#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 125 of 1
close enough
lol
which channel?
let me differentiate your forehead pls
dm me
ok babes
ok slow down
Its coefficients are invariant under all maps F(a_1,...,a_n)->F bar which preserve F
Do you know that this implies an element is in F?
This is true since such maps.permute the a_i, and the coefficients are symmetric in the a_i
I think that's what they were going for
f is the minimal polynomial of alpha over F, hence by definition it is in F[x]
Oh duh
I missed that part lmao
It factors in Fbar but the polynomial itself is still in F
Hm ok
(Actually this might also not work here if there's just 1 repeated root but it doesn't matter cuz it's irrel)
how is this representation in block matrix form well-defined? if you have any (v1, v2), then you can't just compute it as [phi_g^1 x v1, phi_g^2 x v2] since phi_g^1 and phi_g^2 are both matrices on their own if that makes any sense
the dimensions of the matrices are wrong
@white oxide
Think of 0 as a 0 matrix
So there's 4 matricies in this matrix
But we tend to just call that a "block matrix" and write them all as 1 matrix.
My question is still languishing in obscurity, please drop an upvote if you can:
https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/4726122/proof-of-the-double-centraliser-theorem-in-lorenzs-algebra-ii
Sorry, I don't have enough rep
yo if A --> B --> C --> 0 is SPLIT exact
then Hom(D,_) is split exac
the inverse map from the splitting of the first one induces one that also works
as a splitting
right>?
yea thats what i meant
if its just a right ses then it doesnt work?
ik it doesnt if it doesnt split
Split exact is a term for short exact sequences
You’ll stay exact on the right if the last map has a section though
wait split exact doesnt mean split AND exact ? 😄
What does split mean
Hi guys, could you give me a hint please?
||Well if a^n = e, then a^{-n} = (a^n)^{-1} = e, so the order of a^{-1} is at most n, then use symmetry to get equality.||
I have a question as well. My book doesn't say this so probably is wrong. If F: G => G' is a isomorphism, does this imply that |G| = |G'| ?
If a^n = e, what is a^(-n)?
It depends, but I’m assuming G is a group, in which case F is a bijection so yes
yup
Ok I'm doing fine, I understand that part because I was doing it that way, now another question, when you refer to symmetry, what should I think or what do you mean?

ay :c I don't want to get confused bro
Say the order of a is n, and the order of a^-1 is m, then the argument above shows that m is less than or equal to n
so, say I see something going from f: C -> R, or g: R -> Z I can already state that because of their cardinalities being different, f and g can't be isomorphisms, right?
ℂ and ℝ have the same cardinality
R and Z have different cardinality so this works, but knight watch is correct
ooh |a|<|a^{-1}| and |a^{-1}|<|a|
In fact C and R are isomorphic as groups
But replace a with a^(-1) and perform the same argument, say a^(-1)^m = e implies a^m = e, you thus argue n is less than or equal to m, hence equality
<=, but yes
oh right
What does "coefficients of matrix" mean
ye, mb, simboly
You can produce a group isomorphism by noting they’re vector spaces of the same (first uncountable) dimension over Q, so they are isomorphic as vector spaces. But oh wait, that isomorphism is in particular a group isomorphism
The entries probably
The proof of this fact is very beautiful too. Was great fun seeing the Hamel Basis construction and all that
Ok thanks, I'll try again!!!

actually ye I'm dumb C and R are isomorphic, I kinda forgot cause my Book says | C | = | R^2 |
which is the same R
The groups being isomorphic doesn't immediately follow from their cardinality though.
well different cardinalities means I can't make a 1 to 1 map from group G to G', so my morphism is either not surjective or injective.
this was the idea in my mind
But having the same cardinality doesn't imply that they are isomorphic.
right
You need to construct a basis for both of those groups over ℚ
different cardinalities definitely means no isomorphism tho right?
I thought about this literally a few minutes ago when I wake up, den I wondered why my book never specified this. It woulda made my life easier. 😭
I forget what a Hamel basis is lol
Is that the normal basis from linear algebra
Or is it the infinite sum one
Yeah basically
What’s the other one
I am not sure why it has a special name though
Cuz in functional analysis you consider bases for infinite sums
With convergence and stuff
Wdym infinite sum one
And need to distinguish them
analysis 
Like you want a countable basis for
A countable infinite product
But this doesn’t actually work with Hamel bases
The Hamel basis isn't countable though
Yeah exactly
In mathematics, a Schauder basis or countable basis is similar to the usual (Hamel) basis of a vector space; the difference is that Hamel bases use linear combinations that are finite sums, while for Schauder bases they may be infinite sums. This makes Schauder bases more suitable for the analysis of infinite-dimensional topological vector space...
I remember the name Hamel basis but I don't remember what it is and I remember there was a similar basis but I also forgot what the name is
Oh
I haven't studied functional analysis yet, sadly. So I haven't really seen what you are referring to
I see
I figured you did because no one really ever says Hamel basis unless they’re in a functional analysis context
They just say basis
BASIS
WTF AUTOCORRECT

Lol wtf
What did I miss 
Something
Ah. My set theory professor decided to use the term while proving the above mentioned group isomorphism. He didn't really explain why it needed a separate name though
jonathanphan
What was the question
It’s above
I don’t think the 3rd and 2nd from the bottom lines are correct
Like, x(xy) ≠ x
As far as I can tell
But it looks like you replaced x with x(xy)
Also like, you should put more parentheses I think
Because you’re unsure what the word for E is in English, I don’t know if * is associative
And the condition in the hypothesis seems to suggest it isn’t
So you need more parentheses
Aight, just searched up the terms, Here's the question, rephrased.
