#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 140 of 1
I'm having trouble checking the distributivity property of $\text{Hom}_\mathbb{Z}(R, J)$ as a unitary left $R$-module, with the action of $R$ defined by $(r\phi)(x) = \phi(xr)$, any hints?
okeyokay
it should be p clear if you just evalute on an element
like
like what is ((r + s)\phi)(x)
oh i was talking about the other distributive property but yea that's probably also instructive
tbf there are actually two distributivity things
i find this funny cause like
ig there are least two meanings of homotopy category lol
this is the HOMOTOPIC category
lol
yea i'm just struggling to use the definitions lol, i'm just confused about what $r(\varphi \circ \phi(x))$ is, it would be $\varphi\phi(rx)$ but I'm unsure as to how that equals $\varphi(rx) \circ \phi(rx)$ lol
okeyokay
i don't know maybe i have to use something about homogeneity
is that the term for extracting scalars out of a r-module homomorphism
homogeneity and additivity right
i assume you mean (r \varphi \phi)(x) but in any case Hom_Z(R,J) is just a module
like
There isn't a multiplication in it
you can't compose the elements unless R = J
ye
here the homotopic category is that all the objects are the same but you quotient out all the homotopies from the morphisms because the category is assumed to be enriched over Ab so the morphisms homotopic to 0 form a subgroup that you quotient out
wait wdym i thought by definition it's an abelian group under composition
Yeah I understand it to be that one just not heard the term "Homotopic category" used for this ever
But fair yeah seems some people do that
fair nuff
ohh
I mean like
okay that makes a lot more sense
Composing homomorphisms is basically never gonna give you a group (unless they're all automorphisms by definition) let alone an abelian one
Here it wouldn't make sense to compose them
oh wait yea composition wouldn't even be defined
Ye
If your abelian category has enough protectives, the derived category is equivalent to the homotopy category of protectives. (So you don't need to worry about quotients or localizations)
Bounded derived category that is
googles quotient category
googles homotopy category
googles chain of a category
googles abelian category
lol
Don't bring model categories into this. Filthy homotopy theorists
Isn't that what you're talking about basically lol
Shhh
Homological algebra is just a type of homotopy theory anyway
We don't speak of the model structure
what kinda math(s) do you do jagr
no lol
wdym irony
Homological algebra for finite dimensional algebras
well when you say projectives what you're doing is taking a model structure and using that to localise wrt weak equivalences in a nice way
inch resting
Yeah the protectives should be the cofibrant or fibrant or whatever word homotopy theorists use
I'd rather think of them as the image of the adjoint to verdier localization
cofibrant ye
Or just you know... Projective modules
but i think it's nicely defined here given how like projective objects are defined in terms of lifting properties already
i need to learn more about the like
derived category for algebra though lollike the verdier stuff
probs just weibel chap 10
Also don't you need like your category to be complete or something to define model structure and stuff?
any category that isn't complete isn't worth thinking about
(I'm just trying to come up with reasons to hate on homotopy theory)
yeah usually they are required to have all small limits and colimits
Finite dimensional modules would like a word
i think originally Quillen just required them to have all finite limits and colimits
but ye
gulp
I think maybe Neemann is the usual reference for localization of triangulated categories, kind of technical though.
Oh okay thank
I don't know what Weibel does
Me neither yet but defines triangulated cats at least lol
how category theorethic do you want your explanation of derived cats
https://www.math.utah.edu/~milicic/Eprints/dercat.pdf
You might be interested in this potat
it works up from localizations to derived cats
and proves way too much lol
238 pages, we got a lot of material
here they mean f + g for fg right
having trouble seeing homogeneity f
fbar(rg) = f(rg) but like you can't just pull the r out to get rf(g)
No it’s composition
oh right
f: A->J, g: R -> A
So fg: R -> J
Am I interpreting this wrong or are the last two sentences not actually contributing to the proposition as it's stated?
Ah wait I think aH=Ha is stronger than "left cosets are right cosets" and that's why those sentences are there...
no it's weaker
"left cosets are right cosets" implies H is normal
aH=Ha doesn't
But if aH=Ha then for any ah there is an h'a so that ah=h'a, meaning aha^{-1}=h', so aHa^-1=H, right?
Do you meant this for a specific a or for any a in G
oh wait is that how you define normal groups? 
yea, that looks correct sorry
Ah I see
Also as I understand, normality is a property had by a subgroup so technically aren't there no "normal groups"?
yea
Ah oops yes
"This group is isomorphic"
let $\mathbb F_q$ be a field of odd order $q$ and consider the polynomial $\frac12(1+x^{(q+1)/2} + (1-x)^{(q+1)/2)})$. I want to show that this polynomial is the square of another polynomial (this is exercise 3.47 in lidl and niederreiter). I have shown so far that if $z\in \mathbb F_q$ is a root, then it is at least a double root and it satisfies that both $z$ and $1-z$ are not squares in $\mathbb F_q$. But that doesnt really seem to help me cause I dont even know if there are enough of these elements so that the poly splits in $\mathbb F_q$ and not in some extension (for which my argument breaks down). in the book the surrounding questions are all about irreducible polynomials which really stumps me cause clearly this poly cannot be irreducible. but maybe I am just on the completely wrong track?
denascite

So, Im not really understanding what an algebra is. Would someone mind providing me something I can read that could help me get an intuitive understanding of them
it's a vector space but you can multiply the vectors
The definition of algebra varies quite a bit depending on the field youre in. Typically the definition is just a module over a commutative ring (or vector space over a field) equipped with a bilinear operation usually called multiplication. In many context there are extra assumptions, such as associativity or unitality
In which case an alternate definition would be a ring with a commutative ring (or field) in it's center.
