#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 127 of 1
A more illuminating description is that Ext is the set of short exact sequences up to isomorphism.
I.e. Ext(C, A) = {0 -> A -> B -> C -> 0}
(and you can give this a group structure by taking pullbacks and pushouts with direct sums)
haha
yeah
similarly Tor measures how a module fails to be flat
You can also realize Ext^n as longer exact sequences, but then the equivalence relation is more complicated than just up to isomorphism
You don't like yoneda-ext?
"illuminating"
Well I certainly think it says more than "the derived functor of Hom"
It's a very concrete way to see what the elements are and how it acts as a functor
And it generalizes to settings where you don't have enough protectives/injectives
It also gives an immediate interpretation of the connecting homomorphism in LES
he is talking about his name
But then it seems harder to motivate its purpose. Is there a way to understand why that definition would be useful?
I'm an idiot
King 
Why short exact sequences are useful?
No, why that functor would be useful
It describes short exact sequences
Lol
Maybe in a concrete setting?
Since this was the original definition of Ext I assume they needed this functor for something
Don't say to describe short exact sequences 
Is that not the answer though...?
Why would you care about the set of extensions of A by B?
So you can understand how modules break into smaller modules
So you can understand complexes from their homology
Maybe I'll need an example lol
I don't actually know the historical motivation, but these seem like natural questions to me:
Given a module B with submodule A and B/A = C, what can B be? When is B unique?
I agree with that and see how that is a question you would want to answer if you're working with homology or spectral sequences
Though I guess for things like UCT and algebraic topology stuff it's more useful as a derived functor...
But never over the course of doing any of that have I ever felt the need to combine all extensions into a set and work with that set
So why did the people who came up with it feel the need to look at the set of extensions?
Well, it's very useful to have a concept of Ext if you want to compute whether Ext is 0.
Things like LES it's an invaluable tool, I dare say I use it every day
Ye sure but working with them usually involves working with one extension at a time (the one you have in the LES) and not the set of all of them
This makes some sense yeah
I'm talking about the LES in Ext groups
The LES you get from applying Hom to an SES?
For that, I feel like the other definition is more relevant? At least I don't see how this is any more illuminating than being a more concrete description
Well the connecting homomorphism of s= A->B->C is literally given by s through yonedas lemma
The way I'm interpreting this is that the set of all extensions isn't too useful, it is the group of all extensions that becomes useful because then you have extra techniques to figure out whether the group is zero or not
I don't see how some general snake lemma stuff is more illuminating than that
Ah fair
The reason I say this is that I don't see how it makes it easier to prove the uniqueness of something by saying the set of all possible things that do that something is a singleton
Whereas the group structure is actually extra info rather than just a translation of the problem
Sure, but the group structure is there either way. You just take direct sum then push and pull the endpoints back.
I think that's still pretty natural, but here I guess I would understand if you didn't agree
Ye I agree with the group structure being natural. I was trying to come up with an explanation for why I would want to define the set of all extensions and I couldn't think of a scenario where it would help, but you have convinced me that at least defining the group of all extensions can be useful
what's latex for this?
#latex-help and check on the detexify website
detexify returned nothing :/ it is used for the cartesian product applied to self n times
will check out latex help, thanks
More standard notation for that would be \prod
cool i didn't know of \prod, that works too. thanks
I sometimes go with
$$\bigtimes^n M$$
jagr2808
tbh I always think of Tor and Ext as "filling in the rest of the Hom/tensor exact sequence"
Guess I'm in the minority
Also on another note is there some way to see why R^n lim is 0 for n=/= 0,1?
What do you mean by other lol what do you have in mind
Hmm, so products are exact, so the limit is just a kernel. But I guess that just pushed the question to why the higher derived functors of kernel vanishes.
In the category of morphisms kernel is just the homfunctor from Z->0. Which has projective resolution (0->Z) -> (Z->Z)
Don't know if that is a very satisfying explanation...
That is indeed other
It is very satisfying actually
(for me)
The projective resolution map is supposed to go the other way right?
No
ye that makes sense to me, but could we also look at it as we can't permute the other two roots besides cbroot(2) since that wouldn't induce an automorphism fixing Q(isqrt(3))
Well Q(a, b) is by definition generated by a and b, so any homomorphism is determined by where a and b is mapped. The key idea is that the other cube roots of 2 can be written in terms of cb(2) and isq(3)
You might notice that G(Q(cb(2), isq(3)) / Q) = S3 is exactly described by permuting the roots of x^3 - 2
right i think i made that observation earlier
But fixing isqrt(3) fixes how the roots are related, so you can't permute one without the other so to speak
it would be automatically isomorphic to Z3 because any group of prime order is cyclic right
yea that makes sense
S3 is not of order 3
Oh
S3
My bad didn't read context
all g
TIL
Is this functors from I to an arbitrary abelian category or whats the statement here?
any abelian category satisfying AB4*
Hmmm, but if the category satisfies AB4^* shouldnt the argument I gave above show that R^nlim vanishes for n>=2...?
o
are the notions of a galois extension and a finite normal extension equivalent? fraleigh defines a finite normal extension as an extension E of F such that E is a separable splitting field over F, and a galois extension (according to google) is an algebraic extension E over F that is separable (finite implies algebraic)
galois extensions are seperable (which finite normal extensions need not be)
huh my book defined them as separable
They define normal extensions as seperable?
they only defined finite normal extensions and not normal extensions if that matters
thats weird, I would have thought finite normal just meant finite and normal
yeah ig not
here's how they phrase the fundamental theorem of galois theory if that's relevant
well not in theorem format
but just a summary
I would have replaced "finite normal extension" with "galois extension", but if thats what they wanna call it...
yeah he does things a little differently...
galois extension sounds cooler too
finite normal extension is boring
what do you call $M^{\odot n} \coloneqq U(n^+) (v_M \tensor \cdots \tensor v_M) \subseteq M^{\tensor n}$
what @south patrol ?
Oh i'm just not sure what the notation means dw lol
Context might help
The context helped
why are they making this so complicated lol
tl;dr of this is if nP cap Z = n * (P cap Z) then P is normal
Lattices seem neat
Walter seems neat

Hm is there any pleasant description of the ith exterior power of the jth exterior power of a module
Like if our module M is a vector space of dim n then this new this has dimension ((n choose j) choose i) which is a bit gnarly
I'm positively spooked solid
Perhaps it is just too gross lol
I guess we get an interesting gnarly bigraded object lol
you might be able to simplify something out of it using third iso maybe
not sure
Yeah it's just cause the tensor power cause is more nicely behaved for obvious reasons
So I was curious about this
((M^\otimes j/J)^\otimes i)/I lol this is a mess
If we have a Galois extension $k \subseteq F$ and if E is an intermediate field, I just wanted to check the following argument for $E \subseteq F$ being Galois (seems too simple). Since $k \subseteq F$ is Galois, F is the splitting field of a separable polynomial $f(x) \in k[x] \subseteq E[x]$. So we can also view F as the splitting field of $f(x)$ viewed as a poly in $E[t]$. Doesn't this immediately imply $E \subseteq F$ is Galois?
eternalway
Thanks!
