#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 136 of 1
omg i got wew's approval
except, I don't think that's exact
oh
trying to think
A{i+1} -> A{i+2} -> 0 exact implies that f_{i+1} is surjective, which would mean that f_{i+2} has to be the zero map
but there's no reason f_{i+2} has to be the zero map
for the second part of the proof, they're implicitly referencing the canonical epimorphism from R to R/M right
yes, that's a homomorphic image of R into a field
"into"? not sure what word to use there
why not onto lol
sure, that works
how to find a homomorphism from dihedral group = {e, x, y, ...}, where x^2 = e, y^{n-1} = e, xy=y^-1x to W = {-1,1}?
how should one think in this context ?
just any homomorphism?
i'm supposed to show that G/N ~= W, where N = <y>
y^(n-1) = e
odd
i guess any homomorphism
you'll want a surjective one to use first iso
otherwise you'll get people who think they're funny
but honestly? it's easier just to construct the two cosets in this case
yeah that's immediate from it being index 2
so you know that G/N is a group, and that the size of G/N is 2
there's only one group of order 2
I'm not going to read this and just assume it's correct
sure
so any groups of order 2 have to be isomorphic
how did you draw the conclusion that the size is 2?
D_n is of order 2n and <y> is clearly order n
do you not have the order of D_n yet?
haven't come that far in the book yet
ok, that's fine
map y to 1 and x to -1
that should be a group homomorphism, as it's basically just the map G -> G/N but relabelled
but again, just writing down the cosets is easier here imo
what about things that are in neither of those subgroups, like xy
im listening to the expert so i wont argue
true, this one does not hold that argument
N = {1, y, y^2, ..., y^(n-1)}
xN = {x, xy, xy^2, .., xy^(n-1)}
is it clear that these are all of the elements of D_n?
yes sir
sorry where's your first class masters degree?
Replace g in <x> with "otherwise"
sorry i have to sleep now
i'll try to dream about this
and maybe it will solve itself in my dreams
hahah
goodnight ppl
where is his high school degree
lol
Okay so this prop is kicking my ass, I'm seeing why everything works now except why the last element in G's tower is X
Probably cause the preimage of the identity in G/X under the canonical projection G -> G/X is X
See I thought that but I didn't see why G' must end in {e}
is it just a coincidence that, for the natural projection pi : G -> G/K, ker(pi) = K and for the map, phi : G/H -> G/K, ker(phi) = K/H ?
i was able to prove ker(phi) = K/H, but I am lacking intuition as to why this is true or how/if "modding" by H has this apparent congruency
is it as simple as ker(pi) is a subset of G, thus G/H results in ker/H ?
yes, i noticed this in proving the 3rd iso
i was able to prove it but again i lack intuition
K/H
Oops im dumb
I guess the intuition (very unrigorous lol) is that (G/H)/Ker(phi) is isomorphic to G/K via the first isomorphism theorem, and you can do a sort of "cancellation" by writing G/K = (G/H) / (K/H), which is the kernel of phi as you said
"cancellation" like fractions
I mean yeah I think of it like that too pretty much
Maybe a lil sillier structurally tho
lol yeah of course
see but it sure looks like cancellation of fractions but they're groups so idk i guess i was wondering about the deeper level stuff "under the hood" if you will
Swapped the two oop, but (G/H)/(K/H) ~ G/K which is kinda exactly your desired map?
Well, you proved it so presumably you saw under the hood 
yeah, to be able to use the 1st iso, i constructed a map phi : G/H -> G/K and showed the ker(phi) = K/H
well once i knew the trick from the second isomorphism theorem it was pretty obvious that the crucial step was to show K/H was the kernel of phi
to then use 1st iso of course
does my question even make sense? i think i need a sanity check
Well it’s certainly iso to the image since haha G/ker
So if it’s surjective then that’s a whole iso 
Try thinking of it in terms of dividing G up into pieces (which are cosets, or elements of G/K). If H \subgroup K, and you divide G into n copies of K, and then divide K into m copies of H, the result is the same as dividing G into mn copies of H. In terms of cosets you can say |G/H| = |G/K| * |K/H|, or rearranging you get |G/K| = |G/H| / |K/H|.
i remember trying to prove the 3rd iso from 1st principles 100% algebraically. Fucking god.
so there's an obvious analogue between cancellation of fractions, and cancellation when chopping G into copies of K and then K into copies of H, but it's super handwavy
but I think it's the correct intuition to keep in the back of your head so it's not just manipulating symbols lol
Another analogous idea is looking at the connection between the unique factorization of numbers into powers of primes, and the unique factorization of finite abelian groups into subgroups of prime powers. There are a lot of relationships between properties of numbers and properties of groups like that
Does anyone know how to prove this actually using D&F's hint?
I know how to show it from the fact that G acts transitively on the set S={O_1,..,O_r} so |S|=|G:stab(O_1)| and stab(O_1)=HG_a
Since gO_1=O_1 iff there exists h s.t ga=ha iff there exists h s.t h^{-1}g\in G_a i.e iff g\in HG_a
Did you show the first equality?
Yes, O_1 is the orbit of a in H and so |O_1|=|H:H_a|. We have that H_a=H\cap G_a as H\subseteq G.
