#groups-rings-fields
1 messages Ā· Page 133 of 1
it would be easier if everybody didn't use the same 'x' in every different context
You just called them by the same name, doesn't mean that they are the same
Ye avoid
If you are working with multiple fields at once
right. I can grasp that concept easily, ironically, as a software engineer (recognizing the distinction between representation and identity)
the hard part is recognizing which context the author is working in
If the author doesn't make that clear then it's probably not a good author
maybe they think they are and I'm just a lousy reader š
if E, F are fields with E>=F we call E an extension (field) of F and call F a subfield of E
E is said to be finite-dimensional over F if there are elements e1,...,e_n in E such that nay e in E has the form ughhhhhhhhh this is too abstract for me to follow
self study
Then if this is too abstract you might want to do some ring theory first to get used to the abstraction
Field theory directly can be difficult
the book i'm reading is Stillwell's Elements of Algebra
some of this stuff is etiher super straightforward to me, or close enough so something I can grasp it easily
Never heard of it, but abstract alg is the starting point for a lot of people doing math so there are some very beginner friendly books available
in my head, a field is something where the algebra I learned decades ago in high school still works
so prime fields are really easy
I would have said āwtfā but I did start abstract before linear so that makes sense I guess
Yeah that kind of intuition is fine
It's just that it gets hard to imagine these kinds of things with finite fields and embeddings of those into each other
Which is why doing ring theory first is better because that will give you a ton of examples to think back to every time you see a definition
wait so this seems to be saying that
E is finite-dimensional over F if you can "reach" any element by combining some elements of E with elements of F by a simple sum-of-products
which would be like GF(2^4) -> {1,x,x^2,x^3} paired with {0,1} from F_2
Yes, as long as you can do this using only finitely many elements from E
Which you did here
is F2-bar an extension field of F_2? it seems like no, then
It is, but not a finite dimensional one
oh right we're in finite-dimensional mode
it seems that all finite-dimensional extensions of a finite field will be finite fields
Yep
but e.g. C is a 2-dimensional extension of R
Yes
ye
wooo okay I'm starting to grasp this madness
Whoops my kbd stopped working in discord again
So it looks like {1,x,x^2,x^3} is a basis
But {1,x+1,x^2,x^3} is not cuz x+1 overlaps with 1
Basis for what space?
Then no, {1, x+1, x^2, x^3} is a basis I believe
Oh maybe it is
But {x,x+1,x^2,x^3} is a spanning set but not a basis
Oh maybe it is man this is tricky
Anyway I gotta head back to the office
L8r. Thanks for the help
how does alpha^8 = 1 follow from the line with the arrow?
It doesn't follow
It's just another fact
oh okay
You can check
true
It's just something you need to prove the part that follows "we see that"
yea im trying to see it rn lol
if A is finitely generated R-module then A = A_t + F where F free = A/A_t. Proof: A/A_t is torsion free and finitely generated , so its free , so its projective , then we get the exact sequence A_t --> A --> A/A_t --> 0 is spit exact and we get A = F + A_t ?
is that it?
Which part are you having trouble verifying
no i got it rn
thx for the help tho
Np
Is R a PID or what are your assumptions?
Then yes, that's correct.
I didn't quite understand how the riemann hypothesis doesn't follow from the third weil conjecture
So you're back from ur date already
brutal
2 ¾ hours
it went good tho
we ate and then walked around for an hour or so
we talked a lot
it was fun
that's nice
oh gotta ping the gang @ashen heron @graceful flume
it's sad that we won't be able to see each other for the next month tho
first she's on vacation and then right when she gets back I'm going on vacation
fuck math
you'll get through it š
š
anyway what's the answer to this 
isnt one for finite fields
you can apply it to elliptic curves over finite fields I think
to estimate the rational points
q + 1 + error(2sqrt(q))
or something like that
i get that R/M field implies that it's a division ring (and hence has the invariant dimension property), but how does that show that R has the invariant dimension property? does it have to do with the action of R/M on a free R/M module F being induced from R or something
Let N be a module, one can form N/MN
If N ā Nā then N/MN ā Nā/MNā
So now assume that R^n ā R^m
Reduce both sides mod M
Now you know n = m because you know it over R/N
(I guess you need to note that R^n/MR^n ā (R/M)^n)
Even better than that, it's a free module
basis 1,x,x^2,... I assume
hm thanks!
it seems like:
- you can find F4 inside F16 by taking the elements (0, 1, x^2, x^2+1)
- which suggests that while F4 is hidden inside F16, and is therefore you can say that F4 is a subfield of F16, F16 isn't an extension of F4, because there is no basis that lets you construct F16 from just those four elements
does someone know if there's a modern tex'd version of Lectures on p-adic Differential Equations by Dwork?
so obviously {x,y,z} is a basis for all 3D vectors
but {x+y,y+z,x+z} also seems to be a valid basis[1]
[1] possibly required: nonzero field characteristic
hi stevie
i do not know anything about any p-adic diffeqs for any value of p
What does this say
you need the premium tier subscription to see 2.3.5
it doesn't say anything, because it's an image and cannot speak
furthermore, the text is unreadable
damn the people who I've been talking to aren't around
is Z/pZ isomorphic to Z[x] \ (x-p)
damn then I misunderstood (or am misremembering) what I was told
is there a thing in Z[x] that is isomorphic to Z/pZ?
