#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 142 of 1
If a minimal poly’s leading coefficient is a unit, then you can just divide by it’s inverse to have an integral extension
which is always the case for a field
but yeah, this
i wonder if the evaluation map that sends X_n to \sigma_n(x) for some chosen x can be manipulated somehow
because applying an automorphism in G to that after you evalute it is the same as permuting the indeterminates
i have no idea
i know the proof of artin’s lemma is amongst those same lines
why are we allowed to pull out the $r$? I thought by definition f was a R-module homomorphism from $L \to \text{Hom}\mathbb{Z}(R, J)$ and hence isn't in $\text{Hom}\mathbb{Z}(R, J)$
okeyokay
Say I have M = IM+N for fg R-modules M and N, and I is an ideal that is contained in the jacobson radical of R, does Nakayama's lemma then tell us that M=N?
What
I think so
It’s an R module hom, so you can pull out scalars
thanks!
I looked elsewhere and found out that I was thinking of it wrong but now it makes sense
oh yeah duh right thanks
is there a trick for computing the 105th cyclotomic polynomial by hand, or is this problem not meant to be done manually?
$x^n-1 = \prod_{d|n}\Phi_d$
oops lol
that ain't true
isn't 105 like the first without abs <= 1 coeff
make the lhs x^n - 1
or + 1?
probably + 1
yea
x^n-1
I think if you put n=105 you could calculate it
Irony Incarnate
wtf 105 has a super nice factorization
,w 105
bruh
3*5*7
so the only divisors are 3,5,7,15,21,35 and 105
OH
YOU CAN USE
THE MOBIUS INVERSION FORMULA!!!
you can calculate it as $\Phi_n = \prod_{d|n}(x^d-1)^{\mu(n/d)}$
Irony Incarnate
yeah but you would need a computer to actually compute that right
bruh
like theres not some trick that gives you the explicit answer easily?
im just confused since its an exercise in aluffi
what
this a product with 7 terms so it's not that awful
not really
wait what's the \mu here?
the mobius function
oh interesting
wouldnt this formula have multiple factors of x - 1 though
no?
like x - 1 divides each (x^d - 1)^{\mu(n / d)}
ahh
okay yes but I mean it'll be hidden in the computation
wait wdym
sry am very tired
I meant as in yes there are factors of x-1 but you can just multiply out the (x^d-1)
guys is 3 trivial
no
wait how
the a_i could generate some ideal that's only contained in M
say the a_i generate some module M'
then when you map M' to R/M^2 it has the same image as M
R -> R/M^2
yea
the equivalence classes of the ai generate M/M^2
is that what ur saying?
just going mod M^2 or what
sorry ur just being weirdly minimalistic in ur explanation like
haha
I'm was trying to come up with an example lol
but the problem is saying like
say you have generators of M/M^2 right
You have to show they generated M as well
Now this really isn't immediate since hypothetical what's stopping the a_i's from generating some subideal of M called let's say M' that just has the same image under the map R -> R/M^2 as M does?
I'm trying to come up with some tangible example but idk what rings are non noetherian and local lol
ig it would be
contained in M anyways
this subideal
that is
and i have to show that this + generating M/M^2 is enough
are*
isnt any ideal contained in a maximal ideal anywaays?
yea
and M is our only maximal ideal right
proper ideal
ah sure yeah in this case that's true 
I got used to proving these kinds of results in group theory where it needn't be local at all
okay so now i have to show that M is a subset of this ideal generated by (a1,a2,...)
ugh idk hbow
how*
like
i dont know how to go from M/M^2 to R lmfao
maybe i can use nakayamas lemma or something idk
that is really not a bad idea
idea*?
yeah lol
Here's how I'd do it
the assumptoin that this ideal generated by a1a2
is not M
would just make me blow it up and make it = 0
take M' to be the idal generated by the a_i
if i can show that MI = I
and since it's local clearly M' subset M
yea
now you need to show that M' = M
And the Way I'd do this is to take the quotient M/M' and use nakayama to show it has to be 0
You also very likely have to use the notherian condition too
probalby use like
third iso theorem to divide by M^2 up and down
and then i think any representative would be just a sum of the form ab where a is in M' and b is in M/M^2
lmao its far from trivial ig
and ofc
i cant find the solution
in any solution manual
isn't this just nakayama's lemma?
or like specifically this corollary of nakayama's lemma
but this doesn't require R to be noetherian local so maybe im missing something
thats what i had in mind
when i thought it was trivial
but yea
thats enough
i think it being local noetherian is just for the nakayamas lemma hypothesis
Hi there, I'm looking for a group which has at least one subgroup of infinite index and at least two of finite index
Z x Z/2 x Z/2
My book hasn't gotten to product groups yet so I don't know how that works though
(Nor quotient groups)
Z itself should work, if you're familiar with computing the index of subgroups of Z
I tried the additive group of integers, and the multiplication groups of R and C
multiplicative group of C should work
Wait but don't all subgroups of Z have finite index
all of C itself is infinite, then {1,-1} and then {1,i,-1,-i}
There's exactly one subgroup of infinite index
Or in other words, there's exactly one subgroup of finite order
Ah yes it's just 0 right
oh I misread
@agile burrow
Yeah, that's right
Ok thanks!
