#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 157 of 1
THAT’s the example you go to?
I mean it’s nice geometrically but cmon now boss
C^x is supposed to complex numbers with multiplication as the operation? What even is R^>0? Wtf do you mean by “calculate them as groups”??
Yes
Foul example tbh
R^>0, positive real numbers
calculate R/Z as groups under addition
by as groups I mean, they are groups
Non-zero complex numbers, positive real numbers under multiplication
take the quotient of them
Okay
Calculate Gal(Q_p/Q)
good
it should be isomorphic to something familiar
Calculate Gal(\bar Q_p/Q_p)
They will learn BY FORCE
anyway uh
This is just Aut(Q_p) 
what are you scared of global fields??
Oh yeah not you know C_4/C_2 nooooo
does he even know first iso
S_3/C_3 no far too complicated
I wonder why there are not as many "calculate this group/ring, etc" problems as there are problems about calculating limits, sums and integrals
I still don’t understand what calculate as groups mean 
He don’t need to be reading AM if he doesn’t
What is it isomorphic to
I mean calculate it and then I appended that they are groups
I think we've long established bro doesn't need to be reading AM
Just in case you accidentally thought they were rings or topological spaces or smth
it means give as good of a description as possible
C^x is isomorphic to S^1?
think like how you calculate integrals or infinite sums
Or a scaled version of S^1
you can calculate sum 1/n^2, but not sum 1/n^3 really (tho this last assertion is kinda unsolved 😝 )
Calculate Aut(\prod_p \bar Q_p/U) for a Ramsey ultrafilter U on the primes
You're cooking
(The answer is no, but keep cooking)
👀
hey I think you get quotients now
LOLLLLLLLL
Idk what is similar to S^1 but scaled radius lol
What?
Everyone is laughing and I just feel so stupid
C^x is
LMFAOO
It's because you're saying smart things
but you don't know they're smart yet
nah that's subthings smh
Ring is abelian
But aren’t there like 49723472037409327432 different possible “circles” then
What do you mean by this
I like this example less and less as time goes on
I think it's genuinely a great example
Like ok if you only consider things with unit magnitude you get S^1 because complex multiplication is just rotation + scaling but you scale by 1 so it’s just the unit circle
But if you let your products have any nonzero magnitude
You can end up with circles of any radius
Yes, if you ignore the magnitude then C^× just looks like S^1
As a first example on how to construct quotients? You’re bonkers
What possible values can the magnitude take on, feather?
but we did Z/6Z already :p
Anything no?? Except 0
can you be more specific
Any real number
-1
Positive real number sorry
Und ich oope-
What
hmmm positive real number
where have I heard that before
Again, S_3/C_3
So what you're saying is...
Huh funny that
I get S^1
Anyone playing roblox
Joke lol
So
[\bC^\times / \bR^{>0} \cong S^1]
propERICly_embedded
bambambambam
gg
ok…?
You have to be 13 years old to use this application
Visualized
Lmao
Yeah see and feather still has no idea how to construct a quotient
I don’t understand what I just did or what it was meant to help me understand 💀
Joe Rogan plays roblox
fine smh
Dog shit pedagogy
I’m sorry Eric 😭
Wait just realised I’d have to explain what S_3 is to do my example uhuhunubunuubub
Oh
Begone from here, mortal, banished
ok we pause queen
She's cooking
let him land
He cookin
it sure took a long while for me to realize that C^X was \C^\times and not the set of functions f: \C to X 
they go by any pronouns
Mfs u see the pink dot
bro is color-blind
Misuse of the pronoun role MODS MODDSOSOSODOSS
the pink dot takes priority 
muted jail 
this is a fair point, why do you not just have the any pronouns role lol
Bro asking feather to take things seriously
dw I'm gonna be teaching high schoolers in around two weeks, so if feather doesn't get it, I'll just use this example on them 
i think there was a saying at some point that the only people who click on every pronoun role are pre-uni people 
By the nine celestial spheres I beg you to reconsider
hey it said in the description I was supposed to teach them "algebra"
what else am I supposed to do??
which nine?
I can only count up to 5
Just S_3/<(123)> = {{e, (123), (132)}, {(12), (13), (23)}} \cong C_2 it’s so swaggggg
Ok so you guys said some stuff about how x + I = 0 + I when x is in I
And then there was the Z/Z3 example where when I wrote it out (though I didn’t post it) I saw that when you took the coset of an element in 3Z it was just 3Z
Then there was that thing Nix said about how if a + m = a’ + m then that means a - a’ in m
Now you’re giving an example of a group quotient where we effectively “ignored” the magnitude (because that’s what we were quotienting by, we sorta “likened together” all of the unique magnitude into a single thing)
So is the idea for a quotient ring is that you basically identify all of the elements that when added together are in your ideal as one thing?
Idk if I just cooked sorry if I ruined the barbecue guys
You can even directly see how everything multiplies by bashing cosets together
For a ring quotient, you identify r and s iff r-s is in the ideal
(Prove that this is an equivalence relation)
(Prove that this is equivalent to your usual notion of Z/3Z)
proves it
when you have an identity, you can just tell which things you kill
⚔️
but you have to make sure your equivalence relation is a congruence
Wait this is just modular arithmetic
Oh fuck
so that it respects the operations
LOL
yes
thats why you consider ideals, and normal subgroups (and not just an subgroup or smthing)
Why did no one say this before man 😭
I DID
Exercise
YOU DID I WAS JUST TOO STUPID SORRY NIX

