#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 119 of 1
Now you can definitely say "she hopf on my fibration till I homotopy"
she would laugh and go "ok TT"
😂 ok TT
Try this out in sage and stare at it for a few minutes:
sage: R.<x,y>=QQ[]
sage: R.ideal(y^2+5*x+2)
Ideal (y^2 + 5*x + 2) of Multivariate Polynomial Ring in x, y over Rational Field
sage: i1=R.ideal(y^2+5*x+2)
sage: R.quotient(i1)
Quotient of Multivariate Polynomial Ring in x, y over Rational Field by the ideal (y^2 + 5*x + 2)
How do I do polys in F7 instead?
Suppose it had a root in R, what can you do with f?
reduce it.
Factor, but yeah
shhhh
It does not: linear polys are irred
Humpty is crazy
deg>=2???
Right, irr f of degree more than 1 would've been right
x-1 is irreducible in R[x] for any ring R
You can factor linear polynomials, but you just get an unit which doesn't is addressed in the definition
x...
Still, you may wanna convince yourself why it holds for deg > 1. Consider if r is a root the polynomial f(x+r), how can you express it?
Huh?
or in genera degree leq 3
why do we not rly care abt non unitary rings? or maybe in my course we didnt
Z/pqZ need not have zero divisors
It does for p q prime tho
who said that p and q need to be prime 
Every linear polynomial is irred, full stop
Context
Ah, one catch: I assume monicity
Polynomials of degree 3 or 2 are reducible iff they have a root in the field. Linear polynomials can't be proper products of polynomials of non-zero degree
ye
nvm
schupid
very easy to see
Degree counting time
Yeah, it inherits it's ring structure from Z. pqZ just isn't prime, so your factor ring won't be integral
yes but then (p+q)X + 1 linear but not irred
so for any ring with zero divisors we can have linear non irred polynomials?
Yeah, by repeating your construction.
2x - 2 is linear but not irred in Z[x], despite Z having no zero divisors
In a commutative ring, a zero divisor is an element that divides zero. That is, an element x for which there exists an element y such that xy=0.
yes true
Z/nZ has zero divisors if and only if n is composite
Does that clear things up, humpty?
monic would make evry linear irred
yeah
Oh I'm not familiar
yes as you mentioned, I see
A condition for the polynomial ax + b to be irreducible in R[x] is that for all y in R, if ay = b then y is a unit.
Or hold on
that's not right, but it's close. Give me a moment to think.
Yeah I think you can't really express it much better than a, b have no non-unit common divisors
In particular, you get that nx + 1 is irreducible in Z[x] for free
That's a necessary condition, but it is sufficient for unrestricted rings?
x+4 is equal to (2x+5)(3x+2) mod 6
so again then, no zero div has to hold
Yeah, I think not
That's also a beautiful example kerr
Zero divisors really screw things up
Yeah, integral + monic + linear= irreducible
Isn't it related to this? ax-b has a root r then ar=b, so a divides b. If a divides b, then there exists some t s.t. at=b, but then at-b=0.
Well, your mod 6 example beautifully showed that it isn't sufficient in general.
Yeah you right, force of habit to use illegal extra structure
It is sufficient in any integral domain, and I think that's pretty much as good as we can do
There may be some subtle rings in which there are elements not of the form a+b where a,b are zero divisors but...
it's hard
And before you ask, yes integral domains are exactly the rings R such that, in R[x], deg(fg) = deg(f) + deg(g)
(Hmm, is it even obvious that 2x+5 is not a unit in Z[x] mod 6?)
Well ok let's work through this
(yes, it's obvious, plug in x=2 and you get a zero divisor out).
ok nvm
I was hoping for some result that would bound the degree of an inverse
But the substitution trick is cool
I was ready to just see what happens if you multiply with an arbitrary element of deg n lol
It really is neat
me too
General results about the degree of an inverse won't cut it: We have (3x+1)(6x+1) = 1 modulo 9.
well my hope was that we could bound the search at least
Oh, I see.
So I mean I think your example is nice
Because the inverse is also degree 1
are there any degree-1 units in (Z/nZ)[x] whose inverses are not of degree 1?
Obviously they need to be at least degree 1 (and I hope you agree it is obvious)
What would the "general result" have been? Inverses always being linear sounds like the ideal general result here
If ax + b is a unit, then there exists y such that ay=0 and the leading coefficient of the inverse must be y.
ah, some such y.
well whatever, I'll think about this more later.
In (Z/p³Z)[x] we have (px+1)(p²x²-px+1) = 1.
so Hom(Z^n, Z) = Z^n?
So my bet is that it's bounded in some way by the power of p. For general n I don't know.
Yeah, but this is easy to see by the free-forgetful adjunction. Z^n is the free Abelian group of order n, so Hom(Z^n, Z) is in natural correspondence with Hom({1, ..., n}, Z).
Ah to be clear
that latter Hom is in Sets
You can think of it as just choosing where the generators go, freely.
Yeah that's right
yeah alright thanks
yeah
Forgot to say that this is great stuff. Did you just search with brute force?
For general n, we can just pick the highest power of a prime in n, and CRT everything to be 1·1=1 modulo other factors.
Right, that work too. You don't even have to appeal to freeness (at least not openly), any way you map 1 of each coordinate into Z will uniquely determine your homomorphism
great catch
Combination of brute force, guesswork followed by algebra, and inspired generalization. :-)
And I guess for $\bZ/p^n\bZ$ we have $(px + 1)\sum_{i=0}^{n-1}{(-1)^ip^ix^i} = 1$ right
Boytjie (never-to-be-glomed)
(-px)^i moment
Yeah. It definitely works, but I can't yet prove it's the highest degree that can be inverse of a linear poly.
Right so we have a lower bound at least
I think we can relate some kind of nilpotence index to the degree somehow
wtf is $\on{Spec} \bigoplus_{a \in \bZ^n} \bC \chi^a$ where $\chi^a$ is $T \to \bC^\times$ of the form $(t_1, \cdots, t_n) \mapsto t_1^{a_1} \cdots t_n^{a_n}$

Find the prime ideals looser
$T$ is any $(\bC^\times)^k$
What does C underscript thingy mean
where?