Z[x] has characteristic 0
oh good point
it's just 4 pages of computation lol
like boring hs algebra
You may be thinking of Z[[x]]/(x-p) is isomorphic to Z_p
when you say Z_p you mean Z/pZ ?
p-adic integers
now you're just making things up š
,, \bZ_p = \varprojlim_n \bZ/p^n\bZ
or equivalently the ring of integers of the completion of Q wrt the p adic norm
or equivalently a billion other things
I have no idea what p-adic is and I'm afraid I'm gonna break my brain if I try to process a limit on a noncontinuous set
hm ok
it's an inverse limit
this is probably the thing I was trying to get to, although I'm having trouble wrapping my head around the 1 - x bit
do you know how the reals are constructed from the rationals by taking all cauchy sequences and modding out the zero sequence
you set x = 1
every time you see x you know "ah that's just 1"
just like C = R[x]/(x^2 + 1)
this sounds like I added an x but then removed it back again
yes
yes
that is basically what happens
but maybe that's what I need, to understand this
don' leave me hangin' like 'tis
somebody was trying to do RSA or DH stuff earlier (clue 1: "if r and p are large primes", as if the size of the prime matters. clue 2: nonsensical comparison of two different multiplicative groups)
buddy, I'm not even 100% convinced the reals even exist at this point
for all I know it's all Q[i]

or Q(i)

or maybe even Q[[[[[[i]]]]]]]

i think you dropped these [ ]
possibly. there were too many to carry
but anyway, the guy earlier talked about what was basically (a mod p) mod q
and I know what he meant
when he says "a mod p" he means the r such that a = qp+r, 0<=r<p
but I have recently had my eyes opened about the nature of congruence classes
and I'm trying to think of how I would write the ring of integers "mod p mod q"
the first thing I noticed is that:
- if p=q then it's just Z/pZ
- if p>q then the elements are those of Z/qZ but the operators are wonky
- if p<q then it's the same as "mod q mod p"
btw those p, q are both primes
ok so if
(a mod p)bar === a + np for all integers n
(a mod q)bar === a + mq for all integers q
then
(a mod p mod q)bar === a + np + mq for all integers n, m (with "duplicates" at multiples of lcm(p,q), for example a + qp + 0 and a + 0 + pq)
which means that "a mod p mod q" is congruent to "a mod q mod p"
veritasium actually just made a p-adics video for his (more) general audience https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=tRaq4aYPzCc
There's a strange number system, featured in the work of a dozen Fields Medalists, that helps solve problems that are intractable with real numbers. Head to https://brilliant.org/veritasium to start your free 30-day trial, and the first 200 people get 20% off an annual premium subscription.
If you're looking for a molecular modeling kit, try S...
I liked https://youtu.be/3gyHKCDq1YA
The p-adic numbers are bizarre alternative number systems that are extremely useful in number theory. They arise by changing our notion of what it means for a number to be large. As a real number, 1 billion is huge. But as a 10-adic number, it is tiny! #SoME2
Notes and references:
The last 30 digits of 2^1000000 and other lar...
https://www.quantamagazine.org/how-the-towering-p-adic-numbers-work-20201019/ also quanta article
AHA
so Z is a field
Touch field of Z
so now N is a field
I'm expecting the next thing to be proof that F_2 is isomorphic to C
well, shit
wait doesn't Cantor's diagonal argument prove the p-adics are uncountable
i'd like a refund on this headache please
yeah
There is a basis for F16 over F4: {1, x}
For part b how do I show that if K_p is infinite, it is cyclic?
Wait, is it because for each finite cyclic extension F, of degree p^n, it's Galois group is generated by sigma (restricted to F). And the Galois group of K_p will be the inverse limit of these finite Galois groups?
This feels wrong for some reason
Specifically cause part 3
Yeah, how can K_p be infinite cyclic if it's Galois group contains a subgroup of rank 2 over Z
Can someone explain why the underlined part is relevant?
Thm 48.11 just says for a set of automorphism for field E, the set of fixed elements for all automorphism in that set makes a field.
I think by the prime subfield, they mean Q
why should it be in it?
if sigma is a field auto of a field of char 0, then sigma(1) = 1, and sigma(-1) = -1. These additively generate Z, hence for any n in Z^+, sigma(n) = sigma(1 + ... + 1) = 1 + ... + 1 = n, and sigma(-n) = sigma(-1 - ... - 1) = -n. Hence sigma fixes Z. Finally for n in Z / {0}, sigma(1/n) = 1/n, thus form m/n in Q, sigma(m/n) = m/n
Thus sigma fixes Q
Finally for n in Z / {0}, sigma(1/n) = 1/n. How is this? isn't Z/{0} just ismorphic to Z? so its the same as proving sigma(n)=n
sigma(1) = 1 => sigma(n * 1/n) = sigma(n) * sigma(1/n) = 1 => sigma(1/n) = 1/sigma(n) = 1/n
oh nice, thanks
I guess "infinite cyclic" should mean that the Galois group is the closure of a cyclic group.
Closure in the topological sense?
I'm ignorant here, but perhaps jagr means the completion in the sense of profinite groups?
As in the inverse limit of a family of cyclic groups?
Yes, the Galois group is a profinite group and hence a topological group
The Galois correspondence for infinite Galois extensions goes between intermediate field extensions and closed subgroups.
If you take a subgroup H of G(E/F), the closure of H is equal to G(E/E_H), where E_H is the field fixed by H.
So then cyclic extension would mean an extension of the form E/E_H where H is a cyclic group. But this does not mean that the Galois group is cyclic, just the closure of a cyclic group.
So it's not quite the completion. For example the completion of Z is $\hat{\mathbb Z} = \prod_p \mathbb Z_p$, and Z is indeed a dense subgroup. But Z can also appear as a dense subgroup of other profinite groups. For example $\mathbb Z_p$ for a fixed p. So the ambient group matters.
jagr2808
ah I remember this from alg nt yesterday
commutative ring and you can divide stuff
,w define ditto
Yah but like
Imagine going through a multi-choice section checking the field axioms
Isnāt it fucking exhausting
just... remember them
Trying to remember the last missing axiom
multiplication, addition
I meant like
for multiplication you have commutativity, identity, associativitiy, inverses
same for addition
and those two distribute
Wouldnāt it be much easier if you have some sort of ordering conventionā¦
no...?
Make it a bit more algorithmicā¦
Unless itās immediately obvious
Something like
MAD

Well
remembering how to do stuff algorithmically is fucking stupid
Taking exams under timed conditions arguably isnāt real āmathā either
Yore rite
Gotta bust out the fingers to do basic addition
The field axioms are basically just the properties of the reals you learn in middle school
Gotta get my 100 pens ready to do multiplication first
Or borrow some friendās fingers
Associative property, commutative property, distributive property, multiplicative identity and inverse, additive identity and inverse
the ass commutes
I had a really racist mnemonic for another algebraic structure
So Iām never forgetting that one

this is not an eeveekawaii....