Given an operation $\ast$ and a set $E$ such that $\forall \ \quantity(x,y) \in E^2,\ x \ast \quantity(x \ast y) = \quantity(y \ast x) \ast x =y$, prove that $\ast$ is commutative.
Hope it's easier for you to understand.
jonathanphan
again how do i prove that:
: z -> 5z```
is surjective?
i remember doing this one a while back. i think what you wrote assumes the operation is associative, but you can't assume that
if you want a hint ||consider x * x maybe a better hint is to notice that the equation is true for all x,y, so you can consider x = x * (x * x) and so on||
how is quasi group defined in the text?
do you know what surjective means?
yup
also, is (Z, +, 0) the ring with multiplication mn = 0?
issa group
ive wrote down the following:
for each y in 5Z, there exists x in Z such that 5x = y
which is the definition of surjectivity
yes. so take an arbitrary y in 5z. what would you expect the x in Z to be so that f(x) = y?
for example, if y = 10
what would you say x is?
well y is in the form 5 * n, so x is n, in this case 2.
what operation did you do to 10 to arrive at 2?
in general, what operation would you do to 5y to arrive at x?
i multiplied by 1/5
that's the whole idea. take an arbitrary y in 5Z
let x = y/5
show f(x) = y and that x is in Z
Guys is every S^-1A module M of the form S^-1X for X being an A module.
No
every S^-1A module is of the form U^-1X, where S is a subset of U I believe
(Note I came up with this on the spot after thinking abt it for a bit but there could be a counterexample I'm not seeing)
I want to say yes, my argument is you can look at the $S^{-1}A$ module $M$ as $A$ module by restriction of scalars, call this $N$. Now If you induce again you get $S^{-1}A\otimes_A N = S^{-1}\otimes_A S^{-1}A\otimes M = M$
Now maybe someone has a different argument or answer, I would like to know
counterexample:
Z_(3) is a Z_2 module
Here Z_2 is the localization at {1,2,4,8,...}
why does it not work? I don't see it. Z_(3) as Z module then you localize at {1, 2, ...}. Z_(3) is already divisible by powers of 2
don't you just get Z_(3) back?
oh okay, let's see if anyone else has any other comments
I'm not sure myself if that's correct
tbh this was my original ideal
every S^-1A module is of the form U^-1X, where S is a subset of U I believe
But now I can see that you can localize U^-1X at S and get back the same thing so it is of the form S^-1N
I'm pretty sure restricting scalars should be fine
also categorically L \circ R naturally isomorphic to id
Mfw qual problems are easier than lang exercises
Qual problems have a limited time frame right? Exercises you can ponder for weeks
Oh, they must be trivial, looks at ch5 ex 34
$B_1,B_2$ are two bases for $\mathbb R^2$, given by $B_1={\begin{bmatrix} 4 \ 2 \end{bmatrix}, \begin{bmatrix} 5 \ 3 \end{bmatrix} };B_2= { \begin{bmatrix} 1 \ 0 \end{bmatrix}, \begin{bmatrix} 0 \ 1 \end{bmatrix} }$
I informally remember change-of-basis as involving the following procedure:
$\begin{bmatrix} a \ b \end{bmatrix}{B_1} \overset{\phi_1}{\mapsto} a\begin{bmatrix} 4 \ 2 \end{bmatrix}{B_2} + b\begin{bmatrix} 5 \ 3 \end{bmatrix}{B_2} = \begin{bmatrix} 4a + 5b \ 2a + 3b \end{bmatrix}{B_2} \overset{\phi_2}{\mapsto} \begin{bmatrix} 4 & 5 \ 2 & 3 \end{bmatrix} \begin{bmatrix} a \ b \end{bmatrix}$ but I'm trying to get the right formalization of change-of-basis. Don't $\phi_1, \phi_2$ have standardized names? isn't there maybe a nice commutative diagram of this somewhere?
nrs
i'm trying to remember how change of basis went in linear algebra because I need it for some module stuff, but I'm getting confused wrt. exactly what relationship is involved between these four objects: matrices/vectors in matrix-form in base 1, matrices/vectors in matrix-form in base 2, vectors in linear combination form in base 1, and vectors in linear combination form in base 2
you can replace free modules with vector space for your purposes.
Taken from aluffi pg 322. You can refer to it for detailed exposition of change of basis in free modules
niiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiice! thank you so much!!!
If a group G is infinate and it's order is infinate, why does one say the order is infinate and not "order does not exist"? Is there a reason for this?
Because the order does exist...
Like the group is infinite, that's the thing you want to communicate, so you say that
I'm not sure why you would say something else than what you mean
The order is a cardinality
it's the same with cardinalities of sets
'infinite' is imprecise about the exact cardinality ofc
but it wont be stated if we dont care
Also, a group being infinite is the same as its order being infinite. Not sure why you listed those two things separately with an 'and' between them.
The order of a group (G,*) is the cardinality of the set G.
What is m here?
the order of an element is different to the order of a group
In an infinite group, there may exist elements of infinite order.
specifically, if you take the cyclic group generated by an element - the order of that cyclic group is the order of the element
so if there doesn't exist an m such that g^m = e, that cyclic group will be infinite and so we say "g has infinite order"
That is, elements g for which g^n ≠ e for all n ∈ ℕ
What does g^inf even mean?
I don't know. Been studying this for 3 days
Well your making good progress
wait wrong link sorry guys
Here we go!