LOL
If your textbook doesn't leave definitions up to exercises, why are you even reading it??
Whoops nearly spoilt the exercise
yeah I also think you should exercise
Let me try R[x]/(x^2 + 1) again
huh
i can only count to 4
Wait (x^2 + 1) means the ideal generated by x^2 + 1 right
Yus
Gonna have to get used to that lol
tutor named finger (nix)
i dont remember when you use each one
This makes me think of a subgroup
The ideal generated by x^2 + 1 is all polynomial multiples of x^2 + 1 right? So any polynomial that has x^2 + 1 as a factor
polynomial in R[x] tbc
yea (x^2+1)g(x)
Okay
what's the difference :^)
Subgroups only have one operator :3
I have seen this for ideals as well
I've seen ideals use both, but parens are much more standard
Interesting. Noted
I feel like I’m on the cusp of it
trying to remember. iirc aren't ideals like the ring version of normal subgroups
tutor named finger (nix)
kind of, but I don't think that's a good way to think of them. Originally ideals were created to capture notions of divisiblity
They’re like normal subgroups in that they’re the structure you need to make quotients make sense
It’s like all you’re left with after you quotient is x^2 + 1
yeah that's what i mean
Since it’s not factorable in the reals
i like using the same notation for similar concepts
But how does that imply that R[x]/(x^2 + 1) is C
you shouldn't think of normal subgroups and ideals as the same thing/concept
Or like help us define C or whatever
Try writing down a basis for R[x]/(x^2 + 1) as an R-vector space
what is x^2
It might help you to think about this
x^2 + 1
Specifically, x+(x^2+1) squared
it's been a while for me but i always thought of them like how wew said. defined to make quotient stuff make sense. what perspective do you prefer
What about it?
It’s -1+(x^2+1)
Bros going to actually make me write this out on a phone keyboard at 3am
Is this because of what you said about identifying r with s iff r - s is in (x^2 + 1)
x^2+(x^2+1)
subtract off a multiple of the ideal so you get something of degree 0 or 1
every element of R[x]/(x^2+1) is equivalent to degree 0 or 1 polynomial
(prove that)
(x+(x^2+1))^2 = x^2+(x^2+1) = x^2-x^2-1+(x^2+1) = -1+(x^2+1)
Ideals were defined in order to make sense of divisibility in rings more complicated than Z, like Z[i]. They can be quotiented by, but lots of things in math can be quotiented by. Do you think of equivalence relations, group actions, or topological subspaces as normal subgroups?
i mean for at least some things normal subgroups and ideals behave similarly. I'm not sure it's a bad way to think of them
but that is not a fruitful metaphor beyond "yes I can quotient". For one thing, normal subgroup is esentially meaningless in an abelian group
can you be more specific about what "make sense of divisibility" means? seems just as vague as "so quotient stuff makes sense"
of course, they're not direct analogs sure. But for basic intuition it helps. Especially for basic stuff where you're still learning, say, iso theorems
I don’t understand either of your explanations tbh, but I do understand it if I think of it like “x^2 is identified with -1 because x^2 - (-1) is in (x^2 + 1)”
you can quotient in a manner that is consistent with the group/ring operations
That is much more and much stronger than "you can just quotient"
Does anyone actually use the coset definition
Yes, they’re exactly the things which give an equivalence relation which is a subalgebra of X x X
Try to think about how divisibility and containment in an ideal are related in Z. Try to extend that to non PIDs
This is infinitely more intuitive and easy to work with
But the inclusion divisibility stuff is novel
just like how a=a-n mod n, x^2+(x^2+1)=x^2-(x^2+1)+(x^2+1)=-1+(x^2+1). that is, we can shave off a multiple of the ideal generator
So is it safe to just always think of quotient rings like that in practice?
it's literally how ideals were first defined
Rarely
Yes I’m saying it’s novel to rings, not normals
Not that it’s a new idea now
oh gotcha, agreed
Q[x]/(x^2-2)
in practice when we talk about ideals, it's either because we're factoring things in integer rings or we're trying to understand zeros of functions (because factoring functions is what tells us about zeros)
my prof said in practice ideals are used to tell us things about rings by quotienting them and examining the behavior of the quotient ring 🙃
it seems arbitrary to say "to make quotient rings make sense" is a "bad" way to think about them
it's not arbitrary when that's not what they were invented for, not what people originally thought of them as, and not the thing people most seek to do with them contemporaneously
like yes, you can quotient and people do, but that's not why we come across ideals/what they are there for
yeah but it's still a good example.
- is this a field?
- what ring/field is this isomorphic to?
the purpose for why something was invented isn't always the best way to think about them
$\bigg[\prod_p \overline{\bQ_p}\bigg]/\mathfrak m$ where $\mathfrak m$ is the maximal ideal generated by the indicators of the form $1_{P-A}$ for $A\in U$ a Ramsey ultrafilter on the set $P$ of primes
Dragonslayer Sharp
sharp what the fuck
fair, but it is when it's still how they are thought about today
i think "how they are used today" and "how they make sense to a beginner in a specific context" are two different things
Not disagreeing with you, but for some contexts it matters
but just one more thing, we can write the quotient ring in the following way
$\bR[x]/(x^2+1)=\bdef{a+bx:x^2=-1}$
tutor named finger (nix)
but the question is "how should I think about ideals?" and while a beginner might think "thing I can quotient by" that doesn't make it a good intuition
you can neglect to write the +(x^2+1) as long as you're clear you're still in a quotient ring