ā¦
.pin
dm me
If L/K is cyclic (with generator sigma) and a\in K*, why should this be a 2-cocycle? The functional equation is f(x,y)f(xy,z)=f(y,z)f(x,yz) (actually it's xf(y,z), but f(y,z)\in K, so x applied to it is the identity), so what if n=6 and you substitute x=sigma^4, y=sigma^2, z=sigma, you get a^2 on the LHS and a on the RHS.
you just remember shit as like
"abelian group over abelian group" for fields
"monoid over abelian group" for rings (semigroup if you're psychotic)
I am curious as to why you need a mnemonic for an algebraic structure
You don't really need to
it's more like when you're studying for an exam
and have to do like 10-20 multichoice Qs in a row
if it works it works 
it becomes much faster for me to follow the mnemonic
but yes, often the missing identity will seem obvious
I am curious as to what the mnemonic is 
I rlly prefer not to say lol
it's not even a proper sentence
Don't say it here.
yeah ofc not
Let's change the subject
ok lets talk about hmmmmmmm
i wonder what you could possibly talk about in the abstract algebra channel
Take p = 6
considering
considered
my favorite prime is zero
ah yes clealy 0 = 0.p is the only factorisation of 0
Anyone?
my guy couldn't be arsed to type * instead of .
Maybe they're Australian? Or which ever country it is that uses . For multiplication and \cdot for decimal point

I have never seen that
Used
I feel I remember Matt Parker using it in some numberphile videos.
Wikipedia also says that in English speaking countries one uses a dot either at the bottom or halfway between bottom and top for a decimal point.
Idk
yeah, dot in the middle for multiplication, dot at the bottom for decimals
just like the dot product (wholesome)
I guess xy = sigma^0 or what is n?
Ah man, I forgot to take the actual cyclicity into account
e.g. f(xy,z) is f(1,sigma) not f(sigma^6,sigma) (i mean for the purposes of the definition of f)
If C is the algebraic closure of F_p and L/K is any subextension in it (|L| not necessarily finite), is it automatically normal and does the Galois group have some nice description?
OK, I think I've worked out the normality, is this correct:
To show L/K is normal it is enough to show L/F_p is normal. Let x\in L be arbitrary and f its minimal polynomial over F_p, then it has a splitting field K/F_p in C. We know K/F_p is cyclic with generator x\mapsto x^p (as an extension of finite fields), so all the roots of f in C are given by powers of x. But these are all contained in L, therefore f splits over L and L is normal.
does your first line work both ways?
I know that if L/K is normal and E is some intermediate field then L/E is normal but I'm not sure the converse holds hmmmm
wdym "both ways", what I did is exactly what you're saying, not the converse. All subfields of C automatically contain F_p (it is the prime field), so if L/F_p is normal, then so is L/K.
Take E=L
tbh I'm not sure I'm following what you're doing
You first define C/F_p but then pull L and K out of somewhere?
C\supset L\supset K
an extension of algebraic extensions of F_p
The Galois group should be the inverse limit of all the finite Galois groups. So in this case I guess that should be something like
$\prod_p \mathbb Z/p^{k_p}$
Where $k_p$ is the largest k for which there is an intermediate extension of degree $p^k$, and $\mathbb Z/p^\infty$ are the p-adic integers
jagr2808
Writing Z/p^infty for the p-adics is very nonstandard
Z/p^\infty is usually the prufer group
Which is a direct limit
Yeah, I just didn't want to have to split up my notation
OK and what if |L:K|<\infty, but K is infinite, is there a more concrete description then?
I'm not sure the description is different, but I'm not sure if something weird happens when K is infinite
@rocky cloak you're saying the Galois group in general is the inverse limit of the finite Galois groups, so my question is what the finite Galois groups look like. If K is finite, I know it is the cyclic group of order n.
Gonna double check with yall ā when people say "Abelian group of finite type," this means it's finitely generated, right?
Likely, some call finitely-generated modules "of finite type".
I think they're still cyclic when K is infinite, but could be wrong about that
What would be a generator then
what's K in this case? An infinite algebraic extension of F_p?
Are there even nontrivial infinite subfields of F_p\bar
prufer group ought to have infinite index subgroups no?
oop my bad yeah
even then it's still the case no?
cause dont we have Zhat = prod Z_p
Probably. Z should be of infinite index no?
so take any subgroup of p adic integers
That also works yea
Let's say we have Galois extensions $k \subseteq E$ and $E \subseteq F$. Its not hard to come up with examples of $k \subseteq F$ not necessarily being Galois, but I'm supposed to show that this is the case when every automorphism in $\text{Aut}_k(E)$ is a restriction of one in $\text{Aut}_k(F)$. I'm a bit lost on how to prove this though
eternalway
My dumb idea was that restriction to E of automorphisms in $\text{Aut}_k(F)$ defines a homomorphism from $\text{Aut}_k(F)$ to $\text{Aut}_k(E)$. By assumption, this is surjective and its kernel is easily seen to be $\text{Aut}_E(F)$. Then can't you use degree counting to show $\text{Aut}_k(F) = [F:k]$?
eternalway
the argument i know shows directly that F is a splitting field of a separable polynomial
like use the fact that automorphisms are obtained from restrictions to show that your minimal polynomials split
Should be something like for x in L, consider F_p(x) / F_p(x)\cap K and pick the generator there that you get from the Frobenius map and apply that to x. You may have to fiddle a bit to make it well defined.
There should be a "GF(p^n)" for any super natural number n I think.
Just take the union of GF(p^m) where m ranges over every natural number that divides n
what's a super natural number
Can you expand on this a bit? E is galois over k, E is the splitting field of a separable polynomial with coeffs in k. Same for E over F. How do automorphisms come into play here?
automorphisms do permute the roots (not too hard to show)
Right, that's easy to show
(Btw the condition you listed in the problem is equivalent to the extension being normal and separability is a bit nicer since it these kinds of cases it follows so the extension if Galois)
Ah, I didn't know this part
yeah for separability you have this nice iff statement that an extension E/F is separable iff E/K and K/E are separable
and a Galois extension is defined as a normal separable extension
I knew this about separability. I was referring to your comment about my problem statement being equivalent to normality
oh yeah this is how my prof defined normality
here's the full theorem (this is from my class' like recap notes?)
