#groups-rings-fields
1 messages Ā· Page 122 of 1
I ended up in it in high school because I wanted to avoid linear algebra. Turned out I needed linear algebra anyways
linear algebra is some of the nicest maths there is
idk, it was fun, not widely supported enough to be useful though
If I ever get into game design / 3d modeling I might try it again
ya I'm a Unity developer and linear algebra is 95% of the math I use
I think the idea is you replace the lin alg with PGA formulas
and afaik it is pretty clean
but the problem is most lin alg has well-optimized algorithms due to its heavy use
PGA doesn't
wdym by this, out of curiosity? I know tensors as "multidimensional arrays", where 1d tensors are vectors and 2d are matrices
but not much more than that
so if you think of a matrix ring, you can obviously take products, like A,B -> AB
in a tensor product of two vector spaces, you can take "products" but it's not an element of the same type, it's literally an "abstract product" of the two things, like v, w -> v \tensor w
they don't need to be vector spaces! which is the cool part, they just have to be in modules
Ah so like the symbolic addition 1+i in C, you're not actually evaluating that
and you have nice properties like a(v tensor w) = (av) tensor w = v tensor (aw) and stuff
yeah exactly, basically any sort of algebraic structure you want to "multiply" you can do so, but it's not a real multiplication, it's almost just a symbol for "v times w"
but then like I mentioned before, if you want to impose relations on that multiplication, you take a quotient
lol don't worry too much about it, there are much more intuitive ways of understanding tensors, but really it's like "a symbol for a product"
yeah like factoring multilinear maps through it to get a linear one and stuff
I don't know if this applies, but could you give a construction of say, R_2x2 from tensors?
of 2x2 matrices
sure, a matrix over a vector space(?) is an element of V \otimes V* where V* is the dual space
now let me remember why
oh yeah
dual is set of functions V -> K where K is the underlying field, yes?
Yeah
I forgot how it goes... fuck
In the case of vectors they would just be... sideways vectors
I think you have to view it as blinears factoring into linears
which isn't useful for intuition
@south patrol do you remember lol
V* (x) W is iso to End(V,W) by sending f tensor w -> ( v -> f(v)w)
It is fairly clearly injective and hence an isomorphism by dimension reasons
god damn it that's what I was typing
"f : VxV* -> V given by f(x, g) = g(Tx), which is now a linear map" or something along those lines
That is true
I found this, but it kinda makes it seem like all matrices here would be linearly dependent
That's for a specific construction of tensor prod ig
yeah that's using the fact that, for vector spaces U, V (or free modules) with bases B_U, B_V, the basis of the tensor product V tensor U is {v tensor u : v \in B_V, U \in B_U}
But like for a simple example V = W = R^2, then (a, b) tensor (c, d) = [[ac, bc], [ad, bd]]?
Not sure what you mean by that
I think this is right, yeah
in general the resulting matrix x \otimes f = M would be of the form M_{ij} = f_j(e_i)
Great, me neither :)
Yeah that's what I ended up with, just seems odd that these are all linearly dependent
why are they linearly dependent
N = 2M are clearly two linearly dependant matrices
Sorry, the rows/columns are linearly dependent
I don't think so
Like [[1, 2], [3, 4]] couldn't be written as a tensor product
but [[1, 1], [2, 2]] could
(1, 1) tensor (1, 2)
oh yeah duh
they're sums of elementary tensors
not all tensors are of the form x tensor y
those are just the basis elements
Ah, okay
that makes sense
So R_{2x2} = span(R^2 tensor R^2)
For a certain definition of span
if you mean taking R linear combinations then yeah
why is the codomain GL_n(C)? inputting g spits out a composition of linear maps, not matrices
or am i tripping
what do you think a matrix is
well a linear transformation isn't explicitly a matrix
if so then the notion of the set of all linear maps from V to W being isomorphic to the set of all m x n matrices would be useless
fine lol
GL(V) is the group of invertible linear maps anyway
you're not given a basis with which to define matrices explicitly
but here, we are
line 3 2nd paragraph
oh nevermind I just got the context
this is like the one time you do actually give a shit
of course it is
Lol
No so like the point here is that we are choosing a basis, using that to identify V with C^n for some n
Then under that correspondence, a map into GL(V) corresponds to a map into GL_n(C)
ohh that makes more sense thank you
Oh okay I see
Well do I, one sec lol
Technically they are still abusing stuff a bit by identifying GL(C^n) with GL_n(C)
š¤«
But that can be done canonically anyway
yea that was what prolly fucked me up
Like basically this is saying like
Take a basis of V and send g to the matrix of Ļ(g) with respect to that basis
That is the key takeaway anyway lol
Is this correctly formulated?
Yeah this looks good
Is there any nice expression for the characteristic of the ring W(A) of p-typical Witt vectors? If p is invertible in A then this is easy (same as A) but otherwise I'm unsure
I conjecture that if A has char p then W(A) has characteristic 0 from what I've seen though
Eh okay if A has characteristic p then we know that p.ais non-zero in W(A) if a is, so characteristic isn't a power of p, and further if n.1 = 0 in W(A) then n.1 = 0 in A (by considering the map W(A) -> A^N) and these two constrain W(A) to be characteristic 0 I think in that case
I think you can make this a bit simpler though? Like considering
the projection maps and factoring through ought to allow you more easily to use the induction hypothesis
Like the important thing being that the isomorphism R1 \simeq S1 you have isn't just a random iso, but actually inducd by the isomorphism of products
Yup
Is my argument similar enough to what you'd give?
Lol was reading Bourbaki and couldn't find this actually stated
I wonder what the non char p case is like tbh hm
essentially yes. There's a universal property that Witt vectors satisfy which is that they are the universal deformation from char p to char 0 with a lift of Frobenius
if p is invertible in R then W(R)=R^N
That's what I meant by this aha
I mean cases where perhaps A has p nonzero but not invertible
ahh hmm
yeah I mean generally speaking this case doesn't really come up
the main use of Witt vectors is to deform from char p to char 0
Is there a characteristization of all rings that contain a subring that is a field?
Or some weaker results like necessary or sufficient conditions for a ring to contain a field as a subring.
F_1 
What's F_1?
Please don't tell me this is some 'field with one element' nonsense
if it's char p you can look at the prime subfield
or just the prime subfield in general, no char restriction
If there is a subfield, there is a prime subfield
Right, but my question is about whether any subfield exists at all.
does your ring have 1
You check whether there is a prime subfield, which is easier
Ok I didn't realise it would be easier. Why is this the case? Thanks.
Not necessarily.
Ok, but for rings with unity it is, right?