Happy to help
resist the low hanging fruit challenge (impossible)
think they call that a feynman diagram
It is commutative though
no harm in calling it that
all DAG diagrams forests are actually commutative, true
No,
• → •
↓ ↓
• → •
is DAG but need not commute
Does one need the axiom of choice to find $Y\subset X$ such that $X=\sqcup_{y\in Y}\mathrm{Orbit}(y)$ for a general group action?
yeah prolly
Philka
I suspect so to since you essentially need a representative for each orbit
If you have a.o.c. then you let $f:{\mathrm{Orbit}(x):x\in X}\rightarrow X$ be a choice function and you get $X=\sqcup_{y\in \mathrm{Im}f}\mathrm{Orbit}(y)$.
Philka
Let A_i be an indexed family of nonempty sets, let X be their disjoint union and let G be the product of symmetric groups S(A_i), acting on X in the obvious way. Then picking such a Y is exactly picking a choice function
If you can bound things in size (or maybe some structure?) you can get away with a weaker choice principle, but you’d have to have choice even if not a full power
My guess would be yes although I can't think of an immediate proof here. My reasoning is that under choice, given any partition of a set you could find a group action on that set whose orbits form that partition. This is obviously not sufficient to show equivalence, though.
Hey I don't know how to prove the following :
On a G chart simple of order 2n,in which the degree of each edge is even,there is for each vertex another vertex connected to an even number of edges in common.
Thanks for help
This is not an abstract algebra question. Please move to #discrete-math for elementary graph theory questions.
Ok ty
try doing it on partitoning UX by (disjoint) x in X?
or uh, UX u X kinda thing
I'm writing up my approach rn actually give me a mo!
@vague granite OK I got it – I think the following is a proof that the existence of representatives of a group action is equivalent to AoC. To prove it, I simply show that we may choose representatives of any partition assuming the group-theoretic version, since the latter is a convenient form of AoC.
Consider some partition of a set. For each part P of the partition, consider the group Sym(P) of bijections on P. Since we may construct a bijection that swaps any two elements of P, the action of Sym(P) on P is transitive. Now consider the group G defined to be the product of Sym(P) over all these parts P. We may explicitly construct elements of G that show that the orbits under the obvious action are the same as the parition, so we're done.
Obviously some details need checking but I'm confident
Stunningly simple tbh lol
Just had to choose the right groups
I think jagr said something similar
Oh lmao that's what I get for not reading
no
They are critically different
oh
A (unital) subring is almost never an ideal, and an ideal is almost never a unital subring.
No
A unital subring is a subring, specifically that contains 1
Since we do sometimes care about subrings of a ring that don't contain 1, we need to make a distinction
An ideal is always a non-unital subring, but even non-unital subrings are only rarely ideals
Yes
then the ideal can contain 1
None that I know
We don't tend to care very much about subrings
We care a lot more about ideals
alright thanks brother
so I'm having to prove that for some subgroup H of the additive group of rationals, the property that for all nonzero x, (x ∈ H) ⇒(1/x ∈ H) must mean that H is either {0} or H=Q. I know there are easier ways to do this, but (ignoring the H={0} case because it is incredibly easy to show) I showed the following:
assume 1 is a member of H, this directly implies all integers must be in H by closure.
this further implies that all unit fractions are in H by the given property
By closure, all multiples of unit fractions must be in H, i.e. all fractions, therefore, if 1 is in H, then H=Q
Further, assume some nonzero element x is in H, this implies that 1/x is in H as given
by closure, x/x must be in H (all multiples of 1/x must be in H, but this is the vital one), which is equal to 1, therefore if any nonzero x is in H, the above assumption starting at 1 applies.
thus, if there exists a nonzero x in H, then H must contain all rational numbers, and is therefore equal to Q.
(if there's only 0, then it's a trivial group where 0 is the identity, and it is exempt from the extra condition given because that's a universal, not existential quantifier).
there are easier more efficient ways to determine this, by starting from any arbitrary nonzero element instead of from 1, but I like this thought process.
How are you concluding that x/x must be in H?
repeated addition of the unit fraction 1/x
but x is rational?
fair. to be strictly rigorous, I suppose the proper statement is that it ends up being some integer by flipping the fraction and getting a multiple of the denominator, which then implies that a unit fraction in integer components exists, hence the rest follows.
Right, yeah that works
yeah it still works, just take p/q \in H, so that q * (p/q) = p \in H, so 1/p \in H, so p * (1/p) = 1 \in H, you can still get there
the proof does look good though, I agree
I think it's often better to show the process of breaking down the proof into easier parts, i.e. first show that 1 works, then any integer, then non-integers. The final proof given in texts is often quite dense and removes such lemmas
yeah this is fine, not sure if there's a nice way to do it more efficiently
mostly just re-ordering for presentation.
I wonder if you can prove that H has to be an ideal of Q, and Q being a field means H = 0 or Q (lol I don't know if it's true just a thought)
I would not know. I may return to that question when I learn of ideals.
isn't this literally just the notion that the union of two groups in a subgroup relationship is equal to the larger group, and therefore the union from 1 to n across chained subgroups H_i is just H_n, and in cases where an infinite chain exists, the "limit" of that unioning just converges onto G? No clue what the rigorous version of this will look like, but as a sketch that seems fairly obvious.
(also with the fact that any group is a subgroup of itself)
The limit doesn't need to converge to G, but you're right that the limit is the only thing you need to prove something about
It's also not very complicated
Just checking the definition of subgroup
oh, it could arbitrarily stop at any such subgroup and just be "unioning with itself" over and over right? damn axiom of choice.
