#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 124 of 1
the point of commutative diagrams is that it doesn't matter which "path" you take between two points, the functions given by composing along each eage will be equal to one another
for example, in the second one you posted
im following btw my internet cut for a bit
it just says that $\varphi = \pi \circ \overline{\varphi}$
wew ladz
It is called a diagram, specifically a commutative diagram. It contains a lot of useful information in one picture. Category theory uses these diagrams heavily.
(and the dashed arrow means that there is exactly one choice of \overline{\varphi} that works)
basically it's just notation
rather than write out all of the compositions and stuff
it's a nice visualization
Okay thanks for the clarification. I appreciate it.
also seeing and understanding a diagram is different from feeling it
i cant afford to blackbox here since i dont know shit about algebraic groups
all the more reason to blackbox
I never actually learnt what a group is I just blackboxed it
Did I allow you to lose internet?
And fair enough
It's healthy to try and work this out
So I'll take their definition as given
So parabolic subgroup means quotient is complete, solvable + parabolic = Borel
Or eh progress is nice I'll just think about it for GLn
Borel is upper triangular, parabolic is block upper triangular, and unipotent radical is "the diagonal blocks are identity"
this sounds right from the few definitions i do know
Might be better off watching the lecture video tbh
Oh so, I forgot to say one thing about earlier
So yeah GLn
Borel is upper triangular, a parabolic is gonna be some set of block upper triangular matrices. The associated Levi subgroup is just, take the parabolic subgroup and set off diagonal blocks to 0, unipotent radical is about setting the diagonal blocks to the identity
I feel like I'm missing something, my response was along the lines of: for the trace we use the independence of characters to show there exists an s in K such that Tr(s) = b in F, not 0, and then we use the fact that Tr is a F linear map, and F is a group. For the norm we just use the fact that if [K : F] = p^n = q, then for a any in F, N(a) = a^q, which is a power of a Frobenius automorphism.
The degree is n, not p^n.
ah
I think you could argue like this @frigid lark: let $K$ have size $q$, $F/K$ be of degree $n$, then $F$ has size $q^n$. The Frobenius automorphism $(x\mapsto x^q)$ is the generator of the Galois group, so $N(x)=x\cdot x^q\cdot x^{q^2}\cdots x^{q^{n-1}}=x^{\sum_{j=0}^{n-1}q^j}=x^{\frac{q^n-1}{q-1}}$, so the kernel of the norm homomorphism consists of the roots of $x^{\frac{q^n-1}{q-1}}-1$. The polynomial $x^{q^{n}-1}-1$ splits over $F$ and has distinct roots, so the polynomial $x^{\frac{q^n-1}{q-1}}-1$ does too, thus the kernel has size $\frac{q^n-1}{q-1}$ and $N(F^\times)\subset K^\times$ has size $\frac{q^n-1}{\frac{q^n-1}{q-1}}=q-1$, therefore $N(F^\times)=K^\times$.
leave_no_norm
oh, nice
Is the trace argument fine?
yes, F/K is separable if and only if Tr\neq0
and a functional V->K is surjective if and only if it's non-zero
extensions of finite fields are separable
Nevermind I got it
ϕ(e) = ϕ(ee) = ϕ(e)ϕ(e) = ϕ(e)e' => e' = ϕ(e)
Was wondering how they concluded that in the proof
I am newbie
phi(e)=phi(e)phi(e) use the inverse thingy of phi(e) to get e'= phi(e)
In a group c=cc implies c is the identity
image:
hausdorff
Do you know what "algebraic" means for an element of a field extension?
yes
doesn't have to be a finite extension tho
a^2\in K\implies the minimal polynomial of a over K has degree 2
If a has a minimal polynomial of degree n, then K(a)={c_0+c_1a+...+c_n-1a^n-1 : c_i\in K}
to be very explicit in this special case, multiply the numerator and denominator by c-d\alpha
this is similar to how you invert a complex number: write 1/x+iy=x-iy/(x+iy)(x-iy)=x-iy/x^2+y^2
The general statement is this.
cool cool
got it, thanks!
so we have universal coefficient theorems when working over PID's when you apply Hom or tensor. Can you get analogous theorems when applying any additive right exact covariant / left exact contravariant functor to a chain complex, involving the appropriate derived functors?
I don't see any reason why not but just to be sure
using spectral sequences, it can be done but it may not be as elegant as UCT
is it at all useful to do this?
sometimes
I guess the fact that I don't really have any derived functors in mind other than Tor and Ext doesn't help to imagine this haha
there's a "longer" version of UCT when you don't have PID
reason is Tor_2 may not vanish
yeah i guessed as much
if you're familiar with ss( just for a strip is enough) you can try to prove UCT
im not familiar with spectral sequences unfortunately
because it's so useful
example
take any surjective homomorphism
BAM
You get an isomorphisms if you ignore the kernel
😎
every normal subgroup appears the kernel of some homomorphism
that's a nice one
anyway first iso basically is what a quotient is
If you want to show an isomorphism involving the quotient, chances are you use the first iso.
Wanna prove the chinese remainder theorem? Use first iso.
Wanna prove that R/Z is isomorphic to the group of unit norm complex numbers? Use first iso.
Wanna prove the other iso theorems? You use first iso.
Wanna summarize undergrad algebra? First iso.
50% of my algebra homework was "the splitting field is normal because it's a splitting field per proposition X and separable because it's over Q which has characteristic per proposition Y"
https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/4725795/proof-of-the-double-centraliser-theorem-in-lorenzs-algebra-ii
I've put my question about similarity of algebras on MSE, if anyone wants to take a look. If you don't feel like dealing with it or are not familiar with the topic, consider at least upvoting so that the question gets some exposure.
