#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 152 of 1
Feels like you need some argument about continued fractions of sqrt(2)
are you sure boss
I am stuck and am pretty sure I'm going in the wrong direction again
I don't think you do
Kalgar
There are definitely ways to do this very elementary
yes
then can I derive restrictions on a and b?
congratulations, you have the restrictions on a and b
don't need a restriction, just an example
i.e. $a=\sqrt{1+2b^2}$
Kalgar
this feels very wrong
you literally just need any example such that a+bsqrt(2) isn't 1 or -1
Just try some numbers
can I take zeros
Well, you showed that x unit implies N(x) = \pm 1, but not so much that it implies it’s a unit but…, probably should have an idea how that could work
b = 0 a=1

b = 2, a = 3
Ok that’s not just 1
I mean the solutions to a^2 - 2b^2 = ±1 is exactly the continued fractions of sqrt(2), so they are somehow involved in any argument that there are infinitely many
we do not need continued fractions
You don't need that here.
and so our unit becomes $3+2\sqrt{2}$
Kalgar
btw good sirs, are you all graduate students? If so, how do you all have so much time to help me on Discord
lol
Bank holiday
yeah I'm taking the day off lol
Procrastination 🌈
also that lol
my fav jazz star from the 30's
I have the field extensions $\mathbb{Q}(\sqrt{2})$, $\mathbb{Q}(\sqrt{3})$ and $\mathbb{Q}(\sqrt{6})$. The degree of the first two extensions seems to obviously be two. Am I correct in saying that $\mathbb{Q}(\sqrt{6}) = \mathbb{Q}(\sqrt{2}\sqrt{3}) = (\mathbb{Q}(\sqrt{2}))(\sqrt{3})$, which would imply from the tower rule that the degree of this one is 2 * 2 = 4?
ok so do you know about the result that the product of two units is a unit
NotAPenguin
yesh
no
hm
It is true that Q(sqrt(2)sqrt(3)) = Q(sqrt(2))(sqrt(3)), but you need to be smarter about the tower rule.
wait I swear I proved it somewhere
I believe you dw
noooo

parentheses are wrong
this is all just algebra
ok
bleh
Anyway my point is you need in particular to prove [ Q(sqrt(2))(sqrt(3)) : Q(sqrt(2)) ] = 2
Everything is algebra 
like with the N(xy)=N(x)N(y) and unit * unit = unit results, am I supposed to have derived them on my own ... by playing around with the symbols mindlessly until I notice something?
because, assume I know no abstract algebra at all
So the difference is that sqrt(3) is in Q(sqrt(2), sqrt(3)), do you see why it's not in Q(sqrt(6))?
it's anything but mindless, you can prove those things by just following the definitions
yes, but like
that's "after the fact" proof
easy to proof after I have the form
but how would I have come up with them in the first place?
practice
by the end of undergrad you will see that f(xy) = f(x)f(y) comes up a quadrillion times
no problem!
wew >:(
anyway, lets get back on track
its not some sort of multiple of sqrt(6) i suppose
so we want to find infinite units, and we have one unit 3+2sqrt(2), and we know that we can multiply units together to make more units
so just multiply by some general c+d\sqrt{2}?
so Q(sqrt(6)) is contained in Q(sqrt(2), sqrt(3))
what is the size of the second extension?
im tempted to say 3 but that sounds wrong
well no because a general c+d\sqrt{2} isn't always a unit
but we do know a certain c+d\sqrt{2} that is a unit
tower law
because of the xy=1 condition aye
xy=1 => N(x)=±1
I literally just want you to multiply 3+2sqrt(2) with itself
I have no idea what you're talking about
I meant like
right yeah we can find one using that - in fact we have
in the original question, it defined a unit as some a+b\sqrt{2}
yeah
no, those are just elements of Z[\sqrt(2)]
2 is in that ring and it isn't a unit
N(2) = 4
no a unit is an element x such that there exists an element y with xy = 1
so what are the possible degrees of Q(sqrt(6))?