I'm not sure what you're saying, and the axiom of choice doesn't play a role. Consider for example
(1/2) < (1/4) < (1/8) < ... Q
if I didn't do all my work on a whiteboard and actually kept notes this would be much easier with a previous result from this section
I'm not sure what those groups are representing
(1/2) doesn't look like a group to me, it looks like a number
ah, ty
so this ends up going to the group generated by all negative powers of 2, got it
OH given any subgroups H and K, H U K is a subgroup iff one is a subset of the other, and that's already established in the chain structure
But that only could extend with induction to finite unions
Not infinite chains like this
You can prove this is a subgroup pretty directly: obviously 1 is in each H_i so it's in the union, if x is in the union it's in some H_i, so it's inverse is also, so its inverse is in the union, and if you have x in H_i and y in H_j with i < j then because it's a chain of inclusions, both x and y are in H_j, so their product is. No fancy stuff required!
evidently I need to relearn induction conditions.
I mean the general rule of thumb with something like unions or intersections is that, once you've proved it for the binary case, you can usually extend (at least under some circumstances) to any arbitrary finite case
But with (regular, not transfinite) induction, you won't every get the infinite case
my last exposure was entirely transfinite induction, I'm out of practice lol. that's what I get for doing studies in pure set theory before this 😅
lmao
but yeah this specific case should just be an easy evercise in subgroup definition
yeah
If x is contained in an ideal then so is ix - xi
Interesting problem btw
Wedderburns theorem coming up maybe?
Not that the problem is really leading to it, just kinda hinting a bit
wedderburn’s theorem is neat
so is the fact that if for each x in a ring there is an n such that x^n - x is central, then the whole damn ring is commutative
doesn’t even need a multiplicative unit afaik
quick question
by ideals is it referring to sided ideals or two sided ideals
two sided ideals
they call it left-ideal or right-ideal if it is not a two sided ideal
but i would argue that they should call it ideal-right and left-ideal
💀
that doesn't sound ideal to me
In my own stuff i usually call a two sided ideal a strong ideal
Otherwise left or right
Or a normal ideal
Given how it related to a normal subgroup almost
rH = Hr for normal subgroup H
rI = Ir (= I) for two sided ideals
By the definition, 1 can be proven by showing that this ringc, call it Q_p, is a finitely generated module (with an associative algebra) over Z/pZ of degree 4
therefore it is module isomorphic to (Z/pZ)^4 which has cardinality p^4?
idk
WAIT
it's p^4 because it's a dim 4 vector space over F_p
Same proof different words given Z/pZ is a field
Btw isn’t that the module algebra F_q[Q_8/Z(Q_8)]
or smth
idk
are you asking if this doodad is iso to that?
we dont do politics here
trying to think of a non-unit
thankfully we're taking p odd here so this ring is actually nice (semisimple)
assume x = a + bi + cj + dk is a unit
stop pinging the dude mizalign
i thought i had the reply pings off
srry
i had it off i must’ve turned in on again by accident
Q_8/Z(Q_8) \cong C_2 x C_2, the group algebra F_q[C_2 x C_2] is commutative so no they're not iso
ok cool
I’ll be back with a solution hopefully
i’m somewhat lazy so
x = a + bi + cj + dk
Then
x^-1 = (a - bi - cj - dk)/(a^2 + b^2 + c^2 + d^2) in F_q
so a^2 + b^2 + c^2 + d^2 ≠ 0 in F_p should be necessary and sufficient to prove an element unital
thing is, idfk what examples to choose
I know for certain each element in a prime field is the sum of two squares
so just chose any x, get x = a^2 + b^2
and -x = c^2 + d^2
So a + bi + bj + dk has F_p norm 0
So it’s a zero divisor
seems like you knew exactly what examples to choose
in fact, you chose all of them at once
Lol
also I quite like that this shows that every prime can be written as the sum of 4 squares
WAIT WHAT
a very funny proof for that result
dude someone gave me that sum of two squares as a challenge problem like 2 days ago, that’s the only reason why I thought of it
the only other proof I’ve seen of that was with quadratic forms in Serre’s Course in Arithmetic
i have it printed out on my bedstand lol
how would you show this without quadratic forms?
For the ideal bit you could argue like this: you know this is a 4-dimensional algebra (can be proved using the i,j,k relations) and any image of this algebra would again be an algebra satisfying the same assumptions (generated by F_p and i,j satisfying i^2=j^2=-1 and ij=-ji), so 4-dimensional => all its images are isomorphic to it => it has no ideals.
consider the endomorphism f(x) = x^2
i just used @rocky cloak 's method and showed that 1 is in the ideal
If f(x) = f(y), then x^2 - y^2 = (x+y)(x-y) = 0
but thanks for the advice
follow from there
don't know what a algebra is yet though
hint: no element is nilpotent of degree 2, sorry
Stuff akin to M_n(K) (a ring that is simultaneously a vector space so that ring multiplication and scalar multiplication commute). Prototypical examples include M_n(K), K[x] and the celebrated quaternions.
WOrds mixed UP
:uponthewitnessing: I cannot consider :tearsofthenile: a construction most mysterious :jubulantboltsofheaven:
i'll look into this as soon as i get to the vector space chapter
thanks 😄
Stuff akin to M n K a ring that is
this is a great example of non-division simple rings
My bad, I spoke out of turn (didn't know you were just starting out).
e.g having no nontrivial bi-ideals does not imply all elements are units
doing rings before vector spaces is cracked
M_n(D) is better imo
It's very easy to see that there's plenty of non-invertible elements
shut up about your endomorphism crap
I could find an ideal in M_n(D)
What would be a witty comeback to this
Your mother?
heteromorphism mapping you to my mother
AKA Br(F_p)=1
Since I have you here @rocky cloak, mind if I run something by you?
