#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 144 of 1
Yes
(and that's always a field)
Yes
Maybe I was thinking of Q[x] vs Q(x)
It ain't easy keeping all this straight
That's it
Going back to basics now
Everything in terms of Peano axioms
Countable rings only. Only 1 has a multiplicative inverse
Fox only, no items, final destination
the -1 in question
-1 crying rn
could be char 2 albeit
Ok I might give -1 a pass
As a software engineer I am partial to char 2
anyway just make sure whatever you're quotienting by is generated by a minimal polynomial and we're all good
Minimal? Is that the same as irreducible?
it's the polynomial of smallest degree that has something as it's root
they are irreducible though, see if you can prove it
Peano
Piano
a is a root of a polynomial h(x) IIF evaluating h with x=a results in 0 (additive identity) right?
Piano arithmetic
Two unary operators, #(x) and b(x)
I think ryxiann knows
Yes
anyway if f is a minimal polynomial for some a and it isn't irreducible then it can be factored as f = gh, since f(a) = 0 then either g(a) or h(a) = 0. But since deg(f) = deg(g)+deg(h), both g and h have a stricly smaller degree than f while having a as a root, contradicting the fact that the degree of f is minimal
Ok discord mobile is too tough to type this on
But I'm thinking: if h(x) is not irreducible, h(x) = f(x)g(x) for non constant f,g (so deg f, g > 0)
If h(a)=0 then f(a) = 0 or g(a) = 0
Which means that if h is not irreducible then there is another polynomial with Lower degree (f or g) that also has a as a root
I'll give you the benefit of the doubt that you didn't read my message
I'm doing all this in F[x] btw. No idea if it translates to G(x)
G is psi(F) where psi(x) is the letter adjacent on the stupid onscreen keyboard
I feel a bit uneasy calling elements of F(x) polynomials
Good, me too
Kinda like how C has no well defined ordering?
well you can definitely still talk about the degree of things in there
hmmm
no perhaps it does still work
R -> C gets you more algebraics but "less than" is nonsense
Fraction fields are fields but now "minimal " is nonsense
it could still work I might have been too hasty as per usual
whatever they are they're definitely not "irreducible" though, cause we're in a field
Can we call this channel the “Halliday Memorial Channel (RIP 5ever in our hearts 💙🦋💙)”
you spent 6867 hours searching for the butterfly emoji
the department refuse to pay me
Based
based department
yeah I have concluded it does not make sense because I cannot make sense of it
you can talk about the minimal polynomial of something in F(x) though
which is in F(x)[y]
If everything is minimal… no one is 🥺
Just stick to prime fields
No polynomials
just realised that F(x) will have the same universal property as F[x] but for fields
the only nice construction in the category of fields
Yes
Universal property? Like Jurassic Park? 🙂
no dear
name another universal property in Field, I'll wait
Technically, a universal property is defined in terms of categories and functors by means of a universal morphism
I think this is beyond me
Fields don't exist
False. F_p^k exists and can be explicitly constructed.
R and C, on the other hand...
"ermmmm aktually if u check the rules... 🤓 "
(F_p)^k is not a field
rip Q

no you dinkleberry
Yeah whatever did Q do to you?
Brb defining the operator for G, the group of all fields
After careful consideration Q gets to exist
here's a little thought for you stevie
0 isn't prime
It has pi and e as factors (pi×e×0)
the dyslexia strikes again
(0) is a prime ideal in Z sweatie
what if we took the set of all sequences in Q and made it into a ring by multiplying and adding them together
and then what if we said that two sequences were the same if they approached the same value
I wonder what we would get
Sounds like some nonsense Dedekind would say
The padics
the 0-adics
Actually I think Cauchy would say it
P-adics my beloved 
n-adic digits are 0..n-1
0-adic
...-1
completion w.r.t. a non-prime ideal... I'm spooked solid quite frankely
Only if that set is countable, which means no infinite sequences 🙂
In base 1: 0.000000000… = 1.0 = 1.00 = … = 1.00000000… = 2
All rings are integral domains moment
... Q is countable
What
what if we just completed with respect to (1) huh what would you do then HUH???
Q is countable but any set of_sequences_ of elements of Q that contains countably infinite infinitely-long sequences is uncountable as per Cantors diagonal construction
any set
chooses a set containing a single sequence
nothing personell kid
Then that set does not contain countably-infinite infinitely-long sequences
Okay I gotta get back to work
List the rational numbers between 0 and 1.
For each unique rational number construct a list of integers between 0 and 9 that are the digits of the rational number to the right of the decimal, using infinite 0's as needed.
This creates a countably infinite list of infinitely long sequences of a subset of rational numbers.
The conclusion of Cantor's diagonal argument doesn't work, or is at best blurry, when applied to rationals.
the diagonal argument is for the set of all sequences, not for sets of sequences
at least what you're going for here
The diagonal argument is when you convince each member of a group of people to argue with themselves.
So person i argues with person i, j with j, etc.
i thought it's when you argue something countably many people disagree with
True, though wew started with the set of all sequenced
Inb4 arguing with aleph-one people
The incidence matrix of the argument is the nxn identity matrix
top tier shitpost
hmm when did this exist
always
Since a couple hours ago!
ok idk if this is the right place to ask but why is [H,K] a subgroup of G if H and K are subgroups of G
You’re thinking of #1100503863586455632
How are you defining [H,K]?
