#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 126 of 1
that is so good
i mean it's so you can naturally define a surjection to the quotient
G/N 
M \ G / N
setminus gang
I was avoiding G\N because that quotients it the other way lol
thats why I used setminus
just use -
weird
sorry for detracting from the discussion, carry on.
I mean usually it's clear in context
But also with set minus there's often a space between the variables and the setminus
But with quotient there often isn't I think
So for example R/Z would be all a+Z where 0<=a<1?
yeah (I'm guessing the z is a typo and you meant a)
Ohhhhhhhh
I mean there are more common examples like Z/nZ which is just integers mod n really
lmao you should've seen the number of times i posted crankery here
(accidentally ofc)
@hidden haven btw very quick here's a challenge for you (I wanna hear your take on this problem lol)
I'm trying to show that Hom_Z(Z[1/p], Q/Z) is isomorphic to the p-adics
Somebody said that it can be done by constructing the isomorphism explicitly but I'm trying to see if there's a cleaner way
so youre the abstract algebra version of the RH crank or the Collatz crank?
jk
lol by crankery I meant I posted something incorrect
Derpz (complexvariable)
Not sure, seems like constructing an isomorphism would be the cleanest thing possible
Maybe you can show that Hom(-, this) = Hom(-, p-adics)
by p-adics do you mean Q_p or Z_p lol
Both have universal properties with respect to mapping in
I was thinking maybe like
Writing Z[1/p] as lim-> 1/p^n Z then taking out the direct limit
i mean must be the latter ig
Z_p
Might work
Concretely I'm doing this problem from Weibel
Try this too maybe
I should totally do this
Might work
Will try
R/Z is also visualized as a circle. (R number line, R/Z 'number circle')
yes?
i am bamboozled
is it using euler's identity?
e^ix?
yeah but what is the isomorphism
actually no wait you can see it like this using first iso you're right
from R/Z to presumably S^1?
good idea
the kernel of the map x |-> e^{2pi*i*x} is Z, and so by first iso R/Z \cong S^1
but that's not fantastic for intuition
i drew it and deleted earlier cus its ugly
note im writing .1, .2, .3, .4, .5 (for 0.1, ...) there
1=0 
oh i understand
literally what we're quotienting by
nerd
but why e^{2piix}
trivially true
so the kernel is Z and not 2piZ
not like it matters cause they're iso but
trying to keep things intuitive
there's an i in there.
isnt there
oh \* to escape discord formatting
$e^{2\pi ix}$
bee [it/its]
the reason is just because that's how circles are in the complex plane
or more specifically - the unit circle in C
So this particular quotient is a bit like taking the number line and winding it around this circle again and again and again, and gluing points together that coincide. Is my visual for it
Ohhh I see
yeah it makes sense because you wind it again and again for each integer right?
Oh I get it
oh my golly gosh it's the wholesome pi_1(S^1) chungus
shh
now that I did spheric and hyperbolic geometry I finally know what
is
the glome
trying to think of the funniest way to describe the 3-sphere now
open ball in the 2-norm on R^4?
SO(4, R)
just checking, the groups under which I'm checking subgroup-ness are the sets of numbers from which each restriction is drawn, right? (part a is checking for a subgroup of C, part c is checking for a subgroup of Q, etc)?
yeah
aight, (non) challenge accepted.
although I suppose it would only be an issue for showing it's a subset
could just show they're all groups lol
ah no, inherits the operation as well
ignore me
actually
why is it left coset and not right coset
for quotient groups
if the subgroup is normal it doesnt matter sure
but what if it isnt?
well if the subgroup isn't normal you don't get a quotient group
(you can have the set of cosets but there isn't a nice way to give them a group operation)
the fact that they're the same for a normal subgroup is why it's a group
what is 'it' 🤔
weird if your defn writes that
but theyre the same, as others have said due to normality
well nA isnt necessarily An if the groups operation is not commutative
yeah sure if A ain't normal
if A isn't normal G/A and G\A (right cosets) aren't groups in the canoncial way
in your case here even if the operation of G is not commutative
if A is normal then they're equal
for example consider D_4 and
<R_90> which is the subgroup of rotations in D_4
i usually recommend checking defn of quotient sets before introducing quotient groups btw
idk why its usually not done
as far as ive seen
how do they teach the construction of the rationals
the field of fractions
of Z
i just realised its the same as quotient spaces in ligear algebra
🤦♂️
today is not my day
that must be why it’s called algebra 

