAIT WAIT WAIT
ok lol
i'll just like
not look at that last sentence you sent
my fault
thaank u
like it's literally staring me in the face rn uhhhhh
whats adv analysis for?
functional analysis probably
whats between complex analysis and functional analysis
well it's in the channel description
and by that homomorphism i'm assuming that has to do with representations or some shit
like the action of r on m
wait let me think about this a bit
still a bit overcomplicated
yeah that often happens when i try to prove things for some reason
i'm not really sure, s + (r) --> phi(s) which is in M
like
i think the trouble that i'm having is identifying it with a single element of M_r and not all of M_r if that makes sense
well
$M_r \subseteq $\bigcap_{i \in I} \text{Ker }\varphi_{r_i}$ where $\varphi_{r_i}$ is left multiplication by $r_i$
does that have anything to do with it?
i think
and that's for all ri in R sorry
okeyokay
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$s + (r) \mapsto $\varphi_s$ maybe
okeyokay
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but then that's the whole entire kernel associated with each homomorphism lmfao, don't know how to associate a particular m in M_r
If we have R/(r) -> M, then we have R -> M where (r) is in the kernel ye?
oh i didn't know that, but i guess that makes sense
hm ok i'll think about that thanks
but (r) is not the kernel unless it's an isomorphism
Well I mean, you have R -> R/(r)?
ya
i give up
i'll return to this problem later prolly
i mean i have to since it's due next tues lol
What is G’?
Let M be a monoid. Fix x in M. Let y, z in M.
Then yx = xz = 1 gives
yxz = z
y = z
So left-inverses must equal right-inverses. And both existing means you uniquely have one double-sided "inverse".
But then if say left-inverses don't exist, you can have multiple right-inverses?
Thats right, for exmaple the monoid of functions from N to N should give some examples
hmmm ill have a see
i kept thinking about matrix ring
but ig theres more going on there
A square matrix has left inverse iff it has right inverse iff it is invertible iff it has nonzero determinant, so that might be hard
ie. is that specific to just this ring
aaa i dont know many non comm rings
ring of functions ig. . .
its a finiteness condition. If x has a left inverse, then multiplication by x is injective. If the set is finite (or finite dimensional with some linearity condition) then injective = surjective, so it also has a right inverse
So you need something infinite/unbounded for this to work
If you want it to be a ring, you can take the endomorphism ring of an infinite dimensional vector space. Which is pretty close to the matrix example I guess
do we have a name for a ring structure but its monoid for addition as well?
say natural functions u could do this
ig ur probably looking at endomorphisms of monoids then
I think semiring or rig is the word
hmm yh, thinking in terms of functions was v helpful
definitely proved these about functions once, but didnt appreciate it back then
ig its because "left" and "right" arent very meaningful to me. vs "before" and "after"
pre-inverse, post-inverse 
The easiest way to do this is to use the classification of finitely generated Abelian groups imo
If you want to construct an automorphism I would suggest rather using a very large subgroup H of G (perhaps of order |G|/2) and extending the automorphism on that. You will need to think about how the structure of H and G/H interact.
well, I'm not familiar with the concept of classification, can u explain more of it
I would suggest looking up the classification of finitely generated Abelian groups in your own time. Alternatively you can look at my second suggestion.
I'll look into it later while thinking about the second hint
Assuming there exists a H of order |G|/2, i can indeed construct an automorphism for G with an automorphism of H
And it seems i can prove the existence with induction, thanks for reaching out
Where do you get that G is abelian?
Every exponent 2 group is abelian
Ah ok
Yeah I’d do something similar to what “Schur thing boss” says from that point
Yeah the classification makes this pretty simple then
You then know that it has to be some number of copies of C_2 so then you can just permute them around to get automorphisms
But the classification seems over kill for this
Perhaps you can do it inductively
(proof for myself: ab a^-1 b^-1 = abab = (ab)(ab)^-1 = 1)
You can, I believe, using the same strategy: find a subgroup H of order |G|/2, and show that H has a complement. The sketch proof I had in mind for showing there exists an automorphism essentially requires this 
This is fairly similar to proving that every finite Boolean algebra has an F_2-basis
for any a, b in G, ab = (ab)^-1 = b^-1 a^-1 = ba
neat
Or just notice that's it a vector space over F2, then use linear algebra
Don't even need the group to be finite
Ok mr smarty pants
I'm trying to solve this problem and I genuinely have no clue where to even start: Suppose G is a group where each element has a finite order. Suppose $f: G \rightarrow GL_n(\mathbb{C})$ is a group morphism. Prove that $f(g)$ is diagonalizable for each $g \in G$ by looking at the minimal polynomial of $f(g)$. I understand that I'm supposed to prove this minimal polynomial is a product of polynomials of degree 1, but how do I even go about finding this?