Oh lol okay
They wanted you to write |O_1|=|HG_a:G_a| by the second iso theorem
Then r = |A|/|O_1|
But |A|=|G:G_a| by orbit stabilizer
So r = |G:G_a|/|HG_a:G_a| = |G:HG_a|
@livid grove
So why does the cyclic tower in G' have to end in {e} here?
induction on the size of the group, G' has a smaller cardinality than G because X isn't trivial
I'm not really seeing how that implies G' ends in {e} though
Well, you decrease in size strictly
What else could it end in
It’s not going on forever since finite thing decreasing
The proof is just skipping a few steps, but it's proving the result by induction on |G|. If |G| = 1 then the result is trivial, and then to prove the result for G when |G| > 1, they reduce to G/X which has a smaller size than G. So by induction there's a tower ending in {e} in G/X, then if you look at the premiages of those subgroups you get a tower in G ending in X (because the preimage of {e} in G/X under the projection G -> G/X is X), and then then you just add {e} onto the end of that tower
So it's just some tower of G/X that ends in {e}? Because from the definition I have a tower is just a sequence of subgroups so I wasn't seeing why it couldn't end in the subgroup before {e}
This is from Lang right? I think it's actually missing that "it suffices to prove that if G is finite and abelian there is a cyclic tower ending in {e}", otherwise the proof doesn't really work
I could be wrong lol, but I'm pretty sure that should be part of it
Yeah this is Lang I don't think he mentioned that
I'll double check when I get home it might be like a little line somewhere that I've missed
cause the tower in G' needs to end in {e}, otherwise the preimage of the tower under the canonical projection G -> G/X doesn't necessarily end in X
lol this is definitely a lang proof, very terse!
Yeah I had worked out most of it I actually like that aspect of the book a lot because I'm usually not a very active reader
yo
i literally just realised
that the first iso theorem is just universal property of quoitients
lol
Makes sense, considering they’re quotients
wait until you realize abaout the other 3
if we consider nonzero unital rings and require ring homomorphisms to map to multiplicative identity, all kernels of homomorphisms are strict (i.e. proper) ideals, right?
Well, multiplicative identity isn’t in the kernel
So proper subset
Can you show it an ideal?
yeah that part isn't a problem, i'm just trying to rule out the kernel being the entire ring
aight stupid question time: if I is an ideal in F[x1,..., xn], why is tI an ideal in F[t, x1,..., xn]? My first instinct to show p(t, x1,..., xn)tq(x1,...,xn) is in tI by combining p and q but we only know I is an ideal of F[x1,..., xn] so that won't work. I don't have any other idea rip
Oh
Bruh
It's an error in the book
Just checked errata of dummy and feetpics and they removed the entire part claiming that it was an ideal as a fix
I will assume this isn't commutative?
No F is actually a field
It's clearly not closed under multiplication by t
book even had the gall to say "Clearly" to make me question my existence
so (12) and (12...n) generate S_n
(ab) and (12...n) generate S_n if and only if gcd(b-a,n)=1 (see kconrad "generating sets")
so in general, the subgroup generated by (ab) and (12...n) will be a proper subgroup
what is it's size?

looking at the proof of this, it's probably all permutations that respect the structure modulo d=gcd(b-a, b), since it is "trivial" (tho I didn't see it immediately) that the permutations you get will respect the structure modulo d (by this I mean that i=j mod d implies sigma(i)=sigma(j) mod d)
ok to count this is actually interesting
I might have it
since we have (12...n) that cycles around, we can imagine a regular polygon with points on it and imagine that this rotates (ab) anywhere we want around the edges, which exchanges markers located at distance b-a around it
so we have d=gcd(b-a,b) partitioning them into d separate disjoint sets, each now looks like S_{n/d}
so it's a direct product of d copies of S_{n/d}, so it should have size (n/d)!^d
I think we can go through the orbit stabilizer theorem by thinking of these d disoint sets as the orbits and these S_{n//d} as the stabilizing group. Maybe it even helps to think of these as like drawing stars in your regular polygon
oh I think I might have swapped n/d with d above
like n=6 with (1,3) you have d=2, so you can imagine drawing two triangles where each one now looks like S_3
hopefully that's clear, by using (123456) we can "rotate" (13) anywhere we want around the hexagon to make (24), (35), (46), (15) and now we have the disoint triangles we could color red and blue which are fixed by {(13),(35),(15)} and {(24),(46),(26)} respectively
|S_3 x S_3| = 3!^2 = 36
as a special case of
|S_{n/d} x ... x S_{n/d}| = (n/d)!^d
as a sanity check is n!/(n/d)!^d an integer? I think that's a multinomial coefficient so it is
I suppose visualizing them this way also gives us more to count about them, we have phi(n)/2 subgroups of this form
or somethin like that lol w/e
well number of divisors, I'm thinking inside out here, well some stuff to say on both sides of that I guess
If G is a group and the quotient group G/Z(G) is cyclic, then G is abelian.
do you have lagrange's theorem?
yes
what are the possible orders for the subgroups
9,3,1
so what are the possible orders for the elements
if one of your elements has order 9 you're done, so just consider the case where you have only elements of order 3
so let's suppose you have an element of order 9
what does that mean in this case
you have a group of order 9, and an element of order 9. how can you describe that element
don't know 😅
it's a generator, your group would be cyclic
yes, but can't you premute the triangles too?