Let $(E,\cdot)$ be a set with an operation such that $\exists \ n \in \mathbb{N},\ n \geq 2$ satisfying
$$\forall \ \quantity(x,y) \in E^2,\ \quantity(xy)^n = yx.$$
Prove that $\cdot$ exhibits commutativity.
jonathanphan
But g^inf doesn't have any meaning here.
how did you conclude the last bit
(xy)^n=yx
yeah, for the left hand side sure
(yx)^n = xy
Oh yeah, forgot to mention that $\cdot$ is associative.
jonathanphan
But this seems incomplete, like it doesn't cover the case when x cannot be expressed as z^2 for some z
Does E have inverses?
jonathanphan
@frigid lark Do you know a nicer way of writing I(n) -> I(n+1) for induction? Or is this okay?
Looks fine to me
I just handwave induction
Eh
Just write $k = n $ and $k = n + 1$. They're sufficient.
jonathanphan
Use words
Suppose now that {thing} holds for n. Now we show {thing} for n + 1
Look at how induction is written in textbooks
I'd actually write it out but typing latex matrices on phone 💀
💀
But words are good
does the problem ever state that (yx)^n = xy?
it only says (xy)^n = yx
I think we're trying to think about that as a relator
it's not a relator, it's a massive set of relators
For all (x,y) in E^2
^
which was my problem too
wait do we even have an identity
guess not
we import group structure from an abelian group of the same cardinality
we have the little troll that x^(2n) = x^2
||yes I noticed that lmao||
no idea if it helps us
trivial qed lol
I'm so bad at these word problems where you have nothing to work with
like in a group this is obvious but noooo have to do it in a semigroup
(xy)^n = yx => (xy)^2n = (yx)^2 => xy = y(xy)x lol
Don't you get that by considering n=2, like (yx)^2 = xy
wdym, I got it from this
It seems like overkill
nothing is overkill until we get an answer
I got that x^2y^2 = xyx lol
Fair
honestly? I don't believe this result

we can't even work backwards and chain iffs together because no inverses
yx = (xy)^3 = x(yx)^2y = x^2y^2
YXY = XY FUCK
so we have
yxy = xy
xyx = yx
yxyx = xy
yx = x^2y^2
wonderful
that's equivalent to yx = xyx
how come
i feel like i remember a similar problem of this flavor that was in this channel a few months ago 
some courses like introducing group theory by having students prove things in obscure structures for god knows what reason
it's such dogwater pedagogy and I'm not just saying that because I can't solve this 
Yeah torture them to make them appreciate how nice groups are
yx^2 = x^2y
x^2 y = x(xy)(yx)x
x^2y = x(xy)x
x^2 y^2 = x(xy)^2
x^2y^2 = xyx
that seems to me like a waste of time tbh
Is my proof on (ii) okay? I was thinking that we could observe that inside this homomorphism is normal. Or is it logically wrong?
oh have we just collectively agreed to set n = 2 now
idk I used it here
I was using general n
it is
ye it works
Thanks @wraith cargo
I FUCKING GOT IT
START SPITTIN BOY
I will spray 🔫
Fuck lmao no I didn't I got too hyped I made a mistake
I showed that yx = x^2y and xy = y^2x
Which I thought were equal but I was mistaken
I hate this problem so much
lol
Could you explain the second line?
(yx^2)^2 = x^2y(yx^2) = x^2y^2x^2
there's no way they actually wanted an undergrad to waste their time with this shite
get me in contact with your professor
we're going to court
ur implying that a grad student's time is less valuable lmao
correct
Isn't it (yx^2) = yx^2yx^2 = x^2y
we had this at the start 
it is
Yeah my bird brain ain't following
what the fuck have I brought into this chat lmao
Pain
OK OK wait I might be close as fuck
I just need to coom with my brain to get a good idea
at least grad students get paid for it
calculating cellular homology is less tedious than this holy fuck
cope + seethe
What do you guys do, read book, read paper?
- reding is hard
- I am not even in uni yet technically lol
At least you can fix homology groups with a gun
I can point a gun to my head and hope that'll solve this problem
grwm — grad student edition:
10:00am wake up
10:30 go back to sleep
1pm: wake up again
2pm: read book
5pm: read paper
7pm: eat the only meal of the day
8pm: goof around
2am: sleep
you shouldn't
same bestie!!!
this except it's 11am
Yeah, my bird doesn't let me sleep past 10
guy who makes twitter threads about how to improve ur life
and goofing around is finely mixed in with work from 1pm-1am due to adhd
timo be like
"I'm the paragon of virtue"
ur a lawnmower stfu
I hate mowed lawns 🚬
which one cannot truly appreciate until one mows the lawn
Lawns are a capitalist invention designed to oppress Americans
Chat, am I a youtube guru for not wanting to have an unhealthy lifestyle
the lawn is a canvas and the lawnmower is my paint brush
yeah
yeah we're trying to solve a problem go away
timo solve this problem
you're competent
I am starting to believe that this is some sick joke
I said like 15 mins ago I don't believe the result
what's the problem even
What is the result
Quick sanity check, if $A$ is a $K$-algebra, $L/K$ an extension, and $B$ an $L$-algebra such that $A\otimes_KL\cong B$ as $L$-algebras, then they're isomorphic as $K$-algebras as well, right
I will solve it
leave_no_norm
Also assume associativity
Iso of L algebras implies iso of K algs right lol
Hm
ikik, just for a second i doubted it for w/e reason
is that true
It's somebodies hw
I feel like it is
I managed to get that yx = x^2 y
And I think it can be reduced further
restriction of scalars - extenstion of scalars adjoint isn't it
I forgorrrr
Don't you need to do something with the "order" of yx in addition to xy?