F/k Galois does not necessarily imply that F is the splitting field of a single seperable polynomial. F could the the splitting field of an infinite family of seperable polynomials, think Q^a / Q.
We're only dealing with finite Galois extensions in my book. I should've specified that, my bad
Then you should be good
The argument in the infinite case isn't much harder, you just observe that an embedding of F into E^a, is also an embedding of F into k^a, hence the image of F under that embedding is F, giving normality, and if a in F is seperable over k, then Irr(k, a, X) has no multiple roots, but Irr(E, a, X) divides Irr(k, a, X), hence Irr(E, a, X) has no multiple roots hence a is seperable over E.
What's a good resource to read about galois theory for infinite degree extensions?
I'm reading Lang, but for now it hasn't gone too far into infinite stuff
I see, I'll check it out at some point
I'm a bit stuck on the following problem. Let $k \subseteq F$ be a Galois closure of $k \subseteq E$. For $\alpha \in E$, prove that $E = k(\alpha)$ iff $\alpha$ is moved by all $\sigma \in \text{Aut}_k(F) \setminus \text{Aut}_E(F)$
eternalway
What part do you need help with?
Also by Galois closure of E/k do you mean F is the smallest normal extension of k that contains E?
Since $k \subset k(\alpha)$ is normal, there's a result I can use that for any algebraic extension $K$ of $k(\alpha)$ and every $\sigma \in \text{Aut}_k(K)$, $\sigma(k(\alpha)) = k(\alpha)$. So I think this gives me the first direction
eternalway
For a finite separable extension $k \subseteq E$, my book says the Galois closure is the smallest Galois extension $k \subseteq F$ of $k \subseteq E$
eternalway
Right. So for the forward direction, since $k \subseteq F$ is a Galois extension, $E = k(\alpha)$ corresponds to the subgroup $\text{Aut}_E(F)$
eternalway
For the backwards direction
This basically gives the forward direction though, right?
yep
As for the backwards direction, if $\alpha$ is moved by all $\sigma \in \text{Aut}_k(F) \setminus \text{Aut}_E(F)$, isn't it fixed by all $\sigma \in \text{Aut}_E(F)$? But as for using this to show E is simple, I was a bit confused
eternalway
A bit more nuance there, you would have that it is fixed by only sigma in Aut_E(F)
Hence by the Galois correspondence, k(a) = E
A definition that E/k is simple is that there are only finitely many intermediate fields F/k such that F subset E
But that is simply true by the Galois correspondence
I see. So if we assume that a \in E is moved around by all automorphisms in Aut_k(F) / Aut_E(F), is the idea that these automorphisms will basically create finitely many extensions of k in E?
And yeah, I remember the book proving this result now
I haven't used the previous result to show that E/k is simple
Wait, could you break down how you got this conclusion then if you're not using this other result about simple extensions?
EDIT: I think my book's wording is confusing. Are we proving E is simple in the first place or merely showing a generates it since we know E is simple from the fact that k --> E is a finite separable extension
Does anyone know how one might go about selecting a basis for the subspaces corresponding to the irreducible representations? I already have a basis for each of the components of the canonical decomposition that I got using the standard projection operators.
So there is a bijection between the subgroups of G(F/k) and the field extensions of k contained in F. Specifically a subgroup H is sent to the biggest field that all elements of H fix, i.e if s is in H, then s restricted to that field is the identity. We observe that the automorphisms in G(F/k) that act trivially on a are also the automorphisms that fix k(a), hence by our assumption the same subgroup of G(F/k) that fixes E also fixes k(a). Hence by the Galois correspondence, E = k(a)
We might be trying to prove it by finding an a in E such that a is only fixed by the automorphisms in G(F/k) that fix E
But that proof seems inefficient
Don't we merely know that there exists a sigma in Aut_E(F) that fixes a? We don't necessarily know that all automorphisms in Aut_E(F) fix a
Aut_E(F) means the set of automorphisms of F such that when restricted to E they are the identity
I'm so sorry, its late here and my brain is fried
That was super obvious
Thanks so much for your help
That's alright
So for a quotient ring R/I, I has to be an ideal so that the left ideal is equal to the right ideal, yeah?
Similar to a normal subgroup?
Left ideals are equal to right ideals anyway, this is what it means to be a subgroup of an Abelian group
While this is part of what's necessary, it's also important for it to be closed under the action of the ring
this is what allows multiplication to be well-defined
So the left ideal being equal to the right ideal is only half of the story.
yes I did indeed mention that it should be closed under the action of the ring.
Im just trying to understand how for Z/nZ for say n=9, the quotient ring leaves us with {1,2...,8}
i understand that an integer modulo 9 isn one of the elements in that set
I just dont understand how the quotient gives us that set
so you are thinking about the cosets, do you understand why the cosets 2+9Z and 11+9Z are equal for instance?
It doesn't give us that set, for two reasons!
Firstly It gives us the set {k + nZ | k in Z} rather than a set of integers. This is the definition of the quotient ring. We can choose particular values of k that represent every element of this set, giving us {0 + nZ, 1 + nZ, ..., (n-1) + nZ}. We could equally have chosen any of the infinitely many choices for values of k that produce all the elements of the set, but this is a nice choice.
We often just write 0, 1, etc instead of 0 + nZ, 1 + nZ for brevity. Note that you actually left out the set 0 + nZ = n + nZ in your list.
Is it because we are partitioning the ring into ideals?
so like we are factoring a polynomial
in that sense?
We are not partitioning the ring into ideals. You are partitioning the ring into cosets of the ideal.
This part works exactly the same as in quotient groups.
Perhaps Mero knows what you mean by your comment about factoring polynomials, but I certainly have no idea.
i mean in the same way integers can be factored into primes
there is a related analogy with polynomials, but it is really not relevant in this context
Can I take this to mean that you do not see why 2 + 9Z = 11 + 9Z?
It "rotates" the elements of Z9 so that we get the same set?
In a way
the polynomial thing sounds like you have a more complicated idea of what it "should be" in your mind luci, and that's crowding out understanding the concept as it really is, which is a different thing altogether
If J is an ideal, then a + J = b + J if and only if a - b is in J. You should try proving this.
so we are using the ideal to split up the ring into cosets, and these cosets form a new ring?