Shoot
I was trying to show an algebraic extension of a quasi-algebraically-closed field is QAC (QAC=homogenous polynomial polynomial of degree d in n variables with n>d has a non-trivial root). Clearly this reduces to the case of a finite extension, however I haven't made any headway there.
Sounds like some algebraic geometry magic maybe
If f=\sum_j a_jx^j is in L[x], then write out the a_j wrt a K-basis b_i and get a b_i-linear combination of homogenous K-polynomials. However I don't know what to do afterwards lol.
Your mother's fundamental group will be Z*Z once I'm done with her.
lol
I'll try there I guess.
Yeah, I have no idea, but I'll give it a think
No need to strain yourself, I'll take it next door.
ocean man, are you knowledgeable in galois theory
Depends on your definition of knowledgeable. Why?
kinda wondering if you know if there is a way to generalize Artin’s Lemma
What exactly do you mean by Artin's lemma?
if G is a finite subgroup of Aut(F)
and F^G is the fixed point subfield of F under G
then [F : F^G] = |G|
Also F/F^G is Galois with group G
I don't know anything about generalisations of this, I just know it as an auxiliary result in Galois theory used to prove the Galois correspondence in the finite case.
yeah
But, maybe a potential avenue could be some kind of invariant-theoretic/group-action thing?
i am wondering if there is some way to generalize galois theory to a larger class of rings via algebraic extensions (not just purely module extensions in the field case)
which finitely algebraicly generated <=> finitely module generated in the field case
Sorry, my man, I'm just a lowly undergrad far removed from such lofty ideas
found a proof here https://www.jstor.org/stable/1969785
i am not even an undergrad yet lol, just going off of D&F
That said I recall there was a chapter in Jacobson about Galois theory in the non-separable case or something like that. Not exactly what you're looking for, but it's something.
- someone more knowledgeable than me could tell you about Galois descent, afaik that's soooort of related (invariant stuff)
Group actions on rings and the resulting extensions R^G -> R is something people study at least. Dont know if thats what your going for
guess it would fall under geometric invariant theroy
or rep theory, lol
There is also some generalization of the galois correspondence where you replace groups with hopf algebras
though I dont remember exactly how that works
from Hopf Algebras and Galois Theory - Chase--Sweedler
If A is an R-coalgebra with unit (aka coaugmentation) A -> R, is there a name for the cokernel of the unit?
I just see it called JA but I wondered if e.g. "coaugmentation ideal" was common parlance lol
coaugmentation is a funny name so I would use it
ee major who does math as a hobby
Going into freshman year
never heard of a hopf algebra
Thabks
call it diminution for the music theory ref
Oh that's funny I happened to ask a question motivated by Hopf algebras just under someone mentioning hopf algebras
Don't see them too often in this channel
Is it supposed to be a section of the counit?
the unit is yes
EE is pretty based, but math's baseder. Welcome to the light.
fourier transforms go brrr
So the Brauer group of K describes finite-dimensional central division K-algebras. Do we have anything analogous for infinite-dimensional algebras?
what would even be the inverse in that case?
please no, i was a music major and i already have suffered at musical isomorphisms
(ii) states that $G_\mu$ is not compact. How does the fact that the kernel is a closed, normal subgroup of $G_\mu$ plus the fact that the quotient group is finite imply that $H$ is infinite? Also, how might I justify that the quotient group is finite?
mdc
I'm thinking the non-compactness is only used to extract the fact that G_\mu is not finite. But not sure this is correct
Well G mu is hard to be finite if it’s not compact
Any open cover would be finite there I think lol
Could one have that G_mu is infinite, G_mu/H is finite, and H is finite?
If you want to justify why G_mu/H is finite too, it looks like a subgroup of permutation on r elements?
What text is this btw @pallid matrix
" Products of Random Matrices with Applications to Schrödinger Operators" by Philippe Bougerol, Jean Lacroix
Yes, that makes sense thanks
Interesting
My algebra is extremely rusty so I'm having trouble parsing this
Yeah I mean it’s a little awkward looking to me with the typewriter setup lmao
And idk the action(s) etc
But if it’s not compact and finite, that’s an issue since P(G mu) is kinda finite
Right, and that’s the conclusion you draw from (ii)
If you’re reading what (ii) is correctly and all
I don’t feel like digging up and reading the whole text 
Yes, but how do I conclude that the H (the kernel) is infinite as well?
So, if H is finite, and G is infinite
How do you get G/H finite
Elements of G/H are equivalence classes right?
yes
Union of them is G
And G is infinite, but you have finitely many classes
How big is each class?
Of course they’re all ||the size of H||, because of how they’re defined
This make sense?
This seems like an interesting topic, why dig up this clearly old paper?
only from 1985, looks much older than that by the typewriting lmao
Yes, I need to fill in some details however but I think I can continue by myself from here
I am trying to understand Furstenberg's theorem on products of random matrices
Ah I see
I hate typewriter typesetting in math
Any particular holes I can help with?
This is an alternative resource but it does not contain this proof https://www.mat.uc.cl/~jairo.bochi/docs/fur_revised.pdf
I see, and readable 
Ok this is kinda interesting but above my pay grade on the measure shenanigans
To argue that G/H is finite, I can use (a corollary of) the "First isomorphism theorem", which states that the G/H is isomorphic to the image of the homomorphism, which in this case is a subset of the set of all permutations of a finite set. No?