(I believe your statement is equivalent to the third point)
or it isn't wait I might have had a brain fart
Yeah, I don't think it is unfortunately
However, we do know that since E/k is Galois, for algebraic extension of E (like F) the automorphisms of F that fix k also map E to E
So now you know that restriction defines a homomorphism from Aut_k(F) to Aut_k(E) with kernel Aut_E(F). It's surjective by our assumption, so you can just use degree counting to prove Aut_k(F) = [F:k]
They just mean an element of \hat Z
ah
Super natural number generalizes the unique prime factorization of natural numbers to include infinitely many primes. They correspond to principle ideals in \hat Z.
In mathematics, the supernatural numbers, sometimes called generalized natural numbers or Steinitz numbers, are a generalization of the natural numbers. They were used by Ernst Steinitz:ā249ā251ā in 1910 as a part of his work on field theory.
A supernatural number
Ļ
{\displaystyle \omega }
is a formal p...
UHF algebras
yoy guys
i have a very embarrassing question
but is the difference between finitely generated and free is that basis are linearly independant
while in fg u can have relatinos between the generators?
(and also a basis might be infinite)
yes
Or needn't exist
Also, you can be free but not finitely generated e.g. infinite dimensional vector space
So the two are kinda unrelated
So I get that the set of coset representatives is a set containing one representative from each coset, but I'm not seeing how that translates to the construction of H and G even though they feel correct
first do you understand why cosets are disjoint?
I think I do basically since ${x_i}$ only contains one representative for each coset then if $x_{i}\in h_{i}K,$ then $x_{i}\not\in h_{j}K$ unless $i=j.$ This would give that $x_{i}\not= x_{j}$ and therefore $x_{i}K\not= x_{j}K.$ But we have that if two cosets share any elements then they are equal and since these cosets are not equal for any index, then they must be share any elements and so are disjoint
kenshin5334
Sorry about that btw I had to take an important phone call I think I had a better explanation but I lost it during the call
``if $x_{i}\in h_{i}K,$ then $x_{i}\not\in h_{j}K$''
bruh
oh that's h_j
mb
didn't notice lol
I was about to ask what's wrong with that lol
what you said is true
but I think irony incarnate was asking if you knew why cosets partition the group
like, {x_jK} is the set of cosets of K
anywho
the last line basically tells you that y_jx_iK add up to be the whole group
as the set of cosets should
I assume you know why this is true
and what you're trying to understand is why each y_jx_iK is disjoint from the others?
I'm trying to understand how we justify that $H=\bigcup_{i} x_{i}K$ and similar for G
kenshin5334
do you understand why this is true?
No not exactly
it's because every element of the group belongs to some coset
namely for any element g\in G, g is also in gK
Okay that makes sense and then since they partition the group the union of all of them makes the group
darq in abs alg channel???

that's not the sole reason for why they partition the group
for them to partition the group their union needs to add up to be the whole group AND they must be pairwise disjoint
Oh no I was saying I get why H is the union of cosets now
Thanks DarQ 
it's so neutral

that looks less upbeat somehow
Is this the only way to do b)? Take G=Z/10Z. If we're just going by brute force, we can use the fact that phi(x^-1)=phi(x)^-1 to determine that 0 and 5 are fixed. If we choose something to send any of the remaining elements to, we immediately get phi(x^-1) for free, yielding 4! permutations to check
Ok I guess 4! is not that big but it seems unenlightening
I think you might figure this out after you brute force, but ||try studying where an automorphism sends 1 in particular||
Ah wait I'll brute force it for something smaller than 10 and then unspoiler your message then lol
group of automorphisms for C_n is isomorphic to ||U(n) ||
after you unspoiler it figure out why this is true
I love that if you change _ for ^ this is still true.
The beauty of overloading notation

For question 48, are we working with W(k) or the projection of W(k) on vectors whose components are indexed by powers of p?
Or are they the same thing?
how is Z+ a group lol
Hi im doing this exercise. I am wondering how it is clear that $\mathbb{Q} \otimes_\mathbb{Z} \mathbb{Q}$ has a (unique) $\mathbb{Q}$-module structure. I am really new to tensors lol
My brother in Christ
what am I missing
what are the inverses
what is the neutral element
__________________fold
Hi im doing this exercise. I am wondering how it is clear that $\mathbb{Q} \otimes_\mathbb{Z} \mathbb{Q}$ has a (unique) $\mathbb{Q}$-module structure. I am really new to tensors lol
it renders in overleaf lol
I don't know if it has a unique Q-module structure, but there's certainly a natural one given by multiplication in the first factor, or q (x \otimes y) = qx \otimes y
yeah hmm
what do i need to check to make sure it is well defined
i am having a bit of trouble understanding the subscript with the tensor product
i know it has to do with what $R$-balanced maps factor
__________________fold
omg lmao
but i dont have a good intuition what it means for what i can do with the actual tensors
Oh, sure. So when you tensor Q with itself over Z, the bilinearity relations only let us move around the Z factors
yes that makes sense
oooh so it only lets us move arounf factors in Z in the tensors right
Explicitly, you could have (3/4) \otimes (5/6) = (15/4) \otimes (1/6) where I've moved the factor of 5 to the left side via balancing relations
That's right
ah cool
this tensor stuff is rllyu cool but also sort of overwhelming it at first tho but so intersting lol
Now with this in mind, you might be able to find a simpler way to write Q \otimes_Z Q
Yeah, don't worry it took me a while to get more comfortable working with tensors
By this, I mean take a basic tensor (a/b) \otimes (c/d) and see if there's a way you can "simplify" it to a standard form
so is it super obvious that right multiplication with elemenst of Q in the tensors gives Q otimes_Z Q a Q_module structure ?