That's my first thought
(yx)^n = xy
also no cancelling 
wow irony really hyped us up for nothing 
And then exhibits commutativity is restricted to only elements in E^2, or it was a group all along
yeah it's not cancellitive
Yeah this seems weird lol
everything in E commutes with everything in E^2
everything in E^2 commutes with everything in E
hmmm
do those two conditions together with this (if this is true) imply the result?
no I don't think so
?
yx = (xy)^2n = (yx)^n = xy
Yes though like extension of scalars is the left adjoint
For n = size of monster group
Lol
OK so we had these:
yxy = xy
xyx = yx
Now mutliply the first by x from the left to get
(xy)^2 = x^2y
yx = x^2y
Now multiply the second from the left by y to get
(yx)^2 = y^2x
xy = y^2x
Multiply this by x from the left
x^2y = (xy)(yx)
x^2 = xy
Hence xy = yx
if this works I'm offing myself
I get the intuition backwards in my head, image of the left adjoint is "easy to map out of" right
yeah that makes sense to me
I managed to prove it in the most contrived way possible anyways 😎
Original identity
the original identity is yx = (xy)^n
R u trolling?
there are fucking paragraphs of random xs and ys
Or is your brain that fried from this problem
my SINCEREIST apologies for not following every little detail
it’s okay, i forgive u
Fair
water under the bridge
thank you anamono
anytime
^
xy = (yx)^2n = (xy)^n = yx
oh you swap it twice
I think we should ban parrot I am angry now
ban me please PLEASE
I'm not far enough through the book to know what the notation "F^*" means
also that's technically an endomorphism on the multiplicative group, right? but not on the field itself except for fields of characteristic 2 which is hmmmmm
but I think I see where this is going
for an odd prime field F_p, in F_p \ {0} the mapping x -> x^2 is always surjective, because x^2 = (-x)^2. This means that we consume two elements to create each perfect square, and there aren't any elements left to produce the other half of the field. this probably extends to odd prime powers greater than 1 but I haven't thought it all the way through
for an even prime field F_p, 0 is a perfect square, 1 is a perfect square, and there aren't any other elements cuz the only even prime is 2. poking at it with sagemath suggests that all powers of 2 are quadratically closed but I have no idea how I would prove that
I'm gonna go back to my Tors and Exts now
I don't wanna see another word in my life
real math == spending 500 pages to prove that 1+1=2?
Is that meant to be better?
yes
derived functors make you feel smart
Damn this was rough
word problems make you feel like a fucking idiot
i be walking around saying “bijection” to myself sounding smart
i bet my bed thinks im a math genius
throwing math buzzwords like it’s wheel of fortune
I am happy to hear other people do dumb shit like this too lmao
can we ban word problems 
So by F^* I mean the nonzero elements of F, which forms a group under multiplication.
What I was hinting at is that the kernel of the group homomorphism x^2 is 1 and -1. So this is injective iff 1 = -1, i.e. the field has characteristic 2. For a function from a finite set to itself being injective is the same thing as being surjective. So in a finite field every element is a square of and only if 1+1=0.
This happens exactly for fields of order 2^n
Tubular Cat is working on an algebra problem. By applying the Goedel function to English words and mathematical symbols, he has defined two operators "+" and "*" on pairs of word problems, creating a ring of all word problems.
Exercise 1. Is Tubular Cat's ring a field?
Exercise 2. Are all word problem rings isomorphic? If not, how many distinct morphisms are there?
Exercise 3. Is this ring a field? If so, is it algebraically closed?
Exercise 4. Is the Frobenius endomorphism valid on elements of this ring?
needs more BS
Wait I'm actually dumb why is (xy)^2n = yx
what are x and y? what group/ring/field/whatever do they refer to
OH ITS THE SAME N FOR EVERYTHING
Wait no I'm still dumb I think it's too early to do math
wait I don't think I've ever seen it written that way before
does the (x, y) \in E^2 just mean x \in E \and y \in E ?
The set E^2
I genuinely do not see how (xy)^2n = yx
what if it's really the square root of the set E^4
so it's a vector space, or at least a module, right?
it's a semigroup
This may be a symptom of me waking up not too long ago
for all x, y in E, a natural number n>=2 exists such that (xy)^n = yx
that means (yx)^n = xy
Yes
huh?
oh wait
lemme reread
yeah
actually it's not 2n
it's n^2, isn't it?
(xy)^n = yx
(yx)^n = xy
(xy)^(n^2) = xy
Ok thank fuck that's what I had but I thought I was going crazy
It is n^2 by a double swap
it's 2n
where did you get 2n from?
where did the 2 come from
What lol
that's not what it says, Irony
it says there is an n
Otherwise it'd be trivial
You cannot just take n = 2
Oh wow okay then
Looks like we were solving it even more wrongly than we thought lol
no that's just you
Noooo
I warned you we needed a general n
:(
double swap idea should still work I think
personally I'm betting n is the sixth Fermat prime, F_5
OK I leave now
Ok so it hasn't been solved right?
parrot still solved it
ok then how does 2n work
xy = (yx)^(n^2) = (xy)^n = yx
yeah how do we get that first equality
xy = (xy)^(n^2)
not yx
It's so much easier if it can be any n thooooo
we should just pretend that's the case
that's the point
Occam's razor

I still don't see this
xy = (yx)^n = ... = (xy)^(n^2)
what are we swapping around
$(xy)^{n^2} = \left( (xy)^n \right)^n = (yx)^n = xy$ right?
spamakin
wait does xy = (xy)^(n^2) mean that it's cyclic? barring trivialities like "xy=the same element for all x,y"
you just keep restating the same thing
not a group
not a group?