I just think nobody here can actually answer this soz boss
I am surprised, you guys can handle Hodge theory and parabolic induction and whatnot, but not a simple question on noncommutative algebra?
In any case, drop a brother an upvote, maybe someone on MSE can answer this.
well some people can, I cannot
lololololol
Dang, my appeal to ego bait did not work.
I removed my ego via several controlled psychic blasts
it's cause non commutative algebra doesnt exist
Rebuttal: 2x2 matrices.
But what about quaternions and omg, did you know you can use them in graphics engines
???
damn okay you changed my mind
e^{i\pi}+1=0 is the most beautiful thing in the world, subscribe to my math blog.
i think you mean e^{i tau/2} + 1 = 0
this is everything!!!
im so confused i have no idea where to start for number 1 or any for that matter
like
would i just map sqrt(2) to itself since it's already in the field
idk where to start
oh nvm
i just have to permute the generating set in a way that preserves the elements of F
How I can show that "for every d | n, there exists exactly one subgroup with order d" implies that G is cyclic where G is a group of order n?
I am new to abstract algebra
If you know the Euler totient function $\varphi$ and its property $\sum_{d\mid n}\varphi(d)=n$, you can show it that way.
leave_no_norm
^^^ that's the only proof I know
Consider an arbitrary element g ∈ G. g has order d, where d is some divisor of n. Therefore g generates a cyclic subgroup of order d, which has ϕ(d) generators. Since there is a unique subgroup of order d, there can be at most ϕ(d) elements of order d in G, for any divisor d of n. Since as written above, the sum of ϕ(d) over all divisors of an integer n is equal to n, it is trivial to proceed from there and prove that the group must be cyclic.
Also uh if you want more of a link like
The identity on the sum of phi(d) can be computed just by counting the number of elements of each order in Z/nZ
So actually you can rephrase the proof as saying that the number of elements of given order in G is no greater than the number of elements in the cyclic group of the same size
Hence all the numbers must agree
And so G is cyclic
It is a common enough result to be used as a theorem.
Oh ok. Thanks!
Funny, the only proof I know of the aforementioned identity is using the fact every cyclic group has exactly one subgroup for each number dividing its order
Oh wait
My bad
I misread the question
I thought it was asking for G cyclic not to provr that G is cyclic
Btw, there's a nice proof of this using the sylow theorems
Why there are at most phi(d) elements of order d in G? Isn't the number of elements with order d exactly phi(d), if d | n?
||It follows that G is a direct product of its sylow subgroups and that those subgroups are cyclic, then you use CRT||
No, d | n does not, in general, imply that there are exactly ϕ(d) elements of order d in G.
nice
sylow theorems
not possible
In fact, there need not be elements of order d in a finite group for all divisors d of the group order.
y r u booing me I'm right
I think they mean that if g is of order d, then the subgroup it generates should have exactly phi(d) elements of order d
Which is true
They asked 'in G', which was the label given to the whole group in their question.
I guess, but I do think that's what they were getting at
why is an extension mapping sqrt(3) to -sqrt(3), alpha 1 to alpha 3 and i to i valid? idk if my algebra's wrong or not but under that correspondence alpha 2 was not sent to a conjugate of x^3 - 2
Under that correspondence alpha2 is fixed (mapped to itself)
hm I must’ve fucked up on calculations then
I’ll check again
Thanks!
can any canellative monoid be extended to a group
what do you mean with "extended to"?
is there always an invertible supermonoid
im thinking by adding inverses to elements that dont have them
and adding elements as necessary to make composition closed
in the way that the naturals are extended to the integers
turning the monoid into a group under addition
is that generally possible?
Consider the submonoid {0, 1} of Z under multiplication. Imagine it embeds into a monoid M with inverses. Let v be the inverse of zero in this monoid M. Then 1 = v * 0 = v * 0 * 0 = 1 * 0 = 0.
Oh, ok. You want cancellative monoids.
I believe so, yes. I think you can construct something similar to the field of fractions for a ring, though I would have to check the details.
Unfortunately this gets complicated due to non-commutativity, but at least for commutative monoids this most certainly works.
if it's a commutative monoid this is the Grothendieck completion/group
if it's not then I'd take the free group on each element of the monoid then quotient out by whatever relators are in the monoid
I think I have a less brute-force approach. Take the free (monoid) product M \ast (M^op), where M^op is the opposite monoid, and quotient by relations that make the terms in the second copy inverses of the things in the first. This preserves noncommutativity and ought to still contain M. Details, as ever, must be checked.
This should satisfy the obvious universal property, i.e. making cancellative monoids a reflective subcat of groups
anybody know what remarks Dummit is referring to and/or can directly explain corollary 33?
meantime guess ill just reread 15.2 to try to find said remarks
The remark is the thing about radical of ideals in integraj extensions. In the middle of your second picture with R and S and I
i just read the wiki definition and i smell a universal property
is there a good category theory definition for that?
there is a universal property, any monoid homomorphism from M to an abelian group factors through it's grothendieck completion
ty
wew ladz
Apearantly this is not the case https://link.springer.com/content/pdf/10.1007/BF01571659.pdf
Hint: the action of G on itself is transitive. That is, for any g, g' in G there is an h in G such that hg = g'.
The example is the free monoid on a, b, c, d, x, y, u, v modulo the relation ax=by, cx=dy, au=bv
spamakin
fixed @chilly ocean
I feel like this doesn't make sense, spam
is a_g, a_hg meant to be the coefficient? If so, why does it change index? It shouldn't.