Yes.
is it because a-b congruent (mod J)?
congruent to what
J isnt a number lol
The definition of a being congruent to b mod J is a + J = b + J
We still talk about things being equal mod an ideal; this is fine.
oh, cool to know
what about the chinese remainder theorem
i remember that one
My point is, luci, you should prove from the definitions of a + J and b + J that a + J = b + J iff a - b is in J.
This is a fact that only requires group theory, actually.
I think I understand how the ring is being split up into cosets now. So going back to Z/9Z, the {1,2...,8} is just repeating for the numbers 1-9, then 10-19 and so on. And those are the cosets the ring is being split up into?
But we are just writing it once, since its just rotating?
My bad, forgot about the multiples of 9 lol.
So then we took the integers modulo 9, which is an ideal of Z, and then using that we split up Z into cosets which gave us the new ring Z/9Z?
The integers mod 9 is the ring Z/9Z
You're thinking of the multiples of 9, i.e., 9Z.
Apart from that slip of terminology, yes.
what's the correct formal structure of a free Z module generated on an abelian additive group Z^n? it's not just strictly a free module because addition between elements of Z^n is already defined but the free Z module on the set L of n letters for instance doesn't have this
$$A \mapsto R\otimes A$$
jagr2808
oh it's a tensor product, got it. thanks a lot!
Wait, I think I misunderstood what you're asking. What are you asking? How addition is defined for free abelian groups?
In case that's what you're asking: the free abelian group on a set X is usually defined as the set of formal linear combinations of elements of x. And addition is defined as one would expect.
You can also define this as the set of functions X -> Z with finite support
Then addition is just pointwise addition
I'm a bit confused what the question is too lol
i'm confused too let me think in my corner thanks a lot for the response sorry for the muddled question
wdym by "Generated on an abelian additive group"
Like you usually have the free Z-module on a set
i didn't know how to ask the question but the solution is that "free Z-module on n letters" is a functor composition Set -> Ab -> Free Z-mod with the last one being an isomorphism
So you just had to recall that Z-modules are exactly the Abelian groups, is that it?
There isn't really a natural functor Ab -> Free Z-Mod
I think this is just the inclusion Free Ab -> Free Z-mod
the "free Z-module / abelian group on a set X" construction is just a functor Set -> Ab (or Z-Mod)
right i'm hopelessly confused, i'm trying to figure out how it is possible that the quotient of free abelian groups of same rank generated on subsets of Z can be nontrivial
Like how Z/2Z is nontrivial?
Even though 2Z is isomorphic to Z, so both free
right, i'm trying to figure out what exactly is the difference that makes them be able to produce a nontrivial quotient
Difference between what?
It's the way one is embedded in the other
if the highest "equality" we can find between them is isomorphism, and yet they are isomorphic, where are we getting the nontrivial quotient?
The embedding of a submodule in a module determines the quotient
It is not enough to know what the modules are up to isomorphism; you must understand how they interact.
They are isomorphic, but not equal
Of course this holds for groups, ideals, whatever you want to say.
I'm saying here that this is a general phenomenon and by no means is specific to free modules.
am processing what you all have said, thanks a lot for the comments
let $G$ be the infinite abelian group generated by the set $S={ (0,0), (2,3), (-2,-3)}$ with addition as in $\mathbb Z^2$, and consider the functors $F={f_i}_{i \in I}$ with domain powerset $P(\mathbb Z^2)$that have $G$ in their image. in some sense, there is a subset $F' \subset F$ of these functors that take an argument in $P(S)$ and sends them directly to $G$ in the most natural way, i.e., they generate $G$ by completing the generating set ${(0,0), (2,3), (-2,-3)}$ by adding the identity or the inverse if it is missing. how would you give a formal description of the functors in $F'$?
nrs
Are you sure you mean for these to be functors?
It's not clear what these functors (functions?) are, even, but you say the functors yet you don't define them.
I personally have no clue what you mean.
i want to get at "add additive identity and inverse if either one is missing"
Yeah i don't udneratdn any of this either
Can you maybe put this in simpler terms.
for instance (2,3) gets mapped to the abelian group who's elements are (0,0) , (2,3), (2,3)+(2,3), (2,3)^+3, ..., (-2,-3), (-2,-3)^+2, etc.
Functor was completely the wrong name
This is just a function P(Z^2) -> {subgroups of Z^2}
Taking generators to the subgroup they generate
So what does the notation {f_i} mean
I'm gonna ignore that part because it makes no sense lmao
OK, so what's your question then, what about it
There sure is a function sending subsets of a group to the subgroup it generates.
So what's the question
well, isn't there more than one way to generate an abelian group from a set?
Yes.
The function I describe is not injective.
@coral shale The first ideal is zero iff the skew field is a field. The second ideal always contains a nonzero element, hence is the whole skew field.

Remember: the only ideals of a skew field are 0 and the whole skew field. This doesn't depend on sidedness. Try proving this.
Having not done non-comm alg, but anyways, I should've known this
edit: i understood, thanks
Well if you have more questions, just ask.
Try to ask the actual question at hand instead of a fancy version of it. It's twice today that you've asked an unclear question, only to follow it up with a much simpler one!
thanks a lot very appreciated
s5
Also im not sure if all of these products can be derived from an automorphism of AxB
$$\varphi:\text{Aut}\left(A\times B\right)$$
$$A\Bowtie_{\varphi} B$$
s5
It probably more defines a specific type of Zappa–Szép product
$$\varphi:A\to\text{Aut}B$$
$$A\ltimes_{\varphi} B$$
Having fun there mate?
?
I'd like help understanding the Zappa–Szép product
Looked to me like you were just writing TeX
Why don't you ask your question explicitly and someone might be able to answer. It gets lost if you keep getting the bot to render your code.
s5
@coral spindle what is the Zappa–Szép product
I don't know anything about the Zappa–Szép product.
I advise you not to ping specific people. Ask a question generally, and people who know will respond.
You brought it up so I thought I ping you.
And other people can see it as well.
you brought it up
this is the only time boytjie has ever mentioned this product
You brought up me asking a question.
instead of having this meaningless conversation, why don't you just do as boytjie asked and ask whatever question you were going to ask originally, in one message
If you have two subgroups H and K of group such that HK=G and they don't intersect. That's a Zappa-Szep product.
In particular this means that for k in K and h in H there are h' and k' such that kh = h'k'
So you can define it externaly by a function KxH -> HxK satisfying the necessary relations
I did
I mean exterior.
What relations.
Would it be equivalent to AxB homomorphism to Aut(AxB)
Or is it Aut AxAut B
wich would be less general.
No, the group structure of AxB doesn't really relate to their Z product. So you shouldn't expect it to apear
Wikipedia lists the relevant reiterations
Ok
$$\left(\text{Aut},A\times\text{Aut},B\right)\hookrightarrow\text{Aut}\left(A\times B\right)$$
s5
they got a point ngl
Me and my type theory mind sees this as a statement that the left is a subgroup of the right.
because spaces/sets are propositions.
would i be correct in saying that the general form of this problem is solved by quotients of free groups?
$$A\hookrightarrow B$$
$$A\twoheadrightarrow B$$
s5
subgroup and quotient group
A is a subgroup of B
B is a quotient group of A
could also say A is a multiple of B
You trolling?