in this specific ring this does imply that N(x) = \pm 1
we haven't finished the proof lol
right
1, 2 or 4 since its inside Q(sqrt(2), sqrt(3)), but its not the same so only 1 and 2 remain, definitely not 1, so 2 remains I think?
so 3+2sqrt(2) is a unit, and we know that a unit times a unit gives a unit - so use these two facts to make a new unit
,w (3+2*sqrt(2))^2
yes also a generator of the field satisfies a quadratic polynomial, so it could never be 4
whatever this is, we don't care
ok
x is a unit if there is why such that x y = 1
why
we just know that (3+2sqrt(2))^2 is also a unit
alright yeah this is making more sense I think, thanks for the pointers :)
Auto correct moment
17+12√2
now use a similar idea to generate an infinite amount of units
induction?
sure you can use induction if you want
or just simply state that "it is possible" to keep squaring our unit
that also works
would you not have to prove then that that process doesnt repeat
What would we be inducting on?
How do you know it won't ever equal 1? You'd need to justify that x^n ≠ 1 for all n
(this is true and there's a simple justification)
we'd be inducing on n in the statement (3+2sqrt(2))^(2^n) is a unit
I see
and then as people are now pointing out we'd have to show that there isn't an n such that (3+2sqrt(2))^(2^n) = 1
which is pretty straight forward
contradiction?
sure
technically it's (3+2sqrt(2))^(2^n)≠(±1)^2n isn't it
but the -1 dies from the squares
just checking
if you hit -1 on the "next step" you'll hit 1 so it's ok to just show it's never 1
Why would you need the exponent on 1
idk
wait why do we check ≠1 again?
so what if our unit = 1
why can't we have the trivial units
because 3+2sqrt(2))^(2^n) = 1 then 3+2sqrt(2))^(2^{n+1}) = 1
so we don't get an infinite number of new units
Try taking an exponent of a trivial unit and see what happens
we only get n
Or that
right
Intuitively, how does that make sense though..
3+2\sqrt2 is clearly positive
it doesn't make sense... we're proving that it can never happen
You want to find a unit whose exponents diverge to infinity, that will give you infinite many of them
wait so why not for -1 too again?
_ _
next step as in n+1?
yur
"if you hit -1 on the "next step" you'll hit 1" I don't get this lol
-1 squared is 1
yup I get that
(2m but yes)
yes
we're going in circles
That's basically the same thing
Kalgar
yeah that works
since |3+2sqrt(2)| > 1 then |(3+2sqrt(2))^2| = |3+2sqrt(2)||3+2sqrt(2)| > |3+2sqrt(2)||1| > 1
prove directly with epsilon-delta
I don't remember how to hahaha
will take Analysis next sem
Tell u wat I will attempt if you give me the defs I need though lol
Don't bother lmao it's pretty obvious here
I mean that's kinda tautological
Since that makes sense in R as written, but in an arbitrary ring it's more of a formal expression
the 1/x bro I want to cryyyy
for this argument btw, did you use contradiction?
becuase I can't find a contradiction
or did you just do ≠1 directly and used induction on n
if x^n = 1 then |x| = 1
By passing to the norm you can just use a property of the integers like wew said
wat is |x|?
the order right?
how is that a contradiction though?
you mean like $N(x^n)=\underbrace{N(x)\cdot N(x)\cdot N(x)\cdot...\cdot N(x)}_{\text{n times}}$
um
Kalgar
yes since norm is multiplicative (you can check this)
So why is |x|=1 a contradiction?
What is it contradicting?
and to confirm, we're talking about order, not absolute value right?
we were using N(x) to depict norm above
Wait what am I talking about
I have no idea lol

we're trying to show why our unit (3+2\sqrt{2})^2n ≠ 1
So suppose x^2n = 1 and we try to find a contradiction
wew said that $x^n = 1\implies |x|=1$
Kalgar
and that is supposedly a contradiction
but I don't know to what
and what the notation '|x|' is supposed to be referring to either
I presume it's the order of x modulo m
but what is "m"?