If not as a subgroup of G
presumably it's the subgroup generated by [h,k]?
yeah so
otherwise it doesn't form a subgroup in general
like for example [h,k]^{-1}=[k,h]
all elements of h are in G, all elements of k are in G
but if H is not K then what happens
the product of commutators isn't necessarily a commutator
how is it a group tho
The set of commutators of H and K is not necessarily a subgroup
but [G,G] is a subgroup?
[H,K] should be defined as the subgroup generated by commutators of the form [h,k]
oh
yeah sorry I presumed you were taking <[h,k]>
The way you've defined it, no
rt
The way it's usually defined is that [G,G] is the subgroup generated by commutators
oh
for subgroups you define [H,K] to be the group generated by <[h, k] : h in H, k in K>
The smallest example where the set of commutators of G is not a subgroup though is of order uhhhh
95?
bro thought 95 was prime
My bad, 96
wait no no no I don't believe it I simply do not believe it
yeah there we go
all groups of order 95 are abelian
rancid
I presumed it wasn't a manual search
what's the actual morphisms involved in those semidirect products
I wanna see the character table
Yeah, backstory is I was about to assign the problem "show that the set of all commutators isn't necessarily a subgroup" in the problem set for the algebra summer study group
And I didn't realize that the smallest example was that
I should've said "annoy countably many people at once"

or generally annoy everyone at once
the free group? lol
I was gonna use the free group but I couldn't figure out how to prove that something wasn't a commutator
So I was just like, screw it, and took the problem off the problem set
well the free group is nice because all commutators just look like commutators lmfao
The free group on four variables should work tho
or as I like to call it, the free group on two variables
yeah the free group on 2 elements is way bigger than the free group on 4 elements
He just meant the free group on two variables is a better example
so understanding check: The normalizer of a set A in the group G is the set of all elements in G such that gAg^-1 is an automorphism, right? in other words, acting on the set is at most a shuffle of the set (since set order doesn't matter).
Yes
If H is normal in G, then the normalizer of G is G
Also by "gAg^-1 is an automorphism" I think you mean that "gAg^-1 = A"?
The former doesn't make sense to me
It's algebraic over R since it's the root of x - pi^2. It's not algebraic over Q since pi isn't.
oh okay i think i got it
so if a number is in that field, it us algebraic over that field if it has solutions in that field
algebraic means that it is a solution to a polynomial with coefficients in the field in question.
yes okay
but look at this:
says alpha is not in F
but isnt pi^2 in the field R?
it is, that's strange
that equation also doesn't make sense
because that would say that pi^4=pi which is false
stupid questions: when we say a known group (G) is a subgroup of a totally different group (H) does it mean that its isomorphic to a subgroup of H? like this for instance (in this case its the reserve)
thinking of f:A → A f(a)=gag^-1
not a group isomorphism, so yeah, confusion abounds I suppose
equivalently, G would be (isomorphic to) a subgroup of H iff there is an injective homomorphism G --> H
It's even bigger than the one with (countable) infinitely many generators
yes thats makes sense. I'm just a bit confused since ive never seen something like "D_8 is a subgroup of Z/16n) or something like that
because it doesn't really matter how we label the elements, so much as the structure that the group operation has. So instead, we should consider up to isomorphism, which is why they are calling it a "subgroup" even if, technically, the elements are not in the larger group
but that is a group isomorphism?
f(ab) = gabg-1 = gag-1gbg-1 = f(a)f(b)
oh the set is outside of G
cool cool
I'm overloaded on terms atm lol. I spent way too long in set theory, so this group theory stuff can be strange for me to keep in group theory terms
i see, thanks for clearing it up! 😁
same i just started and it's an overload
and my course notes really don't go in depth!
try learning this on your own
Yeah, I guess because specifically it's talking about stuff that's not in the field. Anything in the field is automatically algebraic over that field though.
yeah, I guess saying that "conjugation by g restricts to a bijection on A" would be better 👍
This wording is confusing me, do we just want the minimal polynomial of sqrt(2)+sqrt(3)
i think so
looks like it
i would just take the 0, 1, 2, 3, 4th powers and then come up with a polynomial from that
Yeah that’s the trick
You can just kind do it by hand, like find min poly over Q(sqrt 2) first
Which is clear
Then Q(sqrt(3))
I would multiply all the conjugates but thats probably a bit dumb
like (x+sqrt(2)+sqrt(3)(x-sqrt(2)+sqrt(3))(x+sqrt(2)-sqrt(3))(x-sqrt(2)-sqrt(3))
and start a expandin'
true
shouldnt be too bad oof
Based tbh
I liked what rho said tho lol, seems smarter
R is a ring , A is an R-module , N and K are submodules of A
pi is the natural projection map to A/K
is pi(N) = N / K = (N+K)/K ?
n+k+K = n+K
suppose {a1,a2,...,an} generate M/mM ( R is a ring local ring with M being its maximal ideal )
(those a_is are equivlence classes but too lazy )
now we wish to show that these a_is generate M aswell
consider N = (a1,a2,...) in R
then pi(N) = (N+M/mM)/M/mM = N/mM = M/mM ( since they generate M/mM)
---> N/mM / (N+M/mM/M/mM) = 0 --> M = N+mM
so N = M by nakayamas lemma?
Yeah I buy it
So here's the context, I've got a local ring A, and its maximal ideal is m. I have some x \in m idempotent, I wish to prove x = 0. I can show that 1-xy is a unit for all y \in A. So I believe the idea is picking the right y to show some contradiction if x \neq 0. Would like a hint, please
Hi groups, you cant take infinite products in a group can you?