You can simply say that ZG has a basis {v_g | g in G} and the action of G is h . v_g = v_(hg)
You don't actually need to mention the coefficients at all – you only need to define the action on the basis
Yes we require linearity to hold. We call it "extending linearly"
The action of G is defined by extending the formula h . v_g = v_(hg) linearly
I feel I always see the change of coeff in notation
that's the only reason I did it
Yeah, but it should be h . (ag) = a(hg)
I don't understand why you changed the name of the coefficient
For the avoidance of doubt I gave a more explicit basis.
fair
The coefficients do not change.
They are carried along with where the basis element goes.
No.
You've contradicted yourself there
You say that there is only one element in the invariant!
namely \sum_{g \in G} g
But then you say it forms a ring. What gives?
Right. In particular, it consists of \sum_{g \in G) zg, for some fixed integer z. These are exactly the invariants.
Indeed, but if G is infinite then ZG is not a unital ring, so we have some issues anyway. way wrong!
I don't know what you mean by that
The action of G on ZG is not actually an action on a ring (G doesn't act by ring homomorphisms), so it's a bit weird to look for the invariant ring. In this case it happens to be closed under multiplication, but doesn't contain 1.
ZG is always a unital ring. The unit in the group is the unit in the ring
True, it's the invariant Z-module rather. Good catch.
Oh you're right. I was confusing it with a quiver algebra. Sorry putlica!
the 1 in question:
you are right in the more general context of category algebras over non-finite (small?) categories though
over Z[G]? good luck
Yeah the covariant module here is just Z
What’s the kernel of the map given by multiplying by two
and 0, right?
And what’s the image of the same map
Yup! So we have the kernel of the map is equal to the image of the map
Can you see why the sequence is exact now?
Exactly
Is that your definition of exact or do we actually need to compute the homology groups 
based
Uhhh hold on let me draw the triangles in my head
Oh is this just a regular homotopy or a chain homotopy (I know they’re the same on some abstract level but shush)
I also mainly focus on finite group reps, welcome to da club
Can perfect char p fields be classified in any reasonable way? I know that in char p perfect \iff Frobenius surjective, but that doesn't really say much.
I like Rotman's treatment
does anybody know what this notation represents? i tried looking in the earlier parts of the book but i couldn't find anything
in Advanced Modern Algebra
I'm pretty sure he also has a homological algebra text tho
that's kind of meaningless, because then it doesn't have any algebraic extensions (so it's vacuously perfect)
It's just the notation Kx, the 1-dimensional subspace generated by the vector x in the K-vector space V. In this particular case the vector space is C^n and the vector x is e_1+...+e_n.
All of the finite ones are, but that's trivial
I know, I was looking for something more encompassing
ohhh ok thanks
yup
Lang has a statement that if a field is perfect every algebraic extension is separable and perfect
oh so just the subspace generated by e1 + e2 + ... + en over the complex numbers
that's basically a rewording of the definition (one i use is "every algebraic extension is separable")
wait i forget my lin alg that's just the eigenspace spanned by (1, 1, ... 1) right
no i'm just working through a text over the summer
thought it seemed interesting
oh damn
yea looks like just some algebra and a good knowledge of lin alg
So you want something beyond the fields contained in an algebraic closure?
Of F_p
I'm learning them on the fly in an REU 💀
undergrad wasn't taught
grad algebra class assumed we already learned it
Texas State University
just apply to a ton
how was the application process for you
here they're super fucking competitive lol
I'll DM you something
ok thx
Research Experience for Undergraduates
basically the NSF funds undergraduate summer research programs
where you can go to a different university to your home one, do research, get a small stipend and such
so I'm doing some group classification stuff
I would absolutely be the wrong person to ask lol
sorry
it is not easy
I know like some basic definitions and that's it
we talked about it for like a under a week
could just ask in this channel lol
also that
thats more of a #point-set-topology i think
what 0 map are you referring to
but what space are you talking about
in Z_4?
can you send the exact question
how are you defining a homotopy?
Im pretty sure it means chain homotopic
Like show that f-g\neq dh+hd where f ,g:Z/4Z->Z/4Z are zero map and identity respectively and h is some map called the chain homotopy
The way I would show this is that you let g be the zero map and f be identity
So then we suppose that f-g=dh+hd
And say x is some point in Z/4Z
Then x=2h(x)+h(2x)
||We use the fact that h is homomorphic and get 2h(x)=h(x)+h(x)=h(2x)||
@chilly ocean can you go from here?
Woo
Our choice of x was an arbitrary point though?
So this seems like it contradicts that there exists a chain homotopy
Where are you getting the exercises from?
Oh cool
I think i could explain how this definition of homotopy connects to the one you see in topology
Yeah dont worry I dont care
I dont remember
I dont know if we use simplicial complexes to show the connection either
No the connection/analogy between chain homotopic and homotopy in topologies
“The name "homotopy" comes from the fact that homotopic maps of topological spaces induce homotopic (in the above sense) maps of singular chains.” Says wikipedia with no sources
🫵
i can undersatnd 0 of this proof
like
i understood the proof of
0 --> A --> B --> C exact gives 0 --> Hom(D,A) -_.... exact
i have no idea why this is any different from the proof
and i think the statement that A-->B-->C-->0 exact gives 0-->Hom(D,A) -->. is false
Oh nice you play league
yea
Let G be a group and U, V finite dimensional vector spaces acted upon by representations of G. I'm interested in the ring of G-equivariant polynomial maps U -> V: I think there's an argument where you can use Hilbert's finiteness theorem to argue that the ring of G-invariant maps U -> R is finitely generated, from which you can argue that these G-equivariant maps are also finitely generated. But Hilbert's finiteness theorem only holds for certain groups, and I'm unsure how constructive either of these proofs are.