?
how. does. ((xy)^n)^n = (yx)^n follow from the identity we've bene given
what two elements
are we swapping
(xy)^n = yx right?
I don't see how that's relevant here
(xy)^1 = (xy) trivially
(xy)^(n^2) = (xy) per the rules
that means that (xy) generates a set of at most n^2-1 elements
but this is magic to me
I think parrot was maybe doing it the same way I was
ok? and?
how does this prove xy = yx for all x, y in E
I can take any group and generate a cyclic subgroup using an arbitrary xy it does not mean the group is commutative
xyxyxy = yx
yxyxyxyx = y^2x^2
yxyxyx = xy
xyxyxyxy = x^2y^2
hmm (n = 3 here)
I almost said what if we use induction lmao
oh so it's wrong?
yes
ok that makes me feel less dumb
I missed a bit, did someone get it yet
nope
Oh 
(xy)^n = yx
y•(xy)^n•x = y²x²
(yx)^n+1 = y²x²
yx²y=yxxy=(yx)^n+1=xyyx=xy²x
Similarly, we can get x²y²=xy²x=yx²y
Therefore x²y²=y²x² for all x and y
All that remains is maybe showing that every element is a square in this set
we had x^2y = yx^2 right at the start
good luck actually showing that every element is a square
Haha I seem to have skipped over that whole conversation
it's ok it was literally hours ago at this point 
Yup, we can't even tell if this is actually the case or not at this point
Hmm, interesting problem. So if n=2, then
xy = (yx)^2 = (yx)(yx)
Thus yx = (xy)^2 = (yx)^2 = xy
If n is not 2, I'm not sure how to generalize
If the operation is associative, then xy = (yx)^n = (yx)(yx)^n-1
Thus (xy)^n = (yx)^n so xy=yx
But I'm pretty sure you need associativity
oh ok thank u
Maybe depends how x^n is bracketet
xy = ab where a=yx and b=yx, therefore (xy)^2 = ba
Or in the n>2 case: xy = (yx)(yx)^n-1 so (xy)^n = (yx)^n-1(yx)
But then I need associativity to conclude that (yx)^n-1(yx) = (yx)^n
Ah, they said to assume associativity. Then it works no problem
wait what's the usual way for exponentiation in nonassociative?
is a^3 a(a(a)) or ((a)a)a?
I would have thought it would be the latter
uh the way you've written brackets doesn't really make sense
a(aa) or (aa)a i guess you mean
a(a)
a as a function of a
I imagine you'd just not use exponential notation in that case
i'm getting unlambda vibes
unless you really want to confuse people
if I didn't want to confuse people I wouldn't be anywhere near abstract algebra
algebra without power associativity
why even live
Well I just went with the former, but I need both to be equal, so you get problems either way
$$\left(^2F_4\left(2\right)'\right)^2$$
s5
This is great
le fischer group has arrived
If L/K is purely inseparable of degree n, then x^n\in K for all x\in L, right
Yeah if n = p^M then each element x of L satisfies x^{p^m} in K for some m (possibly depending on x) and necessarily m<= M so that p^m | p^M
Yep, just double-checking, gracias
np!
I had to work this out now lol didn't realise it was a fact so that's for teaching me lol
Yeah, it's not mentioned explicitly in any text I've seen (probably because it's an easy corollary)
Pretty useful though, I've seen it used in several proofs
How do we justify that T is projective here (since Weibel claims that P_n (x) T is projective so I believe this is only true when T is projective)
is it something like that T is finitely presented somehow?
If Q is a projective R-module then Q (x)_R T is a projective T-module
hm
Okay
okay I see where I went bad
I was looking at stuff as if they were R-modules
This follows p quickly from the like extension / restriction of scalars adjunction ig
If we take a real vector space $V$ and consider the complexification $V \otimes_{\mathbb{R}} \mathbb{C}$ as a set what kind of elements does this have? They should be formal sums $\sum_{k,j} a_{k,j} v_k \otimes e_j$ where ${v_k}_k$ is a basis for $V$ and ${e_j}$ a basis for $\mathbb{C}$, but a basis for $\mathbb{C}$ is given by ${1,i}$ so the index $j$ goes only up to $2$ right? What kind of sums are we left with?
estebanita
Yes, you should say an R-basis for C though
But yes, one way to think of this is by changing notation slightly: write (slightly abusively i suppose) $v_k$ for $v_k \otimes e_1$ and $i v_k$ for $v_k \otimes e_2$. Then the point is we end up with $C$-linear combinations of the $v_k$ - you can check that what I'm saying actually works lol
But yes note that the actual construction of $V \otimes_{\mathbb R} \mathbb C$ may be different from what you wrote depending on source, like for example there are constructions which don't require a choice of basis which is nice
I'm getting slightly confused here. I would like to say that we end up with sums $$\sum_{k} a_{k,1}v_k \otimes 1 + a_{k,2}v_k \otimes i$$
estebanita
Sure, that's just rewriting it
Square of the Tits group
Can we do something with the coefficients a_{k,1} and a_{k,2}?
Not really, but the point is like
$V \otimes_\mathbb R \mathbb C$ is naturally a $\mathbb C$-vector space if you define $(a + ib) \cdot (v_k \otimes 1) = a ( v_k \otimes 1) + b (v_k \otimes i)$
potato
and so on
So if we write $i v_k$ for $v_k \otimes i$ and $v_k$ for $v_k \otimes 1$ then we can just write every element as a $\mathbb C$-lianr combination of the $v_k$ and indeed these form a basis over $\mathbb C$
potato
Which is sort of the whole point of the complexification
The centralisers of conjugate subalgebras are obviously conjugate, right
Yes, if $zb = bz$ then $$x^-zxx^-bx = x^-zbx = x^-bzx = x^-bxx^-zx$$
jagr2808
Intuition confirmation: if A, B are simple artinian algebras of length m,n such that A\otimes B is simple artinian, then its length is mn, right?