linear algebra is just commutative algebra with extra steps
?
tbh idk what a quotient space is, I don’t think it was covered in my edition of axler
quick group module question
group module 
Let G be a group
if M is the direct sum of completely reducible G modules
and H normal in G
then M is the direct sum of completely reducible H modules right?
restricting the G action to H doesn't change reducibility?
yeah I think so - irreducible H modules will be "smaller" than irreducible G modules
so it should all still work
I’m not sure. An irr G-mod may split up when restricted to H
I’m not sure if one of those H-mod constituents may be nonsimple
Well completely reducible
Not irreducible
Unless you’re talking only about the case when Mashke holds
Doesn’t matter, still happens
If any of the simple constituents split up into something indecomposable then we have issues
Hm
I can’t think of an example, but I know zilch about modular reps
I have a vague idea but I’ll have to wait until I’m in front of a keyboard
ah yeah, good point about modular reps
the only irreducible representation of a finite p-group over a field of char p is the trivial
so if H is a normal p-group (like Q_8 in SL_2(3) or something) then it could break
So at least if H is not normal, then (over a field of characteristic 2) the standard representation of S3 is irreducible, but applying restriction of scalar to C2 < S3 does not give a completely reducible representation
If A is a simple central artinian algebra, is there an elementary way of seeing M_n(A) is artinian (e.g. without appeal to Hopkins-Levitzky or Morita equivalence or whatever else)?
Actually it's enough to show M_n(A) has a minimal left ideal (since M_n(A) is simple)
So i need to come up with one...
I was thinking matrices with 0 columns except the first, with entries in a minimal left ideal of A
or the same with rows
Maybe I’m being dumb but can’t you use that A^n is artinian and multiply a descending chain of ideals on the left by orthogonal idempotents of this to get stabilizing chains in A^n?
And then combine those to show your original thing stabilizes?
Probably doesn’t work
Lol it's actually even easier than I thought
A simple artinian => A\cong M_k(D) with D a division algebra => M_n(A)\cong M_nk(D), a simple artinian ring
Noice
You don't really need all that fancy machinery of simple central algebras. M_n(A) is a finitely generated A module, so if A is artinian so is M_n(A). Same for noetherian.
True dat, didn't cross my mind.
What is the most accepted definition of a subfield of a K-algebra?
Subalgebra that is a field or subring that is a field?
i.e. should it contain K or not
-
I wish discord would fix keyboard support on mobile
-
I'm up to polynomials over a field in my book. It is strewn with
"exercises" for which no answers are provided
One of these is "show that F[x] is not a field" (for some unspecified field F)
Is that because, without a polynomial for modular reduction, many polynomials have no multiplicative inverse? (And if you don't allow negative exponents, which this author does not seem to do so, then only constant polynomials would have inverses)
Precisely so, no polynomial of positive degree in F[x] has an inverse (because multiplying adds degrees).
Is something going to get to why negative exponents aren't valid?
Would I need an F[x,x'] where xx' = 1 by definition?
Hopefully my syntax makes sense
Because polynomials are literally defined not to have negative exponents.
You would need to take F[x][x^-1], i.e. adjoin an inverse of x, then every polynomial has an inverse
Is there a term for an expression where you can have negative exponents? It seems odd to think that nobody has ever done anything useful with one of those
Yes, there is, these are called formal Laurent series (or sometimes formal Laurent series with finite principal part) and they are important, just not at the beginner level.
Sorry, I misspoke a little actually
I forgot you were talking about the polynomial ring, not formal power series
For the polynomial ring you have the field of rational functions F(x)
Literally defined as sets of fractions f/g
There every polynomial is invertible
Right but this is a field not a field of fractions
If you were to talk about formal power series, i.e. expressions of the form \sum_n a_nx^n (with infinitely many a_n non-zero), THEN the place where everything gets an inverse is the field of Laurent series that I talked about
In particular, it contains F[x] and F(x)
A field of fractions is an example of a field
And this IS a field of fractions, namely of F[x]
Ahh yeah I'm not interested in a polynomial with infinite terms
Field of fractions just means the smallest field containing your integral domain of choice. In the case of F[x], the FOF is F(x)
Yeah but even if you have a field of fractions FF
The ring created by adjoining x FF[x] would itself not be a field
Ofc
E.g. F(x)[y]
This is not a field
Not ready for that stuff yet
But it's FOF is F(x,y), i.e. the FOF of F[x,y]
I'm thinking about F[x] where defining x as a root of unity, e.g. xx=x^2=1. Is that even a valid concept?
Wait before you used F[x][y] for F plus two variables, is this F[x,y] different?
It is but not entirely the way you imagine it.
No, they're isomorphic
You can either construct F[x,y], i.e. formal expressions in two variables with coefficients in F
Mmmmmh this seems like an interesting avenue of exploration
or you can construct F[x][y], i.e. formal expressions in varibale y with coefficients in F[x]
it's the same thing
If you pick a root of unity z in C, then Q[z] is what you're looking for. Note Q[z] is a subring of C, not some new concept entirely.
Sorry, i gotta get back to studying
So if it's a square root I get polynomials with coefficients in Q with degree at most 1? Cuz x^2=1
Yes, Q[-1] is Q, but just to clarify, you don't get "literal" formal polynomials.
Although I might need 4
I^4=1
Q[...] means smallest subring of C containing Q and ...
If you take something like a 3rd root of unity w^3=1, then Q[w] will be of the form a+bw
Since my focus is on finite stuff anyway I'll deal with that later
Gl studying
It's isomorphic to a quotient of Q[x] by the ideal (x^2+x+1)
TIL every extension of Q is contained in C
Ahh i see
Next section says that the analog for absolute value is the degree
Absolute value of x^(-32) might make some heads pop
my favourite subring of C is Q[S_3]
He's reading Stillwell's Elements of Algebra, it just deals with finite extensions of Q.
I don't think it's necessary to confuse him with more complicated definitions, no?
But feel free to rectify my explanation, if you wish
I wonder if this is how someone with access to the multiverse would feel
Polynomial rings F[x] which have coefficients in F, when F is GF(p^k) k>1, where the traditional representation is a polynomial, also usually in x
Keeping which field I'm in is not easy
Gotta head back to work
When does one think of the elements as a quotient of Q[x]/(x^2+x+1) instead of Q[w]? Q[w] seems nicer
Stevie-O is constructing these rings via polynomial quotients iirc?
might be wrong
Its a general question, I didnt really follow the conversation, but im learning this stuff now too