No why
I don't see how that's relevant really, neither do I really see what the 'problem' is. Every group is a quotient of a free group, and the fact that there is not a unique generating set for a group is not a problem at all.
take a set S and add additive identity and inverse if either one is missing is the same as taking the relevant quotient on the free group on S, no?
No not at all
I cannot see why you'd think this is the same thing
The group generated by S will be, but this has nothing to do with including the identity and inverses
You don't need to include these things in a generating set; you get them for free when you see what they generate.
but isn't "generate the group" formally given by taking the quotient on the free group on S?
boytjie
Note that this comes with information about how the subgroup embeds in G!
boytjie
But this doesn't have the information about how <S> embeds in G without this.
This is a different thing for that reason!
i see, thanks a lot
So generating the group can be seen as taking the image of this map
and this, being a subgroup of G, will come with information about how it embeds
i see i see
Crossed products 
what is the difference between a free vector space and a vector space?
All vector spaces are free, so as it happens there is none.
A free module is a module that has a basis. There are rings, believe it or not, for which not all modules are free (shock horror I know) so it does require some work to show that there is this correspondence.
But indeed, every vector space has a basis.
yeah I know that
like you said every vector space is free
so I was confused if there is a difference
OK
Indeed, all vector spaces are free, so saying "this is a free vector space" doesn't convey any more information than "this is a vector space".
But "this is the free vector space on such-and-such set" is meaningful.
(And omitting "free" in the last phrasing would yield word salad; it's the word that describes the relation between the vector space and the indicated set).
oh, what does the latter sentence mean?
The free vector space on a set A is the set of formal linear combinations of elements of A.
Or (equivalently up to isomorphism) the set of functions f: A -> R such that f(a)=0 for all but finitely many a.
Or (equivalently up to isomorphism) any vector space with a chosen basis and a chosen bijection between that basis and A.
You could see it as saying that the dimension is the cardinality of the chosen set.
ah I see
my ta said something like "a vs V is reflexive if V** = V (dual of dual is itself)" but I can only find func anal definitions of reflexive online
did he perhaps mean something else?
No I reckon he probably meant that
That isn't standard terminology though, not for vector spaces in the abstract
He will likely soon prove that a space is reflexive iff it is finite-dimensional
right
That's only the standard definition when V* refers to the vector space of continuous functionals on V
V needs to be an inner product space in order to take this kind of dual twice
Or at least normed ig
With this definition you can have infinite dimensional reflexive spaces (eg Hilbert spaces should be reflexive because of Riesz)
That's why you can only see funky anal definitions. If you remove the continuity requirement, this isn't very useful as a definition because of what bowtie said
bowtie 
Yeah so as I thought, context was being missed.
It wasn't the dual but the continuous dual that mattered.
I have never properly read your name and I shall maintain this trend
Hey I wasn't complaining!

You don't need more than a topological vector space, no?
Seems, you do. The topology on the dual space usually used in this context (the strong topology) requires more data than just the topology of V it seems.
Right, you'd have to have a topology on k too
Or right, you're saying we need to give a topology to the dual itself. I see.
i finally fully understood, i think, what you were saying: taking the quotient of a free group "generates" a group only up to isomorphism
Yes.
ok i understand now, thanks a lot for your time
I believe that Clifford's theorem excludes a normal counterexample.
Briefly: when we restrict a kG-module to a kH-module, pick some simple kH submodule. Then by normality, the distinct translates of this simple submodule will be simple kH-modules, and the sum of all of these will be the whole of the module. A sum of simple modules refines to a direct one always.
Oh ofc to be clear, we're restricting a kG-module which is a direct sum of simple modules, so we can restrict our attention just to simple kG-modules.
we consider subgroups of $\mathbb Z^2$. consider $G_1$ generated on $(2,0), (0,3)$ and $G_2$ generated on $(2,0), (0,1)$. we consider their Z-module structure to represent the group homomorphism $G_1 \to G_2$ by a matrix. clearly $G_1 \to G_2$ is represented by a matrix with integer entries, but shouldn't there be a matrix with integer entries representing $G_2 \to G_1$? the matrix for $G_1 \to G_2$ is $\begin{bmatrix} 1 & 0 \ 0 & 3 \end{bmatrix}$ but its inverse has rational entries
nrs
So you say the group homomorphism as if there is only one
but there could be many. It seems you've chosen one, which is fine.
oh! the matrix has an inverse if it is an isomorphism
Anyway, in general there will not be an inverse for a matrix of integers, even if the determinant is nonzero, as you have discovered. For that reason typically there will not be a matrix with integer entries which is inverse.
Yes.
i see! thanks a lot
if you want a matrix inverse with integer entries, a necessary and sufficient condition is for your determinant to be +-1
Matrix in abs alg chat?
(this is in general true over a PID, unit determinant corresponds to invertible matrices over your ring)
Ooh linear algebra is a subfield of abstract algebra so spooooky 👻
woah strong theorem, will work on that, thanks
can occasionally come in handy
true over any ring right? at least commutative
Adjugate matrix :)
A adj(A) = det(A) I, so if det(A) is a unit A is invertible; converse is trivial
Seems you can generalize it even to noncommutative rings, but it gets hairy: https://ncatlab.org/nlab/show/quasideterminant
hurb yeah not sure why i was thinking of PID's 
maybe you were thinking of smith normal form
i guess i always assume you need to be over a PID for matrix stuff to work nicely idk, got confused
let $\phi$ be a map from free $\mathbb Z$-module on cartesian product $\prod_{i \in \mathbb N}\mathbb Z/i\mathbb Z$ to $\mathbb Z$-module direct external sum $\bigoplus_{i \in \mathbb N} \mathbb Z/i \mathbb Z$ defined by $z_0(z_1, z_2, \dots) \mapsto (z_0z_1 \mod 1, z_0z_2\mod 2, \dots)$, that's an isomorphism right?
nrs
Not sure what your notation z0(z1,z2,...) means there like
Wait "free Z-module on the product" must be a typo
it's the free Z-module on the words generated by the cartesian product on Z/iZ with i in naturals N
Why use that notation then? The free module on the set just ignores all the group structure
Unless you're using a non-standard meaning of free Z-module on a group or smth
cartesian product has no structure no?