Ye
So how is checking for a prime subfield easier?
Then you just have to check whether all the non-zero integers are invertible or not
So you have a concrete set of elements to check
non-zero integers?
Elements of the form 1+...+1 and their inverses
Ah. I didn't know those were called integers in rings. Thanks
Where subfield is assumed to be a unital subfield i.e. must have the same 1
Right
So in a ring with unity, if all non-zero integers are invertible, then the ring contains a subfield?
Yes, the integers and their inverses will generate a prime subfield
Hmm, right.
wait but what field is inside e.g. Z
it has char 0
Prime subfields also include Q, in case that is the confusion
That is the smallest char 0 field and is contained uniquely in any char 0 field
they were asking for fields contained in rings, not fields though
Ye so you check whether the ring contains a prime field
Hi, people..
I have a doubt here...please resolve
Q.} Why is the bilinear form being non-degenerate,makes the map injective......see the last proposition please
If y =/= 0 then B'_y =/= 0
In other words, the kernel of the map y |-> B'_y... is {0}.
Does that solve it for you?
Yeah if kernel is trivial the map is injective.....
Thank you thank you bro/sis very much,i see it now
I want to show that if V is an infinite-dimensional vector space over a division ring D, then End_D(V) is not a left artinian ring, does this work:
Since V is not finite-dimensional there is a countable set of independent vectors {x_n}. Take V_0=0, V_1=span(x_1), V_2=span(x_1,x_2) and so on. Define I_n as the set of endomorphisms whose kernel contains V_n. These are left ideals of End_D(V) and form a descending chain End_D(V)=I_0\supset I_1\supset\cdots. The inclusions are proper: for any n take the projector p onto Dx_n+1, then p(x_1)=\cdots=p(x_n)=0, but p(x_n+1)\neq0, so p\in I_n, but p\notin I_n+1. Thus the chain never stabilises and End_D(V) is not a left artinian ring.
sounds logical but I haven't checked the details
one thing is End becomes an infinite dimensional vs over D so can't be noetherian as D module
the question was about artinianness
but are D-subspaces of End_D(V) and left ideals equivalent? i'm not sure
You want artinian as D module or as ring?
i meant as a ring, should've specified that perhaps
They arenāt equivalent, my argument is as D module
but my argument works for rings, right
Yes
Here's something else you can try as well, try to show the ring is not Noetherian and that'll show it's not Artinian as all Artinian rings are Noetherian.
Is there any step of the argument you're unsure about, or are you just doing a sanity check?
Seems like a perfectly good argument to me.
I have to show that the map from the HNN extension A * (phi_1, C , phi_2) with A = stab(alpha(e)) [starting vertix] and C = stab(e) for a specific edge e and phi_1 = id and phi_2 (c)= s^-1 c s into G, which acts without inversion on a tree, is injective.
Someone familiar with their Bass-Serre theory/Cayley graphs etc. have some tips?
sanity check
Another sanity check (tensor products of vector spaces, U\otimes T meant to embed naturally into V\otimes W).
IF YOU NEED HELP WITH ASSIGNMENTS HIT MY DM
This might be splitting hairs, but shouldn't this be an isomorphism, strictly-speaking?
Yeah
,, = = \iso
so true illum
Not true 
Let em cook
halp
im stuck on showing that every integral domain that is artinian is a field
need hint
lost
Let x be a nonzero element. Consider the ideal generated by x. What's a natural chain you could build with this
OK so what does that tell us
We know that <x^n> = <x^{n+1}> eventually
So can we turn that into a statement about elements in the ring now?
Remember in a commutative ring R, the ideal <x> is equal to xR.
C'mon okeyokey my children are starving!!!!!!!!!!
go feed your kids lol i'm too slow to get it instantly
don't starve the children
starving children is bad
i wrote a^nr = a^n+1
cmon i got this
they're picky eaters! They will only eat solutions to this problem !!!!!
OK try the other way. We already know there is an element r such that x^n r = x^n+1, namely r=x, so this tells us nothing.
š§æšš§æ they're so hungry, okey
okeyokay
implies an = 1

Let's gooooooo
My children eat well tonight š
glad to know i'm responsible for that
See that wasn't so bad eh
true true but let's be honest you did most of the heavy lifting
Your name is weird to say in a sentence so I'm going to call you keyo
because I decided to
Also no
:(
sounds like K.O.
O.K.
if R is a division ring but not a field and A is a R-module, is there any reason why we refer to A as a vector space?
because i thought vector spaces are always over fields
i'm being picky but just curious
Yeah honestly I would never call it a vector space personally
But fwiw, they have bases just as vector spaces do
I.e. every R-module is free if R is a division ring
That makes them resemble vector spaces way more than they resemble modules so seems like a fair name
hm ok i see
pikachupikachu
nah bro's trying to seem COOL
-1 
-1
If you interpret N as a monoid under multiplication š¤ then the group of units is just {1}
so either way
Fucked up to write N^\times
i still like it tho
$\mathbb{N} = {1, 2, 3, \dots}$
bladewood
š
0 in N
0 in N
If you don't stop sharing opinions on 0 I will be forced to algebrapost
wouldn't it hurt your feelings if i write "f abstract algebra" in my about me too
so...
Algechillpost?
0 in N
blocked
low quality channel
#adv-algebra when
Repeat after me: #groups-rings-fields is not #chill
Or #1100503863586455632 I guess
Iām posting this in both #groups-rings-fields and #elementary-number-theory as my question relates to both.
does anyone know of a short pdf document (or perhaps an appendix of some book) that sums up all the number theory āfactsā (theorems and definitions) needed for algebra? Preferably it should include proofs, but Iād be fine with accepting many āobviousā statements without proof like the division algorithm and whatnot.
The two algebra textbooks Iāve used (Dummit and Foote and T.W. Hungerford abstract algebra) has like a chapter in the beginning cover everything you might need to know
But also try not to double post as it is against the rules
I am going through Aluffi and he seems to assume a lot of number theory background in the exercises (and doesnāt have an appendix on it or anything of the sort). I can do most of the exercises, but I struggle when it comes to ones that involve number theory in a direct way
thanks, will check them out
What sort of exercises? It might be helpful if you could post one here
The only number theory you need to learn abstract algebra is to understand what divisibility is, what prime factorization is, and how the division algorithm works tbh
I don't recall really knowing any number theory before starting abstract algebra
(And I still don't!)
Lol I learnt that stuff in the context of algebra basically
Idk why you'd need it in algebra usually
Hm
1.14 is an exercise I just went back to (from months ago, currently Iām at chapter 3) after having stumbled upon Bezoutās identity, and now I have been finally able to solve it. I constantly feel Iām missing little facts from number theory and what Iām operating with is not enough.