ah I see, well it's easier to implement in software via a polynomial quotient 
also it's directly showing the use of the universal property of polynomial rings
When one doesn't know Q[w], I'd say. Same with finite fields and stuff like Z_2[x]/(x^2+x+1)
but once you have the isomorphism I'd just switch to Q[w]
You first learn about constructions "ex nihilo", i.e. out of nothing
E.g. you take a field K, an irreducible polynomial f and see that K[x]/(f) is a field
huh
Then some time later, once you know that such fields exist, you simply view the latter as a field L containing K such that L=K(a) for a root a of f
It's just a matter of juggling viewpoints
read
oh kek
this construction is honestly one of the coolest things in algebra for me so far. It's a simple concept and yet it leads to almost any field you can think of
(almost)
freedom is an illustion
If D is a division K-algebra, do these definitions agree?
The former are subfields that contain K, so my question is if every subfield necessarily contains K.
what's the question?
I was wondering about the definition of a subfield of an algebra, whether it's better to have it mean "subalgebra that is a field" or "subring that is a field"
And i was wondering if there are any situations when the definitions agree
e.g. in a division ring finite-dimensional over its centre
or when talking about maximal subfields (in the former or latter sense)
this might be a little silly, but i remember briefly reading something about galois groups being closely tied with the symmetric group on n letters. so $|\mathrm{Gal}(\mathbb{Q}(\sqrt[3]{2}, i\sqrt{3})/\mathbb{Q})| = 6$, which directly corresponds with the permutation of 3 roots, the order of $S_3$. is this what they were talking about, or something of those lines?
okeyokay (analysis is MID)
Yes, that's exactly what it is. If f is a separable polynomial, then the Galois group of its splitting field acts as permuttaions of its roots (not necessarily transitively)
without any context if I have to guess, I would guess the same
if your algebra is a field extension, it could mean the prime subfield
What about situations when the definitions agree?
I think it needs to be clarified what the author means in what context
It's not one author, i've seen the definition used by different authors to mean different things and i was wondering when they might agree
Does anyone know of a reference for the (possibly false!) statement that chi(1) divides |G| for characters over non-algebraically-closed fields of characteristic zero? I think it might be in Curtis–Reiner's tomes but christ I cannot find it.
N.b. I mean only irreducible characters, ofc I realise this shan't hold for reducible ones.
Well, they should agree iff the field is prime. If the field isn't prime then its prime field would distinguish the two definitions
Very nice counterexample
As expected a semidirect product works
I had something like this in mind. Glad I saw your answer and saved myself the effort lmao
I haven't been able to come up with a normal counterexample though. Probably mostly because I don't want to think about groups of order more than 6
when is a field prime?
Yeah I think such an example might force one to look outside of Z/p
Why is it that $$\mathrm{Gal}(\mathbb{Q}(\sqrt[3]{2}, i\sqrt{3})/\mathbb{Q}(i\sqrt{3})) \simeq \langle \mathbb{Z}_3, + \rangle$$? The two complex roots are not in $\mathbb{Q}(i\sqrt{3})$, so they don't have to be fixed; therefore shouldn't it be of order 6 and hence can't be isomorphic to $\mathbb{Z}_3$?
okeyokay (analysis is MID)
When it has no subfields, i.e. when it is equal to Q or Z/p
Ah
An automorphism is determined by where it maps cbroot(2)
There are 3 choices for where that could be
The thing to observe is that Q(cbroot(2), isqrt(3)) is the splitting field of x^3 - 2.
Or at least that it contains the roots
oh i thought it was the number of permutations of all of the roots of x^3 - 2
Not every permutation gives you an automorphism necessarily. Here the extension is generated by cbroot(2), so an automorphism is determined by where it is mapped
It's enough to define a map on generators
sorry to post this example again, but i'm not quite following how alpha_i being a zero of q(x) of multiplicity 1 implies that F(alpha_1, ... alpha_i) is separable over F(alpha_1, ..., alpha_i - 1). i know that it's separable over the latter if and only if q(x) has all zeros of multiplicity 1, but we only showed that alpha_i is of multiplicity one, and i'm struggling to see which part implies that the rest of the zeros of q(x) are of multiplicity 1
i know it's there somewhere but my poor slow brain
also how is this expression true? for any f(x), g(x) with coefficients from a field F, it is not true in general that (f(x)g(x))^n = f(x)^n times g(x)^n
Yes it is
This is just how multiplication works
In any commutative ring (ab)^n = a^n b^n
yeah nvm im so stupid i tried to produce a counterexample and i did the computation wrong
real
For an irreducible polynomial all roots have the same multiplicity. You can see this because you have an automorphism mapping and root to any other.
Frobenius theorem (division R-algebras) via Skolem-Noether and maximal subfields is neat.
That is all, carry on.
I noticed that while I was flipping through Curtis–Reiner! I might give it a read.
ah ok got it thanks
yo i'm not going insane here right it should be $E = F(\alpha)$
okeyokay (analysis is MID)
or am i trippin
lambda is C -> T and chi is T -> C so it would only make sense
can any isomorphism of two sets be extended to a module isomorphism on the free modules generated from these sets?
what is an isomorphism of sets lol
set-isomorphism, a function bijection
Yes, dare I say obviously
Any map induces a homomorphism which restricts to that map, and if we have a pair of bijections that are mutually inverse their induced homomorphisms must also be mutually inverse.
You don't even need the universal property for this – it follows from functoriality.
noted, thanks a lot!
I just wanted to check something that seemed deceptively simple (I'm sure I'm wrong). This problem I'm doing in Aluffi (problem 5.23 in chapter 7) is as follows: Suppose there are no irreducible polynomials of degree n in k[x], where n > 0 and k is a field. Prove there are no separable extensions of k of degree n.
If there was such an extension, it would be a finite separable extension and therefore simple. Wouldn't this immediately give a contradiction or am I missing something?
That's the solution I'd give too
Ok, thanks!
how does one get the abstract algebra role
@white oxide based name
(Analysis is HIGH btw)
thx ur the goat
indeed
What are some non-commutative infinite-dimensional division algebras over R and C?
what is a flat extension of rings? one being flat as a module over the other?
yee an injection R --> S such that S is a flat R-mod
yeah ok thx
another question
since you're here now det
what does it mean for a polynomial in C[x, y] to be y-generic?
not really sure
what about something like H[x]?
and that ⊗_R C
Uhh don't think that is a division algebra
oh oops
whut about H(x) then
does this make sense?