The thing you want to find the spectrum of
complex numbers...?
The X looking Greek latter with an a as an exponent
@tribal moss I think I've got it. We look at the inverse of $ax + 1$ in $R[[x]]$ which is in R[x] iff $a$ is nilpotent.
Boytjie (never-to-be-glomed)
chi? Lol
We can reduce to ax+1 because in general for ax+b to be a unit in R[x], b must be a unit in R.
definition is after the where
Cleaver….
yeah sure but what does the notation mean
it lives in the coordinate ring of T
Alge awww moment
Ban
nooooooo
Ban
that's a scary place
can't deny that
people are always very mean to me there because I always ask stupid questions
You do mean C[chi^a] though right
Your spectrum thingy has a topology on it. You shall be banished from here
no
seriously though, that channel is more likely to be able to understand + answer ur question
Then I do not care
If you’re not taking the C span then ur a nerd
I still am curious what A\chi^a actually means lol. Does it have a name?
I reckon it's the weight space of A via chi
You can split this into looking at the spectrum of each summand can’t you?
I can’t remember how they interact it’s been a few years
Ideals of direct sums are direct sums of ideals, so that works.
In fact I think this shows that we don't get anything like this mod 6
Nice :)
It’s not that simple I know that much
Hmm, and the power of a needed to get to 0 determines the degree of the inverse? I'll buy that.
Yeah it does, it's not too bad to see actually
You can derive the inverse of ax+1 in R[[x]] for any ring, and then this is just a special case
Yes, I see that. Right-to-left long division.
Now just to generalise this to degree-n polynomials...!
My bad, your right. Maybe spec is a nice enough functor to map products to coproducts?
Oh wait yeah Spec commutes with products contravariantly
It definitely maps products to coproducts but I don’t know if the dual has to be true
Probably is
Mate this is YOUR question
wtf is contravariantly supposed to mean in this context 
What it normally means
I know what a contravariant functor is
Uh... what kinda course are you taking
Maps whatever to cowhatever
Dude why
Contravariant functors seem like they deserve a passing mention lmao
A mod 6 solution would reduce to (linear)·(constant) = 1 modulo 2 and 3 separately, each of which is absurd.
what
How are you thinking about Spec then? Literally as the set of prime ideals?
but he just assumes us to know diff geo, category theory, and commutative algebra
those things are not alg 1
unless you've somehow gone through one of the most hellish alg 1 courses I've heard of
with le sheaf
Hm, what is the right way?
yeah well he also taught the alg 1 course that I took last semester and this is alg 2 

right now we're doing toric geometry
he has started leaving out all of the proofs
I assume because they are too difficult or even impossible with this little theory
Oh wait, now I see what you were saying. There are no nonzero nilpotents modulo 6.
there isn't really a right way in my experience, it depends on what you're doing
he needs to be fired
Yeah 
Your way is good too
Just wanna know what I might be missing out on :/
asking the wrong dude, I prefer the functor way though
what does it normally mean
I do too, did you just mean that spec is a contravariant functor at all?
I meant that yeah
and obviously a contravariant functor that commutes with products will send them to coproducts
that's what I meant
Yeah so, what you have to do is really easy. Show that spec is representable
ok spill the beans, what's the representing object
is it Z I bet it'll be Z
Idk, I just remember that was a criterion under which certain functors preserve limits/colimits. I am not even sure Spec is representable
.... banter
well it preserves limits/colimits because Hom does so that doesn't tell us much
Actually, what is the exact category Spec maps into here? Spec with it's usual structure sheaf stuff / affine scheme?
Truly a dark day today
Apparently it is that simple...
Is there a way to efficiently define these through more elementary concepts? E.g. how polynomial rings are examples of monoids rings.
Let R be the direct product of rings Ri. Products of prime ideals are prime. Conversely let P be any prime ideal , P isn't proper so it can't contain the i-th basis element of the finite direct product for some i. Since the product of the i-th basis element with the k-th ( i neq k) is zero and our ideal is prime, it must contain the k-th basis element. So P contains the direct product of all Rk and {0}. Projecting P to its i-th coordinates gives us a prime ideal Pi, so P is then the product of all Rk with k neq 1 and Pi
It also fails miserably in the infinite case
As in, spec(R) of an infinite direct sum can't be a disjoint union
apparently so....................
is there any way to check the irreducibility of this polynomial over R[x]?
what's the nice condition that's equivalent to irreducibility for small degrees
you already know what the roots are
Hopefully you also know that a polynomial cannot have more roots than its degree in a field.
You could also just resort to high school methods
I.e. discriminant is < 0
If you didn't know the roots already
🥔 
potato confirmed a highschooler
i wish i didn't forget all of the highschool stuff i learned
i'm so university brained that i forgot all of the really simple ways of doing things
don't remember that stuff sadly
Hi guys! I how could i prove that f(x,y) is irreducible, i know that R is a UFD.
I wish I didn't forget everything I learned in the first half of my undergrad already 
Okay silly idea
Can u plug in y = 2 and show that that's irreducible by eistenstein
And claim it holds in general cuz it should work for all y
i was thinking that generalized einsestein should do it
Clearly? f(x, y) is NOT the product of p(x,y) * q(y) where deg q >= 1
Oh my bad this might work in Q but not necessarily R
If we see R[x] is a UFD, then (R[x])[y] is a UFD, and i can try to use Einsestein proving that (y) is a prime ideal . That was my strategy
yeah that's exactly what I was typing 
What ive said is like completely false
Apparently the irreducibles in R are of degree only 1 or 2
I think "R" in this case means a general ring (which we know happens to be UFD), rather than the real numbers?