Lagrange's theorem for the first one, classifying finite groups for the second one, learning about Euclidean domains or something for the third one
Oh that's true, Bezout's identity is kind of useful
But it's just a result of the Euclidean algorithm
Which you should know
Then it seems you should read an intro book on number theory
tbh I donāt find number theory all that interesting so I donāt want to do that haha⦠i just want to gather an arsenal of number theory facts
BƩzout and the CRT are probably the most useful results in elementary number theory in application to basic algebra
^
So I guess read up on those.
Yeah I don't think you need a ton of number theory apart from that
Maybe if you read it you'd find it interesting
I hope it doesn't disappoint you, but a LOT of abstract algebra is just number theory
Lagrange doesn't need number theory right lol
PIDs, Euclidean domains, and whatnot, right? Iām planning on skipping these parts of Aluffi as well
No I just said to understand what divisibility is
Lol
sort of just wanna get into the exciting linear algebra and hom algebra at the end
Yeah this is a funny thing to say
you terrify me
Hom alg is fun
You might as well have said that you don't plan on doing much commutative algebra
commutative algebra requires number theory?
other way round mostly lol
It certainly helps lmao
i mostly found drawing commutative diagrams and thinking of ways to stick them together fun
defining things like pullback and whatnot
thatās why Iām reading aluffi
i donāt suppose Iāll need that much number theory for that sort of thing
i could just skip these exercises (the body of the text doesnāt have much number theory in it) but then Iād feel a bit guilty, so I guess Iām going to look at the sources you guys recommended. Thanks!
why is this true? i think its something related to group theory and polynomials that i forgot . m is non-negative integer here
i mean the 0 part, not the 1 part
If you multiply by e^{2*pi*i*m/d}, then the sum remains the same, right?
And certainly this multiplier is not equal to 1
Therefore, the sum must be zero, since only zero remains the same after multiplication by a number other than 1.
wow i thoguht it had something to do with something being a root of 1+x+...+x^{d-1}
uhuhuhhhhh sure that works too
Yeah that does work
But I think my way is more swag.
yeah yours is more swag and i dont even see how to do the approach i mentioned
Well I mean e^{whatever/d} is a dth root of unity right
and if d doesn't divide m, then it's not 1
so it must satisfy the polynomial you mention. Donezo!
oh right you factor x^d - 1
Uh-huh
but this is cool i feel like i learned a new trick š
Tbh this is something I have been using a whole lot in my own research
Bc I am summing a lot of roots of unity
so this is my instinct immediately
sums of roots of unity gang
gang
Representation theory
Me when I compute a FrobeniusāSchur indicator after doing approximately 16 billion sums
"Wow it was 1 nice"
Actually this happens to generalise lol
Well
It generalises a whole lot. It's really wonderful.
Well you can view this as like
Oh wait nvm lol
the (mb/d) is weird lol
Actually like why is the b there lol
Is that a typo? otherwise we can take b = d and break it lol
what are you researching
So for example this could be seen as the inner product of a certain character of Z/dZ with itself
groump... .theory... :D fsrepresentaion.........s
If I didn't know better I'd tell you I research tedious calculations
iSnT tHaT a sOlVeD fiELd
Well ok let me tell you more exactly.
I mean my way of thinking of it was like let C_d act on R^2 by multiplication by e^{2pi i m / d} and this is computing the # of occurneces of the trivial rep in that lol
My supervisor wants me to verify a conjecture for a handful of finite groups. Nice ones.
Yeah I was gonna say
which ig is exactly what you meant right
Uh-huh
can't you automate that using a computer program
I was gonna say as well that it links to the nice theorem that uh
Yeah I just didn't mean to say "with itself" that was way off
No, it's an infinite handful. And we would like to know why
if the average of n roots of unity is an algebraic integer then they're all the same or the sum is 0 lol
what is the conjecture
Well let me tell you
The McKay conjecture says that if we take a finite group G and a Sylow p-subgroup S, then the characters chi in Irr(N_G(S)) such that p does not divide chi(1) are in bijection with characters with the same property in Irr(G)
This is not the conjecture
what's Irr(...)?
Irreducible complex characters
ah
The McKayāIsaacsāNavarro conjecture says that the McKay conjecture holds, and furthermore this correspondence is equivariant with respect to the absolute Galois group of bar Q_p over Q_p
This is not the conjecture
The McKayāIsaacsāNavarroāTurull conjecture says that the McKayāIsaacsāNavarro conjecture holds, and furthermore the correspondence preserves the p-adic Schur indices of the characters.
equivariant?
g . f(x) = f(g . x).
ah
This is the conjecture that I'm looking at 
tbh this one looks like it could be a problem on a homework sheet lol
definitely sounds interesting
Some homology stuff?
Indeed
Cohomology but yes sure
potato otatop
powotato
Let K/F be a field extension and V a vector space over K.
What is the connection between the exterior powers Ī^k V over K and over F? Are there natural maps between them in either direction?
Actually, the same question for tensor powers.
But in that case IG the tensor product over K is a quotient of the tensor product over F (quotienting to force the tensor product of vectors to be K-linear).
Maybe the same is true here?
https://kconrad.math.uconn.edu/blurbs/linmultialg/extmodbaseextn.pdf
Almost supiciously convenient.
Hmm. If Ī^n V = 0, for V a module over a ring R, does that imply that V is spanned by some n elements?
Well no, because if we just take R to be a vector space field, it means that it is of dimension strictly less than n
But I don't know how it might turn out for a general ring immediately.
isn't Ī^2 Q = 0?
each (a/b)Ī(p/q) = apbq(1/bq)Ī(1/bq) = 0
Yees
(and Q is definitely not f.g.)

holy shit someone else has heard of the McKay conjecture
I'm forced to
it's like, where my research is heading
it's ok boytjie, because I lied
NOoooooo
I'm studying the modified version "The Alperin-McKay" conjecture
which is for fusion systems
well, associated more with fusion systems
it's the block version
Ah okay well I can only imagine that it's a strictly stronger statement
it's actually incredibly similar
Well Turull's version is cooler because Schur indices are there
and that's cool
so take that
Oh is that some Hopf algebra stuff?
how does this equality hold? wouldn't that imply that ni = nivi
no clue! I just like making the funny number bigger
I have obviously been sweating my arse off trying to use the FrobeniusāSchur indicator well
you literally take the g^2 in the schur indicator and turn it into a g^m for whatever m you please
Whassat do then
the m = 1 one case is especially useful, it's non-zero if and only if your representation is trivial!! How handy!!