what if i just say R(x) ⊗_R H
H(x) ought to make sense right
and C(x) ⊗_R H
are these division algs

yea feels like it
idk how to see it lol
Yeag I looked it up and they gave same example as you lol
i see non-zero elementary tensors are invertible
what about sums 
i can think of it as an R(x) algebra with basis {1, i, j, k}
so shouldn't the same f0 + f1i+f2j+f3k behave nicely with f0 - f1i -f2j - f3k
yee this looks legit
Ye
at least it multipies to give me a elementary tensor f⊗1
and this is invertible
okie maybe it wont be as nice over C though
Nice
because stuff like i⊗1 - 1⊗i
just like how C⊗_R C doesn't stay a field anymore
Thanks @rustic crown, good example.
Centraliser theorem via Skolem-Noether is just HNNNNG

SO fucking clean
I feel dirty just copying it to my notes
One question though
If K/R is an arbitrary transcendental extension (e.g. R(x) like you said), how do we know a^2+b^2+c^2+d^2\neq0 in K?
I'm not that familiar with the topic, but I believe such fields are called real-closed or something like that (sums of non-zero squares non-zero)
Do we know that every extension of R is real-closed?
C
yea that's exactly the problem here
feels like it lmao
maybe clear denoms and argue a lil
yea i think arguing at the highest degree works
Yeah it's fine looks like
det no familiar either >.<
or maybe just think of it as real valued functions, that gives it too
at each value of x, you must have all are 0s
and polys are determined by their values
(as R is infinite)
Looks like this ought to be true in every ordered field, so the question is which extensions of R can be ordered.
yo theorem 8.6 is just lemma 37.5 extended by induction right
and i guess generalized
wait what’s H v K?
the subgroup generated by the union of H and K
spook
no way ur in #groups-rings-fields
this specific notation isn’t covered in my books
yeah hungy has some weird ass notation
oh
you were talking about fraleigh right
interesting i thought that was the universal notation for the join of two groups
I don’t think I’ve covered that as a concept at all
but I’m not an algebraist so whatever
I looks to be arbitrary so its not necessarily just extending by induction
what book is this from?
oh hungerford?
looks like it
yup
ye
it's actually surprisingly very good
lots of examples
sure it's terse but in a good way
not like a rudin type of way
(or so i've heard)
yee lol fraleigh was pretty good for a first semester algebra class imo
Let $R$ be an integral domain, let $R^n$ be a free $R$-module with basis ${v_i}i^n$, let $\phi:R^n \to R^n: v_j \mapsto \sum_i^n m{ij}v_i$ be an $R$-module homomorphism, let $F$ be $R$-module isomorphic to $R^n$, and let ${\sum^n_i m_{ij}x_i}j^n$ be a basis for $F$. How would you argue $\phi$ is an isomorphism (in order to establish ${\sum_i^n m{ij}v_i}^n_j$ is a basis)?
nrs
ah, we need basis under module isomorphism is basis
what does he mean that a "for the trivial group, a G-invariant subspace is nothing more than a subspace"? aren't all G-invariant subspaces subspaces lol for any group G
If A is a finite-dimensional K-algebra, then it has maximal subfields (subalgebras that are fields), since the set of subfields is non-empty (contains K), thus has a maximal element by the noetherian condition, right?
Yessirree
If A is a G module, $N \in \mathbb{Z}^+$ what does $A_N$ mean?
parrottea
Is the following argument correct?
Let K be a p-adic field (i.e. finite extension of Q_p) with valuation ring A and uniformiser π. Let f in A[X] be monic.
Suppose f is irreducible and the constant coefficient a_0 of f has valuation equal to that of π (i.e., it is divisible by π but not π^2). Then f is an Eisenstein polynomial (i.e., all the intermediate coefficients are also divisible by π).
Proof: let e = deg(f) and α be a root of f in an extension of K, then it is clear from the norm formula for valuation in an extension that v(α) = v(a_0)/e = v(π)/e; but K(α) is of degree e over K. Thus K(α)/K is totally ramified and α is a uniformiser for K(α), so its minimal polynomial f is an Eisenstein polynomial.
It seems too good to be true that just because the constant coefficient is divisible by π exactly once that all the other coefficients are also divisible by π. Is there a more direct argument? It would be nice to see how irreducibility plays a role in it, for example.
an Injective homomorphism only maps to a group from one of its subgroups.
a surjective homomorphism only maps from a group to one of its quotients.
A surjective injective homomorphism is an isomorphism.
what's the question
Hi
irreducibility played a role when you found the valuation based off the degree, if it weren't irreducible, it couldn't have a norm of that form
maybe a different perspective to look at is to look at the newton polygon, although I don't know if that helps other than to give a visual perspective on what it looks like
Well yes, and now that I think about it, in assuming that the norm is the constant coefficient (upto sign).
But what I meant is that it would be interesting how irreducibility would be used in a “direct” proof.