A field extension is an example
I believe 3d real vectors with the cross product is too, for one that isn’t commutative or associative?
In which context are you learning about them?
it is yeah, a very spooky space indeed
it's a lie algebra as well for a nice bonus
Idk any spooky other algebras that are fairly often used except like obvious things
like R[X] if rings are allowed
heisenberg algebra?
I don’t know that offhand so maybe 
take the commutators from the presentation of the heisenberg group and just pretend they're lie brackets 

The power set with addition given by symmetric difference and multiplication given by intersection.
Witt vectors
@delicate orchid @topaz solar so Im working on a research problem centered around polynomial rings, which Im told are algebras (specifically they’re k algebras if we have R = k[vars] iirc) but I dont really understand what that means
yeah they're algebras
vector addition is given by polynomial addition, the multiplication is polynomial multiplication, and scalar multiplication is just multiplying by some element of k
Well R = k[x, y] might not be finitely generated as a vector space, but it is an algebra I believe
true, is that meant to mean something I said was wrong?
confused by the phrasing
I also don't think k[x] is finitely generated as a vector space
I’m not saying that, I’m saying the vector space generators aren’t the same as the algebra generators
An algebra is a ring that's also a module
So k[x] is a ring but its also a k-module, so it's a k-algebra
it's not finite
Certainly not as a vector space (or cardinality)
Should be generated by x and y though?
It's generated by x and y as an algebra
But algebras are usually called finite when they're finitely generated as vector spaces
an algebra is a σ-algebra but you only require closure under finite unions, not countable ones
Finitely generated, not finite
Made me pull out my copy of Eisenbud smh
Yes
Finitely generated - finitely generated as an algebra
Finite - finitely generated as a module
I hate algebra terminology sometimes but yep
The difference is very important
I've also seen "finitely generated" vs "finite type"
The latter being used in the context of R-algebras and the former for modules
# all fields are F2
But every ring is a module, isnt that kind of trivial?
Is the negation of "left cosets are right cosets" the statement "the partition of the group into left cosets is not the same as the partition into right cosets, even up to relabeling of the cosets"?
Put another way, at least one of the left cosets is not equal to any right coset
they often occur appear in analysis
for instance, the set of real continuous functions over [0, 1] is an algebra
there's this famous result called stone-weierstrass
beyond this I got no clue either lmfao
and I would love to hear an answer
Okay if I understand this stuff correctly
Z/pZ is a homomorphism Z -> Fp (which is interesting that it produces a field with nonzero characteristic from a non field)
But Z/qZ where q=p^k, k>1, would not be a homomorphism
Because there doesnt seem to be a way to preserve + and × while keeping a field characteristic less than q
how do you define a field being a homomorphism
and I've mostly seen finite vs finite type for modules and algebras respectively
btw your Z/qZ isn't a field lol
Well if a homomorphism h(x) on R -> R' is a mapping such that + and × are preserved
I.e. h(a) + h(b) = h(a+b)
h(a)h(b) / h(ab)
"Mappings of rings that preserve + and × are called homomorphisms"
do you mean Z -> Z/p is a homomorphism
but how can A RING be A MORPHISM?
Fine. Z/nZ refers to the ring produced by a homomorphism
If n is prime, the result is a field
have you heard of flat morphisms
flat rings are a thing
flat morphisms are a thing
ergo morphisms are a ring
so true


Its based on the flat earth proof
anyway
The ring Z/nZ is can be produced by a homomorphism from Z
If n is prime then the resulting ring is also a field
tf is going on
the only time I've used flat morphisms was in the context of toric degenerations
If n is a greater prime power the result is not the field F_p^k. There is no homomorphism from Z to F_p^k with k>1
most people would say "Z/nZ is a quotient ring of Z" since asserting B is a quotient ring of A is the same as giving a surjective homomorphism A -> B
Okay those are some words I can work with
first sentence is correct, second is not
help why is $\bar{f}$ a monomorphism 💀 $\bar{f}(g_1) = \bar{f}(g_2) \rightarrow f \circ g_1 = f \circ g_2$ but the condition that $f$ is a monomorphism only works with elements of $A$ right
there is precisely one homomorphism from Z to any other (unital) ring
okeyokay
make sure you hit land's end trail
super cool stuff
hint: if f: Z -> R for R any ring, and i know f(1), what does that say about f(n)? what does f(1) have to be?
since $f$ is a monomorphism it has the left cancellation property, i.e. $f\circ g_1 = f\circ g_2 \implies g_1 = g_2$
Irony Incarnate
maybe you mean that F_p^k isn't a quotient of Z for k>1
oh i didnt know that i guess that's a basic fact about functions
it's the definition of a monomorphism
o
a monomorphism is defined to have this property
That's why it's more general than an injective function tho a lot of the time they're the same
hungerford just defined it as an injective map of sets which is a homomorphism
tho you can also prove this holds for injective function
It's the other way around for surjective/epic morphisms
or rather a homomorphism that is injective as a map of sets
I think on Set the concept of a monomorphism and injective homomorphism are the same
What would a homomorphism from Z to GF(4) look like?
x mod 4
or sorry no
well there's a copy of F_2 inside F_4, so it's the map Z -> F_2 followed by the inclusion F_2 -> F_4
if you write F_4 as F_2[x]/(x^2+1), then you can see the inclusion here as the elements 0, 1
Ohhhhh I see
I guess technically you could say that
(Cue futurama reference)
You're just taking the homomorphism to a subring (subfield)
That doesn't seem very useful though
There doesnt seem to be a way to have a ring automorphism that doesnt preserve 1 and 0
that's kinda
the point?