The corollary I'm referring to is this
Thank you
You can indeed
I do not believe it is strictly necessary but ye
G = U(G/H) unioning the equiv classes, and each equiv class has cardinality |H|
And they’re disjoint
This is for G/H to be finite
Ah right
Oop
I misread as G finite nvm me
Ye that’s exactly what I was suggesting earlier don’t mind my illiteracy
Thanks to both of you
One variant of Lagrange's theorem says that
|H| * |G/H| = |G|
Works for any cardinality, also infinite
what
what
well G/H is a set

ur not.
You don't know me
would you rather jagr state "the size of a complete left transversal of H in G" rather than "|G/H|"
G/H is a G-set. It's very standard to write it as G/H
idk what a G-set is
basis of the burnside ring mmmmm yummyyy
Set with a G-action on it
U know group actions I'm sure
probably
D:
you don't get to have an opinion on notation then
As a side-note, I once mispronounced 'set' as 'sex' in a class while asking a question. It was the most embarassing thing in my life, I think.
I would have continued pronouncing it as "sex"
Chad
but what was the question
"how is babey made"
Something like "can you explain the intuition behind these sets"
so when one element and another element love each other very much...
they create a product
ermm... what the deuce??
suppose it isnt true. prove directly it is true. #. sotrue
well it's obviously true if it's a division ring so assume that it isn't
now if ab \neq 0 for some a,b in R then (a) is a strictly larger ideal than (0) - could still be the whole got darn thang tho
but it's only the whole ring if there is NO non-zero b such that ab = 0 very curious
R=U says that 1 must be in U. So you know there must be a inverse element for say, b. But let us assume that ab = 0, then abb^-1=(ab)b^-1=0 = a(bb^-1)=a, hence contradiction, so it must be a division ring
yeah zero-divisors cannot be units
How can it be a division ring or a ring with prime numbers if ab=0 is leads to a contradiction
wait are your rings unital
must be since you're using inverses
i have not heard of a unital ring so far 😅
cause if they are then a = 1a = 0 for all a in R lol
unital ring is a ring R s.t. R = {0}?
no
it's a ring with a 1
although we saw yesterday that the quaternions mod p are a non-divison ring with no non-trivial ideals
so they're somehow in the latter category?
idk haha
I just don't believe this result
I believe I mentioned this yesterday, but a unital ring is a ring that has a 1
We occasionally want to think about rings which do not contain unity (i.e., 1) but nowadays people are fond of calling them rngs or rungs.
rungs
that's how they say rng anyway
hahah
rite
have you get any thoughts on an actual proof of this mofo though
facts and also true
I can believe it though, as I said before:
So ok it has to have a prime number of elements bc we'd have nontrivial additive subgroups
why the multiplication though hmmm
if ab \neq 0 for some b in R then (a) is a strictly larger ideal than (0) - I'm not sure how you determine when the ideal is the whole ring as units don't exist? Left/right-cancellability I guess
OK let's think about that
good spot
Actually, maybe there's a definition of 'division rung' that we're unaware of
where every nonzero element divides every other
it quite clearly says "division ring" boss
Even so maybe we can argue why there's an identity, but I kinda doubt it
In the first place the zero ring kinda fits this
also the mod p quaternions are a ring that do not satisfy the latter property lol - they're order p^4
uh-oh spaghetti-ohs
Then there is either context not seen here or this is just wrong
great counterexample with the matrices btw
Or is that just two-sided ideals
I can't remember how the ideal structure works out
yeah it's just two sided whoops
the one sided ones are in a weird bijection with column spaces or something I can't remember
:(
I'm convinced it's because of this though, like this is what they're getting at
simmer down in the back, numerics boy
Fuck offfff
yeah but I'm wondering if we should try and argue that a unit exists through finiteness or sth
I don't see how we can assume that there isn't a unit and conclude finiteness, that seems weird
oh wait we're being stupid
I know
if (a) is a strictly larger ideal than (0) it is a proper subgroup of the additive group
but there aren't any 
Yeah?
so it's the whole ring
Well yeah but how's that help
We can't guarantee we have a unit from that, can we?
I did do the implication backwards so there could be a more mysterious thingymajig lurking in da void
yeah ok, so this is the part I no longer believe
there's just too many questions - does it mean two sided ideals only?
OK. If the ring has a unit then it's clear to see that it's a division ring from right simplicity – this is standard unital ring theory junk. If it doesn't, then let's say that for some a in R we have that the right ideal aR is nonempty, so it contains a. So there is some b in R such that ab = a. Does that get us somewhere?
Obviously it looks a lot like a unit.
is x^6-2 irreducible over F7
Try
Hint: every nonzero element of F7 is a member of a group of order 6
and then?
As for non-linear factors... you're fucked
wait, so it is irreducible?
Dunno man I just gave you a way to approach it
You only have like 6 things you can do here...
those are?
good advice
what is x^n for x in a group of order n
x = 1 is a counter example to that claim
oh
what we're trying to envoke is fermat's little theorem but that's alright
You're mixing up the additive group and multiplicative group
again, that just takes care of the linear factors which is the easy part
what's that result again? Hensel's lifting lemma or something?
won't help us as we can't get all the way to Z
annoying
hm, i’m confused
Wow you just spoiled the fun
so we got that 3^2 = 2 right
so x^6-2 = (x^3+3)(x^3-3) lol
Well it's easier to see if we just did a -7
oh wow hahah
Makes sense since each coset has the same cardinality, wasn't sure if that generalized to infinite groups
Axiomatic sex theory
OH NO NOT AGAIN
the axiom of depravity
Axiom of rizz
i would work off of the existence of an element NOT in any ideal YET is not a unit
Guys is hom(z/4,q/z) under addition, isomorphic to z/4
Here's a solution:
I assume R is meant to be a rng
||So if ab = 0 for every a and b, then an ideal is just a subgroup. And the only groups without proper nontrivial subgroups are those of prime order.