sorry for late response (very noisy out of my home so I had to stop doing math 😤 (actually angry lol))
are cyclic groups abelian? @solemn dew
i think so
they are. you should convince yourself of that, it's fairly straightforward
so then if we have an element of order 9, our group is abelian
so the only other case is for elements solely of order 3 (and 1 for the identity)
they're independent of each other, you're not really permuting them as part of the group
but my subgroup that is generated is order 3, so how does this have anything to do with a group of order 9 is abelian
in my head you only showed that the subgroup of a cyclic group must be abelian
i think you're mixing up the concepts a little bit
so let's backtrack for one sec
the subgroups of a group of order 9 can be of:
order 1
order 3
order 9
if we have a subgroup of order 9
those are also the possible orders for the elements
do you agree
yes i agree
then let's knock out one of the cases. suppose we have an element g of order 9
like we said above, this element must generate G
yes
so G is cyclic -> abelian
so if we have an element of order 9
G is abelian
so that case is done
now we need to check what happens when we only have elements of order 3 (and the identity of order 1)
do you understand the argument so far
is it that if you have elements of order 3 in our group G, we need to find a argument that they are also abelian?
the argument now is that if all nonidentity elements are of order 3, then the group is abelian
yes
alright i got you so far then
ok
so let's do this in full generality
let's take two arbitrary elements in G
g,h
now our goal is to show gh = hg
@delicate bloom btw d=gcd(b-a, n) I made a mistake while writing xD, you wrote the same. Im sure you know it should be that anyway
alright
so now the only possibility for G is G = {e, g, h, g^2, h^2, gh, gh^2, g^2h, g^2h^2} since ord(G) = 9
and g^3 = h^3 = e
yeah haha
mmh
pretty sure you are missing a d!
well not pretty sure
but sage agrees with me
so
if we look at permutations sigma with the property that i=j mod d then sigma(i)=sigma(j) mod d, then the number of this permutatinos is d!·((n/d)!)^d
Order would be d * ((n/d)!)^d right?
and I think this is just generated by (1,d+1) and (1,2,3,..., n), which is what we want
Or why d! ?
sec
I would think it's the semidirect product of C_d and (S_n/d)^d
C_d?
as cyclic?

dude I dont find my calculator lmao
so
take d=4
and n=8
sage yields
(1, 4) is a difference of 3
ah yeah mb
yeah this didnt make sense
I should of taken 1, 5
64
so yeah it seems you are right
I guess it's not quite a semidirect product, but (S_n/d)^d is a normal subgroup with quotient C_d
so I think the point is, you can obtain the transposition (1,d+1) with d dividing n. Then, if we let X_1,...,X_d be defined by X_k={t in [n] : t=k mod d}, then the n-cycle (1,2,...,n) cyclically permutes the X_1,....,X_d, and each X_k is stabilized (as a set) under (1,d+1) (so that's the C_d of jagr2808). Then, inside each X_k, we can permute the elements arbitrarily. For this, you want to show that you can obtain the transposition (1,1+dk) for every k.
To show this last step, look at the set {1+dk} where k=0,..,n/d-1. Then composing the n-cyclie d times, takes 1+dk to 1+d(k+1), and (1,d+1) takes 1+d*0 to 1+d
but this situation is the same as (1,2), (1,2,..., r) where r=n/d (look at the ks)
which we know is the whole S_r
ah yeah I missed a d good catch
yeah my X_k's are your triangles
cause the rotation itself, I left it out cause I was so focused on fixing that to focus on the internal stuff
cool
basically these pentagram type shapes made out of sticks, where you can rotate the entire picture or flip the sticks that make up the edges of the stars
something you could draw out and ask a kid to play with I guess
Let M/K be a field extension, is it the case that End_K(M)=Aut_K(M)?
yes
not M as a K vector space
Yes
in general injective endomorphisms of artinian modules are surjective
artinian module?
wouldn't C((x)) -> C((x)) mapping x to x² be a counter example ?
your vector space needs to be finite dimensional for this to apply
in the infinite dimensional case
no, because it doesn't preserve R
dcc
what ?
it does preserve C
C((x))/C
It's not an R-endomorphism
?
pearl is taking the base field to be C
I think you're misunderstanding my mapping
oh right
it maps the variable x to x², but it sends a constant to itself
but yeah in the fin dim case it's (trivially) true
So
the lectures are wrong
Do people study endomorphisms of field extensions?
As an extension of solely studying automorphisms
ig it could be easier to view them as tensors but I have no idea lmao
The "hint" also says "use rank nullity", which is a theorem about finite dimensional spaces. So it seems they assumed it to be finite dimensional at some point, but then maybe rewrote the notes...
Is this Damien Rössler by any chance
But actually this is true for algebraic M/K
Just for different reasons
I guess people are most concerned with algebraic extensions, in which case every endomorphism is an automorphism.