Say I want to get my hands dirty and start computing the bases for the ring of G-equivariant polynomial maps: anyone have any recommendations on resources that might discuss this, and for what types of groups its possible? Some groups I'm interested range from things as simple as the symmetric group to (the group of permutations + rescalings in each components of n-vectors), SL(n, C), or groups as "bad" as SL(n, Z)
Have you tested any examples?
yea i willa fter i finish this game
i just have to figure out how Hom(Z_n,Z) looks like
which is easy
but anyways
the proof is whats bugging er
me
I dont know if thats the best example
For homomorphisms generators of domain map to generators of subgroups of codomain
Its kind of what first isomorphism theorem says
yea i see that
To elaborate the projection map pi depends on what the kernel of our homomorphism phi is. Kernels are always subgroups. Pi always maps generators in G to its representatives in the quotient group. In a way this tells us that homomorphisms are uniquely determined by how they send their generators
So Z/nZ->Z maybe not the best choice since there arent many places to send your generator(1) such that the image is a subgroup/subring
.
Which part
I think you are trying to prove that A --> B --> C --> 0 exact => Hom(A, D) <-- Hom(B, D) <-- Hom(C, D) <-- 0 is exact
Cause Hom(_,D) is contravariant
This statement is in fact false as that implies that D is a projective module
no
or yeah
yea thas what i want to do
i cant understand the ker is a subset of the img part
Ok, let f be in the kernel of theta (p) hat, then fp = 0
That means that f[Im(p)] = f[Ker(Z)]. Then there exists a map, a in Hom(C, D), where a(x) = f(z^(-1)(x)). a is well defined as if y, y' are in the pre-image of x under z, i.e. z^(-1)(x), then y = y' + c such that z(c) = 0 hence f(c) is 0.
Furthermore zhat a(x) = f(z^(-1)z(x)) = f(x)
Hence for every f in the kernel of that hat, there exists an a in Hom(C,D) such that zhat(a) = f
suppose a^4 = a for every a in a field K. i want to find the characteristic of K. obviously we have a^2 + a + 1 = 0 for every a in K - {0,1}. maybe a hint for what's next would help
replace a with something nice ||-a|| 
(or yea just plug a = -1 lmao)
y not ||a=1||
Plugging in various integers for a, is a good hint in general
We obtained a^2 + a + 1 = 0 only for a \notin {0, 1}
you get 1 = -1 if you put it in a^4 = a. 2 = 0
oh okay! misread
this is nice, it means if a^n = a for any even n, then the characteristic of K is 2. gotta see what happens for odd n
For K the field with two elements a^n = a for every n. But there can be other fields for some n
yup
yeah I was careless
(i thought you meant plugging a = 1 in a^4 = a
)
If you want more hints:
||If it's true for K it's true in the prime field, so enough to consider fields of prime order||
||What does Fermat's little theorem tell you about when a^n = a mod p?||
||I think you need a slightly stronger fact than simply Fermat's little theorem to prove what you're suggesting. Specifically, you need the presence of an element of order p-1.||
||fermats little at least gets you for which characteristics it is true. Then you need primitive roots for which it isnt true||
Well no, I don't think it does automatically. ||A typical element of F_p has order much less than p-1, so without more information we cannot say p-1 | n-1.||
I guess a shortcut is, ||if you know a^4-a is 0 for all a in K, then the field has at most 4 elements. Then just brute force through all the fields with <= 4 elements lol||
Yeah I had the same thought Mero, but I guess the ||element-of-order-(p-1) approach is stronger||
yeah
||Fermat tells you that a^p-1 = 1, thus if n = k(p-1)+1, it works in characteristic p. This doesn't tell you that it won't work in other characteristics. Then you need primitive roots||
Right, this is a sufficient condition on n, but we have not proven necessity yet. Fair enough.
I think here's a bit more preciseness while skipping brute force ||look for double roots with the derivative 4a^3-1. If it's got 2 or 4 elements, we see that -1 is nonzero so there are no double roots. If it's got 3 elements, then it's a^3-1=0 for all elements by fermat, but that's not possible, so we're done||
|| why is everything censored ||
To prevent the government from tracking us
The two proofs should be almost exactly the same, so it's weird you would understand one and not the other. Any particular step you're confused about?
are u sure?
the first one when proving Ker(phi bar) subset of img( other map bar ) uses the fact that it has an ivnerse
restricting the monomorphiusm to its img
the other seems to use first iso
@rocky cloak
Yeah, so the use of the first isomorphism theorem is the only difference, right? Is that the step you don't understand?