when you say "direct" can you give a fake example to help me understand what you mean by that
like what would that look like
I don't know; something that doesn't feel like it used black boxes, I guess.
Say, an argument algebraically manipulating coefficients and evaluating the polynomial at some values, using the norm and the ultrametric inequality, or something concrete like that.
hmm, I think I might be able to come up with a version like that, I'll think about it
also maybe thinking about your assumption earlier: "assuming that the norm is the constant coefficient (upto sign)." might help too, since that sorta contains the black-boxiness I feel
idk if this is more convincing to see, but the fact that in the extension field we have $v(\alpha)=v(\sigma(\alpha))$ for each galois conjugate means it factors as, $$f(x)=\prod_\sigma(x-\sigma(\alpha))$$ which once you expand it you can see all the intermediate coefficients are divisible by $\alpha$, but since they actually lie in $A$, they must be divisible by $\pi$
merosity
the main trick is seeing that if you have v(x)>0 after we expand the linear terms out in the extension field, and if our original irreducible polynomial were in, say Q_p, this means the smallest v(x) can be is 1. So it kind of forces it upwards magically.
Krasner's lemma is also a good one that's a bit peculiar like this I feel
idk, ping me if you come up with something better or if you think about this and feel like that helps later would be fun to think about more
It's the "nothing more" part that is important. When G is trivial every subspace is invariant. So the only irreducible representations are those without subspaces.
Do you have book recommendations for the basics of exterior algebra? I need to reference some basic properties to include this proof in my work:
A is a basis for free module F_1, B is basis for free submodule F_2 of same rank as F_1. How is the determinant of the change of basis A to B matrix related to the quotient module F_1/F_2?
what's the relationship of F_1 and F_2? How's the quotient is defined then?
Are you saying you have a homomorphism F_2 -> F_1 and you write it as a matrix with respect to the bases A and B?
Then at least you can say that if the determinant is a unit the homomorphism is an isomorphism, so F_1/F_2 = 0.
oh! I see! I'm trying to figure out if we can infer something about the size of F_1/F_2 from that determinant and your result makes a lot of sense
you're right, it isn't a change of basis matrix, but a matrix expressed in two bases
For commutative rings you might be able to use the adjugate matrix to say something more. But I'm not sure how much you can say
Appendix in Eisenbud's commutative algebra book
this lecture we did lie theory stuff
like the classification of finite dimensional complex irreducible representations of sl and how newton okounkov bodies help you find bases
@gritty sparrow look, your favourite topic in the wild
lol nice
That's cool
Rep theory of sl(2, C) is cool
I want to understand geometric interpretation via action of PGL_2(C) on rational normal curve but I do not understand projective geometry
C[x, y]
I do find it funny how you can just like
for sl(n, C) you just consider 2n elements acting on C[x_1, ..., x_n] it's so easyyyy
What
None of the things you showed me required any of this apart from basic terminology
ah ok that makes much more sense, thanks!
im getting the feeling more and more that whatever class illumi is taking doesn't actually teach much of anything and just does an overview of the material instead 
I learnt some new stuff so I didn't see it as basic terminology
The course using the word functor does not mean cat theory is a prereq
edrmmm mbut how can you ermmm uhhh how cna you eemrmm how can you map between categoryies without huhhh carateogries bieng a hting???
my algebra 1 was: cat theory, groups and solvability of groups, rings, modules over pid, projective injective modules, quadratic forms, homological algebra and rep theory
in that order 
never seen that before in my life
yea me either which is why I'm asking
nobody has ever seen that before
wunderbar
it is an artefact of antediluvian origins long forgotten to modern man
You know what, I saw that symbol in the TeX symbol list recently 
If you find out what the hell it means let me know
I think it was \ydown or something?
I'm willing to call it a typo
maybe we can work it out

what's G_1 and what's E
E is an extraspecial group
this is used many times
and they never mentioned what that is?
I mean this is for my REU so like there's alot of BS moving around elsewhere
ok just an extra special group right
not even on the symbols section,
this is purely a notation question in case anyone here knew lol
do you know the order of G_1 so we can at least determine if the base set is E x SL(2, 3) x C_12 
specifically order 27 exponent 3 if you care
now if it was extraspecial of exponent 7 of order 343 we might be in business
Not sure it's a typo since they state it twice
it's obviously not a typo
could it be the wreath product?
but none of the appearences define it
no that's a different symbol
that they do bother to define