Okay you mean the product of sets then sure
so its just a set of words like any other but i might be confused
Well it's not a well-defined map because like
e.g. (1,1,1,...) isn't an element of that direct sum
If you mean (1,0,0,0,...) then that is in the cartesian product
1 is not in the set of the group quotient Z/Z, no? or am i doing a full derp
I assumed n started at 0 lol
But also like 1 = 0 in Z/Z
so this is tangential
Replace it by (0,1,1,1,...) if you wish
ok but do i have an isomorphism then? max confusion
No, because your map isn't even well defined
Also, more seriously, $\bigoplus_{i \in N} \mathbb Z/i\mathbb Z$ is countably infinite, whilst $\prod_{i \in N} \mathbb Z/i\mathbb Z$ is uncountably infinite, even before you take the free $\mathbb Z$-module on it
potato
posting screenshots because I'm too lazy to tex 
nu : C[x]\0 -> Z
let this be a valuation
define these
then isn't C[x]_m/C[x]_>m just (C \ 0)x^m
isn't 0, 0, 1, 0, 1, 2, 0, 1, 2, 3, 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, ... a sequence bijective on \prod Z/iZ? but thanks for the well-definedness comment, i think a slight tweak can fix it
and thus the associated algebra is C[x] \ 0 again?
a bijection N -> prod Z/iZ
Such a bijection again can't exist by cardinality reasons
why not? the index i is in N/{0}, so what element does the above sequence not cover?
OH
i understood
i think
big mistake of mine
I'm confused what you mean by 0,0,1,0,1,2,... being a bijection
right, it doesn't make sense
thanks a lot for the help
yeah you are super right, thanks again
bump
$$\langle a,,b,|,a^2=e,,b^3=e,,ab=b^-a\rangle$$
s5
do you have a question about it...?
No
it's abstract algebra so i hereby formally allow it
$$\langle a,,b,|,a^3=e,,b^7=e,,ab=b^2a\rangle$$
s5
indubitably
I think it's neat
Because order 15 doesn't work even tho it's 3x5
You need 3x7
Due to C7 having a automorphism group of C6, C3 as a subgroup
S3 being C2xC3 semidirect product for a similar reason.
Automorphism group of C3 being C2
factoring a finite group can be shown with a graph, where each point is a finite simple group, where arrows show where each group maps to what automorphism of the other.
no arrows just say that the relation between them is a direct product in a sense.
is there a useful structure theorem for modules over dedekind domains?
In abstract algebra, a Dedekind domain or Dedekind ring, named after Richard Dedekind, is an integral domain in which every nonzero proper ideal factors into a product of prime ideals. It can be shown that such a factorization is then necessarily unique up to the order of the factors. There are at least three other characterizations of Dedekin...
thanks a lot!
np
Excercise 11-13 from chapter 3 of Lang deals with projective modules over Dedekind rings if you are interested
You can show that a projective finite module over a Dedekind ring is isomorphic to the direct sum of ideals of that ring
very cool stuff, thanks a lot!
Yes, so the associated graded algebra is C[x] again. (It's no longer an algebra if you remove 0).
I am still unsure of what A_N is defined as here?
Is it the subgroup of A generated by elements of period N?
Yeah, that seems to be what it is, if you look at the example
ah, so it's not common notation
I don't think its necessarily uncommon, but the notation A_N is used for quite a few different things
Alright
ah right I forgot that in the direct sum we can choose all elements to be zero
thanks
I know that the Brauer group of a finite field is trivial, but I also just read that the same is true for any algebraic extension of a finite field. Is there a simple way of deriving this from Wedderburn's theorem or does one need something more?
why eisenstein
it just needs to be the root of a polynomial
you can trivially find a polynomial which has that number as a root
then look at its factorization
The algebraic numbers are closed under addition and taking roots.
Hmm, this might lead nowhere, but: Q[11^(1/7)] obviously has degree 7 over Q, so if you can show that Q[your number] has degree 11 over Q[11^(1/7)], then no integer polynomial of lower degree than 77 can have it as root.
what is a bimodule
Only seen them in the context of TP over noncomm rings so far
they're analogous to bisets for group actions, which are very useful
fuckem
so I imagine they're quite important
fuckj
or maybe they're just useful for me
dunno how many people work with biset functors
an integral unimodular even quadratic form has index divisible by 8, what's a short proof of this?
wtf
Any R module M is naturally an End(M)-R bimodule. This comes up a lot for me as a tool to understand End(M).
For example tilting modules, which characterizes derived equivalences, are bimodules in this way.
Bimodules also apear in Moritas theorem, about how every Morita equivalence is given by Hom/tensor product with a specific type of bimodule.
Hochschild cohomology is the derived functor of the functor sending a bimodule to the subspace where rm = mr. So bimodules appear there too.
A Z/5[x] module is exactly a vector space over Z/5 with an endomorphism describing the action of x. So you can describe it by a square matrix over Z/5. Two such are isomorphic if the matrices are similar (do you see why?).
So the question is can you find two 2x2 matrices that are not similar
I am trying to understand the proof of that the product of disjoint cycles being equal to a permutation is unique up to the number of disjoint cycles. I don't understand why the claim in blue is true. In particular, why $c_i(x) = c_j(x)$ implies $c_i^m(x) = c_j^m(x)$
FrankF
One has the property that X³·v = 0 for every v in the module, the other doesn't.
Wait, as Z-modules? That just means their additive groups are isomorphic, which they must be because they are vector spaces of the same dimension over F_5.
You can use linear algebra as I first suggested, or note that both are generated by 1, so you can use that to construct all homomorphisms between them
do you know what we call the quotient in english?
in german it's sheet/leaf
Idk
Lexicographical probably
oh lmao I'm stupid
it says
"let blabla be the minimum valuation wrt a total ordering on Z^n"
then the first exercise is "show that its a valuation if we choose the hom lg ordering"

just wanna saay
Hom(Sum Ai , B) ~= Product Hom(A_i,B)
is one of the coolest yet easiest shit ever
Someone is gonna love category theory
yea idk but this is just weird and magic af
how simple the proof is and like yea obviously this follows from the universal properties
but at the same time the first time i saw this i was just okay this is going to be rough
over modules
I heard it described once as:
So abstract that there is only one real thing to try
the isomorphism is that you look at the tuple of g_is , those are maps that are being sent to B
for each i
so you the universal property gives you a map from the direct sum to B
which is an element of the left hand side
so thats ur isomorphism
you send each element in that product to the map it induces from the universal property
which uni prop
of the direct sum
what's it
just google the diagram
the direct sum is like the product
it's the coproduct so yeah they're dual
too lazy I have a slow phone
it comes equiped with inclusions such that any fake maps trying to be inclusions u cna get there the same way
"thats how i remember it "
what
forget it its just my intuition
im sure u have ur fucked up intution for other things as well
right 😄
Thingy goes in vs thingy goes out is better
I don't have intuition for this stuff I bash definitions together in my head
functors?
and what properties they have that would be cool
The functor?
