#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 150 of 1
Z_p is the closure of Z
since (-)a is continuous
Z_p a=(Z_p)a =(Z closure)a is contained in closure (Za) contained in closure (ZH) contained in H if a is in H
and if Z_p a is contained in H for all a and H is a subgroup it's clear H is an ideal
what does this prove
can't I just say the set G of all generators (of this group) is G={x | (x,202)=1}={2n+1| n in N, n<100, n=/= 50}? I don't feel like writing out all 100 odd non-101 numbers.
n.b. famous and easy lemma, a map f:X-->Y is continuous if and only if f(closure K) is contained in closure (f(K)) for all K sub X
if x_n converges to x' in H then ax_n converges to something else in H
So I'm asked to determine all finite groups with exactly two conjugacy classes. Am I correct in thinking that, since one of the conjugacy classes is always the singleton {e} that the other should contain the other n - 1 elements. But since the size of a conjugacy class is a divisor of the size of the group, this is impossible, so there are no such finite groups?
generators of Z/nZ are just the elements of the multiplicative subgroup
C_2 has two conjugacy classes
exactly phi(n) of them
Oh, duh, if there's only 2 elements then it does work out
there you go
Thanks
good proof otherwise!
average wew proof
I mean, yeah, that's basically what I'm saying.
but for the specific case
I have not seen a sequence outside of a colimit in 3 years

ewwwww your topology is based off analysis ewwwwwwwwwwwwww
Oh you have a closed set? What polynomials does it satisfy? 
b....bbased.....
the only topological space I need is \mathcal{N}(E(G)) can a brotha relate
No sorry :(
nerve of (something) of a group G?
that's ok I don't think that is what I meant anyway
unviersal covering space of BG is what I meant
anyways @formal ermine this I think is a clear explanation if you don't understand Wew's
E(G) is the category with Ob(E(G)) = {g \in G} and one morphism between two dudes (given by multiplying by g^-1g')
yeah my proofs universally have a very "stream of consciousness" writing style that the literature PhDs don't take too fondly to
Two dudes having a morphism? I'm happy for them
two dudes sitting in a hot tub five morphisms apart cause they're not gay
ahh yeah this makes more sense
but what was the book going for with the first thing
I explained...
same thing
you can't just go straight to Z_p a contained in H for all a in H
you need to use the argument about continuity
god, it would help to read the proof before I start memeing on illum huh
I thought the multiplication part was just to get that it's more than a group, it's an ideal
right
oh wait yeah this is really obvious, if the sequence isn't eventually constant it has to go to zero
which is in H
wait okay really dumb question but how do we know that it's continuous from that
a function is continous if and only if it commutes with limits
Lipschitz continuity
yur
saw that , you said functor at first
i mean also true
thanks guys
the function x ---> xa
yeee
I said function changed it to functor then changed it back as a little treat for the fans in the back
|f(x)-f(y)|=|a||x-y| with |a|<=1 means |f(x)-f(y)| <= |x-y|, you can think for all epsilon you pick delta=epsilon now
wait x -> x|a| or x -> xa?
x -> xa is continous
I hope x -/-> x|a| since they are not in the same set
I don't want to think about interpreting |a| p-adically
nor does that make sense really (i guess they are in the same set tho in Q_p a tleast idfk)
"find the number of generators for Z/49000Z"
duh, just phi(49000)
yes, that can be calculated (16800) using prime factors and such, but that seems quite the dull problem lol
yeah
,, phi(49000)
"dull problem" yeah that sounds like D&F
you should think of it as a nonnegative real number yeah
x ---> xa of course.
yeah ok
x ----------------> xa naturally
at least it reminded me how to calculate the totient function
we don't want Z_p |a| in H, we want Z_p a in H
cat very sad, was discriminatory against |a|
we love permutations of 4 letter words lol
are there any of the topics here that i'd be able to handle after only learning group theory(part 2 in this book) the book is by gallian
like i know sylow theorem could be covered with only knowledge of group theory but for rest of the chapters i'm not so sure
idk try reading and finding out
all of them except maybe 32 and 33 if you don't know about fields
but yeah
just give it a go
at least the first couple yeah
oh okay thanks
i was self studying gallian and am quite a bit through part 2 on groups
Crystallographic groups immediately after generators and relators 🤨 interesting pedagogy
wondered if i could study some part 5 topics before going on to rings
surprised they have Sylow theorems in "special topics" 
yur they're fairly fundemental
Hmm a lot of symmetry
how is this characterization of projective modules different from free modules?
is it just that there's no guarantee on uniqueness?
Well maybe an example would be good
Consider the projective Z/6-module M = Z/3
There's just a single map phi you need. It'll send 1 in M to 2 in R
So it's a bit like a free module, but there are coordinates missing.
Does that kinda make sense?
But yes in essence it is the uniqueness that causes issues. If the values phi_i(x) were unique with that property then they would be free.
what do you mean by some coordinates are missing?
So ok.
R = Z/6, M = Z/3.
My elements will be just the element 1 in M
The map phi will be phi(1) = 1
Wait hold on I just need to think for a sec. I'm making a mistake but I need to check where
phi(1) = 2, phi(2) = 4, phi(0) = 0? or is that not it
OK I'm going to write M in a different way to make something a little clearer.
I'm going to write M = 2Z/6Z. It's the same module but writing it as Z/3Z obscures the action of the ring a little bit.