Just checking
well maybe you're looking for homomorphisms of not rings
rng homomorphism
or Z-module homomorphisms
(Abelian group homomorphism)
No. I've been given a new concept here (homomorphisms, automorphisms) and I'm trying to construct scenarios to check my understanding
Also doesn't the map $\varphi: A \to \text{Hom}R(R, A)$ require that R is commutative, because $\varphi(r_1a) = f{r_1a}$ and for any $r \in R$, $f_{r_1a}(r) = r(r_1a)$ but $r_1\varphi(a) = r_1f_a$ and for any $r \in R$, $r_1f_a(r) = r_1(ra) \neq r(r_1a)$ if R is non-commutative
The book glosses over the fact that the homomorphism might not use the entire target ring
okeyokay
Btw which letter is a v with a vertical bar
This book uses that one
$\psi$?
The great Sharp
An automorphism on a group doesnt need to preserve the identity
In the additive group of Z/nZ, psi(x) = x + k would be an automorphism
There would be a similar thing for the coprime multiplicative group, but it's not as simple
Multiplicative would actually preserve identity thoug
So forget that one
that is not an automorphism
any heroes?
yeah
exhibit your heroic nature.
by the way, a composition-preserving map of a group -> group necessarily preserves the identity
which is kind of neat
$\phi(e) = \phi(ee) = \phi(e)\phi(e)$ so $\phi(e) = e$ tada
wew
or e'
yur
eeeeeee
my fav number was e
2.71
how do you guys decompose ideals
can someone do an example
like for example (x^2,xy,2)
?
over Z[x,y]?
(6) = (2) \cap (3)
yea
ok u get it then
over Z or any UFD i can just factorize the elements
but
idk how to factorize x for example
Z[x,y] is a UFD
why are you trying to factorise a prime?
6 isn't prime
the "fundamental theorem on homomorphisms" says that the image is canonically isomorphic to the quotient of the domain by the kernel
so if you haven't gotten to that it's worth it
It is more commonly known as the first isomorphism theorem
are you trying to do primary decomposition?
yes
No the module structure on (R, A) is defined as (rf)(x) = f(xr). Remember R is a bimodule
what is a bimodule?
ah ok
thank u
o
left and right module
both a left and right module, where (rm)s = r(ms) for r,s in the ring, m in the module
Context is crossed products (i.e. f is a 2-cocyle and (L,G,f) is an algebra generated by L and elements satisfying relations in the 1st image), the statement is about how if f and g are cohomologous, then A=(L,G,f) and B=(L,G,g) are isomorphic. Is it just me or is the calculation in the 4th image wrong?
By definition $\varphi(1_A)=\varphi(f(1,1)^{-1}u_1)=f(1,1)^{-1}\lambda(1)v_1$, but by definition of coboundaries $g(1,1)^{-1}=\sigma(\lambda(1))f(1,1)^{-1}$, not $\lambda(1)f(1,1)^{-1}$.
Ocean Man
Maybe the definition of $\varphi$ should've been $\varphi(xu_\sigma)=x\sigma(\lambda(\sigma))v_\sigma$?
Ocean Man
No wait, that doesn't make sense either, because then it won't be \sigma(\lambda(1)). What do?
Lol, nvm, I forgot to set the outside sigma to 1. Bamboozled again.
I'm attempting this problem:
Suppose A is a ring such that, if an ideal I is not contained in its nilradical (N), then I contains some non-zero idempotent element. Prove that the Jacobson radical (J) = N in A
I'm specifically trying to prove that J \subseteq N, and doing so by contradiction. So supposing j \in J but \notin N, there exists some x such that x = aj and x idempotent. Since j \in J, 1-jy is a unit for all y \in A, specifically 1-x is a unit. I've used this to show 1 - x = 1 + x, and now I'm kind of stuck
I'd like a hint
it is commutative yeah
But that doesn't necessarily mean x = 0
which is what I'd like to show in a perfect world
Right, but it’s certainly not good for something like (1+x)^2
Funny characteristic 2 lookin thing
-x = x
(1 + x) = 1 + 2x + x^2
= 1 + x^2
and similar on the 1-x side
Something using that x is idempotent?
well it's the specific combination of 1-x being a unite and x idempotent
unit
Well, more generally 1-jy is a unit for any y
(where x = aj)
so not only is 1-x, but also 1 - 2x, and 1 - jx, etc

This is similar to some other problems I've done, but I'm not seeing a connection
If it’s idempotent we should be able to get like, x^n - x zero right?
For all n?
Uhh that would be 2n-4
If x is idempotent then so is 1-x, hence not a unit
why is that?
(1-x)^2 = 1-x^2 = 1-x lol?