But yeah I'm p sure I read these same notes and thought the same thing when I read it lol
These notes are a bit rough iirc and not really the best to learn from lol especially since the course has changed since
ong wait I mixed up finite dimensional and finitely generated lmaoo
I hate these conditions
a module over an artinian ring is artinian iff it's finitely generated
Well depends what you mean by finitely generated lol
I think that's the correct one
generates finitely nothing personell kidd
french
maybe I am missing context lol
oh is this true nice
Well it must be just dual in some sense to surjective endo of a noetherian module being injective
Nice
Oh yeah sure
Sure yeah I guess it's like
if φ is ur endo then you consider either the ascending chain (ker φ^i) or the descending (im φ^i)
it's to do with the kernel of successive applications of the map isn't it
and conclude those are zero in the Noetherian resp. Artinian case
I am very glad I came up with this on the spot
This came up in my exam lol
Though surjective endo of a Noetherian module has an easier proof, since it's true in the f.g. case I'm p sure
well that makes sense, noetherian is artinian but for babies
lol isn't it the other way round
I have artinian as the stronger one in my head even though they don't imply each other at all (for modules)
for any ring homomorphism f:A -> B, do we have if f(a) = 0, a is not a unit?
take B to be the trivial ring and f to be the zero map
no
then consider A a field
fucking beat my wife to it
It is
nice
hm.. add the following condition: unital rings, unity preserving homomorphism
you need to stop
YOU need to STOP
Oxon?
my example still works lol
oh lol i mean considering for rings artinian => noetherian
oh stronger
sure nvm
yus, that'll be why
Yes
Sure?
They do???
Artinian implies noetherian
there are artinian modules that are not noetherian
I think it works for modules of finite length or something right
ring homomorphisms redux electric boogaloo 2: unity preserving ring homomorphism f:A->B, B nonzero. f(a) = 0 implies 'a' nonunit?
I buy it
lol
I know Eisenbud has this sort of equivalence
a \in ker(f) which is an ideal of A, so if f is not the zero map ker(f) cannot contain any units otherwise it would be all of A
think this works?
assuming f is surjective
because why wouldn't it be
that's what i'm thinking, but f need not be surjective
module has finite length iff it is noetherian and artinian innit
corestrict to img(f) then do the same thing
i am blind to any words starting with co
so the module already is both
Ye
I was thinking of rings lol
basically all this means is that, yes your statement is correct unless f is the zero map @untold turret
thanks!
for an arbitrary nonzero ring, there's always a nontrivial homomorphism to an algebraically closed field. any other class of ring hom. codomains have this property?
yes, and commutative
ok, this could be true for non-unital too but
take embedding into fraction field
by zorns every ring R has a maximal ideal M, so R/M is a field
hence there is a map into there
this is good alsobeit
hm right, R/M field is the fact we use to embed into algebraically closed field
ty for answers
could this depend on being integral domain?
even for non-integral domains you can just consider localising like (R-{0})^-1R
quipcel
hm i see, and then we also get embedding into algebraic closure from this. ty!
i mean R - 0 isn't multiplicatively closed if R has zero divisors
so i'm not sure what you mean
you know what I mean, search within yourself
you will find the truth
well i don't
I'm not really sure what posting this answers
yeah me too lol
Oh okay sure
just take the field of fractions you stinkers
Of a non-integral domain?
yeppers
yes, you can ?
How are you defining it
you have to mod out by an extra relator where instead of just like x/y ~ a/b iff xb-ya = 0 you have to multiply it by a unit I believe
I'll check my notes
That's the normal definition of localisation wrt a multiplicatively closed subset, sure
(a,b) ~ (c,d) iff there's s in S such that s(ad - bc) = 0
yes
But then what subset are you taking as your S
Cause you will end up producing the zero ring according to what you're doing (if you're doing what I think you're doing)
why?
I give you a (a, b)
how do you show that's ~ (0, 0)
Well what is your S
oh wait
The idea hasn't been given
no potato is right, if you just do it a priori you get 0
I see
If you try to localise a zero divisor you wind up with 0
I can't find the actual construction I was thinking of so I'll take the L on this one
because like 1 = (a/a)(b/b) = (ab)/ab = 0/ab = 0
if ab = 0 for a,b which are inverted
yur
as you say, it can not be made for non-multiplicatevly closed but one can extend to the smallest multiplicatve closure of the set
so Illuminator's embedding is bad but mine is good :iwon:
who is Illuminator
do we have: two rings map to the same algebraically closed field if one of them is a subring of the other?
Yes, if f:R -> K is a map from a ring to a field and S is a subring of S, then you can simply restrict f to S.
The converse is not true though: both Z/2 and Z/4 map to F2bar, but neither are subrings of each other.
i see, thank you!
S is a subring of S
impossible
*improper
ok so this is my question
yus
what would firstly the commutator subgroup be like, i have a hard time imaginging a group generated by multiple things
well lets start by picturing a group that's generated by multiple things then
The group of symmetries of a triangle, S_3, is generated by two elements
rotating by 2pi/3 radians, and a reflection (or (123), (12) if you want to think of them as permutations)

lets call that rotation r and that reflection s
so all elements in S_3 look like some "word" with "letters" r and s (and r^-1, s^-1 if you want to be technical)
like rrssrr or rsrsrr, or r^-1s^-1sr
so a group generated like this just has all combinations of all the elements r and s and their inverses?