NotAPenguin
You don't need to find the minimal polynomial. Instead, simply find some polynomial that f(g) satisfies, which the minimal polynomial therefore divides. You may recall the fact that if the minimal polynomial has no repeated roots, the matrix is diagonalisable.
What is even the point of f lol?
Just there to ensure f(g) has finite order I suppose
Yeah but like
The point is just to tie the exercise into representation theory later I suppose
This is in reality proving that the simple reps of abelian groups are of dimension 1
hmm no, its just a question on one of the previous exams of this course
This is maybe a motivation for schurs lemma I guess
The problem immediately becomes “show a finite order element of GL_n(C) is diagonalizable”
Like if you needed to find a g so that gfg^-1 was diagonal then i would get why you want f lol
I don't see what you mean by that conjugation
g is in G, f is a map, so what exactly does that mean?
g was a bad notation
Lmfao
Call it h
Another map
Or like, a matrix A
Like if you needed to make the diagonalizations coherent among all f(g)
I'm having a hard time thinking of a solution that involves the minimal polynomial actually. Wouldn't it make more sense to use the Jordan form? Or what solution is the exercise hinting at
Okay so what I currently have is
Suppose $g \in G$ with $g^n = 1$. Then take a polynomial $P_g = X^n - I$. Then $P_g(f(g)) = (f(g))^n - I = f(g^n) - I = f(1) - I = I - I = 0$.
NotAPenguin
So I found some polynomial that f(g) satisfies
And now I show that this means the minimal polynomial has no repeated roots?
Ahhh, I see. That's what they were getting at
im still a bit confused on how this follows though
Do you know about the derivative test
That proves over a char 0 field any irreducible polynomial has no repeated root
You can compactly say this as “char 0 fields are perfect”
Where perfect is a technical term, not just me complimenting the fields
This polynomial is very much not irreducible though.
But it has n distinct roots, and you know exactly what they are
what I remember about a derivative test is that f has a repeated root a iff a is a root of f'
Oh wait theyre just the nth roots of unity of course
Just take the minimal polynomial. Once you know it satisfies a polynomial a minimal one exists
I mean you can also do what you said I guess lol
The minimal polynomial of what?
f(g) yeah?
You can't expect that to be irreducible
Or does this fail for matrices(
What? A minimal polynomial is by definition irreducible
You're mixing up to different meanings here
Maybe it does fail for matrices
What I wrote down now is that $P_g$ has a repeated root in x iff x is a root of $P_g'$ iff $nX^{n-1} = 0 \iff X = 0$, but 0 is not a root of $P_g$ so $P_g$ has no repeated roots
In a field if 0 = f(x) = g(x)h(x), then either g or h is 0. But this is not true in arbitrary rings
Kekw sooooo trueeeeeeee
I was thinking harder about it and it was making less and less sense
NotAPenguin
Yeah that would work, but jagr2808’s observation was that you can just enumerate every root by multiplying f(g) by roots of unity
Yeah that's true, probably even easier
It does fail for matrices – for example take the 2x2 matrix M with 1 in every entry not below the diagonal (you might write it M = [1 1 \ 0 1]). This matrix satisfies x^2 - 2x + 1 yet it is not the identity.
a matrix is semisimple iff its minimal polynomial is separable, then it follows immediately from x^n - 1 = 0
This is what I had in mind
How do you motivate these constructions
Sure I kinda get lying the cube roots of unity over an even permutation group
But then why are these covers exceptional?