Yes
wtf now i'm blue
what do they mean by prime subfield?
also how does every automorphism of a field leaving 1 fixed show that Q is fixed, i get that if 1 is fixed then Z is fixed but not sure about Q
well i get that if you have a/b in Q then phi(a/b) = phi(a x b^-1) = phi(a)(b^-1) = phi(1 + 1 + \dots + 1)(a times) x phi(b^-1) but idk how to express b^-1 in terms of 1
ah
and if phi(1) = 1, then phi(b^-1) b = 1 meaning phi(b^-1) = b^-1
generally, ring maps preserve units
maps everything to 0.. heh... nothing personell kid.....
oh ok i see, thanks!
preserves 1
in the zero ring, 0 is a unit
oh yeah??? how can 0/0 when undefined??? exactly
i always think about localizing with respect to 0
If I have a field tower $K/E/F$ and some $\alpha\in K$ algebraic over $F$, what exactly is $[E(\alpha):F(\alpha)]$, is it still the degree of a minimal polynomial of $\alpha$?
(𒀭)
Min poly over F? Doesn't need to be
a could be a primitive element for K/F in which case K = E(a) = F(a)
$\deg_E(\alpha) \mid \deg_F(\alpha)$, right? Since either the minimal polynomial of $\alpha$ in $F$ (say $m_{\alpha, F}$) is still the minimal polynomial in $E$, or it can factor in $E$, in which case $\deg_E(\alpha) < \deg_F(\alpha)$, right?
(𒀭)
So does that imply $[E(\alpha) : F(\alpha)] \mid [E:F]$ have I just done some weird logical parkour?
(𒀭)
$E(\alpha)/F(\alpha)$ is an extension, but it can be a smaller (degree) extension than $E/F$, if $\deg_E(\alpha) < \deg_F(\alpha)$, right?
(𒀭)
Wht does it have to divide
if $m_{F}(x)$ is the minimal polynomial of $\alpha$ in $F$, and similarly for $m_{E}$, then since $E/F$ is an extension, either $m_F = m_E$ or $m_F = m_Eg(x)$ for some $g\in E[x]$ with $\deg(g) < \deg(m_F)$
(𒀭)
Either the extension is large enough so that the minimal polynomial can factor, in which case the degree should divide that of the original, or it still remains the minimal polynomial, in which case the degrees are equal so it divides trivially, right?
Why does the degree divide?
$m_F(x) = m_E(x)\cdot g(x) \implies \deg(m_F(x)) = \deg(m_E(x))\cdot\deg(g(x))$?
(𒀭)
You can see that that doesn't work with a very very simple example
yeah
okay so that doesn't work
which now makes me even more confused about where $[E(\alpha):F(\alpha)]\leq[E:F]$ comes from
(𒀭)
Its true
I was still right about $\deg_E(\alpha)\leq\deg_F(\alpha)$ right?
(𒀭)
dividing isn't true, but it should still be at most the same, right?
Yes
is that related to how to prove this, or is that just going in the wrong direction?
(𒀭)
Like $K/E(\alpha)/E/F$ nad $K/F(\alpha)/F$?
(𒀭)
Forget K
i wish i didn't forget stuff after one month of not studying it 
Its a diamond
okay
Me too 
This diagram?
can we do tikz-cd diagrams with the bot?
Oh we can
$$
\begin{tikzcd}
& E(\alpha) & \
E \arrow[ru, "{[E(\alpha):E]}", no head] & & F(\alpha) \arrow[lu, "{[E(\alpha):F(\alpha)]}"', no head] \
& F \arrow[lu, "{[E:F]}", no head] \arrow[ru, "{[F(\alpha):F]}"', no head] &
\end{tikzcd}
$$
(𒀭)
So $[E(\alpha):E] = [E(\alpha):F(\alpha)]\cdot [F(\alpha):F]$ and $[E(\alpha):E] = [E(\alpha):E][E:F]$, is that how the diagram works?
(𒀭)
Wait did I mess up, should the left-hand side of the equalities be $[E(\alpha):F]$?
(𒀭)
Given the diagram, you kinda just read the tower law straight off of it
yeah

in which I failed to do so lmao
is it a division argument?
$[E(\alpha):F(\alpha)]\mid [E(\alpha):F]$ and $[E:F]\mid [E(\alpha):F]$?
(𒀭)
$\frac{\deg_E(\alpha)}{\deg_F(\alpha)} \leq 1$, so $[E(\alpha):F(\alpha)] = \frac{\deg_E(\alpha)}{\deg_F(\alpha)}[E:F] \leq [E:F]$
(𒀭)
That should not have taken me as long as it did lol
Thank you for your help and patience with me. I do genuinely appreciate it, especially since this definitely wasn't one of my brightest moments lol
Hi, for a project on Galois inverse theory I am studying the example of the Monster Group. It may be the wrong place, but I would like to extract 4 columns from its table ( (1A,2A,3B,29A) ). I have them in the Atlas, but for computations I would like an excel and for presentation a .tex file. Do you know how can I generate them ?
for computations I'd like an excel
why are you using excel for group theory
sigma grindset
I have to sum on all irreducible characters the product of the value on my 3 classes.
So I need a computer. But yes if it is another file it will be okay
I mean why aren't you using an actual computational algebra system
how did you even get the character table lol
If you have a solution of this kind I will take it. But on Mathematica the table is unavailable. While in the book of Conway it is complete
not sure how you'd actually generate the monster group in something like GAP but once you do the character table isn't that big, only like 200x200
although at that point I'd just copy and paste them from whatever this mysterious "Atlas" is
The atlas is an old book by Conway with all the tables you want. Good reference but really hard to use as it is on paper 😅
sounds useful tbf
bro this is atlas is weirdddd
My alg prof said back in the day they had it as a HUGE book in the school libraries
@slim kayak @delicate orchid remember that problem from yesterday? the spectrum of that group algebra?