It feels obvious to me, but maybe that's just because I've thought about this exercise before. If it isn't obvious to you, you can and should check the axioms
ok thanks
le extension of scalars has arrived
id like to move the factors 1/b and 1/d out if that makes sense
but i cant do that right
because i can only move around factors in Z
there's another way you can get rid of them though
but yes you cannot move them cause these are Z-modules
That's correct, but yeah wew is hinting at an approach to deal with these
Namely, multiplying by 1 in a clever way
ah you can rewrite it to ab/cd (1 \otimes 1) right
by multipliying with d/d
ah yeah
That's exactly right, yeah
and then its a Q-vectorspace with basis 1 \otimes 1
or as I like to call it, Q
another fun one with a similar idea is to compute $\bZ/m\bZ \otimes_{\bZ} \bZ/n\bZ$
if the bot decides to render that is
Lol
yeah i did this one already
really awesome
darn...
nah its a nice result
is Q(x) rational functions or polynomials
im asking because a someone i now use Q(x) for polynomials lol
Q tensor A
oh lol
classic
Btw doesn't this work for any A
Or am I being dumb
ok so if an element of a has order n than q (x) a = qn/n (x) a = q/n (x) na = q/n (x) 0 = 0 :3
Yeah nice
if A is torsion free then nope
see A = Q from before
what do u mean with doenst work ?
its always an abelian group right ?
not equal to zero
ah ok
I stuck to finite groups potato just incase wheel didn't know what "torsion" meant
Not what I meant lol
Oh
yeah it always kills torsion
I thought you meant like
torsion elements in abelian groups are elemesnts with finite order right ?
yus
cool
more generally in modules they're elements m such that nm = 0 and n ain't no zero-divisor
ah yes i remember now i did an exercise abt it i think
trying to think how this idea continues to generalise
works for any injective Z-module instead of just Q I know that much but what happens if we change the ring
so I'm checking that the rational numbers that have denominators that are divisors of some fixed n in Z+ is a subgroup, and I've shown that it breaks down into three cases for a/b+x/y
- yb<n, which is only possible if (y,b)=1. Since both y,b|n, then yb|n
- yb=n, which has the same above conditions and n|n
- yb>n, which means that (y,b)>1, but then doesn't that mean that the fraction can again be reduced until (y,b)=1 which collapses to case 1 or 2? I feel like I'm spinning my wheels at this point trying to show it to be true too symbolically.
which is only possible if (y,b)=1
n = 16, y = 2, b = 4 is a counter example
unless you meant prime divisors
I originally was thinking about it in two cases: (y,b)=1 and (y,b)>1, sorry. Artifact from previous attempt, though that may be a better way to do it.
the main thing to notice is that a/b+x/y = (ay+bx)/by, so you just need to show that by is another divisor of n
I don't know what you're doing with this case stuff
showing that by is another divisor of n
that's the reason it's here in the first place
also I don't believe this result, set b = n, y = n - both clearly divide n but by = n^2 clearly doesn't
hint: you don't need to do (ay+bx)/by. When you add fractions, the maximum number you need to place in the denominator is lcm(b, y).
suppose that y and b are copirme. It then must be the case that yb|n because y and b are products of distinct subsets of the prime factorization of n, which then means that yb is the union of those subsets, which then must itself be a subset of n's factorization.
Now suppose that they are not coprime. It then follows that the sum of the fractions a/b+x/y must be (ya+bx)/by, which is reducible by the common factor of y and b. Name this factor f, and define y=fp and b=fq. We know that factoring out f=(y,b) gives us (pa+qx)/pq with (p,q)=1, which now behaves the same as in the first scenario.
yeah. I know that's true, but I wanted to demonstrate it to be true rather than simply take it as an assumption.
what have you tried so far?
I opened the bracket in matrix form
Don't know what the next step should i do
no clue what this means, but I'd start by actually multiplying out (123)(34) to get a proper permutation
which words do you not understand
which words do you not understand
oh right you meant two line notation
no need for that:
(123)(34)
1 -> 2
2 -> 3
3 -> 4
4 -> 3 -> 1
so (123)(34) = (1234)
then we can just use the fact that disjoint cycles commute
I'm more concerned that you replied no to knowing the definitions
Which ones do you not know
It's imperative that you understand them otherwise you will be stuck on similar problems in the future
With algebra especially - there's no point in attempting problems without knowing exactly what the question means
but that applies to all math anyways
if you don't understand the terms in the question, its time to refer to your notes on them
I asked this in book recommendations but no one answered
I think my book "Algebra from the viewpoint of Galois Theory" jumps to conclusions too fast and you really have to read something 10 times before you start to understand it
Has anyone any other book recommendations for abstract algebra?
are you trying to learn galois theory specifically
what's your preexisting knowledge on aa
Has to cover:
- basic groups
Why not 3>1 ?
that image is a little cropped
No I don't think Galois theory is necessary
dummit foote probably covers quite a lot of these
that 3 is from the (123) not the (34)
thank you @tender wharf I'll look into it
you move right to left and see where stuff goes to
no problem, also that image is cursed
alternatively you just write them down as functions and compose them if you want to be more explicit but that's the same thing as this
(First image)
yeah wews way is the fastest
otherwise you'll have to manually plug in all the numbers
I mean it's cursed because it's so long
maybe type it up next time
Why did you not write 4>3 only?
I have a few questions with regards to the symmetric group
because 4 first gets mapped to 3 by (34), and then that 3 gets mapped to 1 by (123)
Im trying to find all the different subgroups for the symmetric group S_3, I know we have the trivial subgroup S_3 and the identity mapping but how will I find the others? should I use brute force?
Yeah ok
Although S_3 is small enough to brute force 
2^6 is a lot of subsets to check
So what next?
as DerpZ said, you use the fact that disjoint cycles commute
you can check them in a smarter way no?
probably
oh you meant for S_3, yeah ok
yeah
yes, an abstract algebra textbook
Or topic name
why check all sets of order 2,3 and 6?
lagrange's theorem
we ignored order 6 because thats just the whole group
those are the only possible sizes of subgroups of a group of order 6 (not counting 1)
gotcha
I recommend you prove this fact for yourself
Disjoint cycles commute
there are more elements in the centraliser than just disjoint cycles though
I believe (13)(24) should also commute with (1234), for instance
Im thinking of writing all the possiblie permutations which is 3! = 6 and then writing them in cycle notation then figuring out their order is that a reasonable way to solve my question?
this is just considering the groups generated by elements, so sure
makes sense
and you know that because 2, 3 are prime that all groups of that order have to be cyclic
alright thanks, last question im trying to figure out for what n would S_n be abelian or commutative, I was thinking for all n since we can decompose every cycle
oh no no no S_n is VERY far from abelian
n=2
really but cant we decompose and then the transpositions are commutative?
it's abelianization is C_2 which is far smaller than S_n
since when are transpositions commutative?