Does just taking 0\subset I_1\otimes1\subset\cdots\subset A\otimes 1\subset A\otimes J_1\subset\cdots\subset A\otimes B work?
Yes
I_k\otimes 1=I_k+1\otimes 1 implies I_k=I_k+1
same with the other side
Only question is if every left ideal sandwhiched between these is of the form I\otimes 1 and A\otimes J respectively
Well I mean the quotients are just gonna be the composition factors of A and B right
That oughn't be hard to prove at least for the \otimes 1 side
Now what I'm worried about is that tensoring by A will kill off something in B
Would this be prevented by A being simple, is this your idea?
A is assumed simple, yes
Yes but does that mean that e.g. the map B -> A (x) B is injective
you mean b\mapsto 1\otimes b?
that's always injective
regardless of the properties of A and B
That's just embedding subspaces into tensor products
Oh right, because we're looking at a field
is there a semi-sane way to show that Hom(Z[1/p], Q/Z) is isomorphic to the p-adics
So if $I'\subset I\subset A,J'\subset J\subset B$ are left ideals, do we have $(I\otimes 1)/(I'\otimes 1)\cong I/I'$ and $(A\otimes J)/(A\otimes J')\cong J/J'$ as left $A\otimes B$-modules?
leave_no_norm
if you make them into right B-modules and left A-modules respectively
The isomorphism is that (A (x) J)/(A(x) J') = A (x) J/J' I believe
yar
what about the other?
same,
You get I/I' (x) 1
What would that mean, 1 is not an algebra
wait what is 1 here
I thought it was an element of B
what I was thinking is that that quotient has the form i (x) 1 + I' (x) 1, then you can take out the 1 to get (i+ I') (x) 1?
Inch resting hm
Maybe just do it completely explicitly. If 1 maps to 0, 1/p maps to k_1/p, 1/p^2 maps to k_1/p^2 + k_2/p, etc. This exactly defines a p-adic integer.
Then for any rational q between 0 and 1 "multiply" the map by q, sending 1 to q
I think constructing the isomorphism explicitly is the way to go
I don't see how the ring structure comes in naturally here
But maybe there's a way to do it
End( Z[1/p]/Z ) should be the p-adic integers with ring structure though
can't we do this p^n procedure for all n in Z?
I asked somewhere else and was told that you can do it by writing Z[1/p] = lim-> 1/p^n Z, extracting this out of the Hom and getting the p-adics
the k_is should also all be equal because it's a homomorphism
but yeah wlog we just get a p adic integer
$A\otimes J / A\otimes J' = A\otimes J/J'$ unless I'm tripping
jagr2808
So for I_1 < I_2 < ... < A, and J_1 < ... < B, I think the composition series should be I_1xJ_1 < I_1xJ_2 < ... I_1xB < I_1xB + I_2xJ_1 < ...
Guess this is what @wraith cargo was already saying(?)
If L/K is an extension, the base extension of M_n(K) is M_n(L), right?
just checking
I think I've finally put together the thing I was asking about the last couple of days, does this work?
Doesn't every algebra have maximal subfields (maximal subalgebras that are fields)? Start with K, then use Zorn. What's the big deal about these maximal subfield theorems.
Which theorems are you thinking of? All I could find by googling are things classifying the maximal subfields or giving conditions for when they are isomorphic
Here's one example from the book.
Idk, it just felt like it was giving it the fact of existence more significance than it deserves (them all having the same degree is deservedly significant).
I guess, but it should also be mentioned. But maybe it should have been outside the theorem in a remark or something...
a) Why exactly m>1, can't it happen that D\neq K and D has no subfields besides K?
b) The reasoning for <: the translates of L* cover D* and all translates intersect non-trivially, so |D*|<|D*:N||L*|, right?
If x is not in K then K(x) < D is a field
And D\neq K(x) because we assumed D is non-commutative, right
Well D could equal K(x), but then D is a field
Or K is the center, so I guess that's only possible if D=K
Man, Skolem-Noether is neat
im reading a book that has a pretty category theoretic definition of an algebra. But part of the definition is they have a ring map $n: k \to A$ whose image is in the center of $A$ and a multiplication map $u: A \times A \to A$. A here is the vector space and k is the ground field. What exactly does n correspond to here?
*-algebra
like i see u is how you define multiplication of elements in the algebra
To me this is just a standard part of the data of a k-algebra
yeah what data is it exactly?
suppose my algebra is C for example
what is n(i)
err
Algebra over what
maybe not a great example
i was going to say as a C-algebra 🙂
but if you could just tell me what data n is that is enough
I mean that in some definitions this corresponds to like itself, it is already part of the definition
Like in commutative algebra an R-algebra is just a ring S equipped with a map R -> S
well maybe just tell me what n corresponds to
a description like "u corresponds to the multiplication of elements in the algebra"
No I meant there is nothing it corresponds to lol
yes there is
Huh lol
it means something intuitively
Okay that's different lol
this definition came after "older definitions" of algebras i am sure
like an older definition of an algebra wouldnt talk about a map u, they would talk about a closed binary operation etc
(same thing but slightly different flavor)
Sure I mean one way to think about it is that it gives you the structure of a k-vector space
how?
Yeah, what's the problem, the two are equivalent?