@warm gate you can if you give it some extra structure like a topology
Ahhh so you need more structure
that soothes me a little
my question was gonna be
if i have a group G that is generated by countably infinitly many generators , is there a smallest group that contains G and like all the products with an infite amount of different generators in the product
Yeah watch this
g_1 * g_2 * g_3 * g_-
Is this another “free group of rank 2” moment chat
well? is it?
Just take the group all “infinite” products generate I suppose
But I believe this will be the entire group
x(1-x)(1-x)^-1
let a be one of these “infinite” products and g some element, then ga is in this subgroup
And thus so is gaa^-1 = g
surely its more than th3 entire group
thanks frendo
How could it be more than the group if the group is closed under multiplication
Wait i mean the new group that has infinite products is bigger than the one that doesnt.
a larger group with a copy of G in it, which somehow also supports infinite products
Right so we are putting something topological on it
And then taking the limit points
Do we have to
How else could we possibly talk about a convergence without a topology
In which case it’s equal to the group if and only if it’s compact
The other option would be formal products, like sequences N->G or something quotiented out appropriately ig
Yh thats more what i was thinking along the lines of
But that’s uh
Taking like a R[[X]] kinda deal
Annoying
Ay ay ay
Is it messed up
Yeah this is why we need to quotient by stuff
So now you want finite length things are easy to deal with, but what if I have some infinite sequence, it’s a bit more troublesome to quotient these all out
Obviously we’d want things that look the same to be the same, but if I were to take, say, our original group countable
Then if I enumerate the whole group in a different order
What then
Consider this for finite non commutative groups
Like uhhh, S_4 or smth?
Does the order I take the product matter?
Or maybe S_3
hm
suddenly everything should get way more annoying since also $\prod a^{(-1)^n}$ would show up
The eternal Sharp
$a a^{-1}a a^{-1}a a^{-1}a a^{-1}...$
The eternal Sharp

sure, we can apply our little reducing rule and move finitely many at a time
but you can't move infinitely many at once
if G=[H,H] then is G a normal subgroup of H
Yeahhh.... hmmm....
cuz i got $hh_1h_2h_1^{-1}h_2^{-1}h^{-1}$
xoonkckskskkckskckxkcks
so this has to be in [H,H]
DYEL bro?
@warm gate so basically you've got issues in things being normal once you take infinite products. That above product is exactly 1-1+1-1+1... in R which we know doesn't converge
yea
so its kind of evil... ic...
thats why we hwve the rules... and topology to talk abt convergence otherwise... makes sense!
bump
I meant just with the expected sequence equivalence classes being like uh a_n being equivalent to multiplying two adjacent terms a_n a_n+1 to like (a_n * g) (g^-1 a_n+1)
ofc, you can consider these as formal products, but don't expect them to be sensible
thx for entertaining my daydreams sharp and wew
Let x be in [H, H] then x^-1ux = uu^-1x^-1ux = u[u,x] which is in [H,H]
A normal subgroup is invariant under conjugation in the larger group
ye
So no
they want [H, H] normal in H
uhh
Oh right I got my letters backwards who gives a shit
you conjugated u by x in [H, H]
I’m drunk you all got the point
based
i got htis but idk
There's some ways to do it without full on considering topology but basically just don't do that lmao (G^\mu, orders, other such notions of converging)
What have you tried so far
I think the easiest way to see this is to consider the quotient right
idk i didnt try to prove that fact
In mathematics, the Eilenberg–Mazur swindle, named after Samuel Eilenberg and Barry Mazur, is a method of proof that involves paradoxical properties of infinite sums. In geometric topology it was introduced by Mazur (1959, 1961) and is often called the Mazur swindle. In algebra it was introduced by Samuel Eilenberg
and is known as the Eilen...
Try it
but i tried this for the normal subgroup
it seems like a stronger version of the normal subgroup
The one direction is probably easier, in the commutator subgroup => can be written as a product which when rearranged gives the identity
Nah just showing it directly is easier
yea
if arbitrary expressions like this rearange to the identity then how do you prove its in [H,H]
If you rearrange them and it’s the identity it means that for each g in that expression you need g^-1 to be in there as well
ye but it could be very far away
Doesn’t matter you just have to rearrange it
Oh
I get what you mean, they have to be next to each other to be in the commutator
That’s the trick you have to figure out
There’s a model theoretic proof too which is cool
a random presentation of ultraproducts in algebra
Model theory is scary albeit
this is model theoretic
3.5 assumes CH, which isn't quite necessary
Oh the proof I’m familiar with shows that a counterexample in C would imply a counterexample in a finite field
it holds without it
this is exactly that
holds for all finite fields -> Los -> holds in C
Oh is Los that
yes
$\prod \mathcal M_i/U \models \phi ([\mathbf x_i])$ iff ${i: \mathcal M_i \models \phi (\mathbf x_i)} \in U$ or wtv
The eternal Sharp
I was looking up something to see if I could see any ultra group stuff since Harper got me thinking 
here ya go in a categorical formulation
mathcal M?! I love the irreducible marks 
Mod(C) is exactly pretopos functors C->Set btw
Thanks, now it’s crystal clear to me
I find it funny how we’re talking about model theory in here and row echelon reduction in #advanced-algebra
since we are talking about model theory type stuff. I started reading about R*, v cool
Was thinking, what is Gal(R*/R)
lmfao nice
As best as ive got atm, but likely horrible
transedental galois groups seem disgusting
apperantly even for K(x1,x2,x3)/K are unknown oof
It can be proved that if \kappa is the smallest \omega measurable cardinal then any group of cardinality < \kappa is an ultrapower
nice
how bad can it be tho
oh interesting
but take your countably complete ultrafilter on \kappa and it's \lambda complete for any \lambda < \kappa
so it's nonprincipal but spits the original back out
(this is group of automorphism P^k, by AG magic, there is an equivalence at looking at their function fields and cover)
Anyway, this is 100% gonna be independent of ZF at least since ultrafilters, and likely ZFC since cardinalities being screwy without GCH?