$C \cong B/ker\zeta$
jagr2808
Because $\zeta$ is surjective
jagr2808
We have an exact sequence $A \to B \to C \to 0$
jagr2808
The first map is called $\theta$, the second $\zeta$
jagr2808
okay
now he wants to prove ker( zeta bar ) is the same as im ( theta bar )
right?
walk trhough it with me please
Say f is a function B -> D
oh hi moldilocks, long time
We want to prove that the kernel is contained in the image, so if $f\theta = 0$, we must show that there is a map $g\colon C -> D$ such that $f = g\zeta$
jagr2808
The fact that $f\theta = 0$, means that f of the image of theta is 0.
jagr2808
But the image of theta is the kernel of zeta
Thus f factors as $B \to B/ker\zeta \to D$
jagr2808
how
Say $f = \hat f \pi$ where $\hat f(b + ker\zeta) = f(b)$
jagr2808
Hullo
This is well defined because $f(ker\zeta)=0$, and is the defining feature of a quotient
jagr2808
From there you just use the isomorphism between $B/ker\zeta$ and $C$, which your picture calls $\varphi$
jagr2808
Then $\varphi\pi = \zeta$ so $\hat f \varphi^{-1}$ is the map you want
jagr2808
yea
i got it now
or
just 1 thing
how did u go from image of theta is 0 to B --> B/ker
Image of theta equals the kernel of zeta
By exactness
So B/imtheta = B/kerzeta @void cosmos
Indeed
by first iso
yea got it
tysm man
also one more question
when proving the reverse implication
why cant i choose D = R
( the whole ring as an R-module
and then iget it for free
cuz Hom_R(R,A) is just A
f --> f(1)
If you're considering Hom(D, -) you can choose D=R. Here we're looking at Hom(-, D), so D=R would give you Hom(A, R) which is not that helpful
Np
cracked at the craft
does a similar result hold for general left/right exact functors or is Hom a special little snowflake
isnt this stating excatness
I think if the sequence is split exact stuff works
left
the forward direction is yeah
Oh and the functor is additive
Ye it's not true for general left or right exact functors
I didn't think it would be but it's worth a shot
The zero functor is exact but it also takes non-exact sequences to exact ones
very good point 

whats the 0 functor
but yeah I meant when both ways hold
yea
Derived functors in a world where functors are exact
also just to double check, additive functors are ones that commute with coproducts right
wew why is this sad
it's sad for the derived functors
I am an empath moldi
I have telepathically moulded my consciousness into that of a derived functor
Commute with finite biproducts
Yes
oh so direct sums in all of the categories that matter

No Tor, no Ext
Good.
Damn
I don't enjoy it
No employment for homological algebraists
no proofs no good problems no nothing
I enjoy it
no intuition
I go to Galois theory
I don't know how you enjoy that either
I would enjoy it more if the universal coefficient theorem were H(X; A) = H(X) tensor A
My birthday is 25/10/some year
so true
I understand the left/right exactness functor nonsense because I have to for my research
Why are you doxxing me
Wait, fellow reincarnation of Galois?
which is a problem because I have to for my research 
or will do very soon - Mackey functors may start being a thing I have to worry about
but like
its just some rigged shit l;ike everything is defined for some thing to work and thats it
yup that's how maths is 
😠
I was giving a presentation on why Tor is iso to tor, in a book club and that was the dryest math I have ever done.
I do not find homological algebra fun
need my moist maths
In general math makes me moist
Homologicalgebra is the best left as an exercise subject
True
yea
the proofs are literally sarcasm
like its not even trickery
What does that even mean
💀
I don't know but I agree with him
the vibes align
Based
there are details when u have to prove this is well defined or this is an acutal homomorphism
Lang section 4 homological algebra, make Lang section 4
Yeah that's because you are doing homie alg before cat theory 💀
im not doing it man 😦 i have a grad algebra exam
and its only 1 section
in hungerford
you WHAT
homie
Are you doing it after homology?
you should do category theory before AT as well
Isn't homological algebra motivated by homology?
it is
i think it is
I don't know as I haven't done homology
agree to disagree
Agreed.
same
it requires imaging things
Last time we did that we got 0=1
imagining *
it requires imagining continous maps of continous maps of continous maps of con-
Bro what's stopping you from imagining RP^3
brohomology of the nth configuration space
$C^{C^{C^\ddots}}$
like they define map by "okay so we lift this cylinder and then attach to it a carbon fiber body then engine ..
\ddots you fool
like they define it visually
lmfao
and then give u an exercise to actually define it
and its the worst shit ever
post-rigour
parrottea
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for more information.
(You may edit your message to recompile.)
Don't tell me you aren't using the lifting properties of fibrations and cofibrations to define those maps 
pranked
preimages for nerds
I'll dddots you
Lmao parrotty on his own character arc
so like fibers?
Nice
anyways the only good application of algebra is ANT so im learning that after i finish this test
Nah it's a more complicated thing but makes a lot of existence arguments for maps easier
ty again for helping me with the proof
computed that one as an exercise lol
can u define them here or does it take 200 years of math learning
the cohomo of the configuration space of C^n
to just understnd the definitoin
Sullying this lol
The only good application of abstract nonsense is more abstract nonsense that has a really low floor?
Ah ok
Why C^n and not R^n lol but fair
FUCK R
I guess even is easier actually iirc
R is better than C
Lol
get yooo frobenius shcur indicator outta my faceee
Well more interesting than C
yeah you can actually go around things in C
Ye
biggest mistake of my life
i thought ant was a lot of field theory
it's just a bunch of comm alg disguised as fields
Actually yeah cohomology of config spaces of R^n is tricky enough bruh
yea hahah
Don't you need to use a fibration sequence
it's a LOT of field theory
no clue
p: E → B is a (hurewicz) fibration is given any commutative square of the form
X → E
↓ ↓
X x I → B
there exists a map X x I → E making everything commute
Damn commie algebra influencing our fields
for C^n you just tensor a bunch of shit together using the meyers-something sequences
iirc
meyer vietoris?