I am not sure why one would guess this
But yeah do what Sharp said
of the things to reasonably guess, that is definitely not one of them
Sorry I confused myself for a second
Maths is fun
You mean subset of $\mathbb{C}$? Why is that significant?
Kalgar

but x isn't a complex number

what 😂
it is
my conception of a complex number is a+bi
Z[sqrt(2)] is a subset of C
am I using the wrong interpretation
5 is also a complex number
bro
yes I know
I meant like
Yes
$(3+2\sqrt{2})^{2n}=1\implies |x|=1$
Kalgar
why is that a direct implication
Yeah
am I missing a step
if you have a complex number a+bi
|x| is complex norm
then if |a+bi|^n = 1, then |a+bi| = 1
Please recall how that behaves under multiplication
this answers my question
of course it sounds absurd when you write it specifically with 3 + 2sqrt(2). Becuase we know this is false
ok so why is |x|=1 a contradiction
right
If there was an n such that (3+2sqrt(2))^n = 1, then we would have |3 + 2sqrt(2)| = 1. But we know this isn't true, so there is no such n

done
I think you are trying to rush something here. It would be helpful to review some earlier stuff from whatever book you're reading, as well as some properties about the complex numebrs
ugliest gif in existence
someone please put this at the end of a completely wrong proof and put it on vixra
they do that quite frequently
here is k[G] the free vector space over G over the field k?
okeyokay
I would imagine so. And in this case, since |G|=2 (i assume C was supposed to be a G), we know G is iso to Z/2
so, say, g_1 is identity, g_2 is the single genereator
oh wait bro would you mind putting spoilers if ur gonna continue lol
that should just be describing k[G]
but here is a hint if you get stuck: ||first iso theorem sounds like it should help?||
ok thank you
when i learned about ||first iso theorem|| it kinda blew my mind
whats an example of an uncountable simple group
SO(3)
They say G there so is it the group algebra?
oh okay, is that equivalent to group ring?
ye
You have that this is a ring again too
time to try something stupid; gonna send k_ig_1 + k_jg_2 to its square and see what happens
Why
play around with it 
PSL(n, K) is simple for any field K
to simplify your life, ||take g_1 to just be the identity, g = g_2, so you can write it as k_1 + gk_2||, and also another hint ||consider maps k[x] --> k[G] instead of the other direction, to apply first iso||
False
will look in about 30ish minutes if still stuck, thank u
WAIT
PSL(2,2) and PSL(2,3) are not simple
how do you prove this again?
how do you prove that the product of two units is another unit
Before, I thought that it would be straightforward with algebra
say a is a unit and b is a unit, then ax = 1 and by = 1 for some x y, then abyx = 1
Any field with more than 4 elements then.
you know they inverses. Consider what the inverse of xy is
It works with uncountable fields is the point
I’m pretty sure PSL(1,K) is never simple
this is tehcnically two existential statements right?
"As I said in my comment, PSL(n.K) is simple for all n≥2 and all fields K, except for n=2, |K|≤3"
i.e., for each unit a, there exists some x such that ax=1
that's the definition
point jagr was making I think is that under reasonable assumptions, you can take n, K to make it work
aside from a few boundary cases
Hmm
oh wait no it has to fix k
Is PSp(2n,K) simple for all infinite K?
It is
Just directly do it
well there goes 30 minutes of my life
Why would you try this 
idk
I mean just looking at the problem statement
good question
Hmm, is SO(3) isomorphic to PSL(2, R)? Seems plausible
No
Alright
alright
let's see, so we probably want to make everything linear.... so maybe taking the nth derivative?
wait nvm
homie has no chill
I mean it usually has good info
nah i know im just jokin
In fact for any field except for the obvious 3 exceptions
Which are the 2 which come from Gl2: PSp(2,2) and PSp(2, 3) and PSp(4, 2)
You can show this by letting Sp act on projective space
wait i'm dumb is the kernel here elements that get sent to the identity of G or the additive identity of k
oh right the kernel is the same as the group homomorphism so it would be e??
the identity of G
?