but i dont see any motivation
or like what problems does this solve
yea ig functors
Homological algebra is pretty useful
^
yea but honestly i see no fun in the problems
they are just boring details for me
the theorems and the definitinos are the cool part
weirdly
also if you have any object that's like, not 1 dimensional (like a 1-category), any morphism between these objects will be analgous to a functor
Uh, then idk. You wanna learn category theory for its own sake?
idk
Or do you wanna use functors and limits, all that stuff
the only math that interests me now is number theory honestly
chain complexes come to mind, not quite a functor but you have a similar commutative square thing going on
but im studying hungerford for an exam
Algebra book, right?
yes
and it had this out of the blue sction on Hom
and its cool
proving left exactness and this property
That's like a free demo of homological algebra
also it was funny for me proving that given f: A--> B induces a surjective map Hom_R(P,A) --> Hom_R(P,B) is qequivalent to P being projective
Do you like going through diagrams too? Element wise?
i thought this was going to be hard but then its literally the definitoin
when its easy
like i did the five lemma it was cool
first experience of me doing diagram chasing
but then it got harder and just weirder
i hate it when im doing problems and im just mindlessly unfolding definitions but i have no plan
and at the same time i get there
That's all math tbh
it feels like trash
First five messages*
yea
i think analysis was the math where i can have an actual plan
and it can actually work
Maybe geometry?
Algebraic topology ans algebraic geometry are drowning in quick and easy but stylish category theory stuff
yea i looked up itno AG and for me it was just so much theory
and that was good but then i asked what problems couldnt be solved without this new theory and now it could be
and it was just " some number theory problem " ( weil )
XD
i was like wheres the geometry in this
yeah the geometry is in the wacky Zariski topology and the funny schemes
did you get to varities
yea thats the intro
and it was actually ssuper cool
but then it got to like nakayama';s lemma and commie algebra basically
andd i was just like yeah i saw this movie b4
and i ignored it
yeah skip that nonsense
Communist algebra
is it normal for you guys
that some problems u just mindlessly unfold the definitions
and it suddenly solves itself out
but u had no plan ? u were just "investigation"
those are the best problems
Me trying to understand the proj construction:
Making projective schemes out of a graded ring
wtf
?
ong
@void cosmos how is the learning going
Bro, you gotta work on your communication skills. Why you so confusing 😭
wym
Your construction
what
oh lmaoooo
unaware
aware
I don't like projective schemes either
im in a league game now but its going great but slow
Apparently I will see them a lot moving on. But I don't think gluing affine schemes will get me far
i will never know what a scheme is..
its so advanced
its literally 80s math
so its must be op
it's like a manifold
Honestly word problems in combinatorial group theory have been worse
Or well, at least better at making me feel like I suck
Like, toric varieties? I think one of our introductory courses introduced them before schemes even, why are they that bad?
the geometry side is annoying
so many defns
Classic alg geo moment
Oh no so many definitions!
Anyway a solvable group is one whose derived series reaches the trivial group after a finite number of steps, where the derived series is def—
so true king
i'm confused, how is this a isomorphism? don't we need to show $\phi(ab) = \phi(a) \circ \phi(b)$
Here, they showed $\phi(ba) = \phi(a) \circ \phi(b)$
Helium
it makes sense if x maps to x^-1... i guess, it's a mistake
You're correct, the map should send x to x^-1
Group theory should be called Automorphism theory.
What makes you say that
Small joke that's slightly serious
(I also don't get it)
Hi Walter
(The mathematical community wasn't ready for such humor)
Thanks. It's not too bad since everything's relatively concrete, but it introduces most of the machinery to do semisimple Lie algebras in general
A group is just a groupoid w one object is the meme i assume idk
Just remember to try ur best and have fun :)
Cause all finite groups can be represented as the automorphisms of a field extension of Q that fix Q
Why are Lie algebras cool and why do ppl study them
Chiefly in order to study Lie groups, which are groups that have a topology making them differentiable manifolds.
The associated Lie algebra is the tangent space at the identity, with a Lie bracket that encodes enough information about the group operation to reconstruct almost the entire thing. Since a Liee algebra is in particular a vector space, it allows using linear algebra to express information about the original group.
(TL;DR) an element of a Lie algebra represents the derivative of a curve that takes values in a group.
oh that sounds like it has something to do with representation theory
in particular the part about using lin alg to understand the original group
"If f is a homomorphism from a ring A to a ring B, not necessarily onto, the range of f is a subring of B."
What does "onto" mean when used like this? That the function is not necessarily surjective?
Yes.
thanks
Am I allowed to use inverses to prove this? It seems like it might be circular, since inverses are defined in terms of the identity
person2709505
what is your definition of subgroup, incidentally
A subset that is closed under the parent operation containing the parent identity and every element's inverse
The problem I have is that if you remove the identity requirement then the inverse criterion needs some interpretation
I had that problem before
I think of it like this: your elements of H all live in G, so they will obey the laws of G
they just have some additional neighborhood rules on top of that
so every element does indeed have an inverse, or else G would not be a group
person2709505
think about what it means for H to be closed under multiplication
now think about how you'd prove uniqueness of the identity in your typical group setting
(just throwing ideas out there, I haven't completely thought this through)
I guess since we want H to be closed, and we don't know a priori 1_G is in H, $aa^{-1_H}=1_H$
Could someone help me with the surjectivity of the map in part c
I thought about it more and I think I may better understand the point of confusion now
do you think the inverse operation of H is the same as that as in G
or would you allow it to be different
well is there an inverse operation here 
It would be nice if it were the same but it would make more sense if it were different lol
How do y’all find interesting topics of research in algebra? Do u just read random papers, or talk to professors, etc
Talk to grad students, or go to office hours and ask your professors
Former if latter seems too hard
You certainly don't need inverses to prove this.
In fact the identity has a unique identifying property that doesn't include any other element.
Not sure what you mean but I think you do need inverses because this is not true for monoids. ℤ/6ℤ is a monoid under multiplication and has a subsemigroup {0,2,4} in which 4 is an identity.
You'd need a cancellative monoid at least
The exercise says that they usually defined a subgroup to have the same identity, show that it's enough to assume they have an identity at all.
So you don't need to assume anything about how inverses behave in the subgroup. It's even true when H is a submonoid of a group
Oh ok I thought you meant that G doesn't need to be a group
Yeah, G should be a group. But the only assumptions you need on H is that it is a group and the operation coincides. That identity and inverses coincides will follow
Ye ye
Is category of finitely genreated R algebras abelian?
no
They are not even additive
for example: the initial and final objects are not the same (0 ring vs R)
What are the c_0 and c_{00} = R^\inf_00 = { r is inside R^\inf; r_i = 0 except for finite number of i}, called? Not the functions which are n times derivatable.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Sequence_space just calls them "the space of null sequences" and "the space of eventually zero sequences", which is not particularly fancy names, but ought to work as descriptions in prose.