it was a while back and tbh I'm not even sure I did it right
hm
So you get the existence of such a diagonal map without having to explicitly construct it
yur, think so
Just use flat modules, problem solved
yeah bro it's all fun and games when you think you just work with number fields but then the fucking ring of integers shows up and ruins everything

like you do it inductively by partitioning the space into a neighbourhood containing just one missing point and then the rest
I think
Lol
category theory
Algebra is concrete enough often
I am not looking forward to the part of Galois theory that says fields are nice and all but let's use a PID
using cute amth
Oh lol
this reminded me I need to read more Weibel
faithful functor th o the caetorgry of stdyreiufjegliref
Lol
PIDs are basically fields
Yesterday I nearly had an aneurysm when he started talking abt why homology doesn't commute with arbitrary colimits 
structure theorem for modules over a ring is equivalent to everything being free because I don't have to think about it
yeah good one buddy
Maybe I need to make a thread so that I can be bullied into working this summe
Hm
Come to Australia, it's winter here
algebraically closed PID
ID's are contained in a field, and are also basically fields
Oh okay lol
I thought you meant homology of spaces and was tryna think of an example there
Sure
But it commutes with filtered colims
which is better than anything you could expect
yeah
But I never strain my pasta
So who cares
For R-modules
Are there any nice examples where homology of chain complex doesn't commute w colimits
Probably smth boring
Probably try pushout
Speaking of spectral sequences, I haven't done any topology, is doing an undergrad research project on spectral sequences a bad idea?
No it is not
you can do it purely algebraically but I think the topological perspective is interesting
Spectral sequences very cool and mostly algebraic anyway
McCleary has a good book covering the topological side of them in depth
There are toppy applications
Also I need to read The K-BOOK
Thx
I wanna start talking like a K theorist
I recommend John Rognes's book on spectral sequences
He is a topologist though
So there is some top
Cokernel doesn't commute with homology, but you get the long exact sequence which is almost like commuting I guess
Awesome thanks for that example
What is exp(2pi i)?
1!
well, the definition of an injection is one where f(x)=f(y) implies x=y, so can you find some distinct x,y s.t. f(x)=f(y)?
i.e. can you break the definition with this function?
then you have a minimum counterexample of two valid x and y that both have the same image, therefore it cannot be a bijection
so basically i can use this simple definition?
cause i remember my professor doing some long ass work every time there was to prove injectivity
like showing that Ker(phi) != {0} in my case
they're equivalent
a homomorphism phi is injective if and only if ker(phi) \neq 0
should be equal?
that is the definition as far as I'm aware. Most definitions are extremely simple, but have far reaching implications. Depending how your professor wants you to do it, you may have to show more work, but fundamentally all you have to do to "prove" that it isn't bijective is to find a counterexample if one is readily at hand. Sometimes that's harder to find than some structural argument, but when possible it's sufficient.
it's like the definition of a logarithm: f(x) is a logarithm iff f(xy)=f(x)+f(y) for all x,y > 0. With that (and the notational convention that f_a(a)=1) you can derive all the other properties of logs
Thus is very useful for showing that something is injective. But doesnt make a big difference when showing something isn't
i thought that was gonna fall under the "proof by example" thing ngl 😭
my professor is extremely pedantic
proof by example isn't a thing
homology doesn't commute with arbitrary direct sums in general, he has a correction in the errata
proof by minimum counterexample is a valid proof, and is closely related to proof by contradiction.
i.e. "if it's of form X it should behave like X, but here it behaves like Y which isn't X"
stinky!
Who wants to live in a world where sums and products are not exact
algebraic geometers
iirc categories of sheaves do not have AB4 generally
I might be wrong tho
this one should be fine right?
Damn, those wacky geometers
yea sheaves don't have AB4 but they have the dual property
wait sorry no
they have AB4 but not AB4* I think
something like that
it doesn't have AB4* which is the dual property tho
generally
slightly different groups but the idea to prove surjectivity was to show that e^a = 0 has no solutions
surjectivity is wrong because 0 isn't in R^\times
OK what are the AB referring to?
so I can find a list of all of them
grothendieck axioms
you could have chosen like, 2, instead of 0
thanks!
because there are no integers n such that e^n = 2
for abelian categories
righttt
(or just used the fact that |R| > |Z|)
In mathematics, an abelian category is a category in which morphisms and objects can be added and in which kernels and cokernels exist and have desirable properties. The motivating prototypical example of an abelian category is the category of abelian groups, Ab. The theory originated in an effort to unify several cohomology theories by Alexande...
they originated from the tohoku paper
it's also in weibel
in the appendix iirc
I hope it's clear why 0 isn't in (R, *, 1)?
obviously yh actually i think the example the professor gave us was wrong cause she always put R* to denote that its R - {0}
yeah I agree with you, it should be (R*, *, 1)
not with that attitude (the correct one)
oh yh this is cool
Cantor theorem consequence?
yeah - you know the map can't be an isomorphism because isomorphisms are bijections
it's good that you tried to show it explicitly though
yo
any injective R-module is divisible right?
only the other way around
does it need R to be a PID
right
i have a proof :3
it definitely holds if R is a PID
yea
meanwhile I'm over here trying to show the hard way that the rotations of a cube are isomorphic to S4
not sure if it's an if and only if
I can do the assignment by hand because it's only 24 elements
then why are there two different words
What does divisible mean if R is not a domain?
we claim that for all y in A , r in R there exists x in A such that nx = y. proof: let y in A and r in r and consider f: (r) --> A identified by sending r to y ( f(r) =y ). then by injectivity this is extended to the whole ring, and we can then let x = f(1) and see that rf(1) = f(r) = y
^ GOOD?