(12)(23) = (123), (23)(12) = (132)
Must be mistaken...
disjoint cycles commute as we said before
yes disjoint cycles is what I mean to say
not all cycles are disjoint though
but cant we decompose every cycle into disjoint cycles?
Yeah
Yeah that makes it alot clearer thanks
Let $\sigma_1 = (x_1, x_2, ..., x_n)$ and $\sigma_2 = (y_1, y_2, ..., y_n)$, then [\sigma_1 \in C_{S_n}(\sigma_2) \iff \sigma_1\sigma_2\sigma_1^{-1} = (\sigma_1(y_1), ..., \sigma_1(y_n)) = \sigma_1]
this is what we need to check
wew ladz
and we can exploit the fact that the centraliser is a group, so we have 1, (56), (13)(24), (13)(24)(56) from before
and then obviously all powers of (1234) will commute with (1234) so we have {1, (56), (13)(24), (13)(24)(56), (1234), (1432), (1234)(56), (1432)(56)} which is isomorphic to C_2 \times C_4 and is order 8
huh this is neat
I wrote \sigma_1, \sigma_2 as n-cycles but the same idea will still work even if they're not
Yeah I heard the notation may be a bit nonstandard. My book uses Z^+ to mean the additive group of integers
I swear I can remember what that book is but wow that must be annoying
that is usually written (Z, +), in case you want to avoid misunderstandings
im trying to find a homomorphism between $(Z_4, +) and (Z_5, \cdot)$ I defined a mapping $ f: Z_4 --> Z_5 to be f(x) = [0]_5. f(x+y) = [0]_5 = [0] \cdot [0] = f(x) \cdot f(y)$ is it correct?
jayzsparrow
Therefore f is a homomorpism
So Z/5 does not form a group under multiplication, so probably what you actually want to do is find an isomorphism between Z/4 and the group of nonzero elements of Z/5.
If you just want a homomorphism of monoids, then what you did is correct.
theres also the bashy way of checking that U(Z/5Z) is not Z/2Z times Z/2Z
perhaps I wrote it wrong
and then you hit it with classification of finite abelian groups
yes then what jagr said
idk what that means lol
Then that's not what you want. $\mathbb Z_5^\times$ refers to the elements of Z/5 relatively prime to 5. So not 0
jagr2808
Oh I see! thanks..
If the polynomial is written as a_nx^n+a_n-1x^n-1+...+a_0, this should be a_1/a_0 - a_{n-1}, right (basically it's s_1-s_n-1/s_n, where s_i is the i-th symmetric function of the roots of P)?
actually this assumed the polynomial is monic, one has to take a_n into account, so it's probably a_1/a_0 - a_{n-1}/a_n.
It's Artin
you need the (-1)^n to deal with the parity (just work through the example of 2 roots or 3 roots to check the sign), you donāt need to take the a_n into account for the second term because the numerator and denominator both have a factor that will cancel out, and you do need the a_n instead of the a_0 for the first term~~~
Doesn't look right to me, here's my derivation:
$\sum_j(z_j-\frac{1}{z_j})=\sum_jz_j-\sum_j\frac{1}{z_j}=s_1-\sum_j\frac{\prod_{i\neq j}z_i}{\prod_{i}z_i}=s_1-\frac{\sum_j\prod_{i\neq j}z_i}{\prod_iz_i}=s_1-\frac{s_{n-1}}{s_n}$
Then use that $f=a_n(x-z_1)\cdots(x-z_n)$ and $(x-z_1)\cdots(x-z_n)=x^n-s_1x^{n-1}+\cdots+(-1)^ns_n$, implying $-a_ns_1=a_{n-1}$ and $(-1)^{n-1}a_ns_{n-1}=a_1$ and $(-1)^na_ns_n=a_0$. Substituting this into the first identity yields $\sum_j(z_j-\frac{1}{z_j})=\frac{a_1}{a_0}-\frac{a_{n-1}}{a_n}$.
leave_no_norm
s_i denotes the i-th symmetric function of the roots (without sign factors)
The exercise then asked to prove \phi(fg)=\phi(f)+\phi(g) and it's actually a pain in the ass to do with coefficients, but works easily with symmetric functions
I think you're right, lemme check a lil more carefully
yeah you're totally right, mb
can somebody give me a hint for this question? i reduced it down to showing that the image of f = ker f, because if every a in A could be expressed as a product xy where x in Kerf and y in Imf then the image of A under f is equal to the kernel of f since Kerf is an ideal of A. i'm pretty sure that's right but man it's just on the tip of my fucking tongue
The claim im(f) = ker(f) is just not true, take f = id. A hint for this would be, express any a in A as a = f(a) + (a - f(a)).
also you should write in additive notation for modules, not multiplicative, since there is already a multiplication by elements of the ring
oh yea good point
oh right
thx
np
then 0 doesn't have unique factorization: 0 = 0*2
generally the prime/irreducible elements in a UFD don't correspond to the prime ideals
oh my bad
if you are thinking about the prime ideals of dim n irreducible commutative rings, you might as well think about dim n integral domains. then dim 0 integral domains are obviously fields, and p \subsetneq q is a chain of primes in a dim n >= 1 UFD where p is generated by an irreducible element, then q cannot also be principal for obvious reasons
so basically this comes down to Z being dimension 1
if the order of an element a of Zn is the lcm(a,n) then how is lcm(2,6) = 6 when 2+2+2= 6 shouldnt it be 3 not 6?
google lol.
show / paste the search prompt
that entire second sentence is a disaster
'By definition this is the lcm of a and n' is the error I believe
gotcha
the other part is also wrong
yeah
lol
I missed this
wait no
it's just google mangling the thing
losing the division
ah i see
"this" isn't k
even though it was the object of the sentence
I had anothe question how would i best solve the equation $x^2 + x = 0$ in mod 6 (additive)
jayzsparrow
factor
trying out things
i am stupid
like there are only 5 possible values you can plug in lol
illum is right
won't help here
stop rubbing in my face
Z/6Z isn't an integral domain
but i would factor it regardless
its faster to check for me factored
x^2+x = x(x+1), now its faster to check which x's do/don't work

It is easier to check factored but also there's only like one thing you can do here
he's very mean
why is half the activity of this chat telling people that they are being cringe with emotes
it's so weird
Probably because it's done somewhat jokingly by people that are used to seeing each other
But also illumi doing illumi things 
i think it bleeds
because
conveys everything we want to in a single emote without expending energy and effort into words.
mid emote tho
Review definition of order of an element
if M is a free module with k basis elements, and N is a free submodule of M, does N have at most k basis elements?