(1-x)(1-x) = 1 - 2x + x^2 = 1 - 2x + x = 1-x
also they said they had x = -x or smth
Is there a result that says idempotent elements aren't units
If a was idempotent and b was the inverse
x(1-x) = 0
ah
ab = 1 but aab = a
the 1 in question:
ah
1 is the only unit that's idempotent
that's the connection to the problem I've done before
Because that other problem used that exact expression x(1-x)
Welp, I appreciate the help
I think I uh, might be a bit tired lol
I may be stupid
tbf last time I did this problem, it took me forever to find that x(1-x) expression
not this problem, the last problem I did
If A is a K-algebra of dimension n and M is an A-module of K-dimension m, what is the dimension of End_A(M)?
I think only bounds are known?
at least as far as I've searched
Nvm, I forgot I had this in my notes: if A is simple (forgot to mention this) and B=End_A(M), then (dim_K(M))^2=|A:K||B:K|.
Double centraliser moment
Take it to #real-complex-analysis
Ok
There is no formula for this, unfortunately. It depends on the structure of the module and algebra deeply.
There are nice examples in rep theory of such things
I guess an interesting question is what possible values can be achieved. Maybe add the condition that M be indecomposable.
Getting 1 is pretty simple, and there is an obvious upper bound of m^2 .
I only know interesting restrictions in the case of the rep theory of groups
When A = KG, There is an integer m dividing dim M such that dim End(M) = [K(chi):K] m^2, where K(chi) is the field adjoin all elements of the character of M
Well ok, addendum: this is when M is simple
That's neat. But I guess in general [K(chi):K] could be pretty much anything, so maybe doesn't help so much
Yes but there are also some nice bounda for that in terms of G
Plus it’s relatively easy to calculate
On the other hand, this mysterious value m is considerably harder to calculate
Search term: Schur index
Any tips for someone heading into abstract algebra this fall? I've already started reading/studying Judson's Abstract Algebra.
first things first, fantastic pfp
secondly, if you can understand that book you'll be fine in a first course of AA
wait nvm this book is weird haha why does it have sage exercises
nvm this is pretty good
Many thanks!
Anyone else get off to writing morphisms without parentheses, e.g. fx instead of f(x)? Makes me feel strangely powerful.
Group theory moment
get off 
Sometimes for functors lol but not so much functions unless we're in a linear algebra context or smth
rep theory moment
Always for functors and (pre)images of sets, but I like parentheses for image of an element
I hate reverse polish
are you a nazi????
The trick is to never evaluate morphisms, then you can just write f
if you hate the polish
My algebra professor asking if we can still call it that or if it’s racist
Idk the Soviets weren’t fans either
Galstaff, Sorcerer of Light
I think once you know that x^{n-1} - 1 \in I that's enough, because x^{n-1} + I = 1 + I, implying x + I is invertible in R/I. If n = 2 then x + I is the identity in R/I which is fine, so in any case R/I is a field and I is maximal.
Oh I see
I took a class on banach algebras where the prof wrote (f x) for linear functionals f, which was really nice when embedding X into it's double dual, cause you could write (x* f) = (f x), had a nice symmetry to it
i have only ever seen <x, f>, which I don't mind
That does seem easier, thanks! This was the first problem I was able to do on my own so it seems Im improving
The notational idea (bilinear pairing of X and X*) is pretty standard in FA afaik, if not the exact notation your prof used.
Is there any easy way to find the subgroups of Gal$\bigl(\mathbb{Q}(\sqrt{2}, \sqrt{3}, \sqrt{5})/\mathbb{Q}\bigl)$? I've included the table of the permutations of the group as follows, but through computations I'm beginning to suspect that the group is abelian (is that even possible? for a permutation group of order 8 to be abelian)?
okeyokay
I guess it would have to be isomorphic to either Z8, Z4 x Z2 or Z2 x Z2 x Z2 if that's the case
well it would have to be isomorphic to Z2 x Z2 x Z2 since every auto is of order 2 if I'm correct
If memory serves correctly you're gonna want to look at permutations which preserve specific elements
but my galois is very very weak
hm okay ye i'll just look at the cyclic subgroup generated by each, shouldn't be too bad
i suspect that this is gonna be the lamest lattice ever lol
also consider like
oh wait i'm dumb all elements except the identity are of order 2
so obviously it's gonna be a lame ass lattice
still pretty sick tho
It gets more complex tho, like what are the subgroups of like, Gal(Q(sqrt2, cuberoot3)/Q) for example
oh yea i should think about that
Also you haven't found all the subgroups yet
there's a few which are like {p_0, p_1, p_2, \mu_1}
Which is isomorphic to uh, Z2 x Z2
I have no clue what that is
oh wait Z2 x Z2 is isomorphic to the klein V group my bad
smallest non cyclic group of order 4
ah
ugh now i have to destroy my lattice
It might be easier to ask "hey what are the subgroups of the thing this is isomorphic to"
but you also know by the uh
Lebesgue theorem?
yes
ye i know there are subgroups of order 4
2
and 1
or rather
potential ones but i know they exist
since we were just talking about them
so there can be at most two subgroups of order 4
if i'm not trippin and i remember correctly
ugh but i don't want to identify each auto with an element of z2 x z2 x z2
oh right oops
For another example, $p_0, p_1, \delta_2, and \mu_2$ are a subgroup
this is annoying
Galstaff, Sorcerer of Light
pick any 2 elements you like
the 3rd and 4th element of the subgroup are the identity and the product of the first elements you picked
Like, we're just making more copies of Z2 x Z2
ah that makes sense
I'm not sure how many there are tho....