Wreath
there's not many group products known to mankind
S'not wreath
I've learned of them than I want to
idk what wreath product is, just saw on wiki
groups suck man gimme back my rings
ok so the extra special group p_{1+2}^+ is the sylow p-subgroup of PSL_3(p) which does not help because it's SL(2, 3) not SL(3, 2) FUCK
what's the action I don't get itttt
Perhaps this? https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Central_product They mention extraspecial groups on this page
In mathematics, especially in the field of group theory, the central product is one way of producing a group from two smaller groups. The central product is similar to the direct product, but in the central product two isomorphic central subgroups of the smaller groups are merged into a single central subgroup of the product. Central products ...
no way it's the central product
\ast is standard for central product
when it's clear from context that \ast isn't the free product
Well I mean
before you quip
is there a similar notion of attaching map in group theory?
but the only time they state something is the central product here they do so without a symbol
do YOU know what a flavorable module is
do they cite a source for the results
f: H ( ⊆ G) → N and define G×N/ ~
that's basically the form a central product takes
oh lol
this is the result lol
OH IT MAY BE CENTRAL PRODUCT?
I think it is
you take a subgroup Z of Z(G) with an isomorphic image in Z(H) then the central product is GxH/{(x_i, x_i'^{-1}) : x_i \in Z} lol
😏
spam is getting spam answers rather than a helpful one 
so if that symbol is commonly used for an attaching map then it would make sense
I appreciate the efforts to cheer me up
proceed by assuming it's the central product 
what's the map tho
wdym what's the map
the isomorphism you need for a central product
ngl idk what central product really is
there's a copy of Z in Z(G) and one in Z(H)
there's no canonical one unless Z is itself the product on the right
it kinda keeps popping up and so far I've been able to brush it under the rug
but now I cannot
yeah
is (2) somehow equivalent to completeness since it characterizes the real numbers?
oh oh I remember
I don't think you get completeness from either of these
This is model theory more than anything, just so you know. But as it happens, it certainly does not characterise the real numbers! Skolem–Lowenheim tells us otherwise.
The real algebraic numbers should satisfy (2), and they're not complete.
oh for some reason I thought if (1) was true for some field F then F must be isomorphic (as a field) to the reals
No that's definitely not true.
Elementary equivalence is actually quite a weak condition.
it's all over my REU project and rn I'm semi sweeping it under the rug lol
As I alluded to, Skolem–Lowenheim tells us that there are infinitely many distinct structures that satisfy this property, at least one for every infinite cardinality.
it's well defined for extra special groups :trollshiro:
Wtf is an extra special group
Z(G) = C_p and Inn(G) is
uhh
elementary abelian
yeah that's the one
thinkin bout p^3 🤤
Cringe af
actually they're quite cool
they are neat
cool fusion systems on them :pack:
they're p groups with center = Z_p
They are made up terms to create more jobs
so true (I just got paid today)
yeah I suppose "p groups with minimal centre and nice inner automorphisms" is quicker
I don't get paid
you won't be homeless today! (i hope)
me yesterday for shittalking on the internet
I will be eating good today*
*I will not be, I will be eating the free dining hall food
is the dining hall food good there
free food????
free at the price of 80 years of debt
fuck no

aaaand I'm trying to lose weight and all the food is like
pasta, pizza, fried chicken in some sauce, mashed potatoes, that type of stuff
but it's free
me too since i'm on a heavy calorie deficit now
still better than bütterken
is that a misspelling of butter chicken
been reading bout localization for two days and I just realized localizing by a prime means making the ring (R-P)^(-1)R rather than P^(-1)R
. It's not like dividing by 0 shouldn't make sense
happens
it's dull bread with butter
shit
I would rather have chicken right now
yeah this is why I've seen some authors take the localisation "away from" the prime
which makes much more sense to me
yeah sounds less bamboozling 
oh, @delicate orchid you remember when I said my brother calls fibers pullbacks? it's because his textbook never defined fiber and calls them all pullbacks.
I see some authors use "localize away from" when talking about elements and "localize at" when talking about prime ideals.
That way you can be totally confused when they talk about the localization at 2 and the localization away from 2.
Geometrically it makes sense though.
Lol this just reminds me of when I emailed a professor about some notes cause I confused R_(0) and R_0
Localization at 2, zooms in on 2 and localization away from 2 zooms into the other primes
Was embarrassing
In a product set $\bigcap_{i,j}A_i\times B_j=(\bigcap_iA_i)\times(\bigcap_jB_j)$ for arbitrary index sets, right? There are no infinite nuances I'm missing?
leave_no_norm
Seems so.
Just checking.
very funny
geometry is non-rigorous cope
Geometry = coming up with weird names for algebra
if it's in a non-hausdorff topology I will not call it a shape
This works for arbitrary products too
I guess the question now is what the funniest way to prove this is
are A_i B_j just sets
ye
ok lol "product set" is a weird term
why
find the indecomposable sets
what else could I possibly mean you fool
X is indecomposable iff there are no doodads such that Y \coprod Z = X or whatever
coprod different tho
well usually decomposability is in situations with biproducts right
but ye
yeah normally with biproducts
but if you'd ask me to generalise it I'd choose the coproduct
me too
wholesome!
Is the assumption that R has non-zero maximal left ideals used anywhere here? I don't see it, looks like the proof works just as well without it.
I agree yeah it seems the proof would go through fine with Q being 0 for everything lol
what is the mapping for $V \tensor V^\vee \iso \on{End}{V}$
my prof said v tensor phi maps to phi(v)v but that just sounds like nonsense to me
(v, f) ↦f(_)v
yeah that's right
noo
okay this makes mure moch sense lmao
maybe he typo'd on the blackboard
I was so confoosed
wait huh?
nono
yeah I got it now
why for lie algebras we consider endomorphisms instead of just automorphisms
because Aut don't form a lie algebra 
I know about root systems and how they relate to lie groups and their reps but I'm way more into the associated Weyl group than the actual reps
$e_1 \tensor e_3^* = E_{31}$ right????
uhhhh in $\bC^3$
over C
I got no idea what you're talking about
this
no
try plugging e_3, you're supposed to get e_1
trick
troll