Because now you can multiply by elements of k since they are in ur ring essentially
I mean to me this is already usual lol
If A is a k-VS that can be made into an algebra, then a\mapsto a\cdot 1 is a ring homomorphism of k into the center of A.
What alternative definition do you propose
One is that k is already a subset of the centre of A
In which case the map would be the inclusion
Conversely, if there is a homomorphism of k into the centre of a ring A, then the ring becomes a k-VS and an algebra
wait
can you just answer my question though
i dont know why you're asking me for alternate defns to propose etc
im just asking intuitively what this map is for
Well this implies the existence of smth more usual
how?
But yes the key thing is a copy of k in ur ring
Which allows you to multiply by elements of k among other things
i see..
Which induces the vector space structure in particular
so this is like "scaling a vector by an element in the ground field"
Sure, that is part of it
but how come it's not a map from k x A then?
But this is stronger since you actually get a copy
Like you get an induced map k x A -> A by restricting multiplication
like imagine some boring vector space, i would think then n: k x A --> A by n(k,a) = ka
But you also get a copy of k you can use to add stuff etc
If you want yet another definition of an algebra, here's one using tensor products.
that's what i am looking at ocean 🙂
Like a nice example is smth like C[x] as a C algebra
Like you get a C vector space structure
But you czn can think of C[x] as extending C in some sense
You can define algebras over general commutative rings the same way, just a little FYI for you.
Since you have a copy of c in it
oh yes then how would you define n: C --> C[x]?
The natural inclusion
Usually it is just smth like that
Smth slightly more interesting sure would be
M_n(C) as a C algebra
By mapping C to the diagonal matrices
like z --> diag(z)?
But note a nontrivial ring map out of a field will always be injective
So you will get smth which often looks fairly trivial aha
But yeah this is probs more interesting
mm
what's the whole importance of the thing where u get a copy?
yall mentioned something about that
Bro gave a super thumbs up
not sure if this fits here but intervals graphs are basically graphs where every vertex is an interval and i connect these vertexes if their corresponding intervals overlap right?
did i understand correctly?
it's not abstract algebra but yes appears so
Yes
Does anyone know how to start with this problem?
This is what I've done so far. Don't know what it means for something to have infinate orbits in addition to the zero vector
what abt the multiples of the eigenvector?
that statement looks super false to me when A = identity matrix
Doesn't I have an eigenvalue of 1?
yeah but all the orbits are finite
I thought it meant it has an infinite number of orbits
C^n is uncountable and Z is countable so it's gonna have uncountably many orbits no matter what A is
true
I am a little confused of what you guys are discussing 😅
I think the correct statement you might want to prove is
The problem is saying that there are infinitely many different orbits in addition to the 0 orbit
Not that there is at least one infinite orbit
at least that's what I think it's saying
Show that phi has a finite orbit other than {0} <=> there exist some eigenvalue of A such that lambda^k = 1 for some integer k >= 1
Oh shit
Yes
Wow I miswrote it
So sorry
Can the eigenvalue be imaginary?
Because if it only can be a real number, then there exists only one phi^k = 1
But I am not sure how this works in the complex field
phi^k = 1 must have infinate answers if phi is in C, since 1 = r(cos(theta) + i * sin(theta)), and theta depends on r
So doesn't this mean that the orbits of A^kv = phi*v is infinate and not finite?
Let n = pq. p, q distinct primes.
Let R be a (commutative, unital) ring of order n.
I'm trying to think of an example of R with char p. So far I got the elements that aren't integer multiples of 1 have to be fractions, is that right?
I also wanted to check an example actually exists, and if there are many, before I continue
P sure it can't have char p by Cauchy
What result are you referring to here?
Ah fine, I get it
Well like Cauchy's theorem for group, like we have a nonzero element of order q
Yeah, char p shouldn't be possible
And one of order p
Due to this
So the characteristic would have to be divisible by p and q
I mean also like
More cleanly
As groups this is isomorphic to Z/p x Z/q or Z/pq
So characteristic is n I suppose
But idk how weird the multiplicative structure can be

bro defined a vector space on a ring instead of a group through a universal property
I mean that is the correct definition 🔥
hi potato
Hi
how are you doing
I just am getting up lol hru
Bruh
Yeah I still have alarms left over from uni I need to turn off
Lol
Today I am do ALGEBRAIC GEOMETRY
I need to cope with toric geometry today
Bruh how come lol
my newton okounkov theory course is 5% newton okounkov theory 10% algebraic geometry and 85% toric geometry
Fr
You made all of those word’s up
it also has a bunch of prereqs like cat theory, rep theory, comm alg and what not even though it's algebra 2 lmao
I still don’t believe you when you say it’s algebra 2
How can something like that share a name with a subject whose description is:
Rings, fields, ideals, number fields and algebraic extension fields. Coding theory applications of finite fields. Gaussian integers, Hamilton's quaternions. Euclidean Algorithm in rings.
Lmao what uni has an algebra 2 course that does Toric geometry
That’s mental
Our « equivalent » of an algebra 2 course does basic ring and field theory lol
I don’t care
Speak English
I don't understand therefore it does not exist
I still don’t believe you
sprich deutsch du hurensohn
Ouch now it looks like Wew is being rude to me 😔
We both know deep down that I would never do such a thing
sometimes alg 2 is scheme theory, sometimes it's comm alg, it depends on what the prof wants to do
Bruder muß los
muß
Shouldn’t that just be called « algebraic geometry »
Instead of algebra 2
Spotted the French persin
Yeah algebra 2 for me was like. Rings and ideals + basic number theory
What do you do in algebra 1 🤔 illum
We didn't number them like that
And this is a second year course?