M = {0+6Z,2+6Z,4+6Z} if you want to be even more explicit
So this time the element that I'm looking at is gonna be 2 in M. The corresponding map phi : M → R ought to be described by phi(2) = 4. Note it's 4! It's a bit weird Then it should be clear that, phi(2)2 = 4x2 = 2 in Z/6Z, phi(4)2 = 2x2 = 4 in Z/6Z. (fixed a bad typo)
So if we wanted to think of these a_i as a 'basis' and the phi_i as functions picking out the coordinates, then there are coordinates 'missing': in the projective Z/6-module 2Z/6, there is no element m with phi(m)=1, for example.
why is 4*2 = 6 in Z/6Z
What's 4 times 2
8
Oh did I just write 6 instead of 2 mb
lol
It should ofc just be 2
ye ok
by the formula we need to hold
Anyway you haven't really talked about the substance of my explanation so if you do have any qns about that then ping me or sth idk
why is it that phi(2) = 4 and not 2?
Doesn’t satisfy the definition
can you not have phi(2) = 2, so that phi(2)*4 = 8 = 2 in Z/6Z and phi(4) = 4, so that phi(4) * 4 = 4 in Z/6Z?
I need to go so I will respond later
ye
defines the unique map from {2} to itself
1 has to to go to something which satisfies 3x = 0 because 3 = 0 in Z/3
This forces 1 to go to either 2 or 4
well rather it's 2Z/6 -> Z/6
I fixed a bad typo in the message, funnily enough the arithmetic worked out
Might want to check again
Anyway uh Boytjie
Why is Z/3Z a projective Z/6Z module?
I do not believe it is
It has torsion lol
any torsion enjoyers?
I thought it is because it's a direct summand of free module
How is it a direct summand?
for 1 hour
if it has torsion it can't be
There’s also a characterization for when a quotient of a ring is projective
And it’s when the ideal you quotient by is principal, generated by an idempotent
eg it must be of the form R x S -> R
Z/6 is free module over itself right?
Yes
wait chmonkey does it have torsion?
1 is killed by 3
3 is a zero divisor
Hmm
Then Z/6 = Z/3 \osum Z/2, it's fine?

yeah I agree with :3c on this one now
What the fuck is (0,1) under that decomposition?
It has to square to itself mod 6
It’s 3
4
I suppose 4 would be (1,0)
also chinese remainder theorem lol
😂🔫
are you guys done
I thought (1,0) would be 2
It doesn’t square to itself
Oh wait
I'm never done I'm on the run I got a gun fly to the sun yuh yuh yuh yuh

okay
a ring R is left noetherian iff it satisfies the property that the direct sum of any family of injective R-modules is injective
i proved the --> part
<-- is impossible form e
for me*
Lmfao
Is that why phi(2)=4 and not 2?
This one is gonna be rough
Idk ¯_(ツ)_/¯ I don’t understand
Yes I saw it before
just see it then too
You show that every ideal is finitely generated by assuming the opppsite
yea thats what i had in mind
I think the answer is basically 'Chinese Remainder Theorem' lol
and then u get some chain
and doing some crap taking injective hulls to extend a map and shit
Boy said phi(2) can't be 2, but idk why still
ik that (n) is an injective R-module
right?
whenever n is in R
cuz u can extend any map
by sending 1 to n
If ultimately the thing wasn’t finitely generated you would end up with an element inside of an infinite direct sum which is non-zero in infinitely many places
Like there's a decomposition of 1 in Z/6Z as the sum of two idempotents, and the relevant idempotent here is 4, right?
Yeah there you go
4 is the idempotent that works
1 = 3 + 4 describes the isomorphism Z/6Z = Z/3Z (+) Z/2Z
if R is not noetherian
So that's where it comes from
just a direct sum of injective modules
that need not to be injective
i am terrible with examples for injective modules
i can only think of divisible abelian groups
wait... the chinese remainder theorem.... is an idempotent decomposition....
can I do block theory on this
Babe yes
any hot babes?
Let me think of the proof
okay king
thank you for yoru time
your*
i literally googled the whole fucking problem
and i just got a paper that describes some results from the theorem
rather than the main theorem itself
and i found some stackexchange post on whatever
This whole conversation is gold

this is so fucking c honestly
Hehe just saw this
Hehehehehehe
yea its just cuz Z/6 is jusut Z/2 and Z/3
as Z/6 modules
both Z/2 and Z/3 are projective Z/6 modules
so true bestie...
yea algebra is p hard tbh
i am in semisimple rings and just
everything is collapsing
semisimple rings are the nice ones
Okay yes
The issue is that the representation is not unique, this is a rephrasing of what it means to be a summand of a free module
So take an infinite ascending chain I_0 < I_1 < …
"every module is projective" uhhh yes please???
ok
Let I = U_0^infinity I_n
Let E_n be an injective module containing R/I_n
Consider the map f:I -> (+)_0^infinity E_n
I -> R -> R/I_n -> E_n
It’s the map defined like, into the direct sum of all of these
Yes
okay so this is injective
This actually lands in the direct sum
so ur seq is exact
wdym,
The image of everything actually will have all but finitely many coordinates be 0
Because any x in I is only not in finitely many I_n
okay so
slowly cuz im bad
I is the union
of ur ascending chain
so any element of I
would not be present in only finitely many I_ns
Yes
so the image of that x is?
x + I_n
And then we include R/I_n into E_n
This gives us maps I -> E_n which then gives a map I -> Prod_0^infinity E_n
But the image actually lands in the direct sum
wdym actually lands
yea i can see the maps now
so u get a map from I to ur infinite direct sum
okay so f(x) is in that direct sum
is it cuz of the map E_n --> direct sum ?
like the inclusion map?