vectors as rows
ok thank you wew uwu

when we define an algebra what do we mean with "calculation rule"
yeah so e_i \otimes e_j* is the matrix that's e_i evaluated on e_j and 0 elsewhere
in my case U(n^+)
it says "U(n^+) is the algebra with generating system blabla and calculation rule XY - YX = [X, Y]"
what do they mean with this
that's a lie bracket
who the fuck calls that a calculation rule on the nine celestial spheres
but then again who calls M_{3\times3}(C) "C^3"
there is 1 group of order 15 and 2 groups of order 21
what is the calculation rule supposed to mean
One of those groups of order 21 is non abelian
yeah it's C_7 \ltimes C_3 with the obvious embedding of C_3 into Aut(C_7) \cong C_6
The smallest odd order non abelian group.
oh lmao
It's the (non-commutiative) multiplication operation in the algebra. Calling it "calculation rule" instead of "operation" is very nonstandard.
C7 has automotphism group of C6
how do you define multiplication in terms of itself?
I ... don't?
(thats rtimes
)
anticommutivity is BASICALLY commutivity cmon now
my supervisor gets annoyed at me because I have literally never once got it the right way round
also calculation rule might be lost in translation
and I will never learn which way round it goes
The symbol points in the direction of the automotphism
wow... cool
it points in the direction of the subgruop that's going to be normal
"the triangle is the normal subgroup tirangle sotrue"
.<
Not the vest way to see it because then it just reduces to the same problem but for normal subgroups
Instead I just look at the direction of the homomorphism
Wikipedia https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Semidirect_product helpfully informs us that
some sources[9] may use this symbol with the opposite meaning.
$$\varphi:A\to\text{Aut},B$$
$$A\ltimes_{\varphi} B$$
s5
I don't see it at all I just write \ltimes because that seems to be more correct more often than not
Triangle points in the direction of the honomorphism.
it's usually obvious anyway as who split extends anything other than cyclic groups ykwim
The way I always think about it is that the normal group is on the open side. Because for $A\times B$ both sides are open, and both are normal.
jagr2808
hit mfs up with that $\ltimes !!!!!\rtimes$
wew ladz
Isn't that just the Zappa–Szép product
we love that group theory literally just said "subgroup? we can't use the subset notation, so..... hmmm.....meh, just call it less than"
It's good notation imo.
it's definitely not bad notation, just funny
Or just say there is an injective homomorphism.
tbf set theory is the odd one out on this
literally every other poset in existence is \leq \geq but nooo
or the weird \underset{\sim}{<} the analysists use
It's good that we have specific \subseteq notation. Not to open a can of worms of course, but distinguishing between a mere subset of a group and a subgroup of a group is helpful
put which category you're talking about as a subscript on the \leq
I just like the fact that the following is true
why is there no symbol for a surjective homomorphism
\pi lol
Yeah there is, it's a double-headed arrow
you see it in diagrams all the time
$\forall x,y \in \mathbb{N} x < y \iff x \in y \iff x \subset y$
Yup
.goldenphoenix
that makes things very nice™️
Yup that is indeed why we construct it like that.
is $\subset, \subseteq$ preferred or $\subsetneq, \subset$?
tubularcat
I prefer the former pair, but will on occasion use neq if I've fucked up in my notes
(personally i dislike the second one)
$\subseteq > \subset$, $\subset < \subsetneq$
It's a matter of preference. I use \subseteq and \subsetneq.
⊆ ⊊
pikapikapikapikachu
$$A\hookrightarrow B$$
now for the cursed \eqnsubset
Unfortunately people use \subset to mean various things so it's best avoided.
s5
well i went through half of my topology class before i realized my prof was using the second one 
Also, #groups-rings-fields is getting clogged. Move to #math-discussion pls thanks xox
I don't particularly like the element xox, I prefer the element xox^-1
What's that