yo just a quick question
if I is maximal then its left primitive
do i go consider R/I and let A be any R/I-module ( with action (r+I)a = ra) then A is simple as R/I has no proper ideals , so we have if (x+I) is in Ann(A) then xa = 0 for all a --> x = 0 ( its an integral domain )?
the thing is
i used a very similar argument
when showing that if R is a ring such that every left R-module is free then R is a division ring
by showing this I maximal ideal to be 0
and idk why i cant do that here ig cuz i could just say I is a subset of that Ann
but more like
I is a subset of the Ann over the ring R
not over the ring R/I
elements of R/I are equivalence classes not just ideal I
so it would be wrong to say I subset Ann_R/I(A) = 0
right?
this would just say 0 is in the Ann
And the B_n and D_n groups (which don’t seem to actually have names)?
If only someone had given names to the orthogonal groups
The poor things
holy nerd emoji
they do have names, they're called C_2 \wr S_n and the other one
Those are weyl groups
yea king but i already asked
.

Yeah that’s fine
Fields are simple over themselves
So I is left primitive
Ez
yea
now
can u give a counterexample
for the reverse
like a left primitive ideal that is not maximal
should be easy ig with matrix rings
but
i cant think of one
wait wouldn't it just be g_ 1 + g_2k_2 since if g_1 is the identity then kg_1 = g_1 for all k in K?

What
You aren't directly multiplying the k's and g's
can someone tell me a hard cool field/Galois theory problem
but like solvable in a reasonable amount of time
Just notationally, there's no need to put the identity, so if you scrap that, it might make the required map more obvious
Like how we don't put x^0 along with the constant term
wdym
whats reasonable for you
like 2-days
@topaz solar
uh
like the solution shouldn't be longer than a page
lmao
I said that just in case someone suggested unsolved problems
wait there's no action of k on G? like there's no map from k x G --> G
i'm lost
If it’s solvable in a couple days I would feel sad but understand
like i thought it was just a free k-module on the group G
Why are you asking for this ngl
i'm just confused as to how to write the elements of k[G]
Bro just define a map k[x] -> k[G]
lol Ill just go to Langs book
And G has 2 elements
and how we define k x e for the additive identity in G and any k in K
it should be e right
?
provided I'm understanding this right, the elements should be representable with (a + b*g), with a,b \in k and g \in G. Explicitly, we could write an e with the a, but there does not seem to be a reason to
My guy
Maybe like classify degree 4 extensions
ohhh i didnt know that
Why would you expect different from that notation
So the multiplication is (a + bg)(c + dg) = ac + bd + (ad + bc)g
Dragonslayer Sharp
Of q
kinda like writing complex numbers with i, but instead of i^2=-1, we have g^2 = 1
cool
Dragonslayer Sharp
That’s it
I also thought about trying explicit cases of the Kronecker Weber theorem
That’s how you multiply em
along those same lines then, k[x] is just k[Z], since Z is the free group on a single variable (written here as x)
I guess if you haven’t seen the ANT proof of quadratic reciprocity you could do that, but it’s not that hard
Well, that’s Laurent polynomials, the usual one is k[N]
But you get the idea
we talking about group algebras and I wasn't invited
It’s just polynomials bro
polynomials, but if x^2 = 1
this
I was being dramatic
fuck you then
idk but I haven't seen anyone mention the fact that it's just k^{|G|}
hmmm I wonder if there's a nicer proof of showing that sin_p and cos_p aren't periodic
with multiplication given by stuff in G
besides using straßmann
this absolutely isn't algebra. leave
Bitch
I said it was polynomials and the multiplication rule on the monomials
How about this?