turns out it's just a fucking torus 
the group algebra is isomorphic to the laurent polynomial ring
i dont know what the problem is but sounds like a certified G_m classic
,, \bC[M] = \bigoplus_{u \in M} \bC \chi^u
wait ibsen do you know toric geometry
vanishingly little
I missed you
it got a little bit more boring here without you and your hatcher set top pilledness
anyway yeah but the spectrum of this
an explicit description is 
but that is just isomorphic to laurent
so it's just a torus
chi irrep of C^*?
what is M
which has the characters T -> C^times as a basis
Hom(N, Z) for some N iso Z^n so it's Z^n
maketh sense
You didn’t say this before
I thought you knew that 
I didn’t recognise them as linear characters because you never told me what T was 
oh...
what 
did you know the cogroup structure on the group ring gives you an algebraic group structure on the torus
wdym
if you're doing toric geometry you might want to show that an algebraic torus is an algebraic group
yeah...
well if you're looking at the closed points then it's easy
i don't actually know much about the other points but i assume there are some nontrivial ones
anyway group rings have a cogroup structure, part of the hopf algebra structure
it's like a group but co
so instead of multiplication $\mu\colon G \otimes G \to G$ you have comultiplication $\Delta\colon G \to G \otimes G$
196883
and this satisfies "coassociativity" and the sort
you have a counit G -> I and coinverse (?) G -> G which also do what you might expect
I here is the unit of the tensor product
which is taken over the base ring (or field, like the complex numbers)
wait actually i think i might have something mixed up
actually nah it's fine
this isn't technically a "cogroup object" but it's part of the hopf algebra thingy
The co-ordinate ring of a topological group is a cogroup in the category of commutative k-agebras
the group object is defined with a cartesian product usually
so i don't really want to call this a cogroup object even though it's opposite to the group object in the category of affine k-varieties
Uh no
It's defined using whatever monoidal product the category has
In the case of Set we typically use the cartesian product, yes
that's a monoid object
but the equivalent thing in algebras is the tensor product
but in general defining group objects you need to verify that the inverse works
and you don't have a diagonal map to do this with
Uh, again, no. A monoid object is similar to a group object, the only difference being that we do not require the existence of an inverse morphism.
If you like the definition of a group object is a monoid object and an inverse morphism.
Perhaps I'm just misremembering, but monoidal categories do have diagonal maps
there is no way
And there is a diagonal map in the tensor product anyway
https://ncatlab.org/nlab/show/monoidal+category+with+diagonals this is the case
Well thank you for informing me about this
I’m not surprised you’re biphobic
group rings are extremely hopf algebra, you can't avoid it
i must agree
our rep theory course was fine and fun and then the teacher took 30 minutes to define a hopf algebra
you don't have diagonals for the tensor product of R-modules because it's not linear (ax otimes ax = a^2 (x otimes x))
theyre cool but i dont understand them well enough yet to fully appeciate them
oh she gave a lecture on quantum groups too and i understood nothing cause she condensed everything into a single lecture
I work very much with the group algebra and I've avoided it
oof i see.
oh wait i think it does work
i'm kinda dumb and forgot to switch the product for a coproduct
and the coproduct is of course the tensor product
so it is a cogroup object
i did this whole thing a while ago lol
i think the comultiplication/diagonal works in the category of R-algebras for group algebras as a linear extension of g -> g otimes g on the basis
the "codiagonal" would be the multiplication of a group object
i'm not sure if you need the base ring to be a field
because everywhere i look people assume it to be a field
I don't think you do, but ofc that is the default
I think at most you need it to be a commutative ring
btw I havent learn much about these earlier outside of some talks I have attended and like a few chapters of a book. But this stuff is really cool imo, in particular, to extend pontrjagin duality to non-abelian LCH groups you extend to the category of locally compact quantum groups for example :)
quantum groups are just like, C* hopf algebras btw. now locally compact quantum group is quite a bit harder to define oof
this sounds pretty naive and ignorant, but can somebody explain how studying categories would be relevant to gaining information about certain algebraic structures? maybe it’s because I’m very new to the idea, but I can’t seem to parse how making diagrams with dots and arrows and connecting them can in any way disclose information about the objects in question
maybe it’s a matter of mathematical maturity? I know that categories are useful for abstracting data and working there, but I can’t see how they would give us any more information idk if that makes sense
They are a different way of presenting the same information
Some things are easier to see once you look at them under a different lens
The key is that the arrows have to respect the algebraic structure
The mantra of category theory is that instead of looking at the objects, look at how the objects relate to one another
in linear algebra you have linear isomorphisms, functions between two vector spaces that are both bijective and linear
in abstract algebra you have ring and group isomorphisms, bijections that preserve addition and multiplication
in topology you have homeomorphisms, bijections that preserve the topological structure of the space
these all have something in common
Perhaps it's easier to see when you learn more about what you can do with categories
Especially homology/cohomology and alg top
as for understanding how commutative diagrams enclose information, you can often find statements about certain properties (like descending to a quotient in quotient spaces, isomorphism theorems, etc) using said diagram
helps put comm diagrams into a bit of context
imo
anemone does cat theory? goddamn
i dabbled a bit, havent looked at it in a long time
but i see plenty of commutative diagrams
Oh no I'm doomed
isoke eric
Elementary examples:
Initial and final object in Grp: trivial group
Initial object in R-Mod: R
Product in Grp, R-Mod, Top, etc: product in usual sense
Coproduct in Grp: combining generators and relations
Coproduct in Ab, R-Mod: direct sum
Right-split short exact sequence in Grp: semidirect product
How
I mean honestly i think you'd have to go quite far until category actually becomes useful as a subject applied to the one you're studying and not just a convenient way of stating things
It’s also useful to have an abstract framework in which you can internalise concepts like direct/inverse limits in
what do you need to internalize direct and inverse limits for
arrows go forward and you zoom
direct limits
arrows go backwards and you vroom
inverse limits
i think i have not gone far enough then
its like an elaborate prank
"just a little further now, only a few months to go"
inb4 40 years pass
Eilenberg and Mac lane were the biggest trolls in history
They invented arrows what did you invent???
What is the ring of witt vectors of length 2 over Fp isomorphic to?