I joke, but ya know if you have arbitrarily many Galois extensions L/K all of the same degree n, we can say Gal(prod L/prod K) = prod Gal(L/K) modulo the same ultrafilter, and prod L/prod K is again Galois of degree n
but this is why it's clearly isomorphic to C
fair enough
I say this as someone who in my younger years thought of ideals as like normal subgroups
bro #advanced-algebra pls you're scaring me 😭
I don't wanna see Galois in this channel ;-;
Yeah nope sorry Nix LOL I don’t know how this works out
I figured out how to see that x^2 gets identified with 2
yeah
But I don’t know what the other elements are
a+bx+(x^2-2)
Why though?
you can always subtract off a multiple of the ideal
That’s what I tried doing
so if you had an cx^2, you could yeet off a c(x^2-2)
dx^3? yeet a dx(x^2-2)
etc
in general, for a polynomial quotient ring, R[x]/(g(x)) you only have to concern yourself with terms of degree strictly less than the degree of g
just like how in Z/nZ you only really concern yourself with elements between 0 and n
it's the same idea
but given this and the fact that x^2=2, what ring/field is this isomorphic to? @steel light
Q[sqrt(2)]
do ultrafilters show up in nt
Not that I know of
they can if you try hard enough
Pester delta idk
find some use for them 
Some stuff is probably equivalent to em
I think I see why
what does this mean
yes exactly
someone in grad school made me sit through a talk on ultrafilters. let me see if I can track down what that was about
Ooh pass it
actually
they definitely come up in trying to figure out the maximal ideals of C[x_1, x_2, ....] if that counts as NT adjacent
I think they are a thing in combinatorial nt
I'm 9 and i don't understand these
<@&268886789983436800> classic
huh
Terry Tao, UCLA
Neo-Classical Methods in Discrete Analysis
http://simons.berkeley.edu/talks/terry-tao-2013-12-04
here Tao talks about ultraproducts
i think they are related to ultrafilters lol
now I realize is not quite the same xd
Stop posting in this channel if you have nothing to add
The title sounds like hyperreal/NSA stuff
Indeed!
if you want another example, you can show that
$\bQ[x]/(x^3-2)\cong\bQ(2^{1/3})$
Ultraproducts are products mod an ultrafilter so
tutor named finger (nix)
right right
did you guys know
that telling whether two hyperreal number fields are isomorphic depends on CH or something
but maybe you've had more than enough examples @steel light d:
Tossing that in the archive though
ok not the actual statement, but something like that
Yeah, if CH then they’re all saturated therefore iso
I don't remember exactly what happened, but here's a paper in my inbox with ultrafilters involved: https://arxiv.org/pdf/2008.11905.pdf
I don't understand anything about it anymore
very fascinating that ultraproducts seem to be showing up in a few places 
Tossing that in the bin too
I would but i don't understand enough just glancing at it 
I definitely remember there being something simpler, but can't find it now
Yeah I’m definitely not up to par for that paper L
for context, weight-monodromy is basically the weil conjectures
mmh ig if you do things over non-archimedean fields then they will show up
how do you show that the fraciton field is l(t)
and that its a field iff l/k is algebraic
That's a good question. I think it's also true in the nonunital case, but I'm not totally sure.
Anyway, there is another way to prove that J(R) is nilpotent that more directly uses artinianess.
Hi sorry if this isn't the right place to ask. And sorry for the potentially stupid questions. But I'm just learning up on Galois theory and admittedly I do have a lot of basics to catch up on. So I have a couple of questions to have a better theoretical understanding.
-
We usually talk about adjoining the field $\bQ$ some root of a polynomial. But what if we had just start with $\bR$ instead and then if there are imaginary roots, just adjoin $i$? Because then it's a very simple extension, but then the automorphism group acting on the field extension $bR(i)$ would just be the complex conjugation, which is a solvable group, so the polynomial then would be solvable?
-
What do we really mean by permutation (automorphisms) of the roots? Because if we write any polynomial as linear factors $f(x)=(x-x_1)\cdots (x-x_n)$, switching the roots around in any way won't change the polynomial since commutativity lets us do that. Why do some polynomials have Galois groups $A_4$ for example where only certain kinds of permutations are allowed when if we just did any transposition between two roots, it doesn't change what the polynomial is? How does permuting the roots really have any relation to how the general formula for the solution looks like?
Again, sorry if the questions are dumb.
Electrical_Data
The inclusions of k(t) and l into l(t) induce an inclusion from the tensor product (check that it is injective using that everything is fields). Thus the field of fractions of the tensor product is contained in l(t). Now writing an element of l(t) as f/g with f,g in l[t], you can ||write f as sum a_i t^i with the a_i in l and hence as the image of sum t^i (x) a_i and likewise for g. Hence the field of fractions contains l(t) and so they are equal.||
Let J^k = J^k+1 . Consider the set of ideals I contained in J^k for which J^k I is nonzero. By Artinianess this has a minimal element S. This is necessarily principal.
If J^k S is a smaller ideal, then J^k S = J^k (J^k S) = 0, which is a contradiction. So J^k S = S. In particular there is a j and s such that js = s. And then you can use nakayama.
Alternatively, you can pass to the universal unital ring and show that the radical is preserved.
- A polynomial being solvable (by radicals), means that we can write the roots as a combination of the four basic operations and nth-roots of rational numbers. You might also say solvable by radicals over F, where F is some field other than Q.