I mean sure you can think about ANY ring like that via universal ploperty (ok not any ring, cause of the monomials)
I just find it much easier to think of them as formal sums of group elements
hmm
i have a question and i'm not sure if it's abstract algebra, elementary algebra, or nonsensical and meaningless 
share
Superscript time
please only post it if it is nonsensical and meaningless to match everything else in this channel
see above ^
Mecejide
I may be skill issuing but I'm not buying that they're isomorphic
that's a skill issue my guy
it's just notational?
hmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmm
I’m using x^g instead of g as the basis
how on earth is it just notational
hmm all you want
That’s it
Get wrecked wew
that’s literally it
no I'm not backing down, this isn't true
$x^g x^h = x^{gh}$ is the same as $g\cdot h = gh$
Dragonslayer Sharp
ok not R[inn(G)] but the R[G]-module given by the conjugation representation
where the fuck did this come from
@delicate orchid they lied to you about groups having centers
It’s not exponentiation as conjugation you fusion system crack addict
They all lied to you
WHAT?!?!?! I knew it
geometrists
burn them
yeah lemme just $e^1 \otimes e^2$?!?!?
Wew Lads Tbh

Because it’s polynomials and R[N]???
I am not crazy here
R[N]?? no maybe later though
Classic wew
@dim widget is this guaranteed simple for n>4 and K an infinite field?
your notation does not align with the general literature I win you lost bye bye good night don't let the bed bugs bite
I can’t tell who is the brick wall but yes
anyway what were we talking about
we all are 
right multiplication in R[G]
don't remember
nonpost are you typing up a novel my child?
okay boys was trying to show k[C_2] = k[x]/x^2
$x = \sum_{g \in G} x_gg, y = \sum_{g \in G} y_gg$ then $xy = \sum_{g' \in G}\sum_{g \in G} x_gy_g'gg'$ ya feel me
Wew Lads Tbh
oh right, this is actually cool
did you actually explain it before I uhhh did what I do best
yeah
i had a shower thought: you know how when doing plain, elementary algebra, you manipulate equations by doing something to both sides (subtract 3 from both sides, half both sides, etc). i've heard that conjugacy is an equivalence relation; does that mean you could do a sort of algebraic manipulation with conjugacy instead of equality?
ah cool
sure
I tried
yeah sure, the point of equivalence relations is that they're "basically" like equality
and you can turn them into literal equalities by "quotienting"
That’s the whole idea, though you want it to be compatible
that's kinda what quotienting is
consider two things up to some equivalence via a (normal) subgroup
You want additional hypotheses like a ~ b and x ~ y means a+x~b+y or similar
or could also do up to conjugation or something idfk
"u have g^2 = Id in C_2 so g^2 = 0 in k[C_2] so u adjoin order 2 nilpotent... hip hip hurray!!!!"
yeah like saying two dudes are equal "up to isomorphism"
basically means they're equal when you quotient out by the corrisponding equivalence relation
Bro mentioned nth order derivatives so idk how well my explanation got across
... how
"actually g^2 = 1 in k[Z/2]" 🤓
wait guys I'm not going insane right?
you are
v(1/x) = -v(x) for a valuation v
oh yeah good point... why is it k[x]/(x^2) again
that's right
corresponds with |1/x| = 1/|x|
.
first iso baby
consider the v(xx^-1) = v(1)
|| x |--> g ||
I mean I know deep in my bones that it’s K[x]/(x^2)
wait huh
x^2-1
am i being stupid
Hmm
wait does this mean that the phrase "equal up to something" mean that something is an equivalence relation
yeah
It splits into two dim 1 spaces
Like K[x]/x^2-1 by CRT
ohhhhhhhh
i had a feeling isomorphism was an equivalence relation but i wasn't sure
hmm i am feeling stupid
prove it
Char 2
for some reason i thought it was just first iso applied to this map
hmm
silly goofy me
Any thoughts on this? It splits as the two irreducible reps of C_2 are blah blah
SINCE WHEN
oh yeha i forgot abuot that
Bro didn’t read the problem statement
yeah it’s k[x]/(x^2) then you nerds
Of course I didnt??
|| x |--> 1+g then||
I did it's just been a hot 2 hours
of accomplishing nothing, but still
Genius
let K/k be a finite separable field extension, and let L/k be any field
extension. Show that K ⊗_k L is a product of fields.