or what :d
Do you know what the difference between the direct sum and direct product is?
yea
Then it’s because each element lies in all but finitely many I_n
So the result f(x) is 0 in all but finitely many places
oh yeah
yeah mb i just thought of
that htey are dual thats it i forgot about that
cuz we are
dealing with
infinite
indices
mb sorryh
okay so yeah this f(x) is in the direct sum now
Okay so the direct sum is injective and so this map extends along I -> R to give a map f:R -> (+)E_n
yea
Now consider f(1) = e
whats e
f(1)
okay
ok
Whatever, so for n > N, e_n = 0
So now, for x in I, f(x) is equal to (x + I_0, x + I_1,…)
By construction
But also f(x) = x•f(1) = x•e
So this means for all n > N, f(x)_n is 0
This means that x + I_n = 0
But this holds for all x in I, which forces I = I_n for all n > N
But that contradicts the fact that the chain was an infinite ascending chain
yea
yea this is insane honestly i would never have got that
gotten
okay so you supposed you have an infinite ascending chain , let I be their union , then any element of x would not be present in (atmost) finitely many I_n, okay so define E_ns to be the injective hulls of R/I_ns , so we have I --> R/I_ns --> E_ns ---> infinite direct sum of E_ns ( which is injective )
so we can extend the map to the whole ring to the direct sum of E_ns
since this is an infinite direct sum f(1) would be 0 for all but a finite number of coordinates ?
is that correct
incorrect? :d
why is it that if sigma is in Gal(E/k) then its restriction to B is an automorphism of B? is this always true of field isos?
also idgi why lemma A-3.98 lets us deduce the rho map is surjective, here's the lemma in question
also where do they use that E/k is normal, I'm getting KO'd by this proof
If L/E/K and L/K is galois and E is normal, then the restriction of any \sigma: L \to L to E gives an automorphism of E
This is because \sigma permutes the roots of polynomials with coefficients in K, and by the definition of normality E is the splitting field of a polynomial with coefficients in K, so it is generated by the roots of this one polynomial
right, if alpha is a root of f so is sigma of alpha, so you have to send E to E
I think I got confused because a result like that was proven in narrower scope
well, makes sense because it only works here because B is normal and normal extensions just got defined
still dont understand how the surjectivity of rho follows from that lemma and I still don't think we've used the normality of E/k yet?
Any polynomial has only finitely many roots and for functions on finite sets injective=surjective
Ah, sorry I misread you. Yeah for surjectivity you want to use that you can always extend homomorphisms in normal extensions
You can do this by induction / Zorn's lemma
Proof is similar to how you would prove that algebraic closures are unique
wait wait, you are spiraling down a path that seems too complicated for this question
I think the logic is that E/k is normal, so it is also normal over E/B (?) now we think of B as base field and we have iso B -> B, so there is an extension E -> E by lemma A-3.98
okay I think this works
Yes exactly
Can you get a "feld" by taking the definition of a field and removing the necessity for a multiplicative identity, like how you get a rng by removing the identity from a ring?
So addition is a group, multiplication is an associative quasigroup
Well yeah you certainly could define that
And it would still have exactly two ideals if it’s nonzero
I have no idea how well-behaved it would be. The modules over such a thing may be a bit freaky
Yeah
then that's not really removing it from the definition but doing smth else imitating a field lol
It would be nice to find an interesting example of such a thing. I'm struggling to come up with an example in my head.
wait are we assuming multiplication is commutative?
if that's the case I think if it's nonzero it's just a field
This just randomly popped into my head while walking btw, there is no motivation here
because like
solving xa=a
and yb=b
you get
xab=ab
and also
my wifi died back on phone
anyway
Yeah I can't think of anything either
yab=yba=ba=ab
Nah I think it was discord
so x(ab)=y(ab)
and I'm pretty sure ab isn't zero provided a and b aren't
so x=y
i.e. the multiplicative identities for each nonzero element are the same
Nice argument. And indeed such a per-element identity exists. Neat.
actually not sure sure about this now 
Well it's required, right?
We require F\{0} to be the quasigroup, so it's by definition
nonzero elements quasigroup
if indeed we are defining it to be so
ok yeah so just fields
Yeah
It's like how for a ring:
R, + is a group
R, * is a monoid
Then you turn that into a rng:
R, + is a group
R, * is a semigroup
So in a similar process you take a field:
R, + is a group
R, * is a group
And turn it into a "feld":
R, + is a group
R, * is an associative quasigroup

Reasonable reaction
Now what about a ringoid or fieldoid: multiplication is a semigroupoid :^)
But an associative quasigroup is just a group right?
Disregarding the empty set I suppose
With associativity you can prove that a/a is an identity no?
uh
ea = a does not imply eb = b
I showed above that
an associative abelian quasigroup is an abelian group
basically
unpacking it all
But without commutativity, that doesn’t work

dense subrings are so cool
Let e be such that ae = a. Then we have aeb = ab and dividing by a in the left gives eb = b
So ex = x for all x

Then same argument gives that there is an e' such that xe' = x and then e = ee' = e'

I am torn between this being 🧠 or 
I already mentioned the empty set
ik
yo quick bad question
most of the stuff in this image is garbage
let D be a divisoin ring why and V be a vec space over this division ring , why is Hom_D(V,V) artinian?
Last year I was creating problem sets for a group theory class, I felt very cheeky because I had an exercise that was
- Blabla [alternate definition of group, where you have division but don't require identities] prove that this is equivalent to the normal definition
- Show that your proof in exercise 1 was wrong by giving a counter example
I assume V is f.d. ?