They're using different delimiters: [] vs {}. It's unclear to me what the second one means, so you should go back and check the definition.
nvm
dunno lol I just like the concept
I knew that one, keep up
easy to miss
read it both as [] makes sense
so did I the first time
gracias
the zeroth schur indicator is the dimension of the rep 
My mind is being blown wew
But like ok
n=2, this is some sick stuff
what happens with n=3, what info do we get there
the negative first schur indicator is the dot product of the corresponding algebra idempotent with the vector (1,1,1...,1) \in Z^{|G|}
I've said I don't actually know what they've used for "n=3" times now
I just think it's a cool idea
:(
Shit did I just not read
No wait you made it look like you were replying to someone else >:( it's actually your fault now
perhaps this could be an avenue for you to peak down 
yeah I looked at this paper before
didn't qget a word of it
also I cna't VIEW IT
those colours................ these authors are psychopaths
found the preprint :epicwin:
:uponthewitnessing:
well well well
I LOVE WATER
Me too.
Isaacs' book doesn't cover Brauer characters, wow
I guess I'll have to look elsewhere
fusion systems in algebra and topology by Bobby fusions et. al covers them
it's a bit uhhh
inaccesable
though
Is this like, your bible or something
do u pray to it every night
Oh ok I respect that
I might go for just a regular ol' book on modular rep theory but idk maybe I'll dive into fusion systems
I don't know of any modular rep theory books lol ur on ur own
There's a couple of modular rep theorists at my uni so I'll just annoy them until they throw a book at me
(read: ask them nicely for recommendations)
how useful are totally inseparable extensions? fraleigh lists it as a chapter that is not used for the remainder of the text, and i'm tempted to skip to go straight to the expository section of galois theory š
Well uh not gonna lie I haven't heard of them
but
after looking up the definition
every finite field is a totally inseparable extension, so I guess it's helpful to know? Someone with more ken of Galois theory than I can feel free to comment.
ooh ok
I think maybe you misread the definition. Perfect fields have no inseparable extensions.
Different definition to the one that I saw then
In fact yeah, the one I was looking at was a "purely" inseparable extension, so in the first place something completely different.
No, that's the same thing
Perfect fields have no purely inseparable extensions (except the trivial extension)
So if E/F is a totally inseparable extension, then any the only automorphism of E fixing F is the identity. So if you wanna do Galois theory you have to deal with them somehow, or restrict yourself to separable extensions.
Luckily, most nice fields are perfect, e.g. finite fields or fields with characteristic 0. Which means all algebraic extensions are separable.
I hate to quote wikipedia, but perhaps the definition here is simply different to the one you have in mind: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Purely_inseparable_extension
In algebra, a purely inseparable extension of fields is an extension k ā K of fields of characteristic p > 0 such that every element of K is a root of an equation of the form xq = a, with q a power of p and a in k. Purely inseparable extensions are sometimes called radicial extensions, which should not be confused with the similar-sounding but m...
This is quite plainly defined exactly for fields of positive characteristic.
It seems to me that this simply means something different from extensions which are not separable.
Yes, everything you're saying here is correct. But finite fields don't have any inseparable extension, and therefore not any purely inseparable ones either
This goes perfectly well with Wikipedia
ok good to know than kyou
An extension is purely inseparable if every (nontrivial) element is inseparable. An extension is inseparable if at least one element is inseparable. This leads to the funny thing where the trivial extension is purely inseparable, but not inseparable.
Slight correction: there are inseparable elements whose irreducible polynomial has several roots.
Whereas for it to be purely inseparable it needs to have only a single root, so being purely inseparable is slightly stronger.
Yeah tau^-(tau(x)) = x, so it's onto
you should learn brauer groups instead
Make me, nerd
i'm still struggling to see how all of that implies that t[Fbar] = Fbar'
why are we talking about tau[F] and not tau[Fbar]
in their proof
or is that a typo
I want to show that for algebras "A left artinian, B finite-dimensional => A\otimes B left artinian", does this work: if n is the dimension of B, then A\otimes B\cong A^n as A-modules (if y_1,\dots,y_n is a basis of B, then every element of A\otimes B has a unique expression as \sum_ix_i\otimes y_i, map that to the tuple (x_i)_i), so A\otimes B is artinian as an A-module. A chain of left ideals of A\otimes B is in particular a chain of A-submodules (since a(x\otimes y) is the same as (a\otimes 1)(x\otimes y)), so the ring A\otimes B is left artinian.
Learning that now, it's a pain 
It is different yes, it means the separable closure of F inside of E is E again. Perfect is the same as saying you have no inseparable extensions (so no purely inseparable ones other than the trivial one), and is equivalent to being char 0 or having the Frobenius be surjective. This is evident for finite fields by the pigeonhole principle
How does similarity (isomorphic to matrix rings over the same division ring) imply Z(C)=Z(B)?
is there not a proof of this theorem directly below this
It doesn't explain how similarity implies the centres are equal.
ok just to double check, B^o is the opposite algebra right
Z(A) = K,
Z(Z_A(B^o otimes A)) = Z(Z_A(B^o) otimes Z_A(A)) = Z(Z_A(B^o) otimes K) = Z(Z_A(B^o)) = Z(B)
does this work
= is iso or equals I cba differentiating them
The center of a matrix ring is just that ring, embedded as diagonal matrices
No?
Or is this for noncomm stuff
Like Z(C) ā Z(M_n(A)) ā A ā Z(M_nā(A)) ā Z(B)
I dunno
we may never know
chmonkey we're not in ivory
understood sarge
Oh shit, I forgot A is central, now it works: Z(B^\circ\otimes A)=Z(B)\otimes K\cong Z(B) and similar algebras have isomorphic centres, so Z(C)\cong Z(B). However I still don't see why equality should hold
You are way too hung up on being pedantic about equality vs iso in my opinion, does this book not just use = for isomorphic
Or is it important that theyāre literally equal as sets for some reason
i don't know, hence me asking
Lemme think though my explanation again
I don't like calling isomorphic things equal unless e.g. they are literally the same subset of a set. You wouldn't write Q(\sqrt{3}{2})=Q(\omega\sqrt{3}{2}), now would you.
First and third = might be an iso
No I wouldnāt because I donāt work with field extensions
I would write Z/nZ = C_n though
I would too.
I feel like the distinction here is more tangible, though.
But theyāre not equal as sets :uponthewitnessing:
True, but here it's sort of irrelevant.
All the lines in R^2 are isomorphic, but not literally equal.
cba?