yeah i believe that
But uhh, with GCH, it's likely as horrible as it can get
In my field, R= specific factor, the question on wether ultrapowers of R are all iso is equiv to CH
So, # of nce ultrafilters on \kappa is 2^2^\kappa
GCH says all saturated
so all iso
(GCH equivalent to all these holding for all k, according to Ultra)
which I'd believe
I don't believe these isomorphisms are necessarily natural
But if you place all the 2^2^k things down with isos so it's a groupoid, then Gal(R^\mu, R) < loops in this space, uhh \pi_1(X, R^\mu)
this sounds cool. Ill come back after finishing goldbring kek and read this fully
no idea how many really keep R fixed per se, but these iso's are likely the interesting ones
since they should only scrable the nonstandard elements
right but this is already interesting, bc it says atleast about Gal(R*/Q)
and we know for Gal(R/Q) this is trivial
all field autos fix Q yeah
fixing R is a little screwier
but, these saturation induced isos should all commute with the diagonal so
it fixes Q, so it fixes the orders and all
so moving R is not easy
(These isos all preserve field and order stuff I think)
But the infinitesimals and infinites can kinda be moved around essentially freely
And the sizes of them depends on your size of ultrafilter,
So picking \kappa is important anyhow
actually I think all of these should fix R now that you say it. Here is why:
you preserve order, bc sigma(x)^2 =sigma(x^2), and Q is order dense in R
N*/~ where f ~ g iff f-g finite is a dense linear order and is as saturated as your ultrapower, so k saturated
Tbf this looks more like model theory so go to #algebraic-geometry
harper got you thinking? :o thats me :D
ye there's no way you're screwing up the order because thats exactly the structure you want to preserve
ultrapower as ordered fields
its the same arguement as to why Gal(R/Q) is trivial basically
ye
R*/R is not trivial though I believe, since we can take this and kinda freely slide around the galaxies
right i believe that
I need to get comfortable with all this hyper logical stuff oof, seeing so many cardinalities kinda made me dizzy lol
the size is k dependent, but for any a < k we should be able to make a saturation argumenr
Starting with just countable ultrapowers then
N*/~ should be 2^N saturated
I think
Assuming GCH
because I am afraid of the cardinals in general without at least CH here
so for any countable collections X, Y with X < Y around, we can split em X < c < Y
actually scratch that I have a brilliant idea

If I'm right in my assumption that any sort of "rotation" of the galaxies works, since densities and such, then injective monotone function N*/~ -> N*/~ satisfying f[0] = [0] should have at least one corresponding element in Gal(R*,R)
moving galaxies is moving Z* = moving Q* and then we would just want to say Gal(*R, *Q) trivial
oh wow interesting i didnt even think of that
but since it'd be auto on a.e. of the copies it's trivial
Gal(R*/Q*)
Does this follow from transfer principle? it does I think, write \sigma aut -> sigma = id
and it transfers
it's trivial a.e. so ye
Here's the technical point: are galaxy rotations always extendable
2: are they uniquely extendable
- is if the idea works, 2) is if we only give a partial description
Verifying my saturation argument is also important
but yeah you could 100% make a small paper on this
yes sharp john collobaration???
yeee lets goooooo
nice give me a week to finish goldbring 
but like you could actually do that if you felt like it
nah fam that why you drop it on the grad student RA
what if we banish yellownames from here
bro I am the grad student RA 😭
then we can talk about our baby algebra
then you'll never see det again 
I meant me but true
not if i banish myself too

i dont trust you to talk only about baby algebra

can't wait for april fools for this channel to be actually baby algebra
I don't know how to write things and you actually know people
that was a categorical formulation, less horrible looking than logic
the infinitesimal algebra
hmm so how do you prove [G,G] is a normal subgroup of G?
or should i just assume this
I gave you the proof earlier but just mixed up u and x
Lol
could you not just unswap them in your head?
uwu
But swapped yourself 
btuh
btuh
how is u[x,x] in [G,G]
A better question is why is [DG, DG] normal where DG is [G, G]
ok lemma find that message
Yoneda.
o
ty
@dim widget I guess even better is to prove that [N, N] is normal whenever N is normal in G
OHH hell nahhh
Quick solution: conjugation is an automorphism QED
I am curious about the proof writing technique that compels one to mention that conjugation is an automorphism but not any other part of the argument
it's called being based u wouldn't understand
The class of groups for which this holds is weakly saturated and
SATURATED???
Just assume that we have already proven that any automorphism preserves the derived subgroup
Makes life much easier
Tbf it actually feels easier to prove that any automorphism preserves derived subgroup, than it does proving it for conjugation.
An important part of the proof is that if a subgroup H is generated by a subset X, so that H = <X>, then gHg^{-1} = <gXg^{-1}>. Since the commutor is generated by elements [a,b] for a,b in G, it's enough to show g[a,b]g^{-1} is also a commutor in order to show that [G,G] is normal.
inventor's paradox?