And why do we add (2, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0) to get 3.A_7
I can kinda guess that for the stabiliser of the partition to surject onto A_n we might need n = 6 but I don't intuitively see that
Does someone have a reference/proof of the first product formula given on the Wikipedia page for the Legendre symbol? The reference simply states this as an exercise.
Aluffi chapter 0
Regarding the proof: How is B' guaranteed to be maximally linearly independent? Doesn't one run into problems of the following sort if v is not a successor:
{v1, v2, v3, ...}
{v1+v2, v2, v3, ...}
{v1+v2, v2+v3, v3, ...}
...
{v1+v2, v2+v3, v3+v4, ...} ← does not span V
Also are there any other references to the stronger result that is proved here? Namely, that if S is linearly independent and B is a basis then one can replace |S| elements of B with elements of S to get another basis
Hey stupid question. In the natural numbers m|n implies m<=n right? It seems obvious but I can't think of a short proof
That is indeed true
1 <= n for all n in Z+ so if s|t and t = sk then 1<= k implies s <= sk = t
i'm confused, what's the difference between the family and the single element x? since every element in that family is equal to x
do they just mean as in like
x + x + x + x = 0 vs x = 0
ok thzx
thx
x - x = 0
Are you working over Z/4...?
If nx = 0, and n isn't 0, then {x} isn't linearly independent
Because 4x isn't 0, or why would it be 0?
yea lmao
what does this blue underlined phrase mean? w = b_1x_1 + \dots + b_rx_r + a_{r + 1}x_{r + 1} or....
Yes
But like uh
The other b_i are existential
They just exist
Cuz of the definition of a guarantees such a w exist
If you have two free modules with bases the same size, are the two modules isomorphic as modules?
I think the isomorphism is just mapping the basis elements to each other.
ah i see what you mean
thanks
Yes
Precisely
what about a free module that can have a basis of any size? is that module isomorphic to all free modules? something like this
yeah this makes sense, then (r) is clearly in the kernel but i'm having trouble seeing the other direction/when R \neq M
For every f in Hom(R/(r), M) we do have an f’ in Hom(R, M)
And, if (r) is in the kernel, it goes the other way ofc
In particular, r in R has \phi_r(m) = rm as a map
this can only happen for rings that don't have IBN
what's IBN?
Invariant Basis Number
Invariant basis number
ah
Otherwise what chmonkey said isn't true
Basically: the property that definitionally kills it
but the question seemed to imply that the size of basis is unique
But commutative rings with identity have it
so i would've said the same as chmonkey
so if it doesnt have IBN, then it isn't isomorphic to another module that does have IBN?
Idk what nasty properties you need to get -IBN
IBN is a ring property
In mathematics, more specifically in the field of ring theory, a ring has the invariant basis number (IBN) property if all finitely generated free left modules over R have a well-defined rank. In the case of fields, the IBN property becomes the statement that finite-dimensional vector spaces have a unique dimension.
here if you want to read about this
Since it says all the relevant modules have this nice basis size
oh that makes sense. sorta like an apples and oranges type thing wrt the ring
Your ring has to suck as a ring for this to fail tho
yeah it's a weak assumption
that's the technical term i assume
a lot of stuff implies it
correct me if I'm wrong; $\varphi: R/(r) \to M$ induces a homomorphism $\psi: R \to M$. in particular, $\psi \in \text{Hom}(R, M)$ where $r \mapsto rm$. If $\psi$ is the zero map then $\psi \in \text{Ker }\varphi$. but this also implies that $m \in M_r$. hence each element in the kernel of $\varphi$ can be associated with an element of $M_r$?
How bad does it have to be 
okeyokay
maybe there are more implications to show but I feel like that's the general idea
only problem is I didn't use (r)
oh right oops
uuh like
I think it has to be non commutative?
non commutative, not (left) noetherian
not the thingy that i forgot the name of
AB = 1 implies BA=1
Inverses are 2 sided
not ring elements here
Even if you don’t have IBN it’s true
matrices with entries in the ring
Ah
If you have a basis of cardinality kappa
Any other module with a basis of cardinality kappa is isomorphic
It’s just that kappa isn’t unique
R^n \cong R^m
damn thats crazy
The map is just “send basis to basis”
(This R^n ~ R^m thing is mentioned in the wiki page even)

so without IBN, a 1d R module M1 is isomorphic to a 2d R module M2? since M2 also has a 1d basis?