i think the best i could do is write the things that make it an equivalence relation and be unable to prove any of them 
try it at least
good practice
yeah @white oxide the fact that it's characteristic 2 also helps lmao, i forgot about that
It’s still first iso
Why am I so fucking stupid
This is not an algebra question
Please see #discussion
I ask myself this every day
two groups, $A$ and $B$, are said to be isomorphic if there exists an isomorphism $\phi\colon A \to B$. the existence of an isomorphism $\phi$ implies the existence of an isomorphism $\phi^{-1}\colon B \to A$, thereby making isomorphism symmetric. for every group A, there exists an isomorphism $f\colon A \to A$, making every group isomorphic to itself, meaning isomorphism is reflexive. transitivity is a property of equivalence relations that can be proved via symmetry (a ~ b ~ c is the same as a ~ c ~ b, therefore a ~ c)
nonpost
:o
my tildes were stolen
For symmetry, it works but would be better stated along the lines of "since phi is an iso, with inverse phi^{-1}, then so is phi^{-1}, with inverse phi" or something like that idk.
For reflexive, what isomorphism always works? For any group A?
For transitivity, you just need to show that if f and g are isos, then so is gf. That is, f and g bijective implies gf is, and f and g homomorphism implies gf is (this suffices in this case)
the proof of transitivity is icky
Like you have the ideas but details are 
forgot to write that i was referring to the isomorphism that maps every element to itself
Wait, yeah, I don’t buy the proof of transitivity?
It seems like to make that work you already need transitivity
there's a reason we list it seperately from symmetry
le skeleton has arrived
i would've sworn that transitivity would be defined in terms of symmetry (it looks like it atleast
)
Nope
if transitivity were defined in terms of symmetry etc there'd be no reeason to demand equivalence relations to be transitive
you've shown that symmetry and already knowing that a ~ b ~ c imples a ~ c ~ b
I think
yeah my thought process was "ok if symmetry means that the placing of the two elements in the relation doesn't matter, then it seems to me like you can just switch b and c"
Symmetry should look like demanding inverses
Reflexivity is like demanding identity
And transitivity is demanding composition
And this is for every equivalence relation not just isomorphism
Calculus of equiv relations
Transitivity is separate from symmetry
Since having inverses doesn’t really mean composition makes sense
ohhhh that makes sense
Don't educate the children. We cannot let them become too powerful
i was thinking of transitivity in terms of symmetry and not like composition
unless we are making HSCTs
i wish i was an HSCT
Usually (tho not always) we don't add redundant statements to definitions
can I take the nerve of this
I.e. ones that can be derived from the other requirements
I mean it kinda literally is
yeah I suppose
you can shove it into a category if you really want
unique morphism between a, b if and only if a ~ b
I was thinking type-y
and then take the nerve of that - cool
Hurr durr
stfu don't bully me nerd
Dumbassssssssss
I was thinking a -> b is proofs of P(a, b)
Just waiting for Eric to tell me off for this too
honestly i'm just happy that i managed to get it mostly correct and not make it completely unreadable
yeah 2/3 is pretty good
Don't kid yourself tho transitivity was unreadable
But decent otherwise
I rate 5.75/10
I rate 5/7
29% is enough to be a good model, according to music theorists
Geoffrey
what do musicians have to do with model theory?
Agustín
Nothing good 
i suppose that's a given when you don't fully understand how transitivity works lmao
They have a lot to do with @dim widget though: https://link.springer.com/book/10.1007/978-3-0348-8141-8#:~:text=Topos of Music is an,different levels of musical description.
we should bring one of these people to an empty stadium and watch tteg choke them out
can i just consider submodules of the form (0, …, 0, h_i, 0, …) where h_i in H_i and is in the i-th spot
I am in favor
then each such submodule is isomorphic to its corresponding H_i
ik i can do this in the finite case but what abt arbitrary?