Well then same argument as for vector spaces right
Is it? Can you elaborate?
who cares about quasigroups
yes
Finitely generated module over artinian ring is artinian
dimension in a chain of subspaces can only increase/decrease finitely many times
yea
thats what
thats not
what i had in mind xd
its a free D-module so its a direct sum of a noetherian ring ( D )
hence notherian
correct?
Sure, but also artinian implies noetherian (for rings)
do all mods that aren't integral domains solve for every zero divisor in a ring? if I have a ring R how can I pick a mod that will give me every zero divisor? hopefully that makes sense
ask them
no it does not
how can I find every zero divisor of a ring?
It depends on the ring
hm. I see
in general it is hard
if R is left artinian and a dense subring of Hom_D(V,V)
why does it equal Hom_D(V,V)?
i can prove that V has finite dim over D
a cute trick that may help to know is if you have an idempotent (other than 0 and 1) then you have a zero divisor. try showing that
oh wow, that's super interesting
thank you
if you show what you get,
someone more awake than me might show you some useful things to do with it too
Welp, this one will be going in the "weird homemade algebraic structures" pile. Next to the 3-way number line and the "field" with >2 binary operations that each distribute in a chain.
recently was thinking of revisiting the concept of a kind of "group" with an n-ary operator inspired by how the group law on an elliptic curve works, this is probably already a thing though
Yeah, groups with n-ary operations are in that pile too
I need like 2 more years of algebra minimum before I can talk about these seriously
instead of a degree 3 plane curve with 2 pts on it having a line intersect at a 3rd point, instead have a degree d curve with d-1 points on it and make a curve through that, since it'd give you a unique point... but you'd be restricted from what you can actually put in it, so it's kinda garbage
Actually I'll bring up the 3-way number line again, just for laughs. This came to me while I was biking home from high school: "what if instead of 2 signs (+1, -1) we had 3?" I imagined a Y-shaped number line, with (+1, -1, :1) as the directions.
Addition on this structure turned out to be hard to define, with it ending up being a unitial magma with non-unique inverses. I wanted 1 + :1 = 0 and 1 + -1 = 0 to be both true, but also -1 + :1 = 0.
Multiplication was okay, it's just like the 3rd roots of unity in C.
the 4 way number line is clearly better 
i mean srsly tho - so your addition takes you away from the origin if same sign, else towards the origin?
thonk
does that work well 😵💫
(:1 + 1) + -1 = -1
:1 + (1 + -1) = :1

absolutely no idea what this means ^
TRUE
im looking for a group isomorphism to show using the first isomorphism theorem that
$\mathbb{R}/\mathbb{Z}, + \cong { z \in \mathbb{C} | |z| = 1}$, can anyone give a hint or help me on my way?
NotAPenguin
Hint: think about e^x.
\left\{ z \in \mathbb{C} \mid \lvert z \rvert = 1 \right}
||(and think about what your complex group on the rhs represents geometrically)||
NotAPenguin
Hmm no that won't do
$\phi(x) = e^{i \pi x} - 1$ has $ker(\phi) = 2\mathbb{Z}$ so I think just making it $\phi(x) = e^{i \pi 2x} - 1$ should do the trick no?
what is the identity in S^1 = { x in C | |x| = 1 }?
NotAPenguin
Right
Is this simply 1?
step 1. rewrite in seximal and recognize that all generators of subgroups equal to <1> are congruent to +-1 (mod 10), i.e. all numbers ending in 1 or 5. Step 2. use an array to mark multiples to minimize work. We love long problems.
your group iso is from R/Z to C*
so the output is in C*
It is, but that is irrelevant, 1 is the identity of the second group, and that's the identity that matters when calculating the kernel.
NotAPenguin
Prove it.
Alright, so $\phi(x) = e^{i \pi 2x} = 1 \iff cos(2 \pi x) + i sin (2 \pi x) = 1$. If $x \in \mathbb{Z}$, then we get $\phi(x) = cos(2 \pi x) + 0 = 1$. Also is ${cos(2 \pi x) + i sin (2 \pi x)} \cong {z \in \mathbb{C} | |z| = 1}$
I guess this is kinda just writing out the definitions and maybe not a great proof 🤔
Why is this an exercise. It's just incredibly long for no reason
NotAPenguin
I've elected to "write out" the form of the elements as a set with a rule, rather than all of them by hand, as well as define an equivalence class between all generators which generate the same subgroups.
[<x>]={ n | n generates <x>}
just because I can.
so instead, I'm using the minimal member of the EC as a representative, and writing out the form of each subgroup, i.e.
[<3>]={6n+3 | n in N, n < 48}
<3> = {3n | n in N}
I feel like at that point it should be clear enough you understand it that you don't need to write anything down
just a sublattice of Z under gcd innit or whatever
yes, but my teacher decided I should do every example in the textbook, with only minor modification to instructions. (autodidact joke)
well just... don't
why not? I have little better to do.