Oh this is a cool new channel. Glad it exists.
t'other is t'new one
cool 
@rocky cloak yes it is no easier for conjugation than anything else of course. Morally this has to be true because N semidirect product Aut(N) is also a group
It is infact my favourite group
yeah
LOLLLLLLLLLLLLLL
Wait I wanna see it
yeah exactly, baby algebra
I had some ranting in algechill
what does “galaxy” in this channel refer to lol
sharp's rants
Copies of Z in nonstandard models of PA
It’ll always look like N+AZ for some dense linear order w/o endpoints A
not really
So who came up with it
Hmm
NO
okay good
what happened to aa
whaat
finally, an algebra channel that isn't too big brained for me. at least I hope.
How is the map f : G→G/N is surjective homomorphism where G is a group and N is a normal subgroup of G
you haven't fully defined the map
a→aN a∈G
well if you have $aN\in G/N$, then it has a preimage doesn't it?
nixxy nilpotent (abbott hater)
@waxen ibex
I forgot what was I confusing at, no question now.
What will #prealg-and-algebra be then
Combinatorics
Idk if this counts as "advanced", but I wanted to try proving this and would like someone to check. I have used $\gamma=\gcd(a,d)$.
$ord(g)=d \iff g^d=e$. Consider $g^a$ to the power of $d/\gamma$: $$ (g^a)^{d/ \gamma} =g^{da/\gamma}.$$
But, by definition, $\gamma | a$, so $da/\gamma=dk, k\in\mathbb{Z}$. Hence $$(g^a)^{d/\gamma}=(g^d)^k=e.$$ To show that $d/\gamma$ is the least such integer, suppose $\exists \theta \in \mathbb{Z}, \theta \leq d/\gamma$ such that $(g^a)^{\theta}=e$. This means that $(g^a)^{\theta}=g^{da/\gamma}$, so $a\theta=da/\gamma$. But this means that $\theta=d/\gamma$. So $d/\gamma$ is the least such integer, and therefore it is the order of $g^a$.
Douglas
I'm a little unsure about $a\theta=da/\gamma$, because there might be some modular stuff I'm forgetting about
Douglas
@distant summit the last step of your proof doesn’t work. g^x = g^y doesn’t mean x = y
obviously a sylow problem but i don't know what to do after finding n_3 = 1, 7, or 49 and that P_7 = Z/7Z x Z/7Z or Z/49Z; but clearly i'm going to have P_7 = Z/49Z for both cases..
So this is not really a sylow question necessarily.
I can show a different solution and we can think about how to use the sylow theorems after if you like?
@summer path very important theorem: if a subgroup H has index the smallest prime which divides the order of G, then H is normal.
(It’s a fun exercise to prove it, it’s “follow your nose” but very useful once you know it)
So the subgroup generated by g of order 49 is normal
Alternatively you could note that by the sylow theorems the number of subgroups of order 49 has to be a divisor of 3 and also be 1 mod 7
So it must be just 1 of them
Now by Cauchy you also know that the map G \to Z/3 induced by taking this quotient has to have a section
Indeed G has an element of order 3, which does not lie in our subgroup of order 49 bc of its order
So then G is a semidirect product: Z/49 \to G \to Z/3
Thus all such G are determined by a Hom(Z/3, Aut(Z/49))
Because of modular arithmetic?
I was thinking that $g^x=g^y \implies g^x g^{(-y)}=g^0 \implies g^{x-y}=g^0 \implies x=y$
Douglas
Oh actually, in saying x-y=0 I'm assuming my conclusion aren't I?
Yeah I think the modular arithmetic thing makes sense, like if $g^a=g^b$ and $g^n=e$, then you say $a \equiv b (\mod n)$ I think, but not necessarily $a=b$
Douglas
@distant summit yes exactly
@summer path anyway so the conclusion is that there are 3 maps from Z/3 to Aut(Z/49), one is trivial and two are non trivial. And the two nontrivial ones give isomorphic groups
Hmmm, not sure how to "patch" the proof.
I know I could say $a\theta=\frac{ad}{\gamma} \mod d$, but obviously $\frac{ad}{\gamma}$ is a multiple of $d$ so is congruent to zero $\mod d$. So if $a\theta=0 \mod d$ then $a\theta=dn, n\in \mathbb{Z}$
Douglas
i follow until here, i don't really understand how you reach the conclusion that there are 3 of them
but given that there are 3 of them, i think it would make sense that one sends 1 to some automorphism \sigma and 2 to \sigma^2, and the other sends them to swapped ones?
@summer path it’s just because Aut(Z/49) = (Z/49)* = Z/6 \times Z/7
And yes the point is that the two non trivial homomorphisms differ by the automorphism of Z/3
@distant summit if g^ab = 1 then d|ab. So the smallest nonzero b such that d|ab is….?
@summer path because Hom(Z/3, Z/6\times Z/7) = Hom(Z/3, Z/6) = Hom(Z/3, Z/3) = {0, Id, inv}
Where inv is inversion composed with the previous homomorphism
d|ab means ab=dk and d≤ab, so d/a ≤ b, i.e. b must be at least as great as d/a
@distant summit what is the smallest number divisible by d and a?
oh, ok i thought that for a second, then didn't know what to do with the Z/7
but i guess it makes sense that you can kind of throw it away since 3 doesn't divide it
thanks tteg 
i will now go enjoy my 6am dinner and then wonder why the sun isn't up when i get up again
@summer path no worries, good luck with your nocturnal lifestyle 🙂
ad works
i think there are special cases, but if a,d shared no prime factors in common then ad would be the smallest number divisible by both a and d i think
Yes but even if they do share prime factors there is a nice expression for their least common multiple
In terms of their greatest common divisor
well ik that w the gcd you take the common prime factors and the "multiplicity" will be the minimum, e.g. gcd(p^3 q^1, p^5 q^2)=p^min(3,5) q^min(1,2)=p^3 q^1, but im not sure abt the lcm
field
but no bells ring of what it can be
F_25 means what then?