Over the real numbers every polynomial is solvable yes, so that case is not very interesting.
- So the Galois group consists of field automorphisms. Such automorphism will necessarily permute the roots of the polynomial, but not every permutation of the roots can be extended to a field automorphism.
For example consider the polynomial
x^4 + x^3 + x^2 + x + 1 = (x - w)(x - w^2)(x - w^3)(x - w^4)
Where w is exp(2pi i/5), there are 4!=24 ways to permute these roots arbitrarily. But a field automorphism s, must satisfy s(w^k) = s(w)^k, so it would be impossible to have a field automorphism that for example swaps w and w^2 , because
s(w^2) = s(w)^2 = (w^2)^2 = w^4 =/= w
Thank you for the reply. I get no. 2 now. For no. 1, does that mean there does exist some general formula using radicals using just the coefficients (which can have irrational values) of a degree 5 polynomial?
No, there are polynomials with rational coefficients which are not solvable. So no general method can exist
I see that makes sense. So I suppose we study from Q a lot because most of the computation is nontrivial and if we can prove that for a smaller field there isn't a general formula for polynomials degrees five and higher, then for any larger field containing Q, those polynomials in that field in general won't have a solution in radicals using the coefficients. Thank you!
guys if I0m asked to construct a galois extension of order 28, how would you proceed?
I thought about creating a radical extension with the root of unity, but I'm confused about the order
Here's a hint: 29 is prime
Right??? So it is isomorphic to (Z/29Z)*
Which means that I need a 29th root of unity
Or am I completely off?
Exactly
The splitting field of x^29 - 1 is a Galois extension with Galois group (Z/29)*, hence has degree 28
In fact with a little bit of divisibility trickery you can use this to construct a Galois extension of any degree
Huh
Uh
Let me see why
Hm
So if we have a prime ideal P subset A, we're guaranteed that at least one factor of an element in the ideal is from P
yay feather learning stuff idk about 
So consider an element x in P, we write x = x1 cdot x2 cdot x3 cdot ... x_n
One of these x_i must be in P
Now if we intersect over all P
what do you mean by "factor" of x?
y and z are factors of x in Wew's example
but where are these x_i from i mean?
this is correct by induction btw that at least one is in P. Keep thinking outloud I guess maybe I shouldn't interrupt
isn't this proof pretty non-trivial lol
yeah this is definitely a non-trivial one, for at least one the directions
one direction is easy
The other one requires Zorn's lemma
but anyways keep thinking sorry idk why I interrupted
An x in the intersection can only be in the intersection if at least one of its factors is common to all of the ideals
I'm not sure how to justify this next part
Which direction are you working on?
I think I am doing intsction of all prime ideals => nilradical
(this needs not be true: consider 6 in 2Z \cap 3Z, it's has no factors common to both ideals)
But the idea is that all of the factors of x must be common to all of the elements of the ideals
Fuck you
😭
how do i know? i just want it to be true
Anyways
sorry 😭
so i just put it on the test paper and run
its much easier and makes more sense form e
for me*
zamn I cannot go forwards
I think there's usually a statement you want to prove before hand
2Z and 3Z 
You might want to start with the other direction lmao
Yes
fuck
My thinking was like (ignore that my logic was flawed)
The other direction is pretty easy
it was understood what I meant
Like 2 lines
so lets pick a MF r in N(R) so like we have r^n = 0 in this hizzouse
All of the factors have to be common to all of the ideals so we're basically taking the product of the same factor some number of times
don't shush me that's literally the definition of the nilradical
I just don't know how I'm supposed to get that this is nilpotent
But that's probably because my logic is wrong
btw, this factor stuff makes no sense in general rings: not all (even commutative and unital) rings have a notion of "unique factorization"
such rings are called UFDs, or "unique factorization domains" (even then, there are a few technicalities compared to how we think of factorization of positive integers, but they are mostly moot)
Maybe I should just read the proof
try to come up with nilpotent ==> in all primes on your own
Okay
other direction yeah lmao read the proof it's wacko bozo stuff
Let R communital (haha) ring
Let r in R
By defn it is nilpotent, so there exists some n > 0 s.t. r^n = 0
Uh
I don't know
I'll guess though
But I don't think it's right
0 is contained in an ideal right?
I think usually you start with the statement of S some multiplicative set and if I subset R, then there is some maximal ideal P wrt P cap S = empty, and that all such P are prime
Then the proof is much more doable from there
After having a think, nonunital rings can be Artinian without being Noetherian. Just take any group that is Artinian but not Noetherian and make it into a ring by having everything multiply to 0
this is presented well before multiplicatively closed subsets and localization
this is literally 8 propositions in
I want to say that (0) is a subset of every other prime ideal, but I have zero clue if that's actually right or not, and I don't want to think about it too hard rn lol
yes
of course it is
So r^n is in every prime ideal
You don't need localization for this though
I just ate oreos but it had some funny rainbow particles in the white stuff. was it safe to eat that?
QED?
But r^n is in 0
r^n = 0
So one of the factors r belongs to 0...? Since 0 is prime
0 isn't necessarily a prime ideal
(0) = {0}
Yes
yeah what if 0 isn't prime lol