yur sounds right
sick
Yeah, big swag
sunglasses emoji
This also IMO is the dumbest shit ever and this notion of internal direct sum should be slaughtered
This is what im clowning with the 29% btw
use the definition of internal direct sum using the uhhh funny trivial intersection and whatever
This seems like a fucking dumb question
:(
i think the notion of external semidirect product should be erased from history
Not you
:(
Your mom is a funny trivial intersection
🙁☹️
I’m not convinced the grammar is right here it’s hard for my logibrain to read
Like it's basically just that you can identify H_i with 0 x 0 x ... x H_i x ... 0
intersection of u and the set of bitches is trivial
It’s absolutely a cringe question though
Like why is this notion of internal direct sum needed. No use for it
im gonna screenshot this convo and send it to my prof
No
same goes for internal anythings lol
im gonna tell him that mathcord thinks his question is cringe
he will retire
quick what's the definition of an internel semidirect product
and probably just delete his cv
Direct sum should be categorical
G = NH with N normal H a subgroup and N\cap H = {1} 
Categorical logic in shambles
mmm yes mmmm direct sum of modules is a coproduct mmmm yes mmmmmmd
NERDDDDDDDDDDDDDDDDDDDDDDDDD
delicious mmmmm
CV mention!!!!!!!!!!111?1!111!!1111
OMG COLLATZ REFERENCE????? 2n+1 referenxe????????
shoutout to the mayans
Bro clowning wrong it was Babylonians
I wonder if he's still in this server
☝️🤓
i thought torsion was gonna be some super cool sick definition
because its got a sick name
:/
yeah it's just "zero divisor but module"
booooo
torsion is cool wtf are u on about
No
i thought the definition would be way cooler
When your testicles are an abelian group with elements of finite order: 😱😱😱😱😱😱😱😱
Have you ever heard of a little book called torsion theories by Golan 🫦
the coolest things have the simplest definitions
venture bros reference
????
What lol
what
I was just free styling a testicular torsion joke
Episode 10 Clip 6
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venture bros invented testicular torsion
🫦
they are the cause of my suffering
Torsion free simple group of finite Morley rank
u keep making up these words bro
Btw if anyone knows one dm 
(This is a counterexample to a conjecture)
the uhhh the erm...
Cer-something-Zil’ber conjecture
Relating stable groups and algebraic groups
In particular, finite Morley rank ones
In model theory, a stable group is a group that is stable in the sense of stability theory.
An important class of examples is provided by groups of finite Morley rank (see below).
it’s the omega stable simple groups so uhh
Using only the axioms of a field, do we have to prove that 1 + 1 = 2? We don’t right, since that’s the definition of 2?
Yes that's by definition
Basically if you have a countably infinite subset, then there’s only countably many complete types (as opposed to larger, like the upper bound of 2^N)
So there’s countably many kinda characterizations of things you can do using those elements
(Complete types meaning you have either p or -p in it for each formula p, so it’s like deductively complete)
Think restricting the cardinality of Spec B for the Boolean algebra associated with the formulas
what a cool defn, let's never define this externally
(i hate the external semidirect product)
Complete types are like characterizations of what something should be (if it exists) I think?
Very polynomial root-ish
let G be a finite group and H_1 and H_2 be isomorphic subgroups
then is G/H_1 isomorphic to G/H_2
in other words is there an automorphism of G mapping H_1 to H_2
try prove it.
o
fusion moment
this isn't true btw
o
oh lawdddd what's a circulation again
I have absolutely no idea what that means 
o oops
it's a me problem not a you problem
im confused whats a counter
oh EWWWWWWWWWWW
kirchhoff
bro it's physics
ok gradually reding through this and it almost smells like graph homology
u smell like graph homology
yeah probably
how do I show $$\sum_{n = 1}^\infty (-1)^{n+1} \frac{\left(\sum_{k=0}^\infty \frac{x^k}{k!}\right)^n}{n} = x$$
oh wait yeah this IS just homology, the B_H is exactly the (generating set for the) 1-boundaries
Holy shit lil bro stop trying to prove them directly
Infinite sums of infinite sums is never fun
hmm
wait
I want to use this
see first sentence for h(X) = f(g(X))
can I argue that it's true in R
and so the formal power series match up?