Now assume there are some elements where the product is nonzero. Consider an arbitrary b, if ab = 0, then (a)b = 0, so if a is nonzero (a)=R, so Rb = 0. But then (b) = Zb and so the product of any two elements is 0, contradiction.
So for a and b nonzero ab is never 0, thus we have cancellation. Now consider the product of 3 nonzero elements abc. Since this is nonzero we have (abc) = R. In particular there exists r in R and n in Z such that (r+n)abc = c = (ra+na)bc.
Define 1 = (ra + na)b.
Note d1c = dc implies d*1 = d.
Assume 1*d does not equal d. Then 1*d - d is nonzero, so a(1*d - d) = (a*1 - a)d is nonzero. Cancelling d we get a*1 - a, which is 0, contradiction. So 1*d = d, and 1 is unity.
From there, using cancellation and 1 it's not hard to show that R is a division ring.||
I swapped right ideal for left ideal. So I guess just reverse all multiplications
What is the use of cayleys theorem?
It didn't make sense to me at all until I realized that it said "a group of one-to-one" which just means that a group exists, so there are at least as many one-to-one functions as there are group elements, which seems kind of obvious
it's used in the construction of a galois extension for an arbitrary group
Wait what
Not a field, not even a ring, but a group?
Could you please direct me to an example?
you can also get funny permutation representations!!!
Yeah the book is talking about permutations now
The things its saying don't make sense to me, which suggests that I misunderstood something
it basically means you can think of any group as just permutations
Q(x) is all of the expressions of the form a/b where a,b in Q[x], b!=0, gcd(a,b)=1 right?
don't see why you need the gcd bit
oh right you're implicitly dividing them
yeah ok
Deeply cursed, gg for working this out
Dealersgrip
holy smokes
Wait what's a plain old morphism
the f(H) is correct at least
for your purposes, a homomorphism
ok nice, that's at least 1/2
Imma troll some people by inventing the heteromorphism
Define it
classic 
Interesting, it's the funny adjunctions
seems to be adjunction but for special snowflakes
Damn. I thought I was onto something
no it doesn't
just write out Hom(F(a), b) rather than Het(a, b)
As in the name makes sense
I guess
I don't especially think it's terribly helpful but we
Is my proof for K correct?
"are you heteromorphic or himomorphic"
"Biomorphic, actually. 3.14159 on the Kinsey-Galois scale"
Are we saying that A<B means A is a strict subgroup of B?
Like subset but keeps operator and closure property?
yeah
yeah it's right
perfect thanks a lot
???
Oh
Gal(F(X1…X_N)/F) is iso to S_N
Yeah its talking about that
You shouldn't write x = f^{-1}(x') or y = f^{-1}(y'), rather f(x) = x' and f(y) = y'. Seems like a nitpick but writing x = f^{-1}(x') implies f has an inverse f^{-1}. In general f^{-1}(x') = {x | f(x) = x'} so writing x = f^{-1}(x') doesn't quite make sense. Other than that your argument is fine, if f(x) = x' and f(y) = y' then f(xy) = f(x)f(y) \in K, so xy \in f^{-1}(K)
yes thank you very much, it's still an important detail
Galois theory eludes me
Wait what are elementary symmetric functions
In mathematics, specifically in commutative algebra, the elementary symmetric polynomials are one type of basic building block for symmetric polynomials, in the sense that any symmetric polynomial can be expressed as a polynomial in elementary symmetric polynomials. That is, any symmetric polynomial P is given by an expression involving only ad...
the polynomials invariant under permutation of their roots
*vars
Q(x,y,z) is basically all the polynomial fraction type deals where top and bottom are of the form a + bx + cy + dz
elementary ones are specific ones which generate all symmetric polynomials
Wouldn't that be the constants then? Not sure I follow
No wait
These are transcendental
So it's all polynomials of all exponents and coefficients
This is a biiiig field
x + y
xy
x + y + z
xy + xz + yz
xy isn't, xy + yx is though
f(y, x) = yx = xy = f(x, y)
When you say invariant
What does that mean exactly? That the counts of each exponent are the same?
E.g.
axy^2z^3
ax^3y^2z
ax^2y^3z
I don't have a good picture of this in my head
for all $\sigma \in S_n$ we have $f(x_1, \ldots, x_n) = f(x_{\sigma(1)}, \ldots, x_{\sigma(n)})$
however when we say elementary symmetric we mean a specific kind of symmetric polynomials
or in words, if you swap the variables (i.e. taking f(y,x) instead of f(x,y)), the output is the same
Which means both indeterminates must have the same exponent in each of the components of the expression
and in fact those elementary symmetric polynomials generate every symmetric polynomial. in other words: if $e_1, \ldots, e_n$ are the elementary symmetric polynomials then $$\bC[x_1, \ldots, x_n]^{S_n} = \bC[e_1, \ldots, e_n]$$
not necessarily in each component, since xy^2 + yx^2 is symmetric
symmetric polynomials are used in doing discriminant/resultant stuff and also algebraic geometry iirc
This book seems to be focusing on something related to geometry
A cyclic group is any one that has a generator, right?