A field with 25 elements?
okedoke thanks
is there only one such field?
up to isomorphism ofc
yeah
interesting
tf is a splitting field
Galois moment

smallest field for which a polynomial splits into linear factors (equiv: if the poly has degree n, it has n roots counting multiplicity)
one can show that splitting fields are unique up to isomorphism, they always exist, and in the case of x^(p^k)-x, any field of order p^k is a splitting field for this poly
thus, they are unique
iirc at least, this is the proof
I don't know of a nice description for the elements of them lol
But for primes p not congruent to 1 mod 4 (I think?), one can use gaussian integers mod p to get a field of order p^2
bonk
In general Q(zeta_{p^n - 1}) mod p is F_{p^n}
tex it 
no u
Interesting, didn't know
No just some elements duh
just the integral elements, or just the elements with no denominators divisible by p
If you reduce those rings mod p you get F_{p^n}
in general polynomials over a field don't have roots in that field (like x^2 + 1 in R[x]), a splitting field of a polynomial is the smallest field containing the roots of that polynomial (so in the case of x^2 + 1 in R[x] the splitting field would be C)
whats Q adjoined with
e^{2\pi i/(p^n - 1)}
is there always a homomorphism between two rings if not then what about the zero mapping?
ok
in some texts ring homomorphisms have to sent 1 to 1, in other texts the 0 homomorphism is acceptable
I see 
Yes if you allow zero map, no if you require 1 maps to 1
interesting
It depends if you only allow "rings with identity maps" or just "rng maps"
rng 
It should be Z[x] not Q[x]
$\cong$
jagr2808
example: if you require 1 going to 1, then there is never a map from the zero ring to another nonzero ring, since that map would have to send 0 to both 0 and 1 simultaneously
what do you mean by rings with identity maps?
Maps that have to send the identity to the identity
so they preserve the structure of "having an identity"
different authors take different conventions on that, which is why it depends
multiplicative
No the multiplicative identity, any ring has an underlying abelian group, and homomorphisms of groups always have to send the identity to the identity
a ring has the property that it is an ableian group with respect to addition though not multiplication
why would we assume the ring in question would have a multiplicative identity
It is sometimes part of the axioms of a ring.
When it is it is often the case that authors require that ring homomorphisms send that identity to the identity of the target
some authors require a multiplicative identity, some don't
oh
lmao
i don't want to
Mfw there is no ring of compactly supported functions on R
sad
the price we have to pay
rings do contain 1
they do
rngs may not
non unital rings don't exist
true
MrSpeedrun's thoughts about what happened in this video: https://i.imgur.com/DXREYML.png
skill issue 
I was about to say, I thought 2x2 matrices formed a ring
Actually any transitive closure of n×n no?
n×n matrices form a unital ring yes
granted F is a field, the polynomial p(x) is irreducible iff (p(x)) is maximal in F[X] (a PID) correct?
I'm trying to look up "unital ring" and all I'm finding is crap from a Japanese novel series
unital- with unity
sao uwu
i hope you bite your tongue violently
who.
You

yes
also a polynomial need not split entirely over a single field extension correct?
i.e not solely over the injection into the splitting field
what
yeah
trying to think of an example
i’m trying to nail down the correspondance between splitting polynomial & fixing/stabilizing automorphisms
Taking it a step further... what is the weakest structure the matrix elements must belong to?
Obviously a field will work, fields work everywhere
If your elements are from a semiring then the resulting structure will be at most a semiring cuz some matrices won't have additive inverses
Can my matrix elements be elements of a ring and I still get a ring?
it’s isomorphic to the endomorphism ring over the ring’s direct sum with itself N times
Afaik
I'm not 100% convinced that this isn't nonsense
when there is a homomorphism between two rings, I always assumed this was to show that there are inherent similarities between these two rings (aside from the fact that they're both rings) or there just happens to exist a function that 'preserves' the ring
wat
should be a module endomorphism
Wouldn't such a function be an isomorphism?
theres a copy in either direction
?
which is isomorphic to $$R^{\oplus N} \tensor \left(R^{\oplus N}\right)^\vee$$
"There just happens to be a function that preserves the ring"
wtf are you talking about my man
Granted I have to ask that to myself on a hourly basis
depends on your definition
What jayz said
some maniacs (like john) don't include that requirement
so this?
To be fair I actually kinda pulled rhe endomorphism thing out of my ass
i never formally proved it, but it seems right
tf is ^\vee?
I was hoping you wouldn't remember that
What
bruh I thought that said Z/12
But then, what does it mean to contain 1?
The set itself {0} does not contain 1
It does have a multiplicative identity, but that's 0
"I said some bullshit and hoped you wouldn't catch it" 
it means a multiplicative identity other than 0
yeah...
That's called the 0 ring
Where 2 is the addition of the multiplicative identity to itself
F2 be my favorite field
Well. Base field, anyway. Things are more interesting with its extensions
1 is defined to be the element that goes 1a = a1 = a
smh

What if I only have left and right 1s
Cope
then those rnt 1s are they ...
Cuz multiplication is noncommutative?