An example of a ring without IBN is the countable product of copies of Z. Then the free module on one generator is also the free module on two generators, et cetera. this is wrong sorry uwu
Well, if they have a basis of the same cardinality
Idk if you always get bases of all sizes
modules are wack lol thats cool
Well rings without IBN are generally pretty nasty I think! Certainly a ring in which R^1 is iso to R^2 can't be Noetherian
Isn’t this commutative
Yeah I was about to say, I'm full of shit aren't I
Yeah 
The module structure I wanted to try out on it wasn't working in my head
you call them nasty, i call them sexy chaotic 😆
gotta read up more on modules sometime
idk. maybe all of the maps in Hom_R(R/(r) --> M) are zero or some shit and that we can then associate each one with an element of M_r idfk
lmao
Moreover, any commutative ring (except the zero ring) satisfies IBN,[1] as does any left-Noetherian ring and any semilocal ring.
Yeah indeed
Apparently End(k (+) ... ) over any field, where we take countably many copies, does not have IBN
yes
So let's say V = k^(+)N, countably many copies
the right shift there is also the standard counterexample for stable finiteness iirc
right there you go
This looks similar to the given example
god i hates this part of my comm alg class
L(F^N) or wtv
Repost the original question rq
They meant by r, not by R
so I followed potato's hint, an element phi of Hom_R(R/(r), M) can be given by phi(s + (r)) = psi(s) where psi is an induced homomorphism from R to M
oh
bruh
well hopefully that makes things easier lol
Well it is somewhat easy to determine all elements annihilated by the unit in the ring, tbh
Unfortunately the fact written would be generally false
as in the problem?
If M_r denoted the set of elements of M annihilated by the entirety of R? Yes.
ah okay
Maybe you can think about what the set of elements annihilated by the entirety of R, and therefore in particular 1, is.
ok will do
this problem's murdering me
maybe it'll be easier now to go back to trying to define an isomorphism from M_r to Hom_R(R/(r), M)
okeyokay
$m \in M_r \mapsto \varphi_m \in \text{Hom}_R(R/(r), M)$ where $\varphi_m(s + (r)) = \psi_m(s)$ given by $\psi_m(s) = sm$ lol`
okeyokay
i hope this is well-defined, i have no clue how to show so for the moment
ah there we go
x + (r) = y + (r) => x - y \in (r) => x - y = rk => (x - y)m = 0 => xm = ym I believe
Rather than => I’d just consider that the basic notion of R/I kinda tbh
too late
Also yes
am - bm = (a-b)m = 0
yea
holy this problem is so fun
probably because i made it three times as hard for myself
but whatever
Can you characterize hom(R, M)
wait why didn't I just define $\varphi_m$ as $s + (r) \mapsto sm$
okeyokay
💀
uhh yea let me try to think about this after writing the proof
Ya know

here's my issue; $\varphi_m(x + (r)) = 0$ for all $x + (r) \in R/(r)$, or for all $x \notin (r)$ satisfying $xm = 0$, but at the same time $0 \in (r)$
okeyokay
(assuming m is in the kernel of the map from M_r to the Hom group)
wait
but then it has to be true for all x
yea
oh no
now i have to show that every single homomorphism in Hom(R/(r), M) has the form I defined
fuckkkkk
wait sorry
what's like the best way to show this
that the only way to define a homomorphism from R/(r) to M is multiplication by m
i've tried experimenting with universal properties of homomorphisms
all I've written down is now, any homomorphism R/(r) --> M naturally involves multiplying representatives of R/(r) with fixed elements of M 💀
like idk how to prove this
and then after that I have to show that it only involves multiplying elements of r with fixed elements of Mr and not just any arbitrary element of M
Try looking at Hom(R, M)
probably not needed, given that the order of M and R is switched
probably
M = R^n + Tor(M) for some n --> Hom_R(R^n + Tor(M) , R) = Hom_R(R^n,R) + Hom_R(Tor(M),R)
if you can show that Hom_R(Tor(M),R) is 0 ur done
i'll understand this soon hopefully
in general this is how finitely generated modules over a pid are
read the hungerford section if ur lost
It’s before it, so yes, but I mean R->M
prof assigned us lang reading for htat 😄
yea i think lang must have it too ig :d
wait people use other books than atiyah macdonald for commutative algebra
sadly hungerford is not commutative algebra textbook
they shouldn't
yea, time to postpone this problem to tomorrow yet again lol
my alg topology class is also calling 😄
i've got 5 hours on this problem, sharp's got 1 minute
try to do it
it's not hard
no i think these problems are hard
if they werent why would they be given you for hw
dont be discourage king
d
gl and hf
I don’t understand, what it means to be a non-negative complex number…
it's a nonnegative real number
real numbers are also complex numbers
while R admits a nice ordering, C doesn't, so when we refer to a complex number as less than / greater than another we have reals in mind
by "nice ordering" i mean one which respects the field structure in the ways you'd expect
Yes… that is why I don’t understand this
nonnegative complex number = number of the form x + iy where x >= 0 and y = 0
go prove it or look it up
ok how about this phrasing
"a complex number z is equal to a nonnegative number iff ..."