Although my first AA course was in first year so who knows
Yeah we don’t either
We only number analysis courses for some reason
Neither did we
groups, rings, modules, fields, galois, applications of galois
Damn
like third year
I don’t buy any of this
That’s still kinda insane
I think I'm gonna take alg nt 2 next sem
Module theory here is third year algebra
You also only get to the good shit in algebra 808,017,424,794,512,875,886,459,904,961,710,757,005,754,368,000,000,001
The warwick undergrad was about half as cracked as this
he said that we'll be so few people that it's gonna be more of a discussion and reading course
At least its taught
So a seminar
no presentations
We do alg k theory in algebra 1
just like read X until Y then we talk about it
tamiyaka shimura theory in algebra 2
I think it's gonna be on the global local principle
Based
The Japanese names is when you know shit's getting real
isawa
Like if I hear a random European name in a math textbook, they could have been born in the 1500s for all I know, but a Japanese person recognised in western literature is like guaranteed to have contributed in the 1900's
Meaning cracked math
Kinda true
IUTT for algebra 3?
taniyama shimura and you're probably thinking of Eichler Shimura theory :P
wait Illum are you a grad student
I'm a high schooler lol
I literally don't believe anything you say

We briefly touched on taniyama shimura in grad algebra 3
I don't really think it is feasible to make a good course covering all of the basic algebra stuff up to galois theory in one semester
We had a hw problem with something Langlands related lol
But we never did anything that cool in class
Our homework in that class were easy computations and easy proofs
The lectures were nice though
our hw were 
our prof actually wanted to kill us I feel like
That first sem with grp theory was rough
I took algebra 1 and 2 before I left uni
Alg 3 was field theory/ commutative algebra
Algebra 1 was hard rep theory
wtf lol
2 was ag
our algebra 1 was super intense grp theory
Grad algebra
yeah
Ug algebra was the easy stuff
Like our algebra class was take everything in UG algebra and crank it up to 11
cuz the prof was very much a pure algebraist
So he loves group stuff
We even did a bit of group cohomology and stuff like that
This is what our hws were like lol
We also did way too much Sylow stuff
I know it by heart now but I just can't anymore
Problems like this
more flexing time for me
this is easy compared to what we did
easy hw are uwu
okay then
Solve it
show me it's easy
Sylow is cool
I'm at the dentist right now
but isn't it just like there's only one subgroup of order l lol
ok prove that
put your mouth where your money is
eat the money
abstract algebra fight club
I don't know where this was going to go
Interesting
What illu said is equivalent to what you have to prove though
Now prove it for finitely presented instead
And doesn't sylow say that no of sylow-l subgrps = 1 mod l and divides pq so divides p or q but that leaves only 1
oh yeah lol I didn't see it said normal
Were you gonna prove the existence of a Sylow-l subgroup 💀
no lol
I already solved this like 5 months ago when it was due lmao
wacky and uncharacteristic
so g is fixed right?
the argument boiled down to counting subgroups and then taking some quotients the reduced the problem iirc
so all elements of the subgroup H multiplied by a fixed element of G?
or is it all elements of G?
So you didn't assume Sylow's theorems?
or G/H?
we did
Yes
lemme open my overleaf
ok
gH is the set of all gh for h in H
And this is the definition of gH for all g in G
That's what the last "for all g in G" in the picture means
This is my solution
but then why is the number of cosets called an index? shouldnt there be an coset for every element in g?
or does it have to keep the subgroup structure
Different elements of G can give the same coset
The cosets are not subgroups
They don't usually contain identity
oh yeah that makes sense
then why do we care about them?
homomorphisms 
besides seeing if a subgroup is normal
The first isomorphism theorem
essentially the problem boils down to showing whether there exists a normal p,q or l subgroup because at first you don't know which
allows us to take quotient groups
lagrange theorem
so like its part of the kernel? for the injectivity?
no
The natural map from a group to its kernel maps entire cosets to single elements
And the preimage of each element is also a coset
if the left and right cosets of a subgroup N are equal then you can make a new group G/N out of these cosets
where (gN)(hN) = ghN
I'll be honest I am not reading allat 💀
the normal subgroups of G/N are in direct correspondence with normal subgroups of G containing N
which can be useful
Cosets of the kernel of f are precisely the fibers of f
Fiber meaning the inverse image of a single elements
the argument boils down to:
Show that you can't have s_p, s_q, s_l > 1 (i.e. one has to be normal)
Assume wlog that ur p-subgroup is normal and the l-subgroup isn't
Get a contradiction
Oh damn
Is the issue in the fact that pq might be 1 mod l?
Thinking about why the argument I gave doesn't work
oh yeah if you take 2,3,5 💀
I have no idea why quotient groups are defined like that honestly
I hate sylow so much
how would you define them any other way
There's a first iso thread in this channel 
that's like
what they are
Where I have given one explanation
isnt it supposed to be G without the subgroup N?
no
yeah
Tbh this argument took quite a while to come up with
my friend and I were working on it in the math building when the prof accidently saw us working and gave us a few pointers lmao
wow ok
it's supposed to be G with N squished down into the identity
horrid
lmao, G \setminus N is no longer a group since you removed the identity
What
the obvious way to do this is just say that N is the identity of the new group
what
Oh right
Oh setminus
right
yeah

I mean
using \setminus rather than - 
what's so sullyable about that 
why do you have 4 digit numbers in your name 
i think its bad. Anyways.
protesting discord change

to preserve the initial structure right?
anyways, uve all managed to confuse me on which way the quotient slash goes
\
Depends