Bros just making up arguments now
It means there is a multiplicative identity
I don't actually care that much. None of the rings I work with have separate left and right 1s
Crud. Gotta go
GL_n
well ig not
but cmon smh
Given that they just gave this as a definition at the beginning of te section, I'm assuming they want me to prove this as a special case of a kernal, right?
oh no wait, those elements are in reverse order, nvm
cool, not hard, I just suffer from can't-read disease
I've heard it's similar to allergic-to-going-on-islands disease
just left multiply g inverse and right multiply g onto a, and then recognize that for all g in the centralizer, gag^-1=a, so make the replacement, and get (g^-1)a(g)=(g^-1)(gag^-1)(g)=a, therefore the centralizer may be described with either order.
that moment when you have to break down the definition in words to make sense of it:
"the group of all elements in G that commute with (the set of all elements that commute with all of G)"
seems quite obvious when put that way.
in other words, every member of Z(G) is commutative with any element of G, therefore, the set of elements in G that commute with members of Z(G) must be every member thereof.
Suppose there is a left unit a and a right unit b. Think about the product ab. What do you conclude?
I conclude that either a=b, or one of the two does not exist (i.e. a ring can have at most one multiplicative identity, be it right, left, or both)
wait a minute
that means that salesman who was offering a spear that could pierce any armor and a shield that could block any attack... 🤔
huh
we're talking rings, right? isn't it the case that, supposing there is a left identity but not a right one (using the jargon loosely), then what would the right inverse of the left identity be?
oh, wait, mult. inverses needn't exist in rings
I'm dumb
should probably wait until I get there
Correct!
you want multiplicative inverses, go find yourself a nice field
if you want cyclic resign yourself to prime powers
in proving that for any A⊆B⊆G where G is a group, C(B)≤C(A); is it sufficient to show that C(B)⊆C(A) and then rely on the fact that centralizers are both subgroups of G to get the rest of the way? I don't think there's any way for a group to be a subset of another, and grouped under the same operation, and yet not be a subgroup. There's no extra elements that could break closure or inversion, and if it's a group under the same operation, identity must be in there.
I don't think there's any way for a group to be a subset of another, and grouped under the same operation, and yet not be a subgroup.
Isn't that literally the definition of a subgroup?
- the set is a subset of the parent group's set
- the group operation is the same
- it is a group (i.e. closed)
I'm paranoid about my own fallibility, as evidenced by thinking about multiplicative inverses in rings.
I also prefer to think out loud where I can get bullied when I'm wrong.
yeah that works
Like I always say: I'm stupid, just fast
if you brute force all the ways you can fail faster than it takes to succeed the first time, then is there really a difference?
okay that's because because, unless the ring is a field, you've got a bit of a twist going on:
- there is a "multiplicative group" which is the subset of elements that, under the * operator, form a group (closed, identity, all elements invertible)
- That subset of elements is not necessarily closed under addition
- That subset of elements is (unless it's a field) a strict subset of R\{0}
wait a second.... my memory banks don't have enough threads..... the symmetric group 3 is isomorphic to the dihedral group of order 6.... so I can check centralizers via generators instead of by hand ...! that makes calculating the centralizers of every subset of S3 much easier.
oh, my can't-read disease is showing up again. It's just saying "each element" not "each subset"
I was about to say, 64 checks would be quite tedious to do by hand, even if I were separating into cases.
oh, interesting thought. Shouldn't the centralizer of any subset H of G be the intersection of the centralizers of all elements of H?
i.e. the set of all elements that commute with h1 AND h2 AND h3 etc.
yeah
in that case C_s3(s3)={1} because that's the only element in all single-element centralizers.
In general C_G(G) is just the center yeah
Yeah, I was just keeping notation across the mini lemma
would it be correct to say that in the inner case you have H some somegroup and N some normal subgroup such that H n N = e and HN = G, and then you can give the natural action H ⤵️ N to get the map H --> Aut(N)
but then in the outer case you remove the requirement for N to be normal and just have H,N any (sub?)groups, in addition to some hom H --> Aut(N), and you define some new group N x|_phi H using the map, which need not be G? Though if H,N need not live inside the same big G, then it doesn't really have any reason to produce a semidirect product equal to G?
@summer path I always find the distinction pretty superficial
The only difference between the inner and outer picture is whether you think of the two groups as being “a priori” embedded in some G or after the fact.
In the second case you could set G = N x| H and then it would be an instance of the first case
I still don't quite comprehend the two different "views" of Galois Theory
or specifically galois extensions
One important fact is that [F : F^G] = |G| for a finite subgroup G of F's automorphism group, and F^G is the fixed group. I'm pretty sure this holds for all characteristics
But the special case where the largest field being fixed by G is the one it stabilizes means it's a galois extension
which implies it's seperable & normal, but I don't quite see how those automorphic properties imply these two properties
wat
An extension A over B is Galois iff B is the largest subfield of A fixed by the automorphisms of A that fix B
but also this same property implies the extension is separable and normal
idk that direction
how do you prove this
What is (1)
root extension
It's the ideal generated by (1) in K
bruh no
Ah ok
ye
They're saying K as in (1) to mean that K is the same as (1)
this one
pretty basic algebra
where each extension is a root extension
bc K is a field
bruh
Okay I assumed there was valuable context cause the lemma statement uses notation which we couldn't see
ye this is the context sorry
what's your main
this
Let G be a group of automorphisms of A, and B = A^G. Consider a in A, and let a1, a2, .., an be the elements in the orbit of a. Then a is a root of (x - a1)...(x - an). Notice that that action of G just permutes the factors, so this polynomial is fixed by G, and hence had coefficients in B. Since this polynomial is seperable and a was arbitrary A is seperable.