oh are you just wanting to prove it for PIDs
I don't know I haven't read it yet
there's gotta be an easier way than writing down all 24 ordered pairs for this mapping. What am I missing in the structure of a cube's vertex pairs that makes it analogous to the arbitrary permutations of four objects?
mostly rhetorical
||the funny diagonals||
You're using that (r) is free
You say define f(r) = y
yea
Which might not be a homomorphisms
Z/4 is self injective for example
Z/4 is Z/4-injective but not divisible?
wait a second... I know rubik's cubes. You can generate all orientations of the cube through a series of x and y rotations... That means that the rotation group of a cube has two generators. Therefore I should, in theory, be able to present s4 as a set of two generators and equivalent commutation relations.
but why tho
(r) is just {nr | n in R}
f(nr) = ny
like what breaks
what if nr is zero but ny isn't, or the other way around
it's gotta have something to do with that
yeah so you split it up f(n)f(r) I see what you mean, but what if n isn't in (r)
Look at Z/4: is there a homomorphisms from (2) -> Z/4 mapping 2 to 1?
we claim that for all y in A , r in R there exists x in A such that nx = y. proof: let r in R and consider f: (r) --> A identified by sending r to y ( f(r) =y ). then by injectivity this is extended to the whole ring, and we can then let x = f(1) and see that rf(1) = f(r) for ANY f(r) in A.
^ this assumes surjectivity doesnt it
Surjectivity is not a problem, it's that you're assuming such an f exists
no
i forgot
to delete
forget sending r to y
the thing is i can just toy with images of f
as my own y
or wait
yea nvm
is there a counterexample for an injective yet not divisible
Z/4
okay i can see why its not divisible but im sorta new with injectivity
why is this injective
probably because for every x and y, having the same image implies the same preimage.
what
ohh ur joking
and question
in the theorem of like an injective R-module is equivalent to its a direct sum of a module B of which its a submodule
is this submodule like up to isomorphism
like Z/6 is Z/3 + Z/2
those arent submodules 😄
right
is this the theorem that injectivity of M is equivalent to 0 -> M -> N -> N' -> 0 spliting?
well take N' = M
So to check if Q is injective it is actually enough to check whether any map I -> Q can be extended to R -> Q, where I is an ideal
there will be at least two copies of M inside N then
For R=Z/4 there is only one ideal to check
you mean 3 ig but yeah
it's trivial for the other two
Well, you don't need to check 0 and R
yea
just (2)
i think
cooll
ur probably chat gpt
or something @rocky cloak
ur too good
calling them chat gpt is a massive insult

I will take it as a compliment nonetheless
you're deluded if you ever thought that ngl
it's a language model
😠
can someone give a counter example
like
A --> B --> C --> 0 exact implies Hom(D,A) -> Hom(D,B)-->Hom(D,C) --> 0 exact?
for all R-modules D
Let R be the integers and let A=B=Z and C=Z/2. Choose D=Z/2
Z - x2 -> Z -> Z/2Z -> 0
the map Z->Z is multiplication by 2
ok so I've managed to show that the rotations of a cube can be written as <x,y | x^4=y^4=1, x^2y=y^-1x^2> (I think. There are other possible relations that hold but I'm not entirely sure if they are necessary). I've also shown that the assignment f(x)=(1 2 3 4), f(y)=(1 3 2 4) defines a homomorphism, which says that the group generated by these two permutations are a subgroup of S4. Is it sufficient now to say that since the cardinality of S4 and of the rotations of a cube are the same, that this must be an isomorphism? I could show that all assignments are unique, but since I'm already showing a mapping between generators, can't I say that the cube rotations are isomorphic to the subgroup, which then must span the group S4 because of cardinality?
there's one thing that is never clear to me. If i'm asked to prove that something is a group, what are exactly the steps to follow?
show that every element of the group has an inverse?
check that it satifies all of the properties of a group
that's it?
what else could there be
define a group
if you have a clear definition, you simply check if all properties in that definition are met
it's like "how do I prove that something is a square?" well, the definition of a square is a quadrilateral with all congruent sides and all congruent angles. That's three conditions. If it meets all conditions, it's a square, otherwise, it isn't.
(1234), (1324) can be shown to generate S4
I'm sure it can.
I wouldn't know the name of such a test, I'm just building what I can from what I have lol
where you extend a set map from a set into a group into a group homomorphism by showing the substituting the images of the appropriate things in the set into the relators results in the identity
but it sounds like this will be true from how you've constructed your presentation
so yeah it works
an algebraic structure (a triplet) composed by a set, an operation and a neutral element. the operation must be associative and the former must be a closure.
so usually what i do is prove that e is the neutral element and that the operation is a closure.
"must be a closure"?
also, a group is a triplet of a set, an operation, and a neutral element
here's the actual statement
in the way my text has described it, we have four properties here, one of which I'm not sure of in this description:
a group is a pairing of a set and an operation such that the following hold:
0. (often assumed) the operation is associative over the set; for all a,b,c in the set, a(bc)=(ab)c
- the set is closed under the operation; i.e. for any x and y in the set, x*y is also in the set
- there is an identity; i.e. there exists an element e such that for any element a in the set, ea=ae=a
- every element has an inverse; for all x in the set, there exists some x^-1 such that xx^-1=x^-1x=e
if you can prove that all four of these properties hold, then your set-op pairing (or set-op-identity triplet) is a group. Otherwise, it isn't.