oh yea and i guess each element is its own inverse
yeah ugh
(identity omitted)
||p1 p2 m1
p1 p3 d1
p2 p3 m2
p3 m1 d2
m1 d1 m2
d1 d2 p2||
I think this is all of them?
my question how did you know that the product of the first two elements (omitting the identity) guarantees that the subgroup is closed
like how do you not have to check that the subgroup itself is closed
but like how do you know that the product of distinct elements in the subgroup is in the subgroup
like say for example e, p1, p2, m1
so obviously we know p1 x p2 is in the subgroup
but why do you not have to check p2 x m1
or p1 x m1
well, p2 * m1 = p2 * p1 * p2 = p1
There's also like only 2 non trivial groups of order 4
Z_4 and Z_2 x Z_2
But this wouldn't necessarily work if we wanted the subgroups of D_8
jagr is about to pwn me
Intermediate extension, yes
ye the intermediate fields
but i thought it was generally easier to find the subgroups
of the permutations
then the intermediate field
s
In this case, it's definitely easier to just find those
like that's the whole entire point of the fundamental theorem of galois theory
Least for me
i mean it's just the 6 subgroups of order 4 that galstaff listed plus the trivial ones, the cyclic groups of each non-identity element of order 2 right
plus the identity of course
for a more complicated extension it absolutely won't be super easy
Pretty easy to find the subgroups of (Z/2)^3 if you just think of it as a vector space over F2
it will be very very hard
So like, in my earlier example of Q(sqrt2, cbrt3), the subfields might be harder to find
Yes, though I only count 7 subgroups of order 4
ah thank you
I think the galois group here is gonna be Z2 x Z3 but don't quote me on that
Probably not tbh
¯_(ツ)_/¯
I think it's iso to Q[x]/(x^2-2,x^3 - 3)
O might be Z2 x S3 then, if you start permuting roots of unity
Like I said, my galois is weak
UGH I DREW IT IN A WAY THAT I CAN'T DRAW THE SUBGROUPS OF ORDER 2 DIRECTLY UNDERNEATH EACH SUBGROUP OF ORDER 4 I'M SUCH AN IDIOT
stronger than mine fs
I mean, I passed the course
I'm much better with rings
because that's what I am actually looking at on a daily basis
and if you read back in this chat, you'll see I'm not the best lol
I'm actually gonna be examinator for a Galois theory exam in two weeks
no surprise there
W
lol
good enough
looks pretty cool
now time for the field lattice!
wish I could draw the problems I was solving lol
I mean, you can ig but I don't think they'd be super enlightening
especially considering it'd need to be n-dimensional
Lol
and n = 3 is TRIVIAL
Imagining drawing like homotopy theory now
Isn't that what all those arrows are for
Gonna draw an infinite sequence of topological spaces real quick
(X_n) 
help what's the easiest way to show that this series is abelian i don't want to give a million names to a million things
i guess i can use the third isomorphism theorem but that requires me to show that HiN is a normal subgroup of Hi+1N and that Hi+1N is abelian
nvm
i'm dumb
each one is obviously iso to Hi and the quotient groups are abelian
oops
so basically i have to show this then
wait doesn't HiN normal in Hi+1N follow from butterfly or am i trippin
hmmm
Type theorists would write f x, so you're in good company
I personally like that style but it's not popular in the least
I remember hearing some great advice along the lines of convention being preferable to personal preference in notation
let R be commutative with identity , P be a prime ideal in R , A be a noetherian R-module and C be a P-primary (rad (C) = P) submodule of A
then there exists m int >0 such that P^mA is contained in C
any hints?
can you send it as text
I tried multiple times in #latex-testing but the syntax keeps on getting messed up. I'll try again
that image is too small for me to read on my phone
Hi i need some hepl with advanced university math 🙂 differential equation
coul someone help me please:)
this isn't the correct channel mate
Assume R is Noetherian.
Let I_n be a sequence of strictly increasing ideals
- If I_n is strictly in R, then contradiction with Noetherian-ness (lol)
- If I_n is strictly outside R*, then they're contained in the ideal (X), which R[X]/(X) is iso to R, so by the isomorphism theorem there's a contradiction
Oh sorry i didnt find it but thank man!
mizalign linked you it 🙂
Assume I_n are all prime, and after some N, R intersect I_n is non-trivial
However, for any prime idea P, P is maximal amongst ideals J such that P and J have the same intersection with R
So the chain R intersect I_n is strictly increasing in R, which violates Noetherian-ness
However, idk how to extend this proof beyond prime ideals WITHOUT invoking Choice to assume every ideal is contained in a prime (maximal) ideal via Zorn's Lemma
Because the normal proof R[X] is noetherian uses the leading coefficient map (I'm avoiding because I want to try to understand the Ideal structure) DOESN'T need the full power of choice
is there any way to somehow extend this proof for prime sequences to all ideal sequences without invoking choice?
Why would you have ideals not subset of R
It's basically to split the proof into 3 cases
really I can get rid of the second argument
It was a byproduct of me trying to find an original method
Afaik if ideal A is contained in B, then A intersect (X) need not be strictly contained in B intersect (X)
i.e B\A can be disjoint from (X)
BUT if A and B are prime, then B\A CANNOT be disjoint from R
I really want to avoid the leading coefficients map because it isn't an actual ring morphism
outside R?