obviously, you can simplify most of these words down
yes

it's like a basis but not linearly independant (because linear doesn't really make sense here)
ok so now we take our "r" and "s" to be things that look like xyx^-1y^-1
so we consider the group of "words" that look like (x_1y_1x_1^-1y_1^-1)^2(x_2y_2x_2^-1y_2^-1)^-1 or whatever
my first thought was that that would turn the comm subgroup into the trivial group
it is trivial you're correct
Oh
but why
i get the part about f(x) dividing g(x), but how do we know that g(x) has all zeros of multiplicity one? because K is a finite extension of E, but that doesn't mean that E has to be a finite extension of F right (which would imply that K doesn't have to be finite). because to use the perfectness of F we're assuming that K is a finite extension
or maybe it's obvious or i'm trippin idk
becuase since each element is of the form xyx^-1y^-1, and all combinations of each of these
then since G is abelian, xyx^-1y^-1=xx^-1yy^-1
=1_G
yup
so all elements would be of the form the identity iterated multiple times
and <1_G> is the trivial group
np np
You can reduce to the case where E is a finite extension of F
Standard trick: you look at one element of K at a time to prove that that element is separable. You then consider the extension generated by this element over F(all coefficients of the minimal polynomial of this element) instead of E, essentially throwing away the irrelevant parts of E.
another question, does the commutator group always happen to be a subgroup of the original group G? 
yes, it's always a subgroup
Actually can you send your definition of perfect @white oxide?
wait why can we do this? algebraic doesn't imply finite right
G is closed under multiplication, and all of the elements in [G,G] are products of stuff in G, so it must be contained in G
every finite extension is a separable extension
ok I see
yea that prolly changes things

No, the stuff I said under that lol. You can instead look at only one element of K and whatever elements of E are needed to make this element algebraic.
oh so i could just consider E($\alpha$) is what ur saying
I am assuming a lemma: An extension E/F is separable iff every element of E is separable over F
yea
okeyokay
Yes but you will still have the issue that E/F may not be finite
ah right
weird proposal: i could consider irr(alpha, E) and then the coefficients of irr(alpha, E), and try to deduce something from the fact that they're algebraic over F
Yep exactly
oh wait wtf
You replace E by the subfield generated by the coefficients of that polynomial
That is a finite extension of F so it allows you to use the perfectness of F
And the minimal polynomial of alpha over this subfield is the same as the minimal polynomial over E, so alpha is separable over one if and only if it is separable over the other
okay i won't read the last part u just sent only as a last resort lol (to try to solve it with minimal hints)
but thanks! will try

help i need showing that if K is a possibly infinite separable extension of E and if E is a possibly infinite separable extension of F then K is a separable extension of F
i let alpha in K and considered E(a) which is a separable extension of E, my idea was that if i could show that E(a) is a separable extension of F then F(a) would be separable over F by definition
this was how fraleigh defined a separable extension in the broader case
ok i split it up into cases; if E is a finite separable extension of F then it's pretty easy, now i'm assuming it's an infinite extension of F
oh wait nvm i got it
given a nonzero unital commutative ring A with two nontrivial homomorphisms f,g to nonzero commutative unital rings B,C, is it possible to have f(a) = 0 and g(a) \neq 0?
non unital rings aren't real, they can't hurt you
mfw non injective morphisms exist
Then yeah you’ll usually have that
You have your example
Z -> Z/(2) Z -> Z/(3), take f(2), g(2)
Take Z/4Z and multiply by 2
Mfw Z x Z
Oh wow you’re even letting the codomain vary
Then you can do this for any nonunital a
Consider A -> A id
And then A -> A/(a)
The projection
I don’t know why you’d expect this to be true to be honest 😭
This is wayyyyy too strong
“Yeah bro there’s only one function”
its too powerful
Too much power for one man
if this thing is true then erh is true ong
I showed this implication
i'm trying to explore the extent to which f(a) = 0 implies a nonunit
what 💀
if f is a map of unital rings, then it preserves units
It implies nonunit always, unless the codomain is 0
important, ty
A unit is sent to a unit
it's a short calculation: 1 = f(1) = f(a a^-1) = f(a) f(a^-1)
Based
Assuming consistency of ZFC
You can prove it with Falso
i can also prove falso with it

Second order ZFC 
Tbf it is the number to memorize not the number itself 🤓
Actually I'm not sure if even second order ZFC would be finitely axiomatized
Probably not
what relations could you even add to the language
alright basic question about presentations
Haha that's funny because presentations involve bases
want to show <S|R> with S = {x} and R = {x^n} is isomorphic to Z/nZ using the universal property of generators and relations. I define f: S to Z/nZ by f(x) = 1, so that f(x^n) = 1 + ... + 1 (n times) = 0. by the universal property, there is a unique map g from <S|R> to Z/nZ such that g composed with the canonical map (S to <S|R>) is f.
to show the isomorphism, i should define h from Z/nZ to <S|R> (= F(S) quotiented by the normal subgroup generated by R in F(S)) also. h(1) = x is the obvious choice
swubsituwion twest
h(1) = x really means the equivalence class of x in the quotient
everything seems right so far? just g o h = id and h o g = id should do it
is it part of the question that you have to use the universal property
yes
cvringe!!!!!!!
that's the whole point lol
that map should work though
How do you solve a problem without using universal properties when the terms in the problem are defined using universal properties 
just trying out the first approach lol
or via the explicit construction
ahhhhh there's the based...