0 being prime implies your ring being an integral domain
I need to make a freaking dictionary
So you have r^n = 0 is in your prime ideal P
Yes
and when you're an integral domain you don't have any non-zero nilradical elements
How do you use primeness to get r in P
also feather becoming algebruh pilled??? no way
Since it's a prime ideal P at least one of the factors belongs to P
But the factors are all r
So r is in P
if xy in P then either x in P or y in P
What do you call y and z for r = yz
then you proceed by induction
Why can I not call those factors
What even is there to factor
Is that not what a factor of a number is
who says these are numbers
it's weird to talk about "factors" unless you're in a ufd
I have not seen this proof before hmm i'll look into it. AM just zorn's it up to show every non-nilpotent element has a prime ideal it's not contained in. Which I guess is probably similar, taking I = {x, x^2, ...}?
I'd say a factor y of x is an element such that (y) contains (x) but meh
because they're not uniquely determined
Then what do I call the things that multiply to make another thing
things that multiply to make another thing

this kind of skips over the actual cool part of this proof and it makes me sad
so I'm going to just do it myself
Okay
Can you send it in one message
Easier for me to follow since so many ppl are typing lol
In class rn
I guess the proof is pretty much the same I think, it just generalizes a bit? I think?
r^n = 0 in every prime ideaL
r^n = r*r^{n-1}, one of these is in every prime ideal, if it's r we're done
if it's not r then r^{n-1} is in every prime ideal
but r^{n-1} = r*r^{n-2}
proceed inductively until we reach r^2 = r*r, now we don't have a choice. So r must be in every prime ideal
which if it's not nilpotent, it does not contain 0 (any multiplicatively closed subset containing 0, of course, has no such disjoint prime ideal)
So the defn of prime ideal involves a binary multiplication
I thought you could just extend that to multiplication of n things
what if we "factored" r^n as r^2r^{n-2}
And it means at least one of the n comes from your prime ideal
we cannot conclude shit about r from that
This is like the least necessary explicit induction proof
yeah I think ik what you're referencing. AM has some stuff along these lines in the exercises
not a single explicit induction proof is necessary
OHHHHHHHHHH
not one
This is what I was doing but I did it "all at once" which is wrong
and believe it or not when teaching a beginner sometimes putting more detail in that you deem neccesary is a good thing
But I don't understand why this is wrong
so perhaps back off slightly
Is it because that just isn't the definition of prime ideal?
The definition involves a binary multiplication
So we HAVE to do it with two terms?
And proceed inductively
Sorry, let's do an induction warmup....
if r is in a prime ideal and r = xyz then we can only conclude that one of {x, y, z, xy, yz} is in the prime ideal
I think
Perhaps show separately by induction that if x = x_1 * x_2 * ... * x_n is in a prime ideal P, then one of the x_i is in P
Get fucked old man
I will be crying myself to sleep tonight
Sigh
Yeah
Okay
I will no longer make that mistake
-.-
Anytime I see a product I will NOT extend it to higher terms unless I prove it inductively
it was just for the cool factor
like you're right that it works, it might just be helpful to work through it
:swag:
Ew indeed
I wish I wasn't so needy
If I can get the proper environment set up I can get some fkn WORK done like I'll build the pyramids of Giza in a day on god
but it's unlikely I ever enter the proper environment
Anyways
Moving on
Time to read the other direction
Zorn's Lemma seems to show up a lot here
AM referenced it earlier too
yeah
Is it about time I start caring about it and choice and stuff?
I've never actually used it before so I never bothered to memorize what it is lol
(just assume choice and use Zorn freely)
Fuck yeah
in fact it's pretty much just Zorn, not explicitly choice
what is a chain
Yeah Zorn equiv choice
set theorists need a job /s
Lol
What is a chain
i circlejerk it but I think rejecting choice is dumb lmao
That's like
(altho I see the use for stuff like "statements internal to a topos" where you might not have choice but whatever(
yea and then I said this which is probably the biggest red flag I've said so far so uhhh
How is Zorn related to well ordering principle
They're like opposite sides of the same thing kinda
One least element one maximal element
Zorn ~ choice I think is okay? don't remember actually
well ordering theorem ==> choice is easy. Other direction iirc is 
yup
So for a set you can impose a well order on a subset. For example for a finite subset this is easy to do.
You can then also do it in a bigger set, and you can gather all possible well orderings of some subset into a big poset.
Zorn's lemma implies that this poset has a maximal element, and that would exactly be a well ordering of the whole set
"don't worry about the convergence of any of these laplace transforms or how we get them, just table it all"
engineer detected
You can think of a chain like a bunch of subsets sorted by inclusion, and then you want to show that there is an upper bound of the chain (usually the union of all the subsets in the chain), then by Zorn you have that there's a maximal element
Indeed I am Wew
interesting that doesn't seem too bad actually
been thinkin lately
me too
Choice -> WO is ez
been thinkin bout HIGHER centres
oh oop
Yeah, Zorn is the one that is easy to prove implies all the other ones. Going the other way is worse
hmmm today I will simply choose a well ordering :clueless:
that must be what I was thinking of then. I imagine choice ==> Zorn is the hard one then?
A bunch of Zorn proofs kinda go the same way in that you just define a set, have a chain, show union over stuff in chain is still in the set, hit it with corn, and you're done
Apply choice to P(X), do ordinal function w by 0 -> f(X), n+1 -> f(X-U {w(i<=n)})
okay for some reason I thought that was choice --> WOT
I'm not fixing the typo, it's better this way anyway
btw, eventually AM will just be like "a standard application of Zorn give..." and not give details
but it spells out the first few at least
If you want another exercise which is pretty much the same thing, you can show every vector space has a basis
I don't understand what Sigma is
The set of ideals that don't have nilpotent elements?
Sigma is the set of ideals which contain no powers of f