Outside R remove 0, which is the ideal (X), or ideal of polynomials with a 0 constant
wdym outside R
R is a noetherian ring
R[X] is it's polynomial ring
https://mathoverflow.net/questions/222923/alternate-proofs-of-hilberts-basis-theorem
`"A suitable notion of a Noetherian module is given in the very fine book A Course in Constructive Algebra by Mines, Richman, and Ruitenburg: A module is Noetherian if every ascending chain of finitely generated submodules stops (think "Un=Un+1
", not "Un=Un+1=Un+2=⋯
").
This definition works fine for many purposes, but not for showing that R[X]
is Noetherian if R
is. See Chapter VIII of that book. Also it doesn't work well if dependent choice is not available, since it refers to sequences, which can be quite elusive without choice."`
violent screaming
I wonder if I can use the "every set of ideals has a maximal element"
notion
Why cant we just stay in PIDs so we dont need ZFC 😭
average algebraic number theorists crying at the thought of this idea
Why can't we just accept choice as part of life nowadays
why should we care about choice when all our ideals are nice and generated by one element?
we can and we do
Choice is the mathematical equivalent to consent
You can't do anything cool without it
the illusion of choice
nice save
I will not comment on the typo lmao
Lmaooo
you can do uhhhhh
questionable things like non-well orderable sets, but that's less cool more inconvenient 
.pin
Let H, K be subgroups of a group G. Can I have a hint on how to prove that if the intersection of cosets xK \cap yH is not empty, then it is a left coset of K \cap H?
I don't see at all how we could show that some element is in K and H
I don't have any idea why this ought to be true either, cosets seem so unintuitive
This is an interesting message to pin
if xK \cap yH is not empty, then there is some element z in it. then zK = xK and...
I'll think that over thanks
If phi: Z30,+ -> Z30,+ is a homomorphism. And ker(phi)= {0,10,20} and phi(23)=9 what are other elements that get mapped to 9 and what is the mapping doing?
Use the fact that it’s a homomorphism, so phi(a+b) = phi(a)+phi(b), and the fact that you know phi(23)=9
But all of those possibilities lead to the same conclusion
And what does the mapping do tho? So phi(10) + phi(13) = 0 + phi(13) so phi(13) has to be equal to 9
What mapping sends 13 to 9?
An easier question might be “what sends 10 and 20 to 0”
Remember we’re working mod 30
I understood it now....the question was never what the mapping is, but what other elements get mapped to 9.
So 13 is also a solution and 3 is also one.
Yeah, but the mapping is just multiplying by 3
I hate being under time pressure in exams. Literally was able to solve everything but this
What does $\oplus$ mean in this context?
Plazzi
Just +?
Direct sum.
Ty
Mutiplication by 21?
(Pretty sure the exercise didn't expect actually finding phi, but just "elements that get mapped to the same image by a homomorphism are exacatly the ones that differ by something in the kernel").
-1 = (-1)^2
you still have to use 1 = -1 somewhere
hm that is true
it works but it could be shortened a bit
when i wrote -1 = (-1)^2 i was hoping you would notice -yx = (-1)yx
and then with the hint you see this equals yx
rings, man
you'll get used to it
A quick question, for my exercise today the problem reads "for a ring A \neq 0, prove that the set of prime ideals of A has minimal elements with respect to inclusion". Am I right in reading that as saying there are prime ideals of A which have no subsets which are prime ideals?
Correct
zorn time
Yeah my thought was zorn's lemma, but at least the formulation I read talks about maximal elements
Minimal elements are "maximal" when you reverse the order of inclusion
Like taking A <= B if B is a subset of A
So the proof might roughly go something like
So my ordering is let's say the "superset" relationship
rather than the subset relationship
yeah
So basically to apply zorn's lemma I want to show that every chain in the set of prime ideals has an upper bound
Now, does that upper bound need to be a prime ideal?
I think it does
For it to be in the set of prime ideals, yes
So, I notice that if A is an integral domain, (0) is a maximal element
as 0 \ge every ideal in A
and it's prime
but if A isn't an integral domain
it gets tricky
Right
So how can you get an upper bound when the ring isn't an integral domain?
(an upper bound, since we have reversed inclusion, is a prime ideal contained in every prime ideal in the chain)
Well, a principle ideal would be particularly useful
In general, you can't get a principal ideal for this
true true
What's the largest ideal you can get as a bound for this? I.e. what's the largest ideal that can be contained in every ideal in the chain?
Right, we can get a larger ideal though
I mean, we're working under the idea that this isn't an integral domain
so I guess some zero divisor would be bigger
well no
A general rule of thumb when applying Zorn's lemma to any poset of subsets (ordered by subset or superset) is to first take the chains intersection or union
And then go from there
hmm
Ok well let's take the intersection over this chain
But I'm not sure that that's prime, so we call p the intersection over the chain. If x \in p and x = ab, it's not guaranteed that a or b is in the intersection
like a might be in half of them and b in the other half
Well it's at least an ideal that is contained in every ideal in the chain, so it's a stat
You have to use the fact that it's a chain to show this can't happen
ahhhh
Well, if a is outside of one, then it’s outside of each successive one?