oops didn't mean to reply
Why are you
so cool? dunno bro

K field, R some subring, t not in R, R[t] has t in a maximal ideal M. why is there a valuation ring V with maximal ideal M' that contains R[t] and has M \subset M'
did you not use K???
can i get a hint for b pls
i suck at image subset problems lol
i'm trying to use the fact that it's a direct sum but struggling f
Okay; say $b \in f(B)$ so that $b = f(x + y)$ for $x \in B, y \in C$ since $A = B \oplus C$
okeyokay
Then $b = f(x) + f(y)$
okeyokay
I don't think this is true. Let K be k(x, y) and let R be k[y + 1/x, 1/y + 1/x, x], then I'm fairly certain x is not a unit in R. But if you adjoin either y or 1/y it makes x a unit.
ofc it worked but imo not the best way to show isomorphisms between a presentation and a given group? because F(S) may not always be "simple" and dealing with cosets can be painful
this particular example was just too easy
Guess a hint is, what happens if you multiply A by 1
also uniqueness of g didn't play a role
oh oops right you get 0
thanks
at least i think that's right
nvm
that was C
i'm trippin
well it just becomes a = b right
ohh
well i know that all elements of C are mapped to 0
does it have to do with the fact that f(b + c) = f(b) + f(c) and since that's in A1 = B1 \oplus C1 we can conclude that f(b) is in B1?
So imagine f(b) = b' + c'
And remember that f is a homomorphism
What you want to show is that c' is 0.
ye i know that multipliying by 1 in C makes c go to zero but i'm not sure what properties C1 has
C1 has that same property by assumption right
i thought it didn't
because then it wouldn't be so bad
oh wait
i guess rc1 = 0
oops
and 1R obviously in R
ah there we go
got it thanks!!
Guess this exercise shows that studying nonunital modules over unital rings is just the same as unital modules except you just keep an extra abelian group around.
oh yea that makes sense now
cool counterexample! thank you
can we say, for a group G, and N < A < G, with N normal in G, that (A/N)(A'/N) = (AA')/N
Did you read somewhere that this should be true, or did you come up with it yourself?
I'm trying to distinguish the key components of the proof that the intersection of the valuation rings containing a ring A is the integral closure of A, and I'm testing out to what extent we can extend valuation rings containing A
Maybe you're able to write that what the elements are for each, and see if they match?
well the thing is, i have an idea for what an element of (A/N)(A'/N) looks like but im not sure
i think it should look like aNa'N for some a,a' in A, which is (aa')N iff N is normal and N < A
if that's the case, then im inclined to say that the equality does hold
but if im misunderstanding the definition of (A/N)(A'/N), then im not so sure @rocky cloak
No I think you got it.
how does this exercise show that f(P) is a subset of B1? i can't think of any direct sum that we can include P in to align with the statements of (b) in exercise 17
oops wait
referencing this
idk could we just form $P \oplus A$?
okeyokay
in exercise 17, i'm letting g: A --> B be the given module homomorphism in (b). but all exercise 17 says is that f(A1) \subset B1 and f(A2) \subset B2, i don't understand at all where P comes in
does it have to do with the factorization?
kevinyang2.71
What is an element you can be sure to find in Hg?
btw how did you construct this example? just finished verifying it and it wasn't obvious heheh
I just came up with it in the spot. But I'm having some doubts, as it seems to contradict Atiya Macdonald
Or maybe I'm misunderstanding something
Or maybe x actually is a unit
it does have that adjoining either y or y^{-1} makes x a unit
will keep working with your example to see what exactly makes it work
the theorem in Atiyah-Macdonald requires that whatever t we adjoin to R to make R[t] must be the inverse of a nonintegral element
so i don't think it contradicts it
second part of corollary 5.22
oh btw if you're reading 5.22 be sure to check the errata, forgot to say
anyone?
P = P + 0
ah right oops thanks
thanks 🙂
hmmm but i'm actually not seeing the part integral dependence plays in 5.22
yeah, in fact, it seems 5.22 only uses the fact that t is in a maximal ideal of R[t]. @rocky cloak i'm trying to figure out if x is a unit in your example
It seems
(y + 1/x) + (1/y + 1/x) + x - x (y + 1/x)(1/y + 1/x) = 1/x
So x is a unit and all is right with the world
oof, close call. almost discovered inconsistency of ZFC
I will go to bed now
cheers, thanks for the help
i wonder if there's some sort of commutative algebra software we could use for this
idk what exactly you're trying to do right now but this looks like the software whose name I forgot could do this
sage
that was the name
Sadge

can help pls
so my progress is there is a primitive root gZ(G)
and let k=|G/Z(G)|
so g^k h=hg^k for all h in G
but idk how to use the primitive root
btw Z(G) is the set of elements commutative with every element in G
Why does the quotient with the center have to be finite?
G = (G/Z(G))Z(G) and each is abelian so G is abelian qed
o
what
what is that
multiplication
it's bullshit
what
wouldn't this imply that all finitely generated groups are abelian
i dont understand
this got out of hand
(G/Z(G)) x Z(G)?