I would say so, yes
dim M = dim N + dim M/N
wait are free submodules injective?
Not necessarily
oh oop
this is not the case when the modules are not over an integral domain right
then ignore what I said
Are you tacitly assuming all bases of M have the same size
Z is Z-free but not injective
#groups-rings-fields is probably the least dedicated to its named purpose of the advanced channels, just observing from what little I've seen of the others. It's basically #discussion or #chill with some basic algebra mixed in.
the submodule being assumed free saves this doesn't it
can't you like
not sure
use that R^m doesn't inject into R^n
I think if you assume the ring has IBN then what they said it's true
I have to work on a project for my abstarct algebera class basically just discussing a topic in algerba or a theorem, I really want to wow my Professor so I can geta perfect mark any suggestions?
This isn't true if your ring is not nice enough
the bar resolution
Non commutative rings don't exist shin
What topics are you familiar with?
stop being silly
Timo go touch grass
you guys are the only people here unironically who are not discussing AA rn
I'll go tell my linear algebra class matrices aren't real
wait, the bases of a free module can have different sizes?
Basic group and ring theory
For some rings, yes
I realise this, it was just a comment on the general atmosphere in this channel.
but im willing to learn alot of i have to
what about for commutative unital rings
how "advanced" is your class?
so all rings
Commutative rings have invariant basis number
If both are finitely generated, then yes
If not then no
ah
what do you mean "you guys"
So all bases have the same size
How expansive should your project be? If it's a presentation in a class, you could do Witt's proof of the little Wedderburn theorem. This is a very good blend of basic algebra, involving the class equation for finite groups, divisibility, and cyclotomic polynomials. For a source see Herstein's "Topics in Algebra", "Proofs from the BOOK", and this video by Borcherds https://youtu.be/O_XtW3iaogc.
This lecture is part of an online graduate course on Galois theory.
We prove Wedderburn's theorem that all finite division algebras are fields. The proof uses cyclotomic polynomials.
"k basis elements"
you could look into localization/tensor products, if you really want to go far
it's a second course in Abstarct Algebra but it doesn't go very far in my opinion
just basic group and ring theory
sure yeah im taking k to be a finite number
What did you do in the first course
Ok interesting
This basically reduces to showing that there is no injection from A^m to A^n if m > n
applications would also be a +
right
Good suggestion
wonder who else thought of that

Doss IBN hold for comm ring with infinite bases
If you want applications, you could do something about finite fields and algebraic codes. For more ideas see Lidl's "Applied Abstract Algebra".
Oh yeah it does
If you replace number with cardinal the. It should
what is IBN?
Again, this depends heavily on how expansive the project should be.
I guess assuming an appropriate form of choice
Just the nice proof I know that comm rings have IBN uses exterior powers
I fail to see why this necessarily holds.
And that wouldn't work for infinite cardinals
The proof is very annoying
Sure of course, the professor hasnt talked much of it, but its going to be a presentation so I think somehwere around 30 mins should be good
I think you can do it with Cayley Hamilton tho
a 30 minutes presentation*
The proof I know is just quotient by a maximal ideal and then use the fact it holds for vector spaces
But yeah the proof using exterior algebra is hot
Which works for cardinals too
Will do
Oh I remember seeing this in commie alg
You're right
Yeah that's the proof I'd use for infinite ones
is it on archive?
it's one of those
So it's just a presentation then, nothing more? Then Wedderburn's theorem is of perfect length, I'd say. It's a beautiful proof that draws on multiple ideas from a first course in algebra.
libgen.rs is your friend.
perfect ill have a look at it, thanks
The nice proof I know using exterior powers;
Kth exterior power of A^k surjects to to A, whilst the k+1th is zero
So you can find the basis number using exterior algebra
See the sources above.
is there no easier proof of the original statement though
Very nice
already am!
And it works for vector spaces
So it provides a nice proof that dimension of vector spaces is well defined
At least for finite dim ones lol
I think, once you know rank is well defined, if N has a basis of m>k elements then they have to be R-linearly dependent, but proving rank is well-defined even over commutative rings requires a bit of work
Do we have any Lie algebra bigwigs in the channel?
Like in particular by this I mean showing any set of k generators is a basis
For a free module of rank k
Which requires the Cayley Hamilton thing
I think so, yea
Modules are a silly thing
modules are just rings with extra steps
Yrah
No
Jk hm
A ring is just a monoid
There's no sense in which this is a true statement
you're just not based enough
Just don't care about modules and focus on rings š¤
You could maybe say this about (R,R) bimodules
Is $|\operatorname{Aut}(\mathbb{Z}/n\mathbb{Z})|=\phi(n)$ true?
person2709505
yes, $\on{Aut} C_n = C_n^\times$
Nice
Is it true that $\mathbb{Q}(\sqrt{2}, \sqrt[3]{2}) = \mathbb{Q}(\sqrt{2} + \sqrt[3]{2})$? I followed the construction as in the proof of the primitive element theorem, and chose $1 \in \mathbb{Q}$ to be the given $a$ as stated in the proof. (The zeros of irr$(\sqrt[3]{2}, \mathbb{Q})$ taken as $\beta_j$ and the zeros of irr$(\sqrt{2}, \mathbb{Q})$ taken as $\gamma_i$. If not, what did I do wrong?
okeyokay (analysis is cool)
(I'm trying to verify it now and it's not looking so good lol)
Before I embark on a pointless exercise, how much machinery does it take to prove this?
It's a pretty chill proof
birb drink is bloo
Yeah
Thanks, brb (hopefully)
Okey, I believe the proof for the primitive element theorem just states there exists some distinct a, b in Q, such that Q(asqrt(2) + 2^(1/3)) = Q(bsqrt(2) + 2^(1/3))
Not explicitly what they are
This is kind of stupid, but why in K[G] is the set of elements on which G acts trivially a submodule?