Unrelated to this channel but
New technique learned for evaluating limits (at least at infinity)
Final Value Theorem
got an actual question for chat
Ah but that requires the function be Laplaceable...just assume it :^)
Isn't that just like twice differentiable?
I could probably show this myself but I cannot be bothered, let G(n) be the nth derived subgroup of G, is G/G(n) isomorphic to the nth centre of G?
or like what's the relation ykwim
Now show a maximal-in-\Sigma ideal is prime and gg

I do not believe so
If by nth center you mean the uhh
Upper central series?
This comes from the fact that if (x) and (y) were in p then p + (x) and p + (y) would just be p and hence it would not strictly contain p Yes?
If they terminate they have the same length at least
yur
But if they just stabilize at a nontrivial point then uhh the lengths to reach that stabilization can differ
ok I was just curious
Which kinda kills that
Ye it’s in D&F
upper central terminates at a centralless groups right
Try S_n I think
and uhhhh
the nth dudes terminate at a perfect group...? yeahhhh
obviously perfect => centralless but not the other way around
cool
If the upper & lower series go all the way, they have the same length though
Something like that
There’s a section in D&F which gives an example where they’re very clearly not the same iirc
I mean for G = S3, G(1) = C3, and Z(G) = C3, but then G(2) = 0, and Z(G/Z(G)) = C2
Ye
very sad!
there also doesn't seem to be a nice iterative formula for higher centres which is cringe
have to consider the kernel of some dog water map
Lower series > upper
I don't know what either of those words mean
who cares about non pids anyway

how do we know almost all of the x_i are zero
what does lang mean by the definition of an operation?
Or is it just a part of the definition to guarantee convergence
or rather how does an operation being well-defined imply that 1x = x here
probably the operation
whoaaa! thank you that makes sense!
yeah this awfully worded but it means a ring action
it's a requirement for those sums
like we only consider finite sums
viewing A as a multiplcative monoid
and there we go, it's a monoid action
ah ok that makes sense
"convergence"