It's called a "joke"
this was intended as a joke
o
i'll put the /s next time
do you intuitively understand why it's true?
how to do
uh
quotient groups arent intuitive
unlike rings
Tbh, I don’t understand it intuitively either
Anyway, so you have a generator for G/Z(G), which you’ve named gZ(G)
so let G/Z(G) = <xZ(g)>, then any element in G, g, can be written as g = x^ih for some h in Z(g)
The cosets of Z(G) partition G, so we can write any element of G as x^i*h as parrot says
(And what terra was joking about by writing G = (G/Z(G))Z(G))
well {x^i} is the set of enough? coset representatives of G/Z(G)
Any coset of Z(G) in G is of the form x^iZ(G) by our assumption that the quotient group is cyclic
this might be really wrong but I like to think of it as like, if we look at the non commuting elements they're all x^n so they intrinsically commute with each other again, and so we get abelianess
ye
These cosets partition G, so every element is in one of these x^iZ(G)
Which is equivalent to saying it’s equal to x^i*h for some h in Z(G)
So now use this form to show G must be abelian
Right yeah, the “non-central” components commute
Reminds me of uhh p-parts and p’-parts of elements in a weird way
wait when is G/Z(G) not just empty when G is abelian lol
same thing
Almost like Z(G) cyclic => G = Z(G) implies G is cyclic or something
I need sleep
is it 2 am again?
you're on discord
are you b'i'*sh? 🤢
Ur GMT+1 don’t drag me into this
no, a former colony
it's been like what, 7-8 months?
That isn't known for being nice or shooting schools
I just stepped on the fucking head of my fan
Or being big
Ah… the glorious nation of Fiji…
it's almost as bad as stepping on a lego
fuck
south africa?
England had too many colonies
I'll be in the us starting friday
populationwise, not landmass wise
australia?
ye
oi m8 bloody cunt
The glorious territory of Tokelau
can we not wake up more people in the middle of the night?
it's 10 am for you
Southern Hemisphere… so cringe
and lemme guess, they responded
I had my oral exam today
I forgot the MOST EASY THINGS
and couldn't think at all
I wanted to say that the coordinate ring describes Mor(X, C)
but just couldn't think
today?!
I was too nervous
at 1am?
so I emailed him this as a fwi
16 hours ago
idk, in Australia, we call that yesterday
today is when I haven't gone to bed yet
And you also say December is in summer so excuse me if I ignore you
yesterday is what was before I gone to bed
SO TRUE
guys do I flip a coin whether I go to sleep
Go to sleep
so what happens when you pull an allnighter
it's one big day
Skips a day
yeah, heads sleep, tails sleep
that thing that happened in ngnl, also sleep
Suppose you have a group isomorphism between two groups, are isomorphisms basically permutations on the generators of these groups?
There’s no canonical generator, not even cardinality is unique for a generating set so no in general
Quick example: Z with generating sets {1} and {2,3}
I see, does this mean that even isomorphisms do not map generators to generators on presentations?
Well, if S generates A, then f(S) is gonna generate B
The problem is the presentation of a group is not unique
But that’s about it
Using this can get you two different presentations for Z
My favorite presentation is the unholy one where we use <G> = G 
Certainly not minimal in any sense, that’s for sure
Ah there's that.
But it’s probably natural in a categorical sense
Maximal nondegenerate
that's pretty special
It’s degenerate in another sense though 
But, of course, generating sets -> generating sets
And isomorphisms in particular have inverses
So you get that at least
We have this same problem of non uniqueness of the generating sets for different algebraic structures no? In particular for algebras, we should be able to show that any algebra is some quotient (encapsulating relations) of the free algebra on some generators. The problem is that these generator-relations is not unique, as you have said.
What's this notation? What's the square bracket doing on the right?
The relations seem to be a bit weirdly written
after all, feely adjoin an extra generator and quash it to 0
the commutator
and yeah the double | is weird
I'd write this as $\langle s, t | [t^nst^{-n}, t^mst^{-m}] \text{ for all } n, m \in \bZ \rangle$
wew ladz
ohhh okay! alright
apparently this group is interesting because it has no finite presentation
I believe it
⟨s,t | ∀m,n ∈ ℤ ([tⁿst⁻ⁿ,tᵐst⁻ᵐ])⟩
Just to prove I can with this keyboard
if V is a valuation ring of field K and t is in K but not in V, is V[t] = K?
chmonkey is indeed correct, the answer is either yes or no
Inner automorphisms
A(G) is just S_{n] then?
it's a \mathscr{I} i think
A(G) is the group of automorphisms of the group G
t is not integral over V since V is integrally closed
we do know valuation rings are maximal wrt. extensions of homomorphisms mapping to algebraically closed fields
No this can’t be true
Yeah this is not true
It’s true if V is a DVR
But look at eg
Thm 10.1 of Matsumura
So this doesn’t quite exactly have the statement written down immediately
But there’s a bijection between primes of a valuation ring and valuation superrings
You can look at this in terms of convex subgroups of the value group too, this is all written down in Bourbaki
But the point is, you can have valuation rings which are not maximal subrings of K
So in that case, just pick an element t living in a larger subring of R of K, and look at V[t]
You have V < V[t] <= R < K
In fact you can even use this exercise to see that most valuation rings are not maximal
10.5
is the fact that a homomorphism f:A->B from a ring A to an algebraically closed field B can be extended to a ring f:C->B a strong statement about the structures of A,C?
does anyone know what this lemma is called? I don't understand it
don't know what " i(H)! " means
Maybe index of H, factorial?
Really weird notation overall.