Don't listen to new user Wew Lads Tbh, he's still getting used to the server
I could. There's still some structure I'm teasing out of this one tho. It's getting me back into using seximal.
sex
not yet. math first.
like how to describe the set {4, 20, 28, 44} as a rule. now it's a little mini side puzzle because I'm dumb and want symmetry in my writing
me: counting up generators and realizing I only have 47 [insert panik meme]
also me: 0 can't be a generator [kalm]
That's a lot of generators..
yeah this is really dumb
but it's good to use this exercise as a chance to unlearn the notation $Z_n$ for the group $\mathbb{Z}/n\mathbb{Z}$

Topos_Theory_E-Girl
Z/nZ > Zn
I mean, the text only just introduced Z_n as an isomorphic group to Z/nZ as a way to make things more convenient. Thusfar it's all been Z/nZ
Z/n > Cn > Zn
it's more convenient because then if you forget one piece of notation you can still use the other
genius
I'm not sure where I'd put In along there but maybe between Cn and Zn
going to tell my kids this is what error correcting codes was
What rotman uses
Bruh
Z/nZ > Z/(n) > Z/n > C_n
it's not even worth mentioning Z_n
"Integers mod n" thanks rotman
Z/nZ > Z/(n) > Z/n >〈x|x^n〉> Cn > Zn > In
ranking <x|x^n> higher than C_n
all of the first three are also used for the ring
We use Z for (Z, +) and (Z, +, ×) anyways
Wow you really hate In that much?
in fact Z/(n) is literally the notation for quotienting by an ideal
Ye which is pog
overloading notation is not "p"og
Z/pog
Abuse of notation 
Overloading notation 
I like Z/n
hi potato
Exactly matches what we say, has 0 ambiguity and is the quickest to write besides Z_n which has other meanings and isn't obviously a quotient
Hi!
he's finally learned
also the correct notation, ofc

Yeah basically. It was an intuitive way to do it at the time, I was picturing a sort of "pulling" motion. Where you pull on the end of one of the lines, and the other two get dragged through 0 onto that line. So :1 + 2 = 1
No lol
what is the form of 1/x for a number in Z adjoin root 2?
you'll find you might be able to perform some algebraic manipulations through rational conjugates
of course, you have to ensure the end result is a polynomial in root 2 with only integer coefficients, but that simply means you need a particular form for your free variables a and b in your element (a+bx) using x as a substitute for root 2
alternatively, you can use the fact that you need N(x) = \pm 1 for it to be a unit and then show that N(a+b\sqrt(2)) = a^2-2b^2 = \pm 1 has an infinite amount of solutions
where can I find proof that the number of abelian groups of order at most x is asymptotic to Cx+O(sqrt x) where C=zeta(2)zeta(3)...?
there is the paper by Erdös and Szekeres which is short, but it's in German
how do you show the "has infinite number of solutions" part
the last sentence of the #advanced-algebra channel description says that group theory is allowed if it’s beyond what’s in a typical first course
💀
as opposed to a poorly defined homomorphism. (I know, but it's funny)
just learn german, ez
I've found an easier way
recall that the product of two units is a unit, and that 1+sqrt(2) is a unit (inverse given by -1+sqrt(2))
so we can just take the family (1+sqrt(2))^n to be our infinite set of units
send it and I'll translate it
alright
give me like
20 mins
nvm this is gonna take longer
on page 3 now
page 4
Theres quite some people that can potentially beneffit from what you are doing, so take your time 🙂
almost done with page 6
bro is a miracle worker
@rotund aurora https://illuminator3.github.io/On the amount of abelian groups of a given order and a related number theoretic problem.pdf let me know if this is what you were looking for / if you find any typos
A is a ring, and S is a multipliciative subset. If I have two S^-1 A-modules M and N, any A-module homomorphism M --> N is automatically also an S^-1 A-module homomorphism no?
Yes, in fact I guess this is just functoriality of S^-1(-)
oh so true thanks
my proof uses the actual construction of S^-1 M, I wonder, could one show functoriality using only the universal property?
Hm functoriality is part of the universal property right at least to me
Anyway you can just do this by hand with the actual construction as you say yeah
It's probably clearest lol
I get how you can find $y_j \equiv (\text{mod} \medspace \alpha_j)$, but how can you find $y_j$ such that $y_j \equiv 0 \medspace (\text{mod} \medspace \alpha_i)$ for $i \neq j$ if the process only describes how to find what it says above similarly if that makes any sense
okeyokay
yeah, thank you!
will read it tomorrow tho
Honestly, when I asked I was half joking and didn't expect you to do it lmao
I suggest tho that you put the names of the authors and say that this is a translation of the original paper or something.
So a1 + a2 = A, so you can find b1 in a1 and b2 in a2 such that b1+b2 = 1. Then b2 = 1 - b1 is 1 modulo a1 and 0 modulo a2. Similarly you can find b3 that is 1 modulo a1, but 0 modulo a3, etc.
Then the product b2 * b3 * ... will be 1 modulo a1, but 0 modulo ai for all other i. Then choose this product to be y1.
Then define the other ys similarly
let D be a division ring
V be a vec space ( with infinite dim )
consider Hom_D(V,V)
define I = { f in Hom_D(V,V) | dim(img(f)) < infinity }
why is this an ideal
only when dim(V) is infinite
dim(img is just the rnak btw
rank*
I'm confused what the question is
.
when dim V is finite this is clearly an ideal
If V is finite this is just the whole ring
^
yes
(which is an ideal)
why is this an ideal when dimV is infinite sorry
Wait that's a different question again
i meant i am asking only in the inifnite dim case :d
Oh
mb
bad phrasing
okay the question is
prove that I is an ideal
given that dim V is infinite
Well
So im(fg) is contained in im(f)
note that im(f + g) is contained in im(f) + im(g)
Like basically the way I would view this is like
is it cuz like i can just take off the f out of the linear combinations?
f being the ring element
not sure what you mean
i just wrote out some linear combinations ( elements of the span )
So it being a right ideal should be clear. And g(im f) is the image of a finite dimensional space
But this is hopefully clear
yes
So it is also a left ideal
is g your ring element?
there are two rings at play
f,g are maps V -> V
in both of our notations
lol
i like how we have given complementary contributions to an answer
what i just tried was suppose g in Hom_D(V,V) and f is in I , the span of g(f(V)) would be just be linear combinations of g(f(elements)) which is the g( of something finite dim )
thats what jagr was saying i think
yes
cuz like
g(f(x1))+g(f(x2)) is just g(both
cuz g is linear uk
lol
its so simple lmfao im so stupid
xd
this is also like standard linear algebra if you pretend D is a field
fortunately everything still works
that's how i am thinking about it anyway lol
so this statement : 2- If D is a division ring, V is a D-vector space, and R is a dense subring of homD(V, V) , then R is a simple ring
is clearly false
with the ideal i gave right?