I see… authors definition only admits these as non negative numbers
Yeah… i understand this… any total order you define on C, will not obey ordered field axioms
So helium, lemme ask this
Can you define a partial order on C?
Which is compatible with field operations
Field operations don’t care about order
Ordered field by definition requires total order
So no?
I mean, can you define $\leq$ such that $a\leq b$ means $a+x\leq b+x$ for all x, and where $0\leq y$ and $a\leq b$ implies $ay\leq by$
Dragonslayer Sharp
$\leq = {(a,a) | a \in C}$
helium

genius
now come up with a nontrivial one
I need some help with this problem
Good 
the mapping i fond is Na-> N(aT)
i have proved it's a homomorphism and onto mapping of G/N
but i have no clue about how to show it's 1-1
yep
and what mapping did you find?
Na->NT(a)
aN --> T(a)N ?
like this?
N is normal, so it's equivalent to what i wrote
okay so suppose there exists xN , yN in G/N such that T(x)N=T(y)N
then what can you do
T(y^{-1}x) \in N
remember that T is a bijective homomorphism
bijective
that is its both 1-1 and onto
so we are basically going to look to contradict this somehow right?
that is if xN is not equal to yN
so what happens if we suppose for the sake of contradiction that xN is not equal to yN
y^{-1}x \notin N?
Yes but why would you write it in that order
that's how it's done in the textbook, lol
yea
sorry i went brb
anyways
if you restrict the automorphism T to the ssubgroup N u still get an automorphism on N but u would have y^-1(x) not in N with T(y^-1(x)) being in N
so Ty is equivalent to Tx while x is not equivalent to y
the cosets of N defined an equivalence class
ehh, since T(y^{-1}x) = [T(y)]^{-1} T(x) \not in N, so Ty, Tx are not equivalent
do you know why (in the link) the proof of theorem 2 doesn’t readily work for C?
we claim that xN = yN correct?
doesnt this what it means for ur map to be injective on G/N?
or would u rather show it has trivial kernel
or what
injective homomorphism means trivial kernel right
yea they are equivalent
so u following?
i gtg elgato i have boring internship at 1:pm and its 6:30 am now
soo hopefully someone else will be able to help you better
gl
thanks for trying bruh, i'll try to work this out:)
yea just remember that T is a bijection
it has an inverse that is a bijection aswell
what
have you been awake all night
yea i have bad sleeping schedule
oh my god
preworkouts + diet coke they have shit ton of caffeine
its so sad
like i am living the worst time of my life rn
no joke
i cant sleep
yea i was studying actually too for algebra
haha
anyways please help king/queen/they/them elgato
bye everyone
it does work for C. i guess they phrased it the way they did because they wanted to clarify that only the properties of Z[i] were needed
i didn't actually read the link when i posted it
Ah that would make sense
This isn't true actually. Unless T(N) = N, you can only guarantee a homomorphism from G/N to itself.
For example if $G = \mathbb R^{\mathbb Z}$, $N = \mathbb R^{\mathbb N}$ and T just shifts the indexing up a degree, then the induced map on G/N will not be injective.
jagr2808

What is R^Z? R^N means a collection of sequence of reals right?