What I was wondering about just now: what if Z(B) happens to be central, does that make C central? We have K\subset Z(C)\cong K, does that necessarily mean Z(C)=K? Here knowing Z(C)=Z(B) might be helpful.
Although since K is contained in both centres and they're isomorphic I suppose it's enough for one to be equal to K (i expect the isomorphism preserves K).
Am I correct in understanding that if B\subset A are CSAs, then automatically A\cong B\otimes Z_A(B)?
Is this useful in any particular way (e.g. some kind of multipliactive property)?
Could someone look over this proof (I'm self studying and haven't had any algebra checked in a while, I just want to know if I'm not writing absolute baloney)
Also I apologise for the bad handwriting
Oh, I was rereading this and I noticed that I didn't state that I want to assign sigma_i, such that if j < i, sigma_i restricted to k_j is sigma_j
consider latexing it
Sure, tommorow
hey guys, a little help understanding what the question is asking about specifically? 10 is asking about actions of the symmetric group on a set of subsets, but the notation has left me confused about whether I'm supposed to be checking the faithfulness of the action for all members of the symmetric group, or only for the given ones; also about whether I'm checking for the k values of an arbitrarily large set A in this structure, or only the size 4 set. I can't tell if the subscript changing from A to n is meaningful here or just a typo.
I've already completed 8 and 9, so I have some idea of what I'm doing
I don't know what you mean "only for the given ones"
faithfullness of an action isn't dependant on the element doing the acting
idk, I'm just dumb. I'm more concerned about whether it's asking for the k values associated with an arbitrarily sized A, or if it's specifically the set given in 8.B
I think it's just the values of k
that doesn't help me much, because the values of k depend on the size of A
so I don't know if I'm checking a particular A or checking if it's something like "if A is a multiple of K then it's not faithful"
that sounds like what they're looking for, the values of k will probably depend on both |A| and n
I'm not sure what n is though, it appears nowhere else in the problem
I think I'll check for cases where (|A| k)=1. That seems like a reasonable guess.
Yes, top line
Golden phoenix spoilers don't read ||isn't part a just k < n?||
wait a sec... my gut is telling me that it's faithful on all sets with cardinality k<|A| because if it's always missing at least one element, then somewhere there has to be some set which gets an element replaced by the missing one.
unfortunately I need to make that notion slightly more rigorous
||yeah||
|| If k=n don't you just have the whole set, so every action is trivial?||
the ordered tuples will be slightly trickier but I think the order mattering makes it faithful throughout.
||yeah I realised that and fixed it
||
ok thinking done
Haha
no more thinking will be scheduled for today
Good thing today ends in 43 minutes
what wack ass timezone are you in
and you can live without thinking, politicians do it
bro's in kamchatka
Australia
got the latitude basically right :pack:
Don't you see my pfp
no, actually, hold on. I think that my reasoning is properly rigorous for part a. yeah, I submit that for all k<|A|, the action is faithful on B={b|b in P(A) and |b|=k}
Well I did tell you my time zone
Do you mean |b|=n?
I crashed through an entire ZFC set theory textbook, I gotta break out the proper notation at some point or else I'm not properly snooty
the real snooty thing would be writing 2^A instead of P(A)
but I understand the restraint in being overly snooty
Fuuuuu
well... that would be the right cardinality but not necessarily the right set from which to take subsets
I've double negatived myself for the k'th time today
especially considering that the set A here seems to be unit indexed instead of 0 indexed, which is a total noob move
irregardless, see if you can do part b
but regarding part B, since order matters, and all members of the symmetric group permute order (except the identity permutation), then it seems nearly trivial to assert that, even for the k=|A| case, it is faithful.
Part b reminds me of doubly transitive actions
how so
right, fairs
I suppose you could say that if S_n has some number of orbits on the set of subtuples of size k then it's k transitive on the set of size n elements
not a very useful construction (I can't remember the number)
I'll think about it later
it's k orbits lol
Is it just S_n or any group?
UwU
Cause I think S_n is n transitive on n elements.
Mathematics server try not to be a furry challenge, difficulty: impossible
uwu has transcended furries
But we have not
the server is owned by a furry
sometimes I miss the days when I could use a slide rule for my mathematics, because slide rules are cool. Then I remember that I teach math to students almost daily, so I still get to use numbers in my daily life.
With algebra you can miss those days no more, we've got counting galore
yeah S_n is definitely n-transtitive, but my idea is for any group
basically the orbit representatives are tuples where m for (0 <= m <= n, m \neq 1? lol) of the entires are the same
Nah m can be 1
m is 1 orbit corresponds to the thing you need to show for a k transitive action
And m = 0 is silly
tubuwu 
uwu
"one of the entires is the same" is equivalent to saying "there is an entry" and "zero of the entries are the same" is equivalent to saying "they're all different"
m = 1 is the silly one
true
I'm trying to understand maximal abelian extensions of (not necessarily finite) Galois extensions.
Let $L/K$ be Galois with group $G$.
First off, if $N\lhd G$ and $F=\operatorname{Fix}(N)$, then $F/K$ is Galois (it is enough to show it's normal and that's equivalent to $gF=F$ for all $g\in G$: if $x\in F$ is fixed and $n\in N$ is arbitrary, then $g^{-1}ng\in N$ and thus $gx=g(g^{-1}ng(x))=n(gx)$, thus all $n\in N$ fix $gx$ and $gx\in F$). The restriction $G\to\operatorname{Gal}(F/K)$ is surjective and $N$ is contained in the kernel (it might be larger than $N$), thus there is a surjective $G/N\to\operatorname{Gal}(F/K)$. In particular, if we take $N=[G,G]$, then there is a subfield $K^{ab}$ such that $K^{ab}/K$ is abelian with $G^{ab}\to\operatorname{Gal}(K^{ab}/K)$ surjective.
Next, if $L\supset E/K$ is Galois, then $\operatorname{Gal}(L/E)\lhd G$, and $G/\operatorname{Gal}(L/E)\cong\operatorname{Gal}(E/K)$ (the fixed field of $\operatorname{Gal}(L/E)$ is $E$, so the kernel is $\operatorname{Gal}(L/E)$). In particular, if $E/K$ is abelian, there is a surjective $G\to\operatorname{Gal}(E/K)$ and necessarily this descends to a surjective $G^{ab}\to\operatorname{Gal}(E/K)$ with kernel $\operatorname{Gal}(L/E)/[G,G]$.