Is there anything in linear algebra that doesn't also work over division algebras?
regardless of the dimension of V
Surely there must be something
What does dense mean here?
a dense subring of Hom_D(V,V) is a subring that has the property that whenever U is a linearly independant subset of V and A is any subset of V then u have an element in that subring such that it sends each element to the other
( assuming ofc they have the same number of elements )
Hom_D(V,V) is a dense subring of itself
cuz take any linearly independant subset , consider the basis that contains it
Yeah, you probably need finite dimensional for that to be true
and then just define the map manually
by true you mean the statement i wrote above right
?
Yeah
yea thats prob what i meant
by infinite dim
cuz i had this problem in mine
its a prove or disprove problem
I imagine stuff with determinants would be messed up lol
for example
At least it is true that End(V) is a simple ring, haven't checked the dense stuff
and related tools
given V is finite dim?
or both
lol
sorry
or yeah
.
so to show this is false
i would assume that V has infinite dim
and then this ideal wouldnot be the whole ring
it would be proper
so im done
correct?
Yes
I'm not sure how you would apply wedderburn, but if V is infinite dimensional then it is not artinian yes
For any subspace U, {f | Im f < U} is a right ideal. Then just make an infinite chain of subspaces.
< is subspace right?
yes
Yeah
cool
tysm
i got it
suppose R is simple left artinian , then R is primitive
just a quick proof check guys
proof: suppose R is simple left artinian , then there exists a minimal left ideal call it J , we claim that J is faithful as an R-module.
proof: Ann(J) is a (two-sided) ideal of R ( since J is an R-module ) , so we have either Ann(J) is 0 or R
if its 0 then we are done , if Ann(J) is R then that implies Rj = 0 for all j , if J is the 0 ideal we are done , if not then rj is 0 for all nonzero j for all r , giving that j is contained in the zero ideal
which is a contradiction so Ann(J) must be 0?
is it gucci? i am bit skeptical as i literally did not use it being artinian other than having a minimal left ideal
and also
quite a bad questio
or nvm
elgato do you have to come up with the group yourself?
else you could just write down the group presentation for the dihedral group
it's an exercise from one of my ag book
what you wrote should be fine, I'd say
I'm stuck on (ii)... I have found a basis for $\mathbb{Q}(\theta)$, but it's really messy and even then I can't seem to write $i\sqrt{5}$ in that basis... Any tips?
sunnyside1
Maybe I should show that $[\mathbb{Q}(\theta)(i\sqrt{5}) : \mathbb{Q}(\theta)] = 1$?
sunnyside1
I mean doing this is equivalent
I don’t think there’s a clever way to do it, you probably just have to stare at the element and figure out how to get the element
Alternatively you can show that Q(theta) is degree 6 so you’d want to write down theta’s minimal polynomial and then…
But that sounds painful
Yeah, I just had that idea... We know that $[\mathbb{Q}(\theta) : \mathbb{Q}] = 6$, and so if we can show that $[\mathbb{Q}(\theta)(i\sqrt{5}) : \mathbb{Q}] = 6$, then it would follow that $[\mathbb{Q}(\theta)(i\sqrt{5} : \mathbb{Q}(\theta)] = 1$.
sunnyside1
in principle it's straight forward, subtract isqrt(5) from both sides -> cube both sides -> factor out sqrt(-5) -> divide out what's left
I've already shown that the degree of the minimal polynomial of $\theta$ over $\mathbb{Q}$ is 6
sunnyside1
It's pretty scary though
what I described solves part ii
I've shown that $\theta$ has minimal polynomial $x^{6} - 5x^{4} - 4x^{3} - 25x^{2} + 20x + 129$ over $\mathbb{Q}$, which is irreducible over $\mathbb{Q}$ by reduction mod 5... But then the basis for $\mathbb{Q}(\theta)$ over $\mathbb{Q}$ is ${1, \theta, \theta^{2}, \theta^{3}, \theta^{4}, \theta^{5}}.$.. And that's scary
sunnyside1
do PDFs form a group under convolutions?
Over what domain? I'm not sure if there can always be an identity.
I guess unless the domain is discrete you'll need something like the dirac delta distribution to get an identity. Then you have to deal with convolutions of distributions, which sounds scary.
I did on the main page
Hi, my algebra textbook introduces division rings as a ring where each element has a multiplicative inverse, and then adds a quick note that this means that these rings have no zero divisors. I wasn't initally convinced this was obvious, so I tried to make a proof. Could someone check it and see if what I wrote isn't complete nonsense?
Suppose R is a nontrivial division ring with a zero divisor. Then take $x \neq 0 \in R$. Suppose x is a zero divisor. Then there is an $r \neq 0 \in R$ such that $xr = 0$ or $rx = 0$. Suppose $xr = 0$ (the other case is proven analogously). Because x has an inverse $x^{-1}$, we can write $x^{-1}xr = 0 . x^{-1} \rightarrow r = 0$, which contradicts the choice of r. Therefore x cannot be a zero divisor.