Is there a better understading of it?
@tiny jolt if you're thinking it in terms of actual elements, then the map is just re-parenthesizing. that is, send the element
(m⊗n)⊗p --> m⊗(n⊗p)
and extend by linearity
Z/p^2Z if I understand you correctly
but i would rather think of it by showing that both objects represent the same functor, namely Z --> {tri-linear maps f : M x N x P --> Z such that f(ma, n, p) = f(m, an, p) and f(m, nb, p) = f(m, n, bp)}
if you know enough about groups, rings, modules, topological spaces, and the like, or even of a few of these, then you should be able to motivate categories pretty easily
yes but what do i do with them
look at how the categorical constructions generalize constructions in each case
and what do i do with that
and look at functors and and natural transformations
notice similarities
generalization
math
and what do i do after noticing similarities
see if these generalizations have made it easier to spot patterns elsewhere
math is specific not général to me
what do i do with that
write papers
boring
but before that, look up your questions in books and stuff
do you care about classifying all the objects of a certain type?
like for example, finite simple groups?
or finite dimensional semisimple lie algebras
or anything like that
and what do i do with those
algebraic topology was invented by poincaré. if you asked henri if hes constructing functors hed think youre deranged
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Eilenberg–Steenrod_axioms check this out
In mathematics, specifically in algebraic topology, the Eilenberg–Steenrod axioms are properties that homology theories of topological spaces have in common. The quintessential example of a homology theory satisfying the axioms is singular homology, developed by Samuel Eilenberg and Norman Steenrod.
One can define a homology theory as a sequence...
well poincare is dead
we're here
if you told euclid about polynomials he would think you're literally an idiot
i dont even remember the es axioms
probably
i can do algebraic topology just fine
do you remember the long exact sequence in homology
yes
do you not care about when similar long exact sequences exist
this convo 😂
i know what singular cohomology is
when are we going to use this in the real world, teacher
my point is most of category theory is useless
do you know what simplicial cohomology is
yes
do you know what de rham cohomology is
yes
do you know what cech cohomology is
yes
Lmao rho getting trolled hard
nah i'm just blowing off steam
It’s like the funny!!! 🤩
Do u know what uhhhhh the induced cohomological poopy functor from the brauer homomorphism is
i think this has essentially reached a reductio ad absurdum
Why would I care what a universal property is
this is what people say when they cannot carry their thought process to the actual reduction
cope
I agree with that
How sad to see someone so brilliant yet still so deluded
you're the tortoise
you're literally a tortoise
i'm not going to argue with a tortoise
Brutal


One day your collaborator will mention mirror symmetry and then you’ll be forced to care…….
Just you wait…………

tell that to an actual string theorist and theyll give you the looks
I like mirrors because it lets me experience the joy of gazing upon my jaw droppingly handsome face
exactly
Google the whitehead tower nerd
thats not category theory
no true scotsman
its just a co-cell decomposition
Yeah theyll see my pretty face
Literally an exact sequence
but unironically actually lmao
no thats a wrong headed way of thinking about it
postnikov towers are dual cell decomps
theyre not “exact sequences”
Wait did you just say… dual??
the problem with category theory is you see questionable similarities everywhere
As in… the categorical dual?!??
dual graphs
I won you lost bye bye good night
dual vector space
dual cone
so you hate bourbaki too
i think k-theory has something to do with the eilenberg-steenrod axioms
Bros trolling too close to the sun
Grrrrrrr
have you heard of k-theory
summon the #category-theory guys here
i think it has applications
K theory
So do like most cohomology theories lol
ill stop trolling but i feel like you guys need to come up with more compelling examples to convince people
wow is this true
can't you do that yourself?
yes i can
then do it
this is the simplest i can do. theorem: let M be a compact n dim manifold, then homotopy classes of maps M -> S^n are classified by degree (preimage of a generic fiber, counted upto signs)
Proof: [M, S^n] = H^n(M), use Yoneda
i can expand more if needed
this is the first example that convinced me category theory is not just a language game
maybe there are simpler more compelling examples
I need a real one to convince me that Morava K theory is not a language game
too hard for me
when people say words, which categorists are prone to, my instant reaction is “why should i care”
its a shame because unlike most of mr Lurie’s student gangs, Lurie is actually a very good expositor
he knows how to communicate with people from other branches of math
all of the last few messages are non ironic
I'm having trouble proving this exercise in Jason McCullough's notes Introduction to Commutative Algebra. I tried to tackle a) by proving both inequalities, and for $\le$ I gave a projective resolution of length n of M, and applied $A_{\mathfrak m}\otimes_A-$ to try to obtain a projective resolution of $M_{\mathfrak m}$, but that approach doesn't seem to be working, as I can't assure that the localization at $\mathfrak m$ of the projectives are still projective
fargoth_ur7
I'm having trouble proving this exercise in Jason McCullough's notes Introduction to Commutative Algebra. I tried to tackle a) by proving both inequalities, and for $\le$ I gave a projective resolution of length n of M, and applied $A_{\mathfrak m}\otimes_A-$ to try to obtain a projective resolution of $M_{\mathfrak m}$, but that approach doesn't seem to be working, as I can't assure that the localization at $\mathfrak m$ of the projectives are still projective
Projectivity is preserved by extension of scalars. There's a multitude of ways to prove this. What are the equivalent characterisations of projectivity you know
The functor Hom_A(P,-) being exact, each short exact sequence with P on the right being split and P being a summand of a free module
$A_m\otimes-$ maps the free module $A$ to the free module $A_m$, and preserves sums and summands.
jagr2808
Thanks, that reasoning works great
There you go!
Alternatively: $Hom_{A_m}(A_m\otimes P, - ) \cong Hom_A(P, Hom_{A_m}(A_m, - ))$ which is a composition of exact functors.
jagr2808
What does “extend by linearity” mean?