some arbitrary commutator
That's not a commutator
(to use the cubing terminology cuz I can't remember the actual word)
speaking of which
you'd need another o\inv on the right
o=e
broken glasses 
[g, h] = gh(hg)^{-1}
[X,Y] = XY-YX
really... makes u think....
ok maybe we should stop shitposting 
This is how I like my commutators
$$a^{-1}bab^{-1}$$
s5
Pain
cursed
There's a nice problem actually
Where this form is good
The problem is: can you find a way to hang a frame on two pegs such that if either peg is removed, the painting falls?
Big spoiler I guess but the solution is the commutator.
And if you use this form, it ends up being a symmetric solution.
yeah
conjugation.... dangit. why do all my interests have to use the same words in very different contexts??
[a,b] = b^-aba^-
what other use of the word conjugation is there
other than the stupid field automorphism of C
linguistics
a subtype of declension, yeah
les* ☝️
time to show some strange meta morphism between linguistics and math actually that's too much work
declension, when applied to verbs, is conjugation
verbing
I'm so glad my second and third languages have minimal declension
MODS!!! FRENCHIE!!!
MODDSSS
Le frenche
La* ☝️
Move to #serious-discussion for discussion thanks.
Phroge
words are elements of the free monoid over the set of phonemes
🐸
blursed. never speak to me again
just kidding that's really funny
now I need to choose: continue working through my abstract algebra textbook, or finish doing my slide rule competition practice problems
your.... what...
abstalg it is
That's nice, but can you keep discussion in #discussion or #serious-discussion , please.
Ok here's a serious question
serious face
uhhhhhhh trivial
so trivial that I will in fact not mention the solution
Not sure why R is required to be a PID
tor hom? tensor hom
becaise NO SPECTRAL SEQUENCES
it true for higher tor/ext?

Thimkin
it was given in our basic homological algebra class
I assume first you can check that
Hom(Tor(A, B), C) = Hom(A, Ext(B, C))
tor and ext as well?
should you just blindly pick free resolution of B of length 1 or something and play
wait
No
simply apply Hom to a resolution... the rest will follow... you must trust...
Not Tor and Ext wait
I mean the total right and left derived functors of Hom and Tensor
Idk how to denote that
Ext(Tor, ).. whatevery
I buy it
LTensor?
Like you tensor a projective resolution of A with B
Or vice versa
The entire chain complex
I hardly know her
And RHom is
oh so you mean the tensor in Derived cat?
you know Reisz, that's enough
that complicated solution for a basic HA question
You can put R outside both the Homs?
And then taking first homology should do it assuming R is a PID 
oh was it supposed to be basic
no nvm
Take resolutions of all things I am sure it works 
Yeah LTensor is left adjoint to RHom
I mean all adjoint pair, but I need to specify category carefully
Not all adjunctions are preserved when you derive them
They need to be Quillen adjunctions
of course
Tensor-Hom is a Quillen adjunction
if anyone wants to torture themselves
Epic
ahem basic homolgoical algebra ahem

I got like no intuition for anything in that image except for the direct sum
If you don't use derived categories then I am guessing taking projective and injective resolutions of all modules involved should allow you to just work through it
looney tunes
By any chance
Is HA short for higher algebra
high school algebra

Is this true? Ext(A \otimes B, C) = Ext(A, Hom(B, C))?
I suppose not
anything to do with Quillin adj
Should be
Interesting
Ye because that is true at the Hom level
so somehow all derived functors also preseve the adjunction
So it is true if you take RHom on both sides
And then it is true if you take first homology on both sides
cool cool let me read up on Quillin adj
Quillen adjunctions are homotopy theory terminology btw idk if there is simpler terminology for derived cats
Like derived cats are older theory
I guess it is just called a derived adjunction
For Quillen adjunction you would need to look up model cats
I've been wanting to read those for a long time
just unmotivating definitons set me off
Look at Quillen's original manuscript
or my thesis
send your thesis 
Divided opinions
Fair
The standard axioms are slightly modified from what he took as his axioms
Every opinion has a factorisation into a weak fibratory opinion and a
I think the standard one now is Hovey's
Except maybe sometimes functoriality of the factorizations is not assumed
cool notation for lift

damn I opened this chat and thought heavy from tf2 had made up some axioms
Actually this is kinda silly not sure if it works
At least not immediately
Because I want to take right derived functors of both sides
Not just of the outermost Homs on both sides
@lethal dune I might be messing up here be careful
Mathing while gaming 
take ^op on one category? I kinda had a rough solution of the first one using Grothendieck SS
How will ops help?
idk I forgot
lol
it was long ago and I'm too lazy now to retrace the steps

If A=B=Z/2 and C=Z, you get Z/2 on LHS and 0 on RHS
Ye makes sense
My argument had that flaw with right deriving only parts of both sides
There should be some universal coefficient theorem stuff relating them though probably
wym by weak equivalence of functors here? what's the model structure on Fun(Top, Top)?
do you mean each \eta(x) : Gamma(x) \to 1_Top(x) is a weak equivalence?
that would make sense
That would be my guess
Yes
whom are you talking to
the author
Natural somethingmorphism means a natural transformation that is level wise somethingmorphism
In general
Tbh kinda amazing you can turn it into a functor lol
everything is
Small object argument op 
I guess this probably requires like a proper class of chocies right
Yeah sure
I presumed a natural swagmorphism was a natural transformation such that each of the maps were swagmorphisms
It's swagmorphism time!
Lol nice
whats Ext
homology of something something
@void cosmos this is from my ha notes
oh