So far, is this correct? Furthermore, I'm trying to understand the "meaning" of $K^{ab}/K$. Is this maximal in the sense that every abelian $E/K$ is contained in it or that there is no larger abelian extension containing it?
leave_no_norm
Anyone got a good reference on wtf central and wreath products are
like a text or something
wreath products are like little baby... wahhhh
oh cool now it makes sense /s
wdym little baby š
I mean idk I'm looking at the definition of wreath product in this paper and I understand the words but have 0 intuition for why people care about this
you have a group G acting on some set X
let H be some other group, then you can define an action of G on H^{|X|} via the action on X
this is the wreath product*
*the unrestricted wreath product, which you don't have to worry about if |X| is finite
the classical example is taking G wr S_n for some n
and the group action of S_n on {1, ..., n} obvs
the wreath product* would be G^n \ltimes S_n with S_n permuting copies of G in G^n
Question: "pairs of" =/= "ordered pairs of" correct? the rotational symmetry of an even polygon is much easier to describe if the ordering of the pairs doesn't matter. question for context.
xD
I mean, why not?
It probably means ordered pairs
the only real difference is that with unordered pairs, the kernel has an extra element in it because of the half-turn symmetry, but the notation for the description of transforming the ordered pairs is just so much more nasty
Think of it as referring to the line that connects two opposite vertices and you get the unordered action
This is actually a trick that comes up again when you look at the symmetries of the cube, which is why I think this is referring to unordered pairs.
without ordered pairs I can call that set P={p|p={x,k+x}} with x being a one-indexed version of Z mod k
what
what is that notation
shorthand cramming too much information into one line. That's what
Also no, in any case that's not the right set
it's not mod k, it's mod 2k
We require n = 2k
Just write P = { {x, x+k} | x in Z/2kZ } smh
oh my golly gosh
having it be mod 2k overspecifies
No it doesn't, it specifies it precisely!
if you're saying this is mod k means that {x, x+k} = {x}.
no
Unless you mean you are working mod 2k, but you only want 0 <= x < k, in which case yes
that would be if we were taking (x+k) mod k
geezah it's just {{x, y} : 0 < x < y < 2k} why are you overcompliacting this
Those not opposite tho wew
s'what the exercise says
TRUE mandela effekt so true
my notation aside, having unordered pairs means that {x, k+x}={k+x, x} which implies that the kernel includes r^k as well as just 1.
yeah I buy this
so I was just checking because I started with ordered pairs, then realized it didn't say ordered, so swapped my notion so I wouldn't have to do wonky shit describing how to write some extravagant transformation performed by s in the form (x, k+x)
I think the kernel with ordered pairs is trivial
me too, hence leaning towards the unordered exercise
cause it's gonna be a proper subgroup of the kernel with unordered pairs
and that is just <r^k> if I'm visualising a square correctly
I used an octagon because the previous exercise was writing out all the permutations on a square, so I wanted two concrete examples to work from, but yeah, it would be {1_D, r^k}
fairs
(haven't actually seen notation on how to write out kernels so I'm just bashing together a set of them)
sets are fine
UwU
weird thinking about dihedral groups of anything other than a 2^n-gon
like t^3 is central?? WTF??!?!
especially since the kernel is just the fiber over 1, which is itself a set (thanks, Enderton). iirc another name being the "pull-back?"
lol
what did you just say
which part? I said many things
all of it
why do you know any of those words
thinking about it, the pullback of fibres on sets might induce some sort of correspondence
- am I correct in my statement, or at least close?
- I did this same "do every exercise of a textbook in a new area" process previously with Elements of Set Theory by Enderton. It's what I do for fun. The term "pull-back" is the term my brother uses to describe fibers according to the textbook and class he took in abstract algebra. Whether this is just semantic trickery or is a genuine distinction is unknown to me.
what the fuck is this pedagogy bro
autodidactics
no the pull back is not another name for a fibre, it's a certain object in a category with a universal property
what happened to "preimage" dawg these kids growing up too fast
image/preimage terminology was always more confusing for me for no particular reason
lemme think about this
like, I know what it is, but it wasn't part of most of my lexicon during early math and I had other terminology to describe it, so it didn't have much place
the pullback of the diagram of sets A -> C <- B with f, g being the maps is the set {(a, b) : f(a) = g(b)}
ok yeah sure, so then you take the fibre of some c in C that's in the image of both functions and then this set is all of the (f^-1(c), g^-1(c)) so it is kind of like a product of fibres
but I would never ever use it to describe the fibres themselves
dunno. I'm just trying to navigate competing notations and nomenclatures between the texts I'm using and the ones other people use, and my brother is my primary point of contact for that lol.
you're not at a uni I'm guessing
The pullback is also called the fiber product though. Since the fiber of the pullback is the product of the fibers. Also the pullback along a subset is the primage, so the pullback along a point is a fiber.
right, that makes sense
I would not use this in an intro group theory course that's covering group actions though
No, me neither
The pullback is also called the fiber product though.
I feel like I've heard this before and just forgort
I feel like a lot of topologists call it fiber product.
Not sure if thats true or just my prejudice
those guys smell a little funny though
it's ok as long as they call pushouts fibre coproducts
pushout (also called a fibered coproduct or fibered sum)
-Wikipedia
I like fibered sum
Though its not clear what this has to do with fibers anymore...
maybe it should be cofibered sum š
Cofibered coproducts
This is good and healthy
No, all self teaching above calc 2. I'll go back eventually but my uni is yanking my chain and stringing along my first degree (music composition) so I'm taking a break.
yooo music gang
I'll need to talk to my brother about his use of words when I see him next.
He might have just been using cat theory words because he was in cat theory at the time and cognitive bleedthrough
Matrix ring over left artinian ring is left artinian, right?
I think it holds in general that finitely generated algebras over left/right artinian rings are left/right Artinian
could be finitely presented
go with yes what could possibly go awry :pack:
honestly i often say "pulling back into ..." to talk about preimages
similarly to how someone might say contracting into
having full knowledge it's not the pullback im talking about
pull:pack:
it's just a terminology that makes sense imo
it does
you saw nothing
I just don't like the possible confusion it could cause later on
yeah ofc
but then again maybe it doesn't cause confusion at all and is instead a good way to think about the pullback intuitively
"the object where you can 'pull back' through two functions at the same time" kinda deal
i mean for my case i use the two uses of the word completely disjointly
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/HopkinsāLevitzki_theorem tl;dr yeah, if R is artinian and M is a left R module then artinian <=> noetherian <=> finitely generated <=> has a composition series
In abstract algebra, in particular ring theory, the AkizukiāHopkinsāLevitzki theorem connects the descending chain condition and ascending chain condition in modules over semiprimary rings. A ring R (with 1) is called semiprimary if R/J(R) is semisimple and J(R) is a nilpotent ideal, where J(R) denotes the Jacobson radical. The theorem states ...