Why is zero not initial in Rings. Why would we want both identities to be preserved?
Because that's the definition of a ring homomorphism lol
If you look at non-unital rings, wherein the rings don't necessarily have units and the homomorphisms therefore are not forced to preserve them, the zero ring is then initial.
Having a unit is a very nice property for a ring to have and so we tend to look at those.
... and if we're looking at rings with identity, then the identity is a key part of the structure of the ring and hence something we'd like to preserve
yee identity is a 0-ary operation, and you're asking it to be preserved :3
What is 0-ary
like for a group, you have a 0-ary operation e : * --> G
a unary operation, i : G --> G
and a binary operation m : G x G --> G
a map of groups G --> H would then be asked to preserve all these 3 operations, but we only write it for m, because other two follow from it >.<
I've gotten to the point where every $\phi \in$ Hom $(H_\Gamma(N), \mathbb{\mu}N)$ is of the form $ \phi(\sigma) = \sigma(y)/y$ where $y = \sum{\tau \in H_\Gamma(N)} w_\tau \tau(a)$ for some $a \in \Gamma^{1/N}$, where $w_\tau = \phi(\tau)$, but I can't quite figure out how to show $y \in \Gamma^{1/N}$?
parrottea
can you show that $\Gamma \to \mathrm{Hom}(H_\Gamma(N), \mu_N)$ is surjective with kernel $\Gamma^N$?
ironyincarnate
That's what I'm trying to do
I've got the kernel part
I just need the surjective part
ah cool
And $H_\Gamma(N)$ = Gal$(K(\mu_N, \Gamma^{1/N}) / K(\mu_N))$
parrottea
I think (wasn't properly defined)
show that an arbitrary element of H_Gamma(N) doesn't fix the y defined in your message above is what I'd try
That's not necessarily true, as what if that element is in the kernel of phi?
how does that impact anything?
the way you defined it it has to be an element of K(mu_n, Gamma^1/N)
Well sigma(y) = phi(sigma)y by construction
OK but what does sigma(y) = 0 imply?
remembering that sigma fixes K
ah okay that makes more sense lol
hmmm okay then
lol you can prove this with cohomology
How?
there's some weird SES that you take cohomology on and one term goes to zero
bit of a dumb thought, but since the map Gamma -> Hom(H_Gamma(N), mu_N) is a group hom can you just show that the identity on Gamma is in the kernel of Phi, so that you can assume wlog that y isn't in the kernel?
or wait I think I might be thinking of the map wrong
H_Gamma(N) is a Galois group afaic
god this problem is fucked
Since I assume everything is finite could a counting argument work for surjectivity?
what book is the problem from btw
Can someone recommend a source that covers the reidemeister-schreier algorithm? The one where you construct covering graph schreiergraph corresponding to some subgroup and then find a maximal subtree in the graph to then determine a presentation of the subgroup.
Wait, this is wrong, it's meant to be $\phi(\sigma) = \sigma(y^{-1})/y^{-1}$
parrottea
both lol
I get it though, it's not clear enough for some
it's the image of a polynomial under an evaluation map
How is it taking value in R then?
judging by the line below, it's taking each entry in an element of gl(n, R) as a variable
so f would be an element of R[x_1^1, x_1^2, x_2^1, x_2^2] when n = 2
So a polynomial in n^ 2 variable assembled in a way that it takes values from gl_n?
Ok cool tks
Guess in general you might call a function V -> R polynomial if it is a finite sum of products of linear functions V -> R.
So if you choose a basis for V* this just the polynomial ring with indeterminants given by the basis.
doesn't sound right
How so?
sounds off cause you're implictly dodging the issue of irreducible polynomials
take a Q-vector space V, I wouldn't describe the function x^2-2 : V -> Q via the product (x-sqrt(2))(x+sqrt(2))
?? You describe it as the sum of x*x and -2
It is the product of two linear functions
I should probably replace sum with linear combination, since we only get the constant function 1 from the empty product
I imagine it means a map f : gl(n,R) -> R such that f(A) = p(a_11, a_12, ...., a_nn) where p is a polynomial in n^2 variables. The determinant is an example of such a map.
yeah, already been answered, tks
How does the existence of such a resolution follow from the hypothesis of R being Noetherian
syzygy spotted
R is noetherian if submodules of finitely generated modules are finitely generated. Therefore finitely generated is the same as finitely presented is the same as finitely resolved
I have a question about crossed products (the setup is kind of long):
The context is $A$ is a $K$-CSA, $L/K$ is a finite Galois extension with group $G$ and $L$ a splitting field of $A$, $V$ an $n$-dimensional $L$-VS, $h:A\otimes_KL\to\operatorname{End}L(V)\subset\operatorname{End}K(V)$ an isomorphism of $L$-algebras. Next, for every $\sigma\in G$ there is a $K$-automorphism $h^{-1}\sigma h$ of $\operatorname{End}L(V)$, where $\sigma:A\otimes_KL\to A\otimes_KL$ is $a\otimes\lambda\mapsto a\otimes\lambda^\sigma$ (composition is left to right and maps are written exponentially), so by Skolem-Noether there are units (defined up to $L^\times$) such that $x^{h^{-1}\sigma h}=u\sigma^{-1}xu\sigma$ for all $x\in\operatorname{End}L(V)$. Since $u\sigma u\tau$ and $u_{\sigma\tau}$ induce the same automorphism, there are $c_{\sigma,\tau}\in L^\times$ with $u_\sigma u_\tau=u_{\sigma\tau}c_{\sigma,\tau}$.
Now for the question: since the $u_\sigma$ are defined up to factors of $L^\times$, the coefficients $c_{\sigma,\tau}$ change if we change $u_\sigma$ according to the rule $c'{\sigma,\tau}=c{\sigma,\tau}(a^\tau_\sigma a_\tau a_{\sigma\tau}^{-1})$, where $u'\sigma=u\sigma a_\sigma$. The text claims that if we change the isomorphism $h$ or the $L$-VS $V$, the coefficients will change according to the same rule. Can anyone help me work this out?
leave_no_norm
for anyone still wondering about the Spamakin's weird symbol saga
I have figured it out
after obtaining a WIP english translation of a different text
it is indeed central product, confirmed
was
i've been staring at this for a while and i can't see how to get the forward implication
the lhs seems so much weaker than the rhs
what is a block and what does Delta^x mean
A block is a subset of a G-set whose translates are either the block itself or disjoint from the block.
Delta^x probably just means the action of x on Delta, but I was also wondering.
I'm confused as to why they add this "In the case that G is finite...". Isn't that exactly the same statement?