Ok so if almost all of the x_i are not zero then we cannot define the sum?
Yes
STOPPPPPPP 😭 😭
definitionally this holds (we don't want to consider infinite sums in arbitrary rings)
Gotchya
it's literally by defintion yur
vercongence
WJHAT
like we could define it (see e.g. something like tate algebra) but it just doesn't make sense in this context
What does it mean for xy to generate an ideal? I understand what it means in the context of principal ideals ubt not in general
So it means like
the second sentence defines it
Well, at least the morally correct definition, is that given a subset S of a ring A, the ideal generated by S is the intersection of all ideals containing S
i.e. the smallest such ideal
A concrete description / alternative definition is given in the 2nd/3rd line there
How do we get the sum part from this? Why are the elements not just all of the products x_i y_i
That needn't be an ideal.
because that isn't closed under addition
Is it because if we add two then they're going to be closed under addition too
Oh
HAIWUHEQ
LOL
so we take the group they generate
I mean even if we take the trivial case of like one non-zero element
why is this open cry lol
this is the typical notion of what it means for smth to generate smth ye
the nerd way
🤓
just obtuse for actually working with it lmao
sure
but then it is hopefully clear once you know this definition what it looks like
This is like
anyway
but I agree for broad notions of "generation" this is a universal way to construct something
1000x more difficult than manifolds
at least manifolds I could intuit my way through stuff lmao
I really really disagree with this statement
oh my god manifolds make no fucking sense what the fuck is an atlas??!?!? mfs think I can reaD?!?!?!
hm i found it took me a while to get intuition for playing with algebra
be so fr wew
but then eventually you should get the hang of it more
yeah
the only way manifolds make sense is if they're a lie group
just it's a different intuition to drawing and stuff lol
wew has never seen a sphere in his life
I'm sure you'll be unsurprised to hear I don't have the proper algebra background potato
oh i mean that's why i said it like
I only see things up to homotopy so
LMFAO
wtf is an hcf
Mfw im reading model theory and I’m seeing homotopies

Not a joke
I wouldn't know why that would be a joke
OH?!?!?!?
Because agony
any algebraic number theory fans what the FUCK?!
ok time to compute the higher centres of D_1 million for a laugh
huh
I kinda forgot how boring Z(D_n) was
L
sharp give me an interesting one
It means that ab is the smallest ideal of A containing all products xy for x in a and y in b
yeah it's kinda cool how there's like a lattice isomorphism hahahahahahHAHAHAHHA
lattice of integers 
🤯
agh that's gonna be a pita to get used to
ideals aren't ideal, whodathunk
C_n \wr S_n
Dang it
diagonal subgroup
we should just go back to ideal numbers
Ooh
it's centre is abelian 
"centre"
woah
it's Zentrum
so the 2nd centre is uhhhh uhhhh no, the whole group (the 2nd term of the upper series is trivial)
Dang it
why not just call them points 
what would we be calling points
(x1, ..., xn)
elements of rings are functions, not points
zip it german child
what?
everything is a function dw about it
what?

in fact elements of rings are TWO functions at once
what?
algebraic geometry
This is pain
Idk what wew is on about ignore him
for each a you can assocaite the function given by multiplying by a and adding a on
two functions - three if it's non-commutative!
you can associate any number of functions wit a

yeah feather. polynomials are the functions on affine space you care about
yeah
me who doesn't know what an affine space is (but I've seen it used in the defn of varieties)
yeah watch me
someone more versed in algebraic geometry than me can finish my train of thought
i have things to do
Ok so, the easy idea might be uhh
C(X, R)?
Im not well versed in the AG functions, but should look similar since uhh
Locally ringed space
affine space is just k^n where k is a field, and you think of polynomials in k[x_1, ..., x_n] as functions k^n -> k. Algebraic sets are the just set of zeros of a bunch of polynomials
And uhh there’s rings of functions on varieties or such iirc
coordinate rings :GangnamStyle:
yeah, basically if you have an algebraic set V in k^n, you can look at k[x_1,...,x_n] / I(V) where I(V) is the set of polynomials which are zero on V, which if you think about it is essentially "polynomials functions restricted to V", where you identify polynomials which are equal on V (ignoring their values outside of it)
is this the the same as the definition of affine space on wikipedia? which says it’s a set with a vector space’s additive group acting on it transitively and freely
It is more than a little obnoxious that ideals do not behave ideally
Under operations
Lol
or ig what you wrote is a particular example? (k^n acting on itself by vector addition, but of course your guy has more structure)
slurrpppp
What if a is prime
Um
Id go with "move" rather than "absorb" but yeah
If a is prime thennn
or perhaps where sharp is going
dawg icl I've never heard of this b4
Then x is in a or b is a subset of a
I haven't either lol
Yes?
yur
I'm the fkn goat
this looks like a painful definition to work with
mmm I'd have to think about it, it seems like that's a more abstract definition, when I think of affine n-space it's usually in the context of algebraic geometry where it's just coordinate vectors (or points) over a field, but my guess is it's the same thing just from a different perspective
This is how AM define annihilators
I've seen you guys use that term
Isn't that important?
wh
A weird way to reach annihilators but yeah I can see it
oh my god are you defining Ann(I) as (I;0)
I might hit the griddy at this rate
oH wait
I keep forgetting
(x) = principal ideal generated by x
not just x in parentheses -.- or like x as an input of the Ann function (functor? whatever the technical term is)
ahh that’s good to know. I’ve never actually cracked open an AG book but I know it’s about affine spaces. So one day I decided to visit the wiki page for affine space and I was kinda disgusted by the definition lol
I'm so confused with the union condition
Zero divisors can be zero right?
why would that matter
But this condition on the union implies that they can't be
Uh