I was just thinking about this again, I think we can claim equality. We already have a ring isomorphism Z(C)\cong Z(B) (as centres of similar rings), and this can be handwaved to an isomorphism of K-algebras (it's kind of tedious, but I checked, and I'm pretty sure that's correct), so they have equally finite dimensions (B is finite-dimensional), but Z(B)\subset Z(C), so literal equality follows.
if H and K are subgroups of a group G and K is normal in G, what's the canonical inclusion map again from H --> HK
is it just h \mapsto hk for a fixed k in K
bro
Well that wouldn't be a homomorphism
When we say an inclusion map, typically we mean a map that restricts to the identity
So............
h |-> h.
Suppose I want a longer/more project-y question on abstract algebra (I donāt particularly mind wrt sub area), how would I find such a question/questions?
(For reference, my knowledge is roughly āaverage just-graduated Western European studentā)
Are you asking for an open research question?
It may be good to find a researcher and ask them for a question
Because they can give you context, reading material, suggest approaches, etc.
I literally just came back to explain why I canāt really - give me a few seconds
You should be more specific about your question.
I have an interesting open abstract algebra problem if you want
(specifically a finite group theory problem)
Dogpiling me while Iām still trying to write is just going to slow down answers (and itās not like this is not pretty stressful for me as is)
bruh lmfao
And the answer to this is basically the same as above, brain gets very stressed when emailing/communicating with when itās not āsupposedā to
And āsupposed toā has no concrete definition
Itās just whatever my brain says
Googling "Open group theory problems" should come up with some decent results
The algebra section here is decent https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_unsolved_problems_in_mathematics
Many mathematical problems have been stated but not yet solved. These problems come from many areas of mathematics, such as theoretical physics, computer science, algebra, analysis, combinatorics, algebraic, differential, discrete and Euclidean geometries, graph theory, group theory, model theory, number theory, set theory, Ramsey theory, dynami...
In my experience the hard part is understanding the context well enough to feel motivated to try to solve it
You will need to consult current research in detail in order to make any kind of progress in these problems. This will involve at the very least reading papers, and likely making contacts with experts in the field.
Unfortunately mathematics is very collaborative, it may be possible to work on problems without regular communication with other people but I certainly wouldn't want to try
Basically because the rate of knowledge that can be transferred through direct communication is much faster than can be learned through just text
However some of these are like
"this question has been open for 3 decades"
only 3 
Here's one I like: https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/4295186/which-pairs-of-groups-are-quotients-of-some-group-by-isomorphic-subgroups
it's going to be a product of infinite copies of a gorup isn't it
The question is, given two finite groups $P$ and $Q$, can we tell whether there is a finite group $G$ with isomorphic normal subgroups $N$ and $M$ such that $G/N \cong P$ and $G/M \cong Q$?
flopster0
What font is this? (Sorry to bother you)
Comfortaa
oh nevermind
You're welcome, I know it is a pleasing sight
It can be shown that P and Q must have composition series with isomorphic factors. This is necessary but probably not sufficient, although no one has been able to prove a counterexample
C12 and A4 seem to be not compatible, but we can't prove it
Are Z/6 and S3 compatible? Or do you have any interesting example of compatible ones
what does it mean for two groups to be compatible
Sorry, compatible means they satisfy the properties of P and Q above
I guess Z/3 x S3 will make Z/6 and S3 compatible
ie. They are quotients of a group by isomorphic subgroups
I believe Z/6 and S3 are compatible
It's a nice exercise to show that abelian groups are compatible
invoke le structure theorem I presume
It's a little more work than that I guess, but you should use the structure theorem yes
wtf is the structure theorem? I only know the ftofgmopids
yeah I don't expect it to follow immediately
Sorry, I mean that abelian groups of the same order are compatible
And yeah, structure theorem is the bulk of it really
well, it's not possible for two groups to be compatible if they're different orders
so I presumed
The classification of finite(ly generated) abelian groups.
I think also that $P$ and $Q$ are compatible if they have an isomorphic subgroup $K$ such that $P/K \cong Q/K$?
flopster0
you didn't get the joke
cause the joke was shite
No sorry, still don't get it
And I think it can be shown that P and Q are compatible if they are central extensions of compatible abelian groups by isomorphic groups
funny long abbreviation of "fundemental theorem of finitely generated modules over principle ideal domains"
lemme think about this
I lied I'm gonna think about split central extenstions instead
Ie. $0 \to A \to P \to K \to 0$ and $0 \to B \to P \to K \to 0$, where $K$ is abelian, and $A$ and $B$ are compatible
flopster0
Ahh I typo'd
$0 \to A \to P \to K \to 0$ and $0 \to B \to Q \to K \to 0$, where $K$ is abelian, and $A$ and $B$ are compatible
flopster0
Ok I'm changing the font why did I do this
It basically comes down to constructing N, M, and G as tuples of elements of A, B, and K, and figuring out how conjugation etc. should work
It's kind of a pain really and I don't know how it would generalise
Nah I know the guy working on it but I never got around to checking with him whether my approach works
I'd love to see the proof of this if you've got a pdf lying around somewhere 
it's fine if not
I've got a picture of my whiteboard scribblings
I just hear the word "conjugation" and I move in for the kill
Lol it's more like conjugation is mostly trivial
well yeah it's a central extenstion lol
anyway thanks for giving me another rabbit hole to fall down
Ah shit the photo was on my old phone that drowned
Oh well, I'll have to write it again
I'll let you know if I get around to it
Wait somehow I have a backup???
Ignore the matrices on the left
Also I called the groups J and K in the image
Also a "witness" is the corresponding G for the compatible groups
Following up on this:
Are you looking for unsolved problems or just something that would be a fun project?
Do you have a more specific area in mind, since abstract algebra is pretty wide?
And it's not clear to me what an "average just-graduated western European student" knows
learn more stuff first, there is a lot of stuff between the basic abstract algebra you learn in courses and modern themes in research
learn some flavor of representation theory for instance, there are lots of things to do there
le wholesome maximal torus of GL_3 though
ah nvm there's 1s
E_8 got me like
Lol
anyway I'm guessing a "witness" is this subgroup dodad that you quotient by to get P,Q
Technically it's an A_2 building I think
nowt clue what's going on with the \bar{} geezers
Ye
I don't remember I think you can ignore those
they're like half the proof 
The bars I mean
Oh that's right it's because those are isomorphic as a set but I'm defining a different group action
So I wanted to write a different symbol to represent that
Yeah I convinced myself that they work but I haven't actually proved it
are the ones at the bottom independant of choice of representative?