Save argument also shows normality.
^explain
Was it supposed to be F_0=F
why don't you explain what a root extension is in your own words
Both ends cannot be K, everything in the chain would be K then
o well i didnt make this handout
F=K_0\subseteq K_1\subseteq...\subseteq K_s=K
i think it shoudl be this
But what are the properties of the K_i
are they just random extensions
can they all be equal?
Are they, perchance, generated by adjoining a single root of an element in K_{i-1}?
What is n? Are n and a indepentent of i?
n_i
If there are finitely many of them, you can always choose n to be the same each time. :-p
this is clear
ok i found the proof in dummit and foote
d/f slash fiction
In part b is n divisible by 2 distinct primes?
Cause if n = pqs, for primes p and q, I can show that both p and q are in (1 - zeta), the ideal generated by 1 - zeta, and if p and q are distinct, I am done.
wym by both p and q are in 1 - ζ
they are in the ideal generated by 1 - zeta
how so?
say a is a primitive p'th root of unity, then a = z^k for k a multiple of n/p. But then (1-a)/(1-z) = (z^k - 1)/(z - 1) = 1 + z + ... + z^(k-1), is in Z[zeta]. Thus 1 - a is in (1 - z). This applies to all primitive p'th roots of unity, taking the product of (1 - a) over all p'th roots of unity yields p
Last claim is given by excercise 19 of Lang ch6
also z is zeta, cause I am lazy
My calculations suggests it's not true for n=9, so probably 2 distinct primes yeah
Oh thanks for that
I think there's a nice proof for the general case
something like, since $\Phi_{p^k}(x)=\Phi_p(x^{p^{k-1}})$ we have $\Phi_{p^k}(1)=p$ and that makes $$p=\prod_\zeta (1-\zeta)$$ and then thinking about the prime ideal generated by $1-\zeta$ basically breaks it from being a unit
Merosity
is the group action on the roots faithful?
i also don’t know how seperability is involved here in terms of the action
No, the group action need not be faithful. But you don't take the product over the elements of the group, just the elements of the orbit. So the roots are distinct by construction
Is this for a splitting field of a polynomial?
That is what you will end up constructing yes
Oh rip, I misread faithful as transitive
I was gonna say the action has to be transitive
though I haven’t looked much into positive characteristic fields
Well nothing here depends on the characteristic
isn’t this just Artin’s Lemma
Wait, doesn't it need to be faithful, cause if s is an automorphism of the splitting field of a polynomial, and s acts trivially on the roots, then s will act trivially on the splitting field, apply the Galois correspondence, the dimension of the splitting field is finite, we see that s must be the identity
The action on A is obviously faithful, since G is a subgroup of the automorphism group. But the action on the orbit of a specific element a need not be
Don't think so. Artins lemma says [A:B] <= |G|, right?
i suppose that could be used for a proof that for finite G [F :F^G] = |G|
I thought it’s a strict equality
Yeah, the strict equality is true
Yeah, I didn't read the construction too specifically
Don't know if people also call that Artins lemma
i wondered if I could prove it using the polynomial ring F[X_1…X_|G|] more simply than the crazy linear alg argument that Artin provides
and how we can extend the automorphisms into the polynomial ring by fixing the indeterminates or by permuting them
I guess if you can prove that F/F^G has a primitive element, then it follows by just noting that G is determined by where said primitive element is mapped
how do I prove it has a primative element
Yeah, maybe that is just as tricky
you have to use something tricky at some point, the two possible routes are with artin's lemma or with the primitive element theorem.
you've already proven that F/F^G is separable and normal, and also that any alpha in F has [F^G(alpha) : F^G] <= |G|
so take any intermediate field E/F^G which is finite, it's also separable, so by primitive element theorem E = F^G(alpha) and thus [E:F^G] <= |G|
this has to imply [F:F^G] <= |G|
as any finitely generated (algebraic) extension is actually finite
yea so since F/F^G itself is finite, F = F^G(alpha) and now
G is contained in Gal(F/F^G) which has size equal to number of distinct roots in F of minimal poly of alpha over F^G. by separable and normal this is same as [F:F^G]
therefore |G| = [F:F^G]
and Gal(F/F^G) = G
det hasn't thought much about the linear algebra trickery that goes into Artin's lemma
but the proof of primitive element theorem can be made a lot cuter and feel less like a trick once you introduce separable degree
Primitive element theorem, best theorem
it's a simple theorem

I've never seen simple be used in an algebraic context
Oh, never heard of that
Simple extension, simple module, simple group
simple-icial set
Is there interesting stuff with simple extensions?
Cause in (finite) Galois stuff there probably isn't any point
Cause everything is
idk you introduce it at the very start cause they're the easiest to deal with
and a decent bit of work is required until you finally prove finite+separable=simple
so it deserves a name
Well Lang has reserved the word simple to condescend his readers
Okay that's enough
pain
it’s honestly more intuitive than that approach
new dumb realization of the day: when computing single element centralizers, the centralizer of an element is the set of all elements whose centralizers include it. i.e. C_D8(s)={1,s,sr^2,r^2} which means that s is in the centralizers of 1 (obviously), itself (again trivial), sr^2, and r^2.
this is in essence saying "the set of all elements which commute with this one is the same as the set of all elements who's list of commuting elements include this one"
if x commutes with y then y commutes with x yes