Elements of the tensor product are finite sums of elementary tensors
So you can define a linear map by specifying where the elementary tensors get mapped to
but if you work with elements, you'll always have to be careful with things being well-defined. the elementary tensors aren't a basis after all.
and the stuff you verify is basically what i wrote in the other description
check (m⊗n)⊗p --> m⊗(n⊗p) would be (\bZ-)linear in each variable and that you can juggle around a between m,n and b between n,p
Okay, I'm still trying to make sense of the logic on this wikipedia page and coming up empty
It talks about an elliptic curve over F_q, and then extending that to the algebraic closure F_q bar, and then applying the frobenius endomorphism to coordinates, so (x,y) -> (x^q, y^q)
Except as best as I can tell from poking at sage, if x is an element of F_q, then x^q in F_q bar is x
Which would make the endomorphism an identity transform for all valid inputs
Which would mean that the several paragraphs dedicated to the endomorphism are irrelevant and I'm pretty sure that they aren't
This is not true
x^q = x for x in F_q
Not for everything in the algebraic closure
But the transform can't "lift" an element out of F_q into a higher order subfield, right?
Ahdhahshdh
There are elements of F_q bar that are not in F_q
If x is in F_q bar and x^q = x, then in fact it must be that x is in F_q.
For any other element of F_q bar, x^q =/= x.
The logic you've applied here is like saying "every cat is an animal, and every cat has fur, therefore every animal has fur"
What I'm trying to apply is "I have a field of cats, and then algebraic closure of all animals, then starting with a cat c and frobenius phi, phi(c) is a cat"
Yes, and that says nothing about other animals.
It does say one thing
In order to end up with one of those other animals i cannot start with a cat
OK
It might turn a gnu into an emu
But it will never turn a cat into anything but a cat
Sage seems to want to call the elements of GF(9) { 0, 1 , 2, z2, z2+1, z2+2, 2z2, 2z2+1, 2z2+2}
Am I reading this right? What happened to z1
z = 2z^2 + 2 if I've gotten the polynomial right.
Again, this is a matter of choosing representatives.
I don't know why Sage chooses those representatives, but it has.
Prolly quotienting polys
Well no, because the 3rd cyclotomic polynomial (the one they quotient by) is of degree 2
So they're not performing the division algorithm here.
There's presumably some clever trick they're using that helps when computing with finite fields, but I wouldn't know.
Ok that's weird
GF(9).gen() is z2
GF(27).gen() is z3
woah that's not crazy at all that's actually what you'd expect it to continue as
ok so I thing sage is just using z_i as generator
where i is the index of the field
And GF(3^4) is going to be z4 gasp
hey stevio
no different variables
Yeah sage uses ^ for exponents
tey GF(2^8) and see if it's z4
did you move from finite char 2 fields to finite char 3 fields 
2^8?? D:
Fun fact: In 2001 i had to troubleshoot an inconsistency between two systems
The people who wrote the spec knew VB and wrote 10^n in their algorithm to mean 10 to the nth power
The people implementing the spec were writing the code in C
yeah I think zi, i is the exponent here
If we had just seen a list for GF(27) this would've been immediately apparent
Actually I'm doing ECC math so I moved to fields of prime order approx. 2^521
So you're doing characteristic 2
No
2^512 is a power of 2
Do you know what I mean by the characteristic of a field?
Or are you saying that it's just close to that
Yes and yes
That's why I said approx. The crypto guys like to do Montgomery reduction so they have primes like 2^521 - 2^256 + 65537
Oh then its prolly 2^521-1
I wondered why they didnt pick a multiple of 8 for the exponent
0x01ffffffffffffffffffffffffffffffffffffffffffffffffffffffffffffffffffffffffffffffffffffffffffffffffffffffffffffffffffffffffffffffffff
Yep one less than a power of 2
If they chose a composite for the exponent, the result wouldn't be a mersenne prime
Curve25519 field is 2^255 - 19
Yeah they usually have 2^a -2^b + 2^c - 1
Where a is the number of bits they want (which is usually a power of 2, or at least a multiple of 64)
And b and c are chosen to minimize effort for the NSA to hack it 😉
Anyway what exactly is gen() supposed to return for non prime order (i.e. field size q is p^k, k>1)
For prime fields gen() is truly a generator of the field
Hmm generates how?
For a group I can do a^0, a^1, a^2... a^(q-1)
Much the same way
Thinking of it precisely that way is unhelpful though
Let me elaborate
We can have elements a,b,c, ... of a ring R. We can 'generate' a ring <a,b,c,...> which we define to be the smallest subring of R containing a, and b, and c etc.
But F_q = p^k has characteristic p
So no additive generator
And multiplicative group is missing 0
Listen first
So we have to show that such a thing exists, but I won't do this here (maybe you could do this as an exercise)
But in any case this definition tells you exactly what it means
Such a thing being the generator?
The elements a, b, c, ... would be called generators for the group.
Ring* rather
Now moving onto finite fields
Wait a sec
I'm listening
When you say generators
Do you mean that they are each generators on their own
Or that there's some sort of combination of elements that generate subsets of the ring and collectively they generate everything
I mean together they are generators.
OK, moving on
Finite fields.
Let F be a finite field. Then F\{0} is a group under multiplication.
That's F with the zero element removed, right?
Yes
Now this is a very cool fact about finite subgroups of F\{0} for any field
any such group is cyclic
This means there is an element g in the group such that <g> is the whole group.
And of course, you're very familiar with this.
So in particular for a finite field there is an element z in F\{0} such that <z> = F\{0} (n.b. as a group)
We get now, trivially, that <z> (as a ring) is F.
This is because any ring must also contain 0, which is the only element not given by F\{0}
For rings of the form Z/nZ
R \ {0, k | gcd(n,k) != 1} is also the group, right?
We would usually write this as F_p[z] but I find this explanation simpler, so dw about it
No.
No group has an absorptive element (except the trivial group, but nvm)
also this isn't relevant
Anyway, the point is that every finite field has a generator.