No
no it's everything
0x = 0 for all x so x in Ann(x) tada
Yeah so that’s why U(x\neq 0)

lol yeah I get that, really you think of affine space as k^n together with the ring of polynomial functions on k^n (kindof like in topology you consider spaces and continuous functions over those spaces), AG is all about polynomial functions lol
or rational-polynomial functions
This stupid fucking (x) notation is going to give me cancer
(x) is basically just x anyway
Affine space is..,. it's k^n
s-s-swemi dwiect
GL_n ..... :tearsofthenile:
it kinda is doe...
well it's important that if you have Ann(x) = {r | rx = 0} for an element and Ann(I) = {r | rb = 0 for all b in I} for an ideal, then Ann(x) = Ann((x)) so it's safe to write either/or
what the hell is tearsofthenile
:uponthewitnessing:
So the radical of an ideal is all ring elements who have a power in the ideal
Yes
The nilradical of a ring is the set of all nilpotent elements is the intersection of all prime ideals
yeah, it's basically "all roots of things in the ideal"
and that's why it has the root symbol
The Jacobson radical of a ring is the intersection of all maximal ideals
it's all coming together
Yes it is
What’s the nilradical of R/I
that's a bit mean to ask at this point lol
All the elements in R/I which are nilpotent (not an answer, just thinking out loud)
true
An element of R/I is a coset of r in R
Feather can handle it
sorry bout that!
all this ring theory just get's me all riled up!
Let's see
real fired up you know
real juiced up
Well, what’s (r+I)^2
here would we consider a morphism between two objects in the category of homomorphisms of M whose kernel contains N to be that of this example from hungerford? sorry i'm very new to category theory type stuff so it's not really trivial to me lol
The product of (r + I)(s + I) is the coset (rs + I)
Sharp I'm not going to read your hint either sorry
Not until I know for sure I messed up and I can't think of anything else
That’s literally what I suggested
I really really want to try and be better at doing this stuff more formally
Oh
LMFAO
Anyways :^)
Ye go from there
feather algebra arc???
So we are asking when (r+I)^n is nilpotent
This is just (r^n + I)
Which is nilpotent if it equals 0
When does it equal zero?
You'd probably verify that if f : M -> M' is a module homormorphism whose kernel contains N, then there is a unique homomorphism f* : M/N -> M' such that F*(m + N) = f(m)
Well if r^n is nilpotent then you're left with the coset being I, but in the quotient ring this is equivalent to 0 right?
okay, i'll think about how that's equivalent to the statement he posited
I still don't understand well what quotient rings look like but from everything we talked about yesterday this is what I understand so far lol
Anyways
When is x + I = y + I
When x - y is in I
A good way to think of quotient rings is by taking a ring R and imposing new relations on it, making it smaller. A good example is taking R[x] and then adding the relation that x = 0. This effectively replaces each occurence of x in a polynomial with 0, so you just have the constant values. Depending what relations you impose the new ring looks different, like if you take R[x] and impose the relation that x^2 + 1 = 0, you actually get the complex numbers
I think r^n is nilpotent when r is nilpotent, since if we have (r^n)^m = 0 this means r^n = 0 which means r is nilpotent
Yes but uh
There are other cases to consider too
Let me remember where I am
So the nilradical of R/I is the set of all cosets (r + I) s.t. (r + I)^n = 0. This happens when r is nilpotent. So when is r^n + I = 0 + I?
When r^n - 0 = r^n is in I
But this is the radical of I

Oh

Ascended
So the nilradical of R/I is the radical of I
Quotiented by I
For it to be equivalent to 0 (which is what we require for the nilradical) we need to quotient by I
So of course the radical has to be quotiented by I
Loser (with love)
:3
I figured it out hehe
Oh

Nice
I saw it coming fr
So the radical of a subset E of A is the set of all e in A such that e^n in E?
in defining the A-algebra, do they mean the module E together with a bilinear map g: E x E --> E? or do they mean any module such that there exists some module E such that the map g is bilinear
Idon't understand the first step lmoa
the rest I do
but how do we know r(a + b) = r(r(a) + r(b))
With the map
“module together with a”
the fact that E is an A-module means you can scale elements of E by elements of A, and the map g allows you to multiply elements of E together (and bilinearity means addition and multiplication distribute)
There’s only 1 module involved
a is contained in r(a) and likewise for b and r(b) so one inclusion should be fairly clear. conversely if x^n is in r(r(a) + r(b)) then it is y + z with y^m in a, z^l in b. then (x^n)^m+l is a sum of terms that are always divisible by either y^m or z^l, since term in (y + z)^m+l have the form c y^i z^j where i + j = m + l, so that if i is less than m j must be greater than l. hence x^n(m+l) is in a + b
wow imagine doing it without just going "corrispondence theorem QED"
I don't understand the lsat step
"so that if i < m then j > l => (x^n)^(m + l) is in a + b"