NotAPenguin
Yeah that works, as you’ve shown generally units cannot be zero divisors
Cool, thanks
4a)
is the faithful R-module going to be V?
with action phi o v = phi(v)
suppose cuz let f be in Ann(V)
or idk
how is the Ann(V) not just whole of R?
cuz just take one subset to be the element and one to be just {0}
wait
wtf im so stupid ig
f(v) = 0 --> v = 0
rihgt?
cuz its linear?
tf
im confused tbh any help?
i just find it instanly trivial cuz with Ann(V) we have fV = 0
which just implies f = 0 and thats it
but surely thats wrong idk why
every subring of Hom_D(V,V) is 1-fold transitive ig
Yes, f being in the annihilator means exactly f(V) = 0, which means f is 0. So V is always a faithful module. You need the transitivity part to prove that it is simple
No, D itself is a subring for example viewed as diagonal matricies.
Lmfao i forgot about simplicity lol
okay let me try it out
Thank you sm
the jacobson radical is literally fucking wild as fuck
If R is noncommutative and M and N are R-modules, can you define the product of M and N?
Indeed we can. You do it in exactly the same way as you would if R was commutative
How do you mean?
You might run into some issue defining internal product of submodules
mmh
But external product (i.e. categorical product), should work the exact same
so you are saying, take the set theoretic cartesian product MxN. The group structure is clear, now for the R-action, do r(m,n)=(rm, n)=(m, rn) ?
or you dont let the r get inside?
r(m, n) = (rm, rn)
Just like usual
lol right
I don't see why. They're still just abelian groups
I was reading abt tensors, confused things xD
For tensor products it's important that one is a left module and the other is a right module
true, I was thinking of how you may run into issues like with internal product of noncommutative subgroups, but the fact that addition is commutative I guess should prevent issues
makes sense tho
oh ok so the tensor product of R-modules M and N, M right and N left, R noncommutative, is not an R-module itself

why is r-2 even?
if R is a ring and I is a left regular ideal then I is contained a left regular maximal ideal
is this trivial? ie showing that the maximal ideal that contains a regular ideal must be regular and thats it?
regular means that for all r there exists e such that r-re is in the ideal
strong induction assumes not just P(n) but all P(k) for k<=n
I don't understand why we need to take a right and a left module to define the tensor product
what
nvm
🧠 🔨
like let M and N be left R-modules, R highly non-commutative. Consider the free abelian group F over MxN. Consider the subgroup S generated by (rm,n)-(m,rn), (m+m', n)-(m,n)-(m',n), (m,n+n')-(m,n)-(m,n') where r in R, m,m' in M and n,n' in N.
Define F/S to be the tensor product of M and N
whats wrong with this
hm i mean it won't give you the desired structure right
e.g. note rsm (x) n = m (x) srn
which is why it makes more sense to just make one of them a right R-module so you have the correct compatibility
ah wait ye Im dumb
in the category of abelian groups, the injective objects are precisely all the divisible groups?
That is correct
are there any other categories where the injective objects have a nice characterization?
Nonunital rings don't necessarily have maximal ideals right?
honestly I'm having trouble proving Q is injective. I think I'm not getting the right idea
Over a finite dimensional algebra A, injective modules are exactly direct sums/summands of DA (the dual of the regular module).
ah wait I got it
also proved the characterization
what's "the dual of the regular module"
The regular module is just the algebra A viewed as a module over itself. The dual of a (right) module M, is the set of linear maps from M to the underlying field k. Which becomes a (left) module with the action
(af)(m) = f(ma)
this is my whole problem..
like idk
cuz the proof assumes it
like where did we use regularity in this zorn application
its so confusing
I guess there saying that an ideal J that contains I is equal to R iff it contains e. And ideals not containing e is certainly closed under unions of chains.
Basically R/I becomes a unital ring with unit e, and then things proceed as normal (at least if R is commutative)
Then in the noncommutative case I guess that's "morally" what's going on
Over a (finite) group algebra a module is projective iff it is injective.
In the extorthogonal complement of a cotilting module, the injective objects are sums/summands of your cotilting module. In particular over a Gorenstein ring the injective objects in the category of Gorenstein projectives are exactly the projective modules.
(probably need to add in Noetherian and finitely generated everywhere in this statement)

okay can u go on with that
if I is regular then R/I has identity
now what
it has a maximal ideal
in the form K/I
for some ideal K in R
Yeah unital rings have maximal ideals
does K have to be maximal?
Yes there is an order preserving bijection between ideals in R/I and ideals containing I
omg yeah obviously
bro ur super smart lmfao
okay
can it be our candidate
no right cuz why would I be contained in K
Because K comes from an ideal of R/I
yea and thats it
by the same iso theorem
lmfao so cool
this proof is so much better
what do they mean by I is a maximal ideal w.r.t the property listed? as in I is a maximal ideal in the ring R that has that property, or that I is the biggest such ideal that has that property?
oh well i assume it's the latter since every maximal ideal is prime
Well sort of the latter, though not " the biggest"
A maximal element of the poset of ideals I such that ...