Strictly decreasing moment
So you might start like "if a is in every p_i, we are done, since a is in p. Otherwise..." Then show that implies b is in every p_i, hence in p
Then invoke zorn 
"Professor, can we do this without axiom of choice??? 🥺 "
Hm, so
if there's some x with a \notin x, then a isn't in any of the elements greater than x
every time someone did this in class i wanted to throw my seat at them. it's a good thing the chairs were built into the floor in most rooms
lmaoo
so the bs are in all of these elements we're talking about, and actually they're in every element of the chain because we're working with inclusions
Right
fuck man, this is twisting my head
Doesn't help I'm very overstimulated rn but it's whatev
b must be in all ideals after a certain point in the chain by assumption, hence b must be in every ideal by inclusion
I think asking if choice is essential is nice sometimes, but maybe not all the time in class
you know the kid doing it in class is the kind of kid to do it all the time
poll what is more annoying:
Asking abt choice
Asking whether a map is well defined in the proof of snake lemma
Ok true
asking about choice
asking about choice
Choice, the snake lemma thing is normal
i've never seen someone ask about the axiom of choice in class when it is interesting and the answer would benefit many people in the room
it's always some really stupid shit like "do we need choice to prove that this system of equations has a solution?"
I don't understand why ppl have a problem with choice
I mean that’s pretty much the whole thing
the honorable sharp 
^^ seems like you've got the proof, last part is just "the result follows from Zorn"
why not
Choice is a lie
The Axiom of Choice is obviously true, the well-ordering principle obviously false, and who can tell about Zorn's Lemma
algebraic closure
coz of the existence of non-measurable sets
and results like these
also coz constructive proofs are a lot more insightful
whereas choice is such an ass pull
"just trust me bro, the function exists"
who tf even cares about analysis
Who even cares about analysis
do you know about p-adics?
getting ganged up on in #groups-rings-fields
lol what
So I'm confused about this problem I'm doing. Let $K$ be an algebraically closed field. Consider the category K-Aff of affine K-algebraic sets of some affine K-space and define $\text{Hom}(S,T) \coloneqq \text{Hom}_{\text{K-Alg}}(K[T], K[S])$, where K[T] is the coordinate ring of T and similarly for S.
If we have the covariant functor $h_s \coloneqq \text{Hom}_{\text{K-Aff}}( _, S)$ and $p$ a point in the affine K-space, I need to show there is a natural bijection between $S$ and $h_S(p)$
I'm supposed to use this result that if a point p of an algebraic set corresponds to the maximal ideal $m_p$, then the value of a function $f \in K[S]$ at $p$ equals the coset of $f$ in $K[S]/m_p \cong K$
please enlighten me🙏
think of a finite integral domain with finite characteristic
and then use that to get something bigger
and then use that to get something infinitely bigger
@solemn dew
how do you know the algebraic closure is infinite?
because algebraic closures need to be infinite lol?
otherwise they're not algebraically closed
sorry
I'm not so sure how that's obvious
this is a short one to prove (do it)
by completion theorem Qp contains an isometry of Q thus it has zero characteristic
@lime badge can you take this to #latex-testing first?
Sorry, I'm done

wait what i thought this was short to prove
maybe im missing some context
it is
illumi stop trolling the analyst
Eternal Way
darq is just having a skill issue
he's not called chmonkey...
i'm his enemy you bitch
||consider prod_{a \in K} (x - a) + 1||
take the countable product of integral domains, and consider the subring where everything right of a 0 is 0
why so complicated
Anyway, my question is just that K-algebra homomorphisms between coordinate rings are right composing by some function that maps between our algebraic sets right? So what exactly is there to prove for my above queston?
i can barely write, my internet connecting is something else right now
eternal I think this belongs in #algebraic-geometry
but i think i got it thanks
No problem, thanks!
and ill look into algebraic closures
Not sure, but that looks a lot like Yoneda, no?
@lime badge
they're in the other channel
how is that complicated
arguably it is more elementary
DarQ, it really is worth u trying to figure it out without the hint btw
well yeah he practically gave the answer in the spoiler
¯_(ツ)_/¯
fam I'm not thinking about factorization and shit
that shit sounds so boring
darkyuuutie
obviously not thinking about factorization makes you a lesser mathematician
now who tf taught you that name?
do I know you somehow?
also, I will sometime
but not until I have to

@formal ermine how do you know the algebraic closure exists tho?
axiom of choice lmao
There's a Zorns lemma argument
Why is the analysist crying about choice lol
Yea this is definitely less complicated then infinite product go brrr
Knowing that an infinite product of sets with cardinality at least 2 is in fact infinite requires choice as well, right?
Because an equivalence statement is that every infinite product of nonempty sets is nonempty
That's a choice I can choose to accept
I know lmfao
If it’s a countable infinite product you might be able to get away with it
Yeah
ZF does not include countable choice by default
you can list the elements
in this case at least
Well ordering
I guess since this is an explicit product you can, right?
But I feel like that still would require countable choice?
(1, 0 , ... ), (1, 1, 0, ... ), (1, 1, 1, 0, ... ) are all distinct and in the subring
so it is infinite
Rings you can point to specific elements in em, like 0, 1
Doesn’t need choice because it’s already a function
F_p(x), the field of rational functions with coefficients in F_p: it's a field (so definitely an integral domain), is of characteristic p (because F_p is), and is certifiably infinite (because it contains F_p[x], the polynomial ring over F_p). As @formal ermine pointed out, an algebraic closure of F_p (or any field of finite characteristic) also satisfies these requirements, but for this you need to know what an AC is and that an algebraically closed field necessarily has infinitely many elements.