I think the second one is stronger because it implies that you can separate either of the two
Whereas the first one only allowed separating out one or the other
Oh I see what you're saying
yeah Delta^x is x acting on Delta
I really want to impose some minimality condition but I can't quite see how it would work
on the size of Delta?
I would like to have the intersection between \Delta and \Delta^x to be minimal, but nvm
I'm not sure this is true. Maybe you can help me check if I'm not way off with this counterexample
yeah i spent some time looking at this
I think the action of Z on R by addition and the set \Delta = [-0.1, 1.1] is a counterexample with the points \alpha = 0.4 and \beta = 0.5
That's not a transitive action
Oh of bloody course thank you
You can probably look at the action of alpha inverse beta, this takes beta to alpha
And maybe see where alpha goes? Idk
Yeah I think so but we also need that to be something that breaks \Delta being a block right
Here's my idea so far.
Since $\Delta$ is not a block, there are elements $p, q \in \Delta$ and $g \in G$ such that $g\cdot p \in \Delta$ and (now this is the annoyance) the element $g \cdot q$ is either in $\Delta \setminus \Delta^x$ or $\Delta^x \setminus \Delta$.
Bowtie
Let's just deal with the second case I guess
Now I'm trying to think of a way to use a translation from alpha to beta here
but I can't quite think of it
Maybe look at the set of all x such that both α and β are in Delta^x. Take the intersection of Delta^x indexed by these x. This contains α and β and I would hope that this is a block
Not sure what to do with this even if it is a block though 
annoying cause u have the other way
intersection of blocks is a block
but i dont think the intersection of two subsets being a block tells u much
Ye I'm not saying that
Perhaps it's simpler to do this contrapositively. If there were a pair for which this didn't hold, I think we can show that Delta is a disjoint union of blocks
Well ok, that doesn't help does it
(is there an online sagemath forum that's somewhat active?)
I don't see how (iii) is possible either
(i) and (ii) make sense but like
a single clean presentation for arbitrary central products seems unlikely
unless the answer for (iii) is just "here is a unified presentation for nonabelian groups of order p^3, now just take central products"
yeah i and ii are basically identical, you have the two isomorphism classes
So. Is there a nice interaction between the central product and presentations?
let us google
Have been googling 💀
ok well we already know the generators, as it's a quotient of a product
might not be a minimal set of generators but I don't recall that being my problem
but what is the quotient exactly
ok it's this thing
so the extra relators are of the form \theta(h)k = 1
So, G = <X|R>, H = <Y|S>, G central H = <X, Y | R, S, [blah, blah], \theta(g)h = 1 for all blah blah blah>
ok so nothing cleaner
I was wondering I was missing that something cleaner existed other than just the general thing of products of presentations
this is just me bashing stuff together there's probably a better way to do it that gives you a nicer presentation
but this'll work
it will work indeed
Anyone know how to do central products in SageMath? Or GAP but I'd prefer SageMath
I can't find any official functions but maybe some library or something exists that I cannot find immediately
Or is there a better forum to ask on
Possibly #computing-software ? Although maybe not
Anyone?
i'm struggling to see how Coim g is isomorphic to C; i know that it follows from the first iso theorem and that g is an R-module epimorphism, but i can't see how ker g = {0}
maybe i'm blind or smt
coker and meth
Why would ker g equal 0?
yas
ikr
im keeping this forever
@ashen heron don't sully my ass go do epsilon delta proofs
let epsilon < 
these algebra people sound nice
ok time to do geometry 
where would you even talk about geometry, like hilbert axioms
or is that not a thing anymore and everyone just does alg/diff/idk geometry
to show that this diagram is commutative do i just have to show that each of the colored arrow pairs are equivalent lol
doing toric geometry rn
what's the meaning of the Z and U
you look at fans and the toric varieties they induce n stuff
unitary group and cyclic group
Yeah, it's a funny metatheorem but you can show that if the smallest cycles in a diagram commute then the whole diagram commutes
For some definition of 'smallest cycles'
That's what I'm sayin'
But yeah maybe you should take some time to convince yourself that you can just show that the smaller cycles commute
oh damn ok
ah thank you, I missed the definition they gave 🤦♂️
say L = [x,y] is a lattice of C, (the additive subgroup of complex numbers ax+by with a,b, running over the integers, also a,b form an R-basis for C). if L' has index p in L, why must L' contain pL = [px,py]? i am stuck on this fact reading a proof. might be relevant is the fact that pL has index p^2 which i can show
Hhfvj
So if G is a group H a normal subgroup of index n and g is in G then g^n is in H. Applying this to your example we see that both px and py are in L'.
why must pL be a subgroup of L'?
sorry i was misinterpreting things, i think i see now lol
The Klein bottle is the semidirect product of 2 circles.
It's fundamental group is the semidirect product of Z and Z
I don't believe that's true?
the fundemental group is <a, b | aba^-1 = b^-1> right?
in which case it is a semidirect product of Z with Z
but my question is why post random non-sequiturs
Yes
thank you for the peer review fellow scholar "potato"
potentially a stupid question
I think it's some general construction where you can build the Eilenberg-Maclane space of a semidirect product out of the the EM spaces of the two other groups. Maybe a question for #point-set-topology
let v_1, v_2 be valuations, is v(a) := min(v_1(a), v_2(a)) a valuation again? I already proved the same thing for quasi-valuations
I'm not sure how to show equality for v(xy) = v(x) + v(y) nor can I come up with a counterexample
If v1 is the 2-adic valuation, then sand v2 is the 3-adic, then v(2) = v(3) = 0, but v(6)=1.
isn't the fundamental group Z x Z_2?
hm
maybe they're isomorphic
can't be isomorphic, Z x Z_2 is abelian
OK maybe I have it weird in my head lol
fuck it's H_1 I was thinking of
confirmed idiot
not so fast, the image of the associated map with the semidirect product Z \ltimes Z is C_2
so it's not completely unrelated
Ye
Also H1 is the abelianization of the fundamental group so should be pretty similar
yeah you just take the uhhhhh bar resolution of the ermmmmm the uhhh
Yeah abelianisation gives Z x Z/2 easily
clearly then applying the forgetful functor gives us back Z \ltimes Z because strains brain adjoint something dies
One cool thing I looked at today was A-linearisation of a space
But now this chat is topology
Gross
actually have you heard of this potato
Yes
it's staying topology
Need to learn about it tho lol
you can make a bunch of simplitical sets from a group operation and it agrees with the bar resolution in some way I'm forgetting
I just know it comes up in some constructions yes
jagr can probably inform me in 5-15 minutes
Ig this is one way to produce K(G,n)s and stuff
lol simplicial K(G, 1) for discrete groups
I first learnt about it when reading about partial groups
so groups is a special case of that 
Lol okay sure
why not
I dunno much about it but it's cool
the wikipedia page literaly says it is