This is trivial, but I want to make sure I have the details right: a finite-dimensional $K$-algebra $A$ is simple if and only if it is isomorphic to $M_n(D)$ for $D$ a finite-dimensional division $K$-algebra and $A$ is central if and only if $D$ is. One direction is clear, conversely $A$ is left artinian (because $\dim_K(A)<\infty$), therefore by Wedderburn's theorem there is a division ring $D$ such that $A\cong M_n(D)$ as rings. Because of this isomorphism we have $K\subset Z(A)\cong Z(D)$, thus we can define a $K$-algebra structure on $D$ and $A\cong M_n(D)$ as $K$-algebras wrt it. Since $A$ is finite-dimensional, so is $M_n(D)$ and so is $D$ (which embeds in to $M_n(D)$ via diagonal matrices). Centrality equivalence follows from $Z(A)\cong Z(D)$.
Basically you're saying "we can use <z> as shorthand for F by taking successive powers of <z> until we get {1} again, then add in {0}"
Yes, but n.b. only in this nice, special case
In general this is definitely not true.
Wait which part was special? The finite part?
leave_no_norm
The part where I said that F\{0} was cyclic, which I believe is indeed only true when F is finite.
Yeah ok
That makes sense. Theres no way to pick any element of Q R or C and "generate" the entire thing
I may be off here, but I believe that there is a version of Wedderburn that specifies to k-algebras. But I think you're right in any case.
Actually I bet Goedels diagonal argument proves it impossible for uncountably infinite fielss
You don't need diagonalisation to prove it doesn't work
It's very easy to show that <z> is always countable
so we're done
In fact *adjusts glasses*
🤓 for any variety of algebras with a finite signature this is true. And indeed rings have finite signature.
Now who was it that was such a fan of universal algebra around here
Yeah in fact this can be shown easily. If F\{0} = <z> is cyclic and char F =/= 2, then z^n = -1 for some n and so z^2n = 1 and indeed F\{0} is finite. Now if the characteristic is two, then I don't know.
In char 2, z^2n = z^0 = 1
I should have specified n =/= 0 in my proof
Actually I had to unlearn that + = - when extending beyond F2
Cuz I was so used to turning -s into +s when translating general expressions
Crud. Gtg
Dang I think it is literally possible for fields of characteristic two!
Let me think
F_2(x)?
No that's wrong.
If char F = 2 and <z> = F\{0} is infinite, then z can't be algebraic since otherwise it would be a root of unity. So ok, it's transcendental, so F is isomorphic to F_2(x) and we're done?
I think?
That's cool
I am trying to find a commutative ring that isn't Z/2Z that has an endomorphism x |-> x^6 on it, but I seem to have exhausted my search. Does anyone have any inspiration regarding rings that are worth digging through?
Well, any field of characteristic two is an example
So for example the ring F_4 = (Z/2Z)/< x^3 + x^2 + 1 >
Wait is that true? Have I messed up there?
Ah yes. The field F_4 is an example, but in fact I think I was wrong about any field of characteristic two being an example
Man OK that isn't right either. The problem is that there are nonzero, nonunit elements lmao
It is a tough one that's for sure
It has to be a non-integral domain ring I believe, but I have run through all the ones I know if I am not mistaken
And we know 2 = 64, so char R | 62
Ah in fact we know 0 = (-1 + 1)^6 = (-1)^6 + 1^6 = 2
So in fact we definitely know it's a ring of characteristic 2
If it is an integral domain then yeah, we can then show that R is isomorphic to Z/2Z
Otherwise I don't think you can get 2 = 0
Nono, we can
0 = (1 - 1)^6 = 1^6 + (-1)^6 = 1 + 1
So we have 2 = 0
So let's try and find the least complicated ring that does this thing, right
If there is such a ring R, we can choose some nonunit z in R and surject (Z/2Z)[x] → (Z/2Z)[z]
So if we can find an ideal of (Z/2Z)[x] that contains what we want...
So we want (a+b)^6 + a^6 + b^6 = 0, but squaring is an endomorphism, so this is the same as ( (a+b)^3 + a^3 + b^3 )^2 = 0
Maybe we can assume for now that we have no nilpotents. I'll put a pin in that 📌
so we want (a+b)^3 + a^3 + b^3 = 0, or in other words 3a^2b + 3ab^2 = ab(a + b) = 0
If we have some generator x that we're choosing, we can say e.g. x(x+1) = 0. Hm! So x^2 = x.
Does this make it work? Is F_2[x]/(x^2 + x) an example? Let's check.
(x + 1)^6 = x + 6x + 15x + 20x + 15x + 6x + 1 = x+1. Nice!
So there you go @minor glen I think I found the simplest example of such a ring
I think you can experiment with adding nilpotents (see my pin!)
x^2-x albeit
Char 2 baybeeeeee
Okay thank you so much, I am going to mule over this and see if it sticks :))
I'm dying wew, I need your approval
I'm dying wew, I need your approval
Wew doesn't approve of imitation 
F_2[x]/(x^2 + x) is just isomorphic to F_2 x F_2 though, so not that exciting.
Good point
Haha yes indeed, any number of products of F_2 works. How dull.
Well it's certainly true that x^2 = x for any element, so... well if we know what a Boolean algebra is we are unfortunately very restricted.
Or is it called a boolean ring? I forget.
you Germans wanna see my math exam?
Damn i f'd it up so hard that my brain still hurts
Jawohl!!!!
Indeed it's a boolean ring I was thinking of.
Block decomp of a Boolean ring or as I like to call it, a Boolean ring
If we want to find any interesting finite examples, we will need to have nilpotent elements :(
When u say Nilpotent do you mean x^n = 0 for some n
Because all I’ve seen so far are idempotents
yeah I think so
Boss nobody here speaks German
@delicate orchid it's related to this up here. I just wanted to have the property that x^2 = 0 implies x = 0
So would Z/2Z X Z/2Z also work?
this chat was full of germans
Yeah, and as jagr pointed out, the example I gave was actually just that all along
Note that F_2 is just different notation for Z/2Z
Ah ok
Which makes everything idempotent :)
Z/4Z my beloved
Very fair, and because the function does not do anything (is the identity function), it is automatically a homomorphism?