can someone provide a counterexample pls
G = Z, H_1 = 2Z, H_2 = 3Z
ye but thats infinite
well thats helpful anyways, interesting
Hmmm
take G = Z_2 \oplus Z_4 and ur two subgroups to be (1, 0) and (0, 2)
fucking beat my meat to it
quotients are Z_4 and Z_2 x Z_2
wth whys maf so hard
sigh
but at least like u said, if the subs are isomorphic thru automorphism, then ur good
mb
it's true for finite dimensional vector spaces tho
wat
"did you guys know that if n-a = n-b then a = b"
no.
well now you do
wait actually
how would this work
cuz you need a field
obviously H^n/H^k=H^n-k
but is H^n/H'=H^n-k where H' is isomorphic to H^k
even better it's true for finite dimensional subspaces of arbitrary vector spaces
holy guacamole!
what is
does Diestel even know group theory
quotients of sets don't corrispond to a substructure
you can probably still do it using some stupid universal property
Bro just reason about power series for these
tbh I don't even know why ln and exp are inverses in R and I don't really care to find out
You can say things about power series in fairly general ways
how
he just did.
is this even true
where
here...
but how
nvm, im just pulling your leg
What’s the power series for ln and exp
that's the thing I'm trying to show 
Notice: where are the coefficients
it's a power series with coefficients in Q my friend. this equality should then make sense because it holds in R
I was trying to lead him to looking what the coefficients are
so basically what I said here? #groups-rings-fields message
And how they aren’t essential Q_p
if stuck check the book's proof
yeah sure but specifically you need that the coefs are in Q
Yeah
Yeah because that’s what it should be
shuri gets what I'm asking
I mean sure you maybe could show it
but uhhh
infinite sum of power of infinite sum?
I'd rather not
but yeah the argument that it's true in Q works right?
please its a little algebra.
(idk why it works. Let's just trust that it does)
okay then enlighten me
prove it with that
just symbolab it...
if the first 1000 cancel id trust the rest would
yes
ok good
neither, just give up 
It works over Q gg, therefore just check convergence makes sense
Yeah convergence is ez
i think thi sums it up well enough
strongest wins 💪
but yeah, the proper way is to reason about a particular power and why it dies
right???
Is this not some shit about Q being dense in Q_p or some shit
- continuity or something idk
idfk
Something something “holds in R cuz of calculus, these power series are the same so holds in Q so holds in Q_p by continuity and density”
probably
Why do we need continuitiy and density
To extend the result from Q to all of Q_p
actually true
You’re asserting that fg=id on a dense subset and if fg is continuous this means it’s true everywhere
Z dense in itself moment
I don't believe this
but fg = id is false for all of Q
ln(1+x)=power series doesn't converge everywhere
he's got a point!!!!
Whatever, it holds on the part it converges in and that’s dense in the part of Q_p it converges in
I say it because ilum said it meant Z was complete and Ultra btfo’d him for saying he intuited analysis
uhh wat
ln(1+x) converges in the open disk around 0
in Q
Let Q_cool be the part of Q where it converges and the composition is equal to id
Then Q_cool is dense in (Q_p)_cool and then blah blah or something like that
Q_p_cool?

pass through the completion
Ah
I supose it would aktually be better notated as Q_cool_p 🤓
Why did that get through to him
I have no fucking idea
bro is categorically minded
time zone FAIL
I learned a fair bit via category or type nonsense too so 
HSCT really does change mfs
I am more ok with continous functors commuting with limits then I am with continous functions commuting with limits
ok just to clarify this is another way of proving that f(g(x)) = h(x) right? using the theorem and arguing that f(g(X)) = h(X) because it's true in Q also works yes?
I don’t… I don’t know what you mean
My point is just that shit is continuous and so you can prove the identity on a dense subset
You can do that on the part that lives in Q cuz it’ll be dense
To prove it there you appeal to calculus
how do I show that ln_p(exp_p(X)) = X as formal power series? can I just argue that it's clearly true in Q?
a priori I'm saying that we know that it's true in Q or R or whatever
You’re trying to show this identity right?