Yes because representative are up to a choice of p and q, which commute
fair enough, I can't see anything else immediately wacky that might go awry
As you can see this really only works because of the central extension thingy
yeah you get all the nice commuting
If you relax that at all you have to deal with how elements should commute which gets really icky
here's one of my many random nonsense whiteboard pictures
giving back to the community and whatnot
Is that motion blur or is it reflecting off the back of the glass
both probably
too bad, two random spanish guys did that months ago
ok ok
they didn't plagiarise
they just scooped me
for all the lawyers in chat
Ahh it's always the random spanish guys
If A and B are similar CSAs (or Brauer equivalent or whatever you call it), are A\otimes C and B\otimes C similar for C simple artinian central? I know this works for C a CSA, but I'm not sure if finite-dimensionality can be dropped.
okay idk if i'm being dumb or if this is a non-standard definiion - if a (p,q) shuffle sends i -> 1, don't we necessarily have i = 1 or p+1?
Like i thought a (p,q) shuffle has Ļ(1) < ... < Ļ(p) and Ļ(p+1) < ... < Ļ(p+q)
so like, for example, consider Ļ_{24} - this sends 2 -> 1 and 4 -> 2, so where can it send 1 and 3?
I guess the only reasonable interpretation is that we do stuff cyclically
If K is a p-group, where every proper subgroup is contained in H, such that [K:H]=p, can we say that K is cyclic?
I think I got it
Hi guys!, I want to know why the condition of H being a closed subgroup
(I'm trying to define the induced linear representations for compact groups )
I think it could have to do with the fact that H being closed in necessary for G/H being Hausdorff, that could be one of the main reasons, it's common when dealing with quotients of topological groups do always work with closed subgroups
Hey I've latexed my response
looks good to me at least
Howdy, I reading a book on abstract algebra and I'm reading this table for z4 that shows its a group under addition but not under under multiplication. I noticed the table looks like a symmetric matrix. Also a subset of the multiplication table of z4 looks like it would be a group since it also looks symmetric...
Is this an incorrect thing I noticed?
The table is symmetric because both operations are commutative. It looks like a matrix because a matrix is a table.
You have observed that a + b = b + a and that ab = ba.
Being commutative is not enough to be a group, not even close. Many groups are not commutative.
We call groups that are commutative Abelian.
After the Norwegian lol, I live in norway
Indeed, after Niels Abel.
I'll name my next boy that
All the cool Norwegians have groups named after them. Abelian groups, Lie groups, Sylow subgroups
Do you want him to die young and empoverished like Abel 
So if a group is abelian, will its table be symmetric
Yes
26>21 at least
That's really pretty
Uh sure, I would call it boring but different strokes I guess
He is my son after all, born unlucky lol
It is true that a subset of Z/4 forms a group under multiplication. Specifically those elements that have a multiplicative inverse.
This is called the unit group, and can be defined for any ring (if you know that rings are)
Rings are fields?
Fields are rings
I just started reading the book yesterday
Contemporary abstract algebra
Has chegg solutions
So good for self learning I think
Er du dansk eller
Don't trust published solutions
Norge baby
Ah I see, er du norsk
Jupp
Kool, jeg kommer fra usa, men jeg har bodde I norge I 5 Ƅr
Discussion goes elsewhere, folks.
Jeg sente deg en melding
gallian has the instructors manual, lol
you can probably find it on certain websites
Whats the difference between chegg and the instructors Manuel?
It's on those website haha
The chegg seems to have some wrong answers lol
Ah okay i see, well I'll use the Manuel thank you š
But that's where the learning comes in
Well I know the chegg is wrong because my answers are right 
Are they as egregious as this?
I remember it being subtly wrong
Idk if that's better or worse
answers subtly wrong could actually be good pedagogically (?)
encourage you to really check your logic
Mmm or to stop cheating
If you fail the course you just gotta pay a bunch of money to retake it lmao
I'm having to do my thesis when the class is offered so I'm trying to learn now before so I just show up to the exam
And take it
Why would that be cheating
because you have an unfair advantage?
define cheating. What rules are being broken by teaching yourself? The notion that reading ahead, or learning a subject for oneself is somehow a bad thing stems from lazy teachers who can't be bothered to actually engage with the needs of students. There are a couple dangers to be aware of when engaging in autodidactics: you may end up learning unusual or incorrect methods to engage with material that are a result of the quirks of the material you learned from, or you may do things in a strange or suboptimal order for learning. These risks, however, are minimal compared to the actual understanding you'll get from honestly sitting down and teaching yourself. That's what I'm doing, and I have spaces like this to check my understanding and offset any eccentricities I may develop along the way.
It can also become a real bad habit. If you have the looming option of just getting cheap answers you often won't try hard enough on your own
bro actually wrote an essay
OH using a website for self study. misread that whole situation lol
don't worry, I can't read
Lowkey cringe to write more than 3 sentences
you need to bold the first letter to stop my adhd from distracting me
I respect he took the time to deliver a though and thoughtful idea.
*thorough
No, it is not unethical to teach yourself material in a class. In fact, self-directed learning can be a valuable and effective approach to education. Many individuals choose to supplement their classroom instruction with independent study to deepen their understanding of a subject or explore topics of personal interest.
Here are a few reasons why teaching yourself material in a class is not unethical:
-
Taking initiative: By teaching yourself, you are demonstrating a proactive attitude towards learning and taking ownership of your education. This level of initiative can lead to a more comprehensive understanding of the subject matter.
-
Personalized learning: Everyone has different learning styles and paces. Self-study allows you to tailor your learning experience to suit your individual needs and preferences. You can explore additional resources, set your own goals, and focus on areas where you need more practice or clarification.
-
Supplementing classroom instruction: Classroom teaching is often designed to provide a general understanding of a topic, but it may not cater to every student's specific needs. Teaching yourself can fill any gaps in your understanding, provide extra practice, or delve deeper into the subject matter.
-
Lifelong learning: Self-directed learning cultivates a sense of curiosity, critical thinking, and a passion for learning beyond the confines of a classroom. These qualities are highly valued in today's rapidly changing world and can contribute to personal growth and professional development.
While self-teaching can be beneficial, it's important to strike a balance. Engaging with your instructor and classmates, participating in discussions, and seeking clarification when needed can still be valuable in the learning process. Collaboration and interaction can enhance your understanding and provide different perspectives on the subject matter.
Oh I didnāt read the chegg part
I didn't read any part
I thought it was just about self studying
This reads just like how it feels to drive over speed bumps