oh yea oop mixed up the def of biggest and maximal
But yeah
It's a general phenomenon it seems that maximal elements of posets of ideals often end up being prime lol
the phrase "with respect to" wouldn't make sense either if it wasn't referring to the maximality
Though in this case this is different
could I have a hint for this please? I'm assuming that $xy \in I, x \notin I$, and $y \in I$ (for contradiction). I'm also assuming that $I$ is contained in some ideal $J$ with the property that $J \cap S \neq \emptyset$. Now I was able to show that $y \notin I, J, S$ and that $x \notin J$ but $xy \in J$.
okeyokay
I'm not sure I'm following your strategy, but what you should do is let I be maximal wrt I\cap S = Ø, then assume xy is in I with x not in I and try to prove that y is in I
is this really from an intro to abstract algebra class
The first thing you should note is that Rx + I is a bigger ideal, so must intersect S
ye sorry, i'm assuming for contradiction that y is not in I
nah it's from a grad algebra class
okay thanks, i'll note that

If you also assume y is not in I, then fiddle with some elements and use that S is multiplicatively closed
ok thank you
we covered stuff like this in my second level abstract algebra course
I'll be taking my first and only algebra class this fall
sorry could i have another hint, i've been playing with it but i'm stuck again
here's some of the stuff i got so far (went back to trying a direct proof): xy is in I implies that xy is in Rx + I, so xy = rx + i for some r in R and i in I
x not in I implies that there's some r' in R such that r'x is not in I
okay
these are all definitions basically
so i've gotten nowhere lol
i guess i'm trying to find an explicit element in the intersection of Rx + I and S
So if neither x nor y are in I then both Rx + I and Ry + I intersect S.
So there are r, r', i, i' such that rx + i is in S and r'y + i' is in S
Then my hint is that S is multiplicatively closed
okay so I'm guessing that I have to show that xy is in S somehow which will contradict xy being in I
what I would do is multiply rx + i and r'y + i' and use the fact that they're in S and try to isolate xy, but S is not necessarily closed under addition so that wouldn't work
oh wait i think i can show it's in I which will complete the proof
So you don't need to show xy is in S, just that some element of I is in S
That will give you your contradiction
oh right duh that whole entire expression is in I
OHHHHHHHH
okay thank you so much, you basically carried lol
jagr always the hero
Potentially dumb q
Let A, B be abelian groups and suppose that A (x) F is iso to B (x) F for F = Q and F = F_p for all p
Does it follow that A is iso to B? I assume not, but it does seem to hold for all f.g. groups by the classification
And then what happens if we change it to like suppose f: A -> B is a map and that f (x) F is an iso for all such F, is f an iso
Hm
I mean I have no idea how you'd prove the first to be true and would conjecture that it is false
But 2nd I have not as much intuition for
Can't you do something like A=Z/4 and B=Z/2? That even has a map A -> B
Even if you replace Fp with Z/n you still have that tensoring with Q/Z is 0 on everything.
hey guys, can somebody explain to me how to find the galois group of $\mathbb{Q}(\sqrt{2}, \sqrt{3})/ \mathbb{Q}$
damn_guuurl
What I know until now, is that $Gal( \mathbb{Q}(\sqrt{2}, \sqrt{3})/ \mathbb{Q})$ has order 4, but how do I know if it is isomorphi to $Z_4$ or $Z_2 \times Z_2 $
damn_guuurl
find out the minimal polynomial
I did
what was it?
I mean I have 2, $X^2 -2$ and $X^2 -3$
damn_guuurl
so it's the splitting field of (x^2-2)(x^2-3), right?
yeah exactly
which I know is also galois, since it is normal separable and algebraich
now just look at the conjugations of the roots
well I mean I have the set of roots ${+-\sqrt{2}, +-\sqrt{3}}$
damn_guuurl
right
so look at the map fixing sqrt3 and sending sqrt2 to -sqrt2
and the map fixing sqrt 2 and sending sqrt3 to -sqrt3
except the identity the only other element is sending sqrt2 to -sqrt2 and sqrt3 to -sqrt3
you have your 4 elements
is it possible to change them? like sending for example sqrt(2) to sqrt(3)?
sqrt 2 and sqrt 3 are not conjugates
can you go further into this argument? Cause I have everything you wrote before
the only thing which I don't see, is why the switch is not possible
i would leave it to you to check that the map you propose actually doesn't leave Q fixed
Oh okay haha, then it is surely something easy, thank you for helping me through it, gonna come back if I have further questions 
I don't know why, but I can't never recognize the group operations
I somehow don't see the properties
do you see them here though?
there's a very general algorithm in dammit my foot though
the galois group operates on the field extension right?
of finding galois groups of polynomials
so if you get the minimal polynomial, you can work out it out
what I mostly know is that the action has to be transitiv, when f is a minimalpolynomial(irreducible), but how do I know if it is free or something else?
you don't that's the point of the algorithm
you just calculate a bunch of numbers and find the groups
hahah okay well
is this because if we square it we have a contradiction to the identity, right?
yes
I'm sorry for asking such simple questions, I'm trying to understand it thouroughly
is there a way on how to order field extensions? like normal implies algebraic, finite implies algebraic.. are there some obvious statements?
How do I solve problems like "What ring is isomorphic to $\mathbb{Z}[X]/(2)$"? When no polynomials are involved I can sometimes see the answer more easily but I get stuck on these questions.
NotAPenguin
Is there an intuitive way to understand these quotient rings that I'm missing? Right now I try to think of the cosets of (2) in $\mathbb{Z}[X]$ but I find that hard to visualize, especially with polynomials involved.
NotAPenguin
Z[X]/(2) is "the same" as taking Z[X] and then setting 2 = 0
beat my wife to it
child you have to stop saying that
So that would essentially filter out all the terms with even coefficients?
you're just jealous