Is the additive group of a ring always cyclic? Trying to think of a way where the multiplicative identity
Wait
2x2 matrices are a ring, right? Even if the matrix elements are of a finite field, you cant generate the group from the 2x2 identity matrix
No
No to which
As in, your example is right
The additive group of a ring is almost never cyclic
In fact the only such rings are (gasp) Z/nZ
where n is possibly 0
I'm used to dealing with stuff isomorphic to Z/nZ
To be fair, there are a a lot of those. Aleph-null of them, even.
Yeah but there are a lot more rings that ain't
And I can't even put a size to that
bc it's so much bigger, I reckon
not that I have a proof 
Aleph-one
Aleph-three
Hm can you never put a different multiplication on Z/nZ
I've never thought about it lol
Oh yeah sure it is determined by 1.1 = 1 lol
fair
Do you mean a different multiplicative identity?
Oh a different mapping of a×b ?
It's not immediate that 1 is the unit, but you can think about the characteristic of R whose additive group is Z/nZ. It's clear that char R = n, so it must contain a copy of Z/nZ as a ring
So even if we choose a different unit, it doesn't matter
I explained that sloppily but I hope it makes sense
I think I got it
Even if you permuted 0..n-1
If the resulting set is still a ring, then that ring is isomorphic to z/nZ
Wait what about phi(x)=-x
what about it
I'd like to see them stop me
Negation doesn't preserve multiplicative identity
Is "minus Z" still a ring?
I don't know what that means
If you mean that we can permute it in that way and still have an isomorphic ring, yes
Replace each element x in Z with -x
But it's not anautomorphism
Cuz -(xy) != (-x)(-y)
Not all transforms that produce isomorphisms are automorphisms
I don't know what that means
That's not an isomorphism
Automorphisms are, by definition, isomorphisms
Which one preserves f(a)f(b) = f(ab) then
But f(15) = -15
f(3)f(5) = (-3)(-5) = 15
Again, so what
I'll use your idea, maybe this is the way you're trying to express it
We define a new ring
We'll call it R,
its underlying additive group will be Z.
Okay
We will define the multiplication a * b = phi(a)b
Let's double-check this forms a ring
It's pretty clear that -1 is going to be the multiplicative identity. You can see the multiplication is going to be distributive since (a+b)*c = phi(a+b)c = phi(a)c + phi(b)c
ah just realised I used the same symbol. I'll fix that
Hopefully you can see how the rest will work
This ring, R, is isomorphic to Z.
I thought at least one morphism had to have phi(ab) = phi(a)phi(b)
Maybe homomorphisms?
Yeah, phi : Z → R is now an isomorphism of rings
You're getting confused. Homomorphisms, isomorphisms, automorphisms of rings all have this property
But again, phi : Z → Z is not a ring homomorphism.
But it's not a transform on Z
It's a new ring with the same set and different operators
It is a function on Z.
Oh you're not talking about 'it' being phi
Yes, this is a new ring
This is the whole point I've been making
A function on Z
The book I'm reading mostly focuses on transforms that map one group/ring/field to another
So you're not using the word transform in the way I thought you were aaaaaaa
Please use the usual terminology such as 'function'
Sorry this book called them transformations
OK
Or "mappings"
Anyway this was the point
Would "mapping" work?
mapping is standard.
phi is not a ring automorphism Z → Z
but it is a group automorphism Z → Z
And using that automorphism, we produced a new ring structure on Z
For the additive group
When people refer to the group Z, they mean the additive group without fail.
Ahhh ok, thanks.
Just clarification on the terminology:
A homomorphism is a structure-preserving function.
An isomorphism is a homomorphism with an inverse homomorphism.
An automorphism is an isomorphism from something to itself.
Right, like "mod n" is a homomorphism on Z, right?
You can think of the map n |-> n + mZ as being 'mod m'
but I don't like this!
This is misleading!
But indeed, that is a homomorphism Z → Z/mZ
fixed typo
The mapping phi(x) -> the r from x = qn+r (euclidean thingy) is a homomorphism
Sure
Remember when we talked about choosing representatives?
You've composed the map x |-> x + nZ with the map that chooses representatives there.
Yeah. That r is my representative
It's way more natural and easy to think of mod as a relationship between integers rather than a function that chooses remainders
Oh I see what you mean
it makes things so much easier
Like
It is very easy to show that if a = b (mod n) and c = d (mod n) then ac = bd (mod n) using the idea of the relationship
proving that in terms of the remainder function is a pain
In software, the operator that computes that 'r' is called the modulus operator
I know
It is truly awful. That terminology is poor
So many undergrads think that's what modular arithmetic is...
Just wait till you see that it gives different answers for negative inputs
It's disgustingly bad
It's funny because I've seen languages use quot_rem for the function that produces the quotient and remainder
and that's great terminology, 10/10
Okay I gotta run
Thx for the knowledge
In theory if f : R -> X is a bijection (just of sets), R a ring and X just a set, you can put a ring structure on X by defining xy = f(f^{-1}(x) * f^{-1}(y)) and x + y = f(f^{-1}(x) + f^{-1}(y)), and in this case f is a ring isomorphism. Lol it's not super exciting but yeah you can put plenty of different ring structures on the same set
I mean of course but I mean in such a way that Z/nZ is the additive group
ahhh like same additive group, different multiplication
you can obviously do it in the same way: define the multiplication as a*b = -ab for a single example
Now this doesn't work for n=2, but that's for a good reason :)
Ye lol
Classifying finite rings is weird
Well just never thought about it or seen any applications
kinda sick tho
Z/nZ^op
Ur clever! Nice proof
thx!
there are for some elements
consider -1 in Z
but not all are, because 2 has no inverse in Z
alright so unit elements are these elements as you described
yes i understand
very cool thnks
so a unit in Z can be -1
The set *cough* of units is denoted R^x. What is this for Z
right but this is a contradiction to that definition then
That doesn't break the definition you've been given.
gcd in a euclidean ring shuri
No.
uhhh i forgot that shit
gcd function in Z at least
relatively prime <-> gcd is a unit
not every unit will show up
not necessarily anyway
well its best if you consider examples and non-examples for given defns
alright
product of units are also units right?
prove it.