Yeah, sequences indexed but integers/natural numbers respectively
I see, this is a cool example
yea this guy is the real deal
so is this channel(server)!
ugh just returned to this problem - i'm assuming that it has to do something with the fact that (r) is a subset of the kernel from R to M
idek
i mean i know that M is finitely generated
so phi(s) = r1m1 + r2m2 + \dots + rnmn sure
should i be familiar with "modules over principal rings" in lang
i feel like there's a theorem i'm missing
There is a classification of finitely generated modules over a PID
do I need this to show it
(r) being a subset of the kernel is clearly important, since M_r are objects such that rm=0 ye?
yeah that's true
somebody told me that i should do problem 2 and that it's solution might work for 3 with some tweaks
or rather it'll be instructional
so i'll probably sleep and figure it out tomorrow hopefully
hint: ||finitely generated torsion free modules are free ||
I was solving some more exercises on extension fields and just want to check if I did this one correctly. Let $\alpha = \sqrt{1 + \sqrt{3}}$ and $K = \mathbb{Q}(\alpha)$. First I found the minimal polynomial $f$ of $\alpha$ to be $(X^2 - 1)^2 - 3$ and used that to determine that $[K : \mathbb{Q}] = 4$. Then I had to find the factorisation field of $\alpha$ over $\mathbb{Q}$. I found the two linearly independent roots of $f$ to be $u_1 = \sqrt{\sqrt{3} + 1}$ and $u_2 = i\sqrt{\sqrt{3} - 1}$. From that I concluded that $E = \mathbb{Q}(u_1, u_2)$ and that $[E : \mathbb{Q}] = 16$, since there are 16 distinct elements in the form of $u_1^xu_2^y$ with $x,y \leq 3$. Is this conceptually correct? I'm mostly not entirely sure about the last step really, but it seems to at least be below the upper bound of $4!$.
NotAPenguin
So the roots of f should be
±sqrt(1 ± sqrt(3))
It can be a good idea to try to break the extension up into smaller pieces. For example you know that the extension contains sqrt(3), so it might be easier to determine the degree over Q(sqrt(3))
Yeah that makes sense, the polynomial that I found has roots ±sqrt(1 + sqrt(3)) and ±i*sqrt(1 - sqrt(3)) (which lines up with another subquestion asking to prove that this polynomial has complex roots)
so it might be easier to determine the degree over Q(sqrt(3))
Would this not lead to the same answer, since that should be 2, and then since the degree of Q(sqrt(3)) over Q is also 2 the result is 4
Are you taking about a different polynomial than the one you wrote?
(x^2 - 1)^2 - 3 has roots
±sqrt(1 ± sqrt(3)), right?
Yeah, I see I just misread your sign I think
Anyway, these roots have degree 2 over Q(sqrt(3)) so the degree must be either 4 or 8
Not 16
Yeah, you would have to check whether they are linearly independent to do that
Right, which is probably too much work here
Well I feel like [E : Q] can't be 4 because [Q(a) : Q] is already 4 and is missing the imaginary roots
Exactly
epilepsia moment
the reason why divisible groups are not a Q-vector space is because scalar multiplication is not necessarilly well defined?
so like torsion-free divisible groups are Q-vector spaces right
so if for all g in G and for all n in Z there is exactly one h in G such that g=nh then G is a Q-vector space
how did you pull this off so perfectly
I have no idea of what you mean
That's right. In a divisible group x/n isn't necessarily unique, that happens iff the group is torsion free
Anyone know the extended Euclidean algorithm?
I’m in a cryptography class nd we are learning about Ferrara little theorem and EEA I need someone to explain to me bc my teacher is just a TA and is always in a panic
sure, what do you want to know about it
I need to use it to find a multiplicative inverse of a prime number
Like over a field
right yes, that's what it is used for
but what is your issue? Do you want to understand it?
So a = 51 and Fp = 2^17 - 1
Yea
I know my prof is not making sense
They are trying to make it seem impossible but they are giving us like all the answers and not explaining anything
2^17 - 1 is a Mersenne prime btw
I’m not a math major I’m a computer science major taking a cryptography class
Would you be able to show me?
i do have some hand written notes I can share