Actually idk why I'm complicating things here, the simplest answer is F_p[x].
facepalm
I just realized a few days ago that Chinese Remainer theorem holds for abelian groups lol
It holds for modules in general, which includes rings and abelian groups.
I mean it holds generally for rings too lol
Yeah which extends up to modules
crt holds for modules too btw
I was like wait, lol, the proof doesn't even require multiplication lol
I don't accept this is as fact
Why
It isn't aligned with my world view
:troll:

turning 16 in 4 hours and 5 mins
arguably thinking about it in terms of abelian groups is easier and more intuitive
Works because submodules work nicely and analogously as abelian group quotients
And ideals are technically modules
oof
that's oki
as long as your local college has grad courses
and allows you to take them

I have dummit & foote tho, and I am doing EE as a major. Always was gonna
that's rough

dummit & foote is more interesting than I think an actual abstract alg class is anyway
it's more of something I do before I go to bed nowadays, just a set of problems
I find dummit & foote to be a bit slow/overly talkative
is there a proof of krull intersection theorem without primairy decmop?
you can prove it with the artin-rees lemma
see Eisenbud ch. 5.3
thank you for the ref
average mathematician when a book isn't just a list of theorems and proofs that have no correlation to one another:
might be a silly question, but what does it mean to embed some algebraic object in another object? do we only require a monomorphism A --> B, or does this homomorphism have to be the inclusion map?
Injective is sufficient
oh okay thanks
Since if it is injective, it should induce an isomorphism with it's image, which "properly" embeds into the object through the inclusion
Though some people might stick strictly to an embedding being the inclusion map
ye, it seems as if it's a question if it's up to isomorphism or not
i guess algebraically there's no difference lol
or at least from an algebraist's point of view
If you're working with anything categorical, it should be up to isomorphism almost always
true
(or up to some weaker notion like equivalence, context permitting)
i like the problems
equivalence is abstraction of abstraction :troll:
would this simplify to the trivial homomorphism? since any $\varphi \in \text{Hom}_\mathbb{Z}(R, J)$ would just send $1_R \mapsto 1_J$ where $1_J$ is the identity in $J$
okeyokay
I would send 0_R to 0_J, right? Not 1? (writing J additively)
okeyokay
D e a r g o d
wut
abstract algebra does irreprable damage to your psyche because people say shit like this and you’re like
w h a t p a r t
R is a ring with a multiplicative and additive identity, 1_R and 0_r respectively. J is an abelian group, in the category Mod_Z of Z-modules (or abelian groups). The identity requirement for homomorphisms in this would be that it takes 0 to 0, not 1 to 1
you’re essentially “forgetting” the ring part of it, or that monoid of multiplication on it
ye i know but they wrote 1_R so i'm just going with their notation
So the 1 part doesn’t fucking matter if it’s purely an abelian morphism
This
nothing’s special about 1 in the category of abelian groups
In rings (WITH IDENTITY) yes
exactly
i thought we were considering just the additive abelian group structure of R
(except in the category of abeliean groups, the group 1 is the zero object)
(which is pretty important)
so that Hom_Z(R, J) would make sense
g is a map L->J, but f(a): R->J, so you need to insert a value from R to get a value in J, and 1 is an easy choice since it doesn't have to map to 0
Really R as a ring and R as an abelian group are “different objecrs” but can be mapped from a ring to an abelian group via a functor
or uh, should've replied to okey
oh that makes sense thanks
also wow
ur honorable now
congrats
think polynomial evaluation
these aren't polynomials but it's similar that you want to actually evaluate the function
for example, the complex numbers are the same as a vector space as R^2
but as rings, they are not
C_p (completion of p-adics) and C being isomorphic as rings moment
NO.
i thought it’s the closure of the completion lol
oh right, my b
neat though how the closure-completion of basically all nontrivial metrics on Q return to the same place isomorphically (with choice)
only as rings tho, C_p as a metric space is vastly different lol
But yeah it's quite interesting how much the p-adics and reals relate
FORGET IT (literally)
aluffi isn't that but it's still very very fun

the former
inclusions afaik are monos in SET
the inclusion map is only apparent is only ever apparent when the algebraic structure you're trying to embed is evidently a subset of where you wanna embed it in
right, but monomorphisms=injections in a lot (but not all) of concrete categories
yea i guess that makes sense intuitively
in that case the inclusion map is just the restriction of the identity to said subset
can you explain what you mean by this? i thought monomorphisms were injective as a map of sets
ye makes sense
monomorphisms aren't always injective maps
A monomorphism is a map f such that, if fg=fh, then g=h
I.e. left cancellable
In Set, a function is left cancellable iff it is injective, so that's why its true in Set
And in fact, in any concrete category over Set, any injective function is going to be a monomorphism
But in some categories, there are monomorphisms that aren't injective
I actually don't know of a category where the monomorphisms aren't injective
neither do I lol
what's a concrete category over set?
tbh it's prolly something stupid like a poset category or smth
where elements don't even make sense for you to define injectivity

A category C is concrete (over Set) if there is a faithful functor from C into the category (of Sets)
I.e., it means you can view the objects are "structured" sets, and morphisms as "structure-preserving" functions