Yeah exactly
this is why I could conclude it was a homomorphism from showing (x+1)^6 = x+1 alone
Boring but very neat haha
I knew already that 1^6 = 1 and x^6 = x
Yeah it's nice
And as it turns out, every finite ring such that x^2 = x for all x is (Z/2Z)^n for some n
We dont actually exist, all german math people are out of bielefeld
One more question, how are they not a basis? Can't every element in the tensor product be written as a sum of elements?
Just because they span the space doesn't mean they're a basis
E.g. in k (x) k, the space is certainly spanned by 1 (x) 2 and 2 (x) 1
but they don't form a basis!
Society if
ohh
just speak german
what you want to know about permutation groups, nerd
wtf even is a twice transitive simple permutation group
I can translate it for you but I will probably lose motivation half way through
'twice transitive' aka doubly transitive means that the action on X, when extended to the diagonal action on X x X, has only two orbits.
aha
n-transitive means you can map any n-tuple to any other n-tuple except the ones you obviously can't u stinkyface
so true!!!!!!!!
well the book would be more important lmfao
also I wouldn't ask anyone to translate it
I mean worst case I don't use this book but it'd be nice to have as a reference since it seems alot of the stuff I'm reading refers to it
could u translate the chapter titles at least so I know what's in this mofo
https://link.springer.com/book/10.1007/978-3-642-64981-3
here this has chapter titles in German if someone wants to translate lol
I'll use the powerful combination of my C2-tier german and guessing
ok nothing in here seems particuarly special
yea
just some proofs and definitions which are hard to find elsewhere
like quasi-primitive linear groups
basics
permutation groups and linear groups
nilpotent groups and p groups
displacement and p nilpotent groups
rep theory
solvable groups
see this isn't what I want lol
weird
I already looked there trust me
the definition I need relates to G-modules
I found it elsewhere
ok so
Maybe try #combinatorial-structures ?
Finally, groups, 1
Hope this helps
That'd be endlich smh
I know potato smh you don't understand my humor
OK lmao
Lol
beat me to it
DEUTSCHER ALGEBRAISCHER STRUKTUREN SCHAT
…
If I want to show Brauer multiplication is well defined via [A]\cdot[B]=[A\otimes B] does the following work:
Suppose A\sim A', B\sim B', we want to show A\otimes B\sim A'\otimes B'. Let D and E be division algebras with A\cong M_n(D), A'\cong M_n'(D), B\cong M_m(E), B'\cong M_m'(E), then A\otimes B\cong M_nm(D\otimes E) and A'\otimes B'\cong M_n'm'(D\otimes E), i.e. both are isomorphic to a matrix algebra over the same (not necessarily division) CSA C. This implies similarity (if A\cong M_n(C) and B\cong M_m(C) for a CSA C, then there is a division algebra D with C\cong M_d(D), hence A\cong M_nd(D) and B\cong M_md(D) and A\sim B).
Making sure I understand this correctly, is this because if [A]\in Br(K) is an equivalence class, then [A]=[D] for a central division algebra D (A is CSA, therefore A\cong M_n(D) for a central division D \implies [A]=[D]) and D is unique up to isomorphism ([D]=[E] \implies D\cong M_n(F), E\cong M_m(F) \implies n=m=1 and D\cong F\cong E), so Br(K) corresponds exactly to isomorphism classes of central division algebras.
Also, since #linear-algebra is keeping silent on this:
Quick tensor sanity check, if U\subset W is a subspace and V\otimes U=V\otimes W (where the LHS is embedded in the RHS in the usual way), then U=W, right?
Assuming V isn't 0, then yes
The group GL_2(R) of invertible matrices with real entries acts on R^2 by left multiplication. How many orbits does the set R^2 break up into under this action?
What is wrong with my reasoning? The orbits are of form GL_2(R)(x) = { Ax | A in GL_2(R) } and since A is a 2 x 2 matrix it has entries say a_1, a_2, b_1, b_2 and we are free to choose these real numbers so I thought there would be uncountably many orbits, but apparently there are only 2. What is going on here?
an orbit of G acting on X is an equivalence class wrt the relation x\sim y \iff \exists g\in G with gx=y
the term itself is very telling, think of planets orbiting the sun and the orbit of e.g. Mars as all the places where Mars can show up (it can't show up in the orbit of Venus, right?)
now one obvious orbit is {0} since every A\in GL_2(R) sends 0 to 0
take any x\neq 0, you want to describe all the places it can be sent to by GL_2(R)
Ah, so the two orbits are {(0,0)} and everything else?
if y\neq 0 is any other vector, you can construct an invertible matrix such that Ax=y
meaning there is only one other orbit besides {0}, namely its compliment R^2\{0}
Rotate any point until it intersects the y axis, then scale it until it gets mapped to (0,1)
So yeah
Notice how this works just the same with SL(2,R), you just modify the scaling operation by scaling by an inverse amount in the x-direction
hey did you delete my thread
Literally 1984
Yes it was incredibly cringe
Plus somewhat against rules but that wasn’t the main point
it was really cringe
i'm reading about "classical Lie groups" and it says "the map $\operatorname{Gl}(n, \bR) \times \bR^n \to \bR^n$ is given by polynomials in the coefficients of the matrix and the vector, and so is continuous
what exactly is this map?
anamono
u ever seen matrix multiplication before
yea
oh it's just multiplying the n x n matrix by a n x 1 vector?
oh wait it's R^n lol not R
oops
yeah, there's no R involved lol
although the determinant is also continuous for precisely the same reason
yeah
Hm feels a slightly weird justification lol like
Saying "polynomial" when really it's just that this is a restriction of a bilinear map $M_n(\mathbb R) \times \mathbb R^n \to \mathbb R^n$ right
potato
But maybe they say polynomial to make it more clear how it generalises lol
Well it is polynomial as a special case