🤷♂️
I don't know if this has a name.
lemma 2.9.1 in topics in algebra
So a homomorphism from A to a field is basically the same as a prime ideal in A, by looking at the kernel.
So this extending to C would mean to find a prime in C lying over the prime in A. In other words we need the extension A -> C to satisfy the "lying over property".
It's a theorem that any integral extension satisfies the lying over property (the going up theorem).
oooooooooh! that makes a LOT of sense!
I was missing the explicit connection between homomorphisms and prime ideals
so extensions of homomorphism have a very intimate relationship to the structure of prime ideals lying over each other
I guess we're interested in homomorphisms to specifically algebraically closed fields because these are so easy to find?
there's also my question that you've already answered before: if a ring A contains a ring B, we can easily find an algebraically closed field to which both map to
I think it's more a nice "maximal" situation to be in.
Like if p is a prime in A and q in C lies over it, then the fraction field of C/q is a field extension of the faction field of A/p. And if A -> C is integral then the extension is algebraic. So if A/p already sits inside something algebraically closed you never need to switch up your codomain.
that makes sense, thanks a lot!
i've shown that the subgroup must be cyclic
how to continue from here?
how will every element in this group commute?
you're right in that G has to be abelian
do you know about the fact that if the quotient G/Z(G) is cyclic then G is abelian?
because I think the easiest route here is to just show that G has to be abelian and then conclude the result
This is probably intended to be a step in proving that every group of order p^2 is abelian.
very odd proof of that fact then
So if G/Z(G) is cyclic => G is abelian?
Does this work the other way around too? G is abelian => G/Z(G) is cyclic
if you consider the trivial group cyclic then yes
ok but you still need to show that G/Z(G) is cyclic
yes i'll try to do that
i don't understand what i am doing at this point
lol
any hints on how to show G/Z(G) is cyclic?
ahh sorry didn't copy everything
||let H < G be a normal subgroup of order p, then consider C_H(G) - you claim to have shown that H must be cyclic, which is true, so we know that H <= C_G(H) so C_G(H) cannot be trivial. If C_G(H) is a proper subgroup of G then take N_G(H)/C_G(H) which is isomorphic to G/C_G(H) because H is normal in G. This quotient must be cyclic of order p as 1 < C_G(H) < G <=> C_G(H) \cong C_p. By the N/C theorem G/C_G(H) is isomorphic to a subgroup of Aut(H), which is a contradiction, as the automorphism group of C_p (and therefore the automorphism group of H) is C_{p-1}, which is smaller than G/C_G(H) so cannot possibly contain it, so C_G(H) must equal G, and so H <= Z(G)||
this proof is a uhh mess but I didn't want to think too much
i appreciate it
u’re very welcome :)
i am not at this level yet so i will have to try something else
Did you just use C for both centralizer and cyclic group
yeah and I'll do it again

Is there a polynomial who’s splitting field is non-Galois? If so, would this imply the polynomial does not have a Galois group associated with its roots?
do you know about the orbit stabilser theorem/group actions?
i think i do
f be a homomorphism, so f(x) = x is the stabilizer
group action is just a action in the group?
what i've done so far:
ok so you don't know about group actions
The proof of orbit stabilizer is really trivial for how useful the theorem actually is
indeed it is

that font has set my computer on fire and i had to throw coffee over it, rip these are my last seconds on the internet
isn't an orbit all the permutations of a group action?
for a element a in G, suppose o(a) = 3, then the orbit would be {e, a, a^2}?
kind of, but you still haven't convinced me you know what a group action is
i don't blame u
Are all splitting fields Galois over Q or are there polynomials without Galois groups?
I can tell from the way these fonts look that it's already going to be a hard text
I assume you mean a splitting field of a polynomial f(x) in Q[x}?
In which case yes, in fact for finite extensions K/F, K/F is Galois iff it is the splitting field of a separable polynomial
And every polynomial over a field of characteristic zero - in particular over Q - is separable
correct statement, I think: either V[t] = K, or t is not in the maximal ideal of V[t]
What do you mean “the” maximal ideal
If V[t] is not K, then it is a valuation ring too (let me think through why)
t will be a unit in V[t] yes, because t^-1 is in V
Also you’re right
I was being dumb lol
It’s because of the condition that you’re a valuation ring iff either x or x^-1 is in V for any x in K
They can both be in V
Not an exclusive or
That’s not how or is used in math
i always consider them exclusive because they're special tho
yeah I realized too
whats Inn(G)
the inner automorphisms of G
basically, all automorphisms of G that look like conjugating by some fixed element
o
@delicate orchid what about doing two subgroups of G, in which "a" is in one of the subgroups and "b" is in the other. We know the first subgroup is generated by (a), and due to subgroups being normal in G, the other group that has that contains "b" has to be normal too. Thus a,b must be in Z(G), and so o(Z(g)) > p since the first subgroup has order p? then due to Lagranges theorem o(Z(G)) = p^2 thus Z(G) = G?
Does this work?
how do we know that all of the subgroups must be normal
and there are normal subgroups which are not central, so the following implication doesn't hold either
although, hmm
if we know the centre is non-trivial that implication holds
but the centre being non-trivial is equivalent to G being abelian in this case, so kinda missing the forest for the trees
I find analysis to be harder
pea brain moment for me