Consider the obvious choice of inverse Holmes
hint?
In fact, prove $R^\times$, the set of units form a particular structure, have a guess
nah. not til uve had a good go. falls out from the defn of unit
the obvious one
casually written but ite.
(ab)(b^-1a^-1) = 1
you asked if the product of two units was a unit...
oh so a unit has a inverse then?
$r\in R$ is a unit iff $(\exists s\in R)(rs = sr = 1)$
if a and b are units you know ax = by = 1 for some x,y. To prove (ab)z = 1 for some z, you should use commutativity, along with x and y
no offense but what the fuck did you think a unit was 
a is a unit if ab = 1 for some b
what is an (multiplicative) inverse then...
hah...
ok so now it should be obvious that the set of all units is a group
I kinda feel like u guys are being sorta mean to jonathan rn
spoilers !
grumpy even
hum. it usually has even order if finite right.
must usually be Z_2 x ??? ...
my intuition on rings is so weak even tho its supposed to be more 'familiar' than groups...
This. So much this.
You should prove a few things about units along the way:
- Prove inverses are unique (this justifies writing a^{-1} for the inverse)
- Prove (ab)^{-1} = b^{-1}a^{-1}
- Prove 1^{-1} = 1
- Conclude that the set of units is a group
Probably because the only intuitive examples for rings include 3 fields, Z, the basic finite fields, and then disgusting non-integral domains and not really much in between
Ok maybe k[x] and Z[x]
Idk to me rings were easies to grasp than groups because groups use awful combinatoric arguments that I could never fucking come up with
gyuh.
I think cayley makes groups so much easier to understand
This classifies all of them.
I hate permutations with my life so you are WRONG

doing stuff in S_n is actually the most unfun thing ever for me
I hate it so much lol
no
Combinatorial group theory is THE fun
i cant even.
I hate S_n
but permutations are lit actions
What do you think a group action is
sully
ala my life is better because of it
sully
our algebra class had like 4 fucking classes where we talked abt nothing but S_n it was hell
it was like
is this trauma... 
S_n… le bad!!
The regular rep:
"In the C part of the class we'll use these results to prove that the quintinc in unsolvable with radicals"
Nilpotency is easy
i really barely give a sht about that ngl
Upper/Lower central series are dreadful
slept in the last part of galois class
Is it a direct product of its sylow subgroups y/n
So easy
There’s also function rings by extension of those understandable ones
idf care that class destroyed group theory for me
Awwww poor baby
I wanted Sylow to choke
I nearly failed first year group theory
does wew need cuddles to feel better 🥺
i didnt gaf about sylow...
i hate sylow proofs
i dont feel like i missed anything
nah sylow is actually cool I was fucking with you lmao
get fucked
OK I wasn't but it would be funny if I was wouldn't it
Not from YOU… if you could put me in contact with your mother however…
Sylow is not cool until you extend the theorems to general fusion systems
what if I inform you I am someones mother?
u werent having any of us on
the anime pfp doesn't understand high brow humor (ala seinfeld)
that's okay
Hater of automorphisms
muncher of ice
So, if a ring has a unique maximal ideal, m, can I say that x \notin m implies x is a unit? It seems so, because every non unit is contained in a maximal ideal, in this case, m.
Yes
I'm sure I will use this fact to great affect 
perhaps also to great effect!
don't be absurd.........
wow tteg is back 
localization of prime go brrr
yo how important are hom and duality in the study of tensor products
my school's aboutta start and i'm tryna study the more important stuff
they're pretty handy imo
The fact that $Hom(X\otimes Y, Z) = Hom(X, Hom(Y, Z))$ comes up a lot
jagr2808
are they like necessary to study tensor products or can i just skip that section
oh well i guess hungerford gave a dependence chart
Depends what you're doing with tensor products I suppose
``On the other hand, it is also convenient to think of $A \otimes_R B$ as a sort of dual notion to $\text{Hom}_R(A, B)$."
,tex ``quote''
jagr2808
They are basically the definition
So yes
okeyokay
oh ok i'll check out that section then
this shit so abstract, truly an #groups-rings-fields moment 😭
So I mean
Basically the intuition for tensor products is that there's a natural notion of multilinear maps out of a product
Like multilinear A x B -> C
I guess the question is, why are you so eager to learn about tensor products, but not about the hom functor?
The hom functor is the cool one
And it'd be nice if we could just view those as maps out of another module
idk i always hear things about tensor products and i want to learn what i hear about the most often
A (x) B is then the one doing that
i have no clue what a multilinear map is
what exactly is the hom functor 👀
plus i have like two more weeks until school starts and then i have to concentrate on my other classes
Hom(A, B)
As in, space of maps A->B lol
ermmm actually it's Hom(A, -) sweaty
It's a bifunctor bucko
contravariant functors are not functors
yeah Idk what this means

it’s a bifunctor