a thing is a thing if it satifies the definition of a thing
trying to find the most abstract, convoluted way to say that but the joke is lost
a vector is an element of a vector space
But a more general version would be "a thing is an X if it satisfies all properties that are shared by all Xs"
a square is a trapezoid if for all squares, they agree with being trapezoids (hot take, they are)
but that's an elementary geo argument, not abstract algebra
a _ is an object that transforms like a _
assumed 1, here the only thing I'm missing is the second point right?
wait
wrong pic
wait, I thought for sure I set associativity as property 0. Curse non-zero indices.
if we being pedantic id have to show that A x identity = identity x A = identitity
i only did it one way
but yea
for most well understood objects like matrices I tend to just lean on "the identity matrix exists" since I already took linear algebra but then I don't have a prof to answer to
lucky, that aint my case 
if you can show that the matrix multiplication results in a commutative structure on a per-element basis, you can skip some of the right/left distinction
things like how a(1/a)+0=(1/a)a+0 for the two matrix multiplications
but what if I wanted to show that for each vertex pair in a cube there was an associated face pair in an octahedron with the same threefold symmetry as the vertices? dangit why must this be a problem for abstract algebra to solve rather than showing a geometric isomorphism? lol
(yes this is actually saying the same thing, just using geometric language instead)
yeah, that's what it means for the shapes to be dual
so label the octahedron in this way corresponding to however you've labelled the cube
I know how it works lol, it's just funny to me that this is asking you to show it through the algebra side and then linking it with the geometry, rather than leaving it open for someone to use the geometric understanding to justify the isomorphism.
one of my favorite demonstrations is literally the dual inscription construction, where you place the dual inside the form such that the vertices intersect the faces at their respective centroids
My Elements of Algebra book finally showed up and I'm reading about quadratic closures of fields
Is there an example of a finite field other than F2 that is quadratically closed?
It seems like a prime field Fp can only be quadratically closed if p is one more than a square, like 257. Because if p=a^2+1, then a^2 = -1 and if the lower ("positive") half all have square roots then sqrt(-k) = a*sqrt(k). But GF(257) doesnt have e.g sqrt(3), and the bigger the field the less likely it seems that all x^2 - yp = z has solutions for all 1<z<p, though I'm not sure how I'd prove it
Still mulling over prime powers
Am I way off base here
So you're looking in the wrong place a little.
Notice that squaring is a group homomorphism from F^* to F^*. What is the kernel, can it be surjective?
It's possible for -1 to have a square root mod p, when if p is not 1 more than a square. 5^2 = -1 mod 13 for example
so essentially the external weak direct product of a family of groups is the set of all tuples that have at least one identity element in any of its components?
no
ALL of the elements except a finite number need to be the identity
basically you don't allow infinite 'products'
ohh ok that makes sense thanks
I feel like I need a hint abt how to attack this problem
my first idea was to maybe extract some SES form the resolution we're given and apply the Tor long exact sequence but I don't think that pheasible
that middle multiplication map is sorta weird to me
hm could I maybe calculate the homologies of the resolution 0-> rR -> R -> R -> 0?
Elements of R that are annihilated by r
Same for rB
i.e. here our choice of r is that it's a zero divisor
So if you just take a projective resolution of _rR, you can tag it on to get a resolution of R/r. Then tensoring with B and taking homology will immediately give you the second part. And I think if you just carefully write down what the kernels and images becomes you should get the first part, but I haven't checked
New idea:
Since every R-module has a projective resolution i can probably extend the identity of R/rR to a morphism of resolutions and do something with that
Hmmm will try that
ok isn't this just the start of the les on the ses 0-> R/_rR -> R -> R/rR -> 0 or am i being dumb
yeah no im being dumb
I checked and it works
Remember the two different ways to compute homology, and that tensoring is right exact
so i'm a little stuck on this question. i let sigma: F --> F be the identity isomorphism, and extended it to an isomorphism tau: Ebar onto a subfield of Fbar. i guess my trouble is showing that the image of Ebar is iequal to Fbar, and what i tried doing is considering the inverse: tau^-1: tau[Ebar] --> Ebar, and deduced that tau[Ebar] = Ebar so that tau is onto Ebar and thus Fbar. don't know if that logic works or not (tau is still an isomorphism regardless)
Sorry what do you mean two?
I just know the ker/im way?
You also have the dual way, i.e. the kernel of the induced map from the cokernel
Also here
Do you mean like take a projective resolution of rR and then replace rR in the exact sequence with the sequence of projectives?
Hm interesting
So for A-f->B-g->C the homology at B is the kernel of the map cok f -> C
Yes
Ah interesting
I don't think I've heard that before (or that Weibel mentioned it)
Tho it makes sense
I think you need it to prove the LES in homology, unless maybe you just do some horrible diagram chase
any ideas?
So you have tau^- : tau[Ebar] -> Ebar. Then you extend that to tau^- : Fbar -> Ebar, and that's it right?
can somebody help me understand why q(x) divides irr(alpha_i, F)?
irr(a_i,F) can be considered as a polynomial over F(a_1,...,a_i-1), wherein it is a polynomial with root a_i
the result follows from the defn of the minimal polynomial
yup
np
now im tryna see why that implies that alpha_i is a zero of q(x) of multiplicity 1 lol
oh
alpha_i separable over F implies that irr(alpha_i, F) has all zeros of multiplicity 1
i have a question
why do you have a santa hat on if it's not christmas
also yes, exactly
fascinating
why is f(x) in F[x] if they gave the factorization in Fbar (one of the alpha_i need not be in F right)
how do you find the 3rd derivative of this?
wrong channel?