If gx=x for all g, then why should gyx=yx for all g and y in K[G]?
Huh?
oh ok nvm I misread
And in that case Q(asqrt(2), 2^1/3) = Q(sqrt(2), 2^1/3)
you're asking about the kernel of a rep not the trivial rep
Forget reps, just treat K[G] as a ring
easier to think about it with reps
In it identify the subset of elements such that gx=x, why is that a left ideal?
Reps and modules over K[G] are absolutely equivalent concepts, so it should be equally easy to formulate a proof in either setting
yes thank you I'm well aware
and I don't believe it is a left ideal - is your group acting on the right?
I'm not saying you aren't, I'm simply looking for a ring-theoretic explanation
Actually I don't even know, I simply assumed K[G] is a left module over itself
And my first thought was this set would obv be a right ideal
Let me check
which I agree with
yxg = yx
(x+x')g = xg+x'g = x+x'
we can also potentially view this as a stabiliser subgroup
oh i thought it was there exists a d in F such that c + a + db and F(c) = F(a, b) or is that equivalent to what you just stated
i don't think it is right
It's a left module
Oh shit, sorry Q(asqrt(2) + 2^1/3) = Q(bsqrt(2) + 2^1/3)
Does it suffice to check that it's preserved by left-multiplication by basis elements g
it would, by linearity
yeah that's the left regular representation, which corresponds to taking K[G] as a module over itself
which is obviously a left-right module
And these are elements invariant under left-multiplication by elements of G
As a left module over itself, yeah. So how is {gx=x} then a left ideal?
right yeah, it's just this lol
Ah, wait a minute, it's that easy lol
Ocean man
the map r |-> gr-r is an algebra homomorphism is it not?
so just take the kernel
I think your confusion is in the fact that the action of g on K[G] is K-linear
So you can pull elements of K out
It then suffices to check then gx is in M whenever x is in M, but gx=x so this is obvious
Yep, I was scratching my head over literally nothing
I have absolutely no idea what just happened but I'm glad you get it now
How is that an algebra hom tho, it's not multiplicative
My thanks to you and the others
It happens to all of us
f(zr) = (1-g)zr = zf(r)?
am I on the vvizard vveed or something 2nite
ah wait yeah it's just a module hom
Huh? Aren't you talking about the map $\varphi(x)=gx-x$? Then $\varphi(xy)=gxy-xy$ and $\varphi(x)\varphi(y)=(gx-x)(gy-y)$/
which is all we actually needed, kernel is a module
leave_no_norm
and this kernel is exactly the fixed points
got there in the end chat
Looks correct
The d can come from (the edited version) of what I said, specifically d = a. Since bsqrt(2) + 2^(1/3) is in Q(asqrt(2) + 2^(1/3)) = K, we have that (b-a)sqrt(2) in K (b neq a), hence sqrt(2) and 2^(1/3) in K. The proof your text gives is a lot more constructive than the one I have seen.
For an element x of a commutative ring X, and a subring Y, we say that x is integral over Y if x is the root of some monic polynomial with coefficients in Y. Moreover, we say that the integral closure of Y is the set of all elements in X that are integral over Y (this of course contains Y and is itself a subring). With this in mind, the definition of integrally closed domain above doesnāt make sense to me
Ohhh shit wait
is it just saying like no fraction (i.e. not in A) isnāt integral over A?
Yeah ok nvm I just canāt read
Is this argument correct for well definition of $\sum_{i = 0}^\infty(Vy)^i$. Since the n'th ghost component of $(Vy), (Vy)^{(n)} = 0^{p^n} + py_0^{p^{n-1}} + ... + p^ny_{n-1} = 0$ as char k = p, and addition and multiplication is done componentise with respect to ghost components, the ghost components of $\sum_{i = 0}^n(Vy)^i$ is 0 for all integers n, hence $\sum_{i = 0}^\infty(Vy)^i$ is just the element in $W(k)$ defined by having ghost components all be 0.
parrottea
Wait, that sounds wrong, cause then $\sum_{i=0}^\infty (Vy)^i = 0$
parrottea
Hey guys, would like some confirmation on this. Suppose $k$ is a finite field with characteristic $ \neq 2$. Then every quadratic extension of $k$ is equal to the quadratic extension $K := k(\sqrt a)$ where $a$ is a primitive root of $k$. This is simply because the squares of $k$ are precisely even powers of $a$ and the nonsquares odd powers; then every quadratic extension is obtained by taking a square root of an odd power of $a$, which is contained in $K$, so by degree reasons they are all equal.
janohel
Seems right to me
question: given that the dihedral group is generated by a rotation r and reflection s, is the subset of reflections in a dihedral group the set of all elements that include s as a factor (for lack of a better term)?
Yes, every element of the dihedral group is off the form r^n or sr^n
The subset of reflections is the only nontrivial coset of the subgroup of rotations.
it's what I thought, but just making sure.
give an explicit example of a group G and an infinite subset H of G that is closed under the group operation, but is not a subgroup of G
N, Z+, both subsets of the group (Z,+)
sometimes it feels like they throw a gimme question in the middle of harder questions just to give you a break.
Nice
In fact this is basically the only example lol
In that if G is infinite, H an subset closed under operation and x is in H, then x^-1 is in H unless x has infinite order
well, any group isomorphic to Z would technically have such subsets, but yeah, up to isomorphism this is the one (or the only family of them)
Corresponding to x having infinite order so that <x> iso to Z whilst {1, x, x^2,...} is iso to N
I mean that every example contains what you just gave
For a suitable element
I could technically have it be any set {x in Z | x > n; m|x} for some arbitrary n and m in N
Good point yeah
Though I like the N example
Because then it is a submonoid but not a subgroup [I.e. it contains 0 and is closed under addition]
Which is more interesting imo
I like the N example because I spent a month going through axiomatic set theory before this stuff and I love the VN construction of the numbers
and to annoy the mathematicians who say N starts with 1
if I interpret that last statement correctly as n+=n U {n} then yeah
Ye
gives a beautiful definition of natural numbers: a natural number is a set that belongs to every inductive set.
beautiful 
nvm, I found an article that's helping me through these problems







