#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 115 of 1
it makes the exponent less annoying to deal with, and the coefficient is still multiplicative so not bad

here C_m is the cyclic group of order m
Am i misunderstanding something? If for example m = 5, then is this saying that {g \in C_5 | ord(g) = 5} has size 4?
C_5 is isomorphic to Z/5Z, so can we say that all non-identity elements in Z/5Z have order 5?
Yes
You can generalise to any prime (and any positive integer with a bit more effort)
2+2+2 = 6 and 6 is not equivalent to 0 mod 5
oh right, I was confusing it with the multiplicative group 
sorry about that
but thank you
Can someone help me with sign of a permutation?
Q=(1627)(398)(45)
T=(1734256)
Q=(16)(62)(27)(39)(98)(45)
T=(17)(73)(34)(42)(25)(56)
sign(Q)=(-1)^6=1
sign(T)=(-1)^6=1
Is this correct?
Hi you can reach out in my inbox for help
#groups-rings-fields message reminds me of this
find the sign of Q and T
haha
Instead of decomposing the permutations into transpositions, you can first prove that the sign of an n-cycle is +1 if and only if n is odd and that signs multiply on composition. Then you can compute it directly from the cycle decomposition
you mean by the order of each permutation
like o(T)=12 o(T)=7
What are you trying to do with the order? I didn't get it
i thought you said i can use the orger to find the sign
No, n-cycle means a single cycle of n elements
like this:
Q=(1627)(398)(45)
T=(1734256)
If Q = AB, then sign Q = sign A * sign B
ok... so for Q=(1627)(398)(45) we do sign(1627) * sign(398) * sign(45) = -1 * 1 * -1 = 1
Yes
In general you have to compute this by hand
In general there is no short cut. Maybe here there is one
ok.. thx
For instance if the commute it will be very easy. And you can see that with the decomposition in cycles.
The main point in the study of permutations is that decomposition in cycles is better than decomposition in product of transposition
Do you remember how you did that for S_4 earlier ?
Its gonna be the same way
But a general formula is rather inoperable
So you want to find a n and n integers $x_i$ such that $\sum x_i = k$ and lcm ${x_i}$ is maximum
DraK(night)
I think brute force is the best approach for this
ya its just checking a lot of numbers this way
Yes it is exactly this absurd formula. For S_9 I find 20 for 9=5+4. But not sure it is the maximum
3+3+3=9, gives you 27
lcm, not product
Only an asymptotic formula is known for this
If it were product, you just do a variant of AM-GM
How? Even then it seems difficult because you only allow integral partitions
Thats just the landau function here, and apparently quite a few people already tried to attack it
Landau's is for the LCM thing right?
Same thing
Yeah, that's what the want for finding elements of maximal order in S_n tho
Yeah lcm here
In mathematics, Landau's function g(n), named after Edmund Landau, is defined for every natural number n to be the largest order of an element of the symmetric group Sn. Equivalently, g(n) is the largest least common multiple (lcm) of any partition of n, or the maximum number of times a permutation of n elements can be recursively applied to its...
Ye
Was just curious about the product thing
Like if you decide on the number of parts in the partition then you just go as close to equal parts as you can
But how do you figure out what number of parts maximises the product?
For 8, 3+3+2 is better than 2+2+2+2
curious
Maybe we want the young tableau thing for the partition to be as square as possible lmao
I think you can look at the maxima of (a/n)^n, as n varies
Yeah that would make sense
And then use that as a heuristic to determine which n gives you the best product
Should give a good approximation at least
2^16 = x mod 10000
ya did for 1000. 1000 * (1-1/16)*(1-1/625) = 9360
,ti
The current time for Tubular Cat is 04:53 AM (EDT) on Wed, 07/06/2023.
brain too tired to do math right now 
,ti
The current time for illuminator3 is 11:01 AM (CEST) on Wed, 07/06/2023.
I'm tired too
can i just write:
2^2016 = 2^16 = x (mod 10000)
2^16 = (2^4)^4 = 16^4 = x (mod 10000)
16^2 = 256 (mod 10000)
16^4 = 256^2 = 5536 (mod 10000)
you mean to put this there?
yes
i think my question goes in here? (if not, please point me to the correct channel)
im currently looking at operators in a hilbert space V (with the operator A being element of B(V) )
and i just need to prove that the norm of said operator is equal to the norm of its adjoint operator A*
i tried a few things but im not quite getting there:
in our script there is a proof that ||A*y|| =< ||A|| ||y|| so i tried doing something with that
and using Cauchy-Schwarz i managed to show that |<x, A*y>| = |<Ax, y>| =< ||A*|| ||x|| ||y|| but im unsure if that accomplishes anything
(x and y being vectors in V)
could somebody give me a hint or point me a to a resource that goes over this proof?
Recall that in a Hilbert Space ||A|| = sup |<x,Ax>| for all |x|=1
With this equality your assertion will be obvious
But to prove this equality there is Cauchy Schwartz
ah yeah, the definition was the first thing that i looked at but i didnt see anything to approach there at first 😅
I think you can do it with || A || = inf{C : || Ax ||<= C || x ||}
I think that's what your prof was alluding to
ill give these ideas a shot, thanks!
did you mean sup ||Ax||? cause what if your hilbert space is R^2 and A is rotation by 90degrees?
Another hint might be that you just have to show one half of the inequality because the other side follows trivially from symmetry
Lol I wrote Bs indeed, sorry. I am going to fix this
Noice thank
Is there any relationship in some groups of |a| |b| and |a+b|? For elements a and b
You can impose some nice conditions to get some relationship. For instance, if a and b commute then the order of ab is the least common multiple of the orders of a and b respectively. However, in general there is no good relationship. In fact, one can show that for any integers l, m, n there is a finite group G with elements a and b such that the order of a is l, the order of b is m, and the order of ab is n
Tysm
Can we conclude that $(\mathbb{Z}/p\mathbb{Z})^{\times} \cong \mathbb{Z}/p\mathbb{Z}$ for prime $p$?
ForJoke
oh, that makes sense, I was tripping
thank you
And also Z/(p-1)Z is cyclic right? so can we conclude that (Z/pZ)* is also cyclic?
I mean usually the proof of this isomorphism comes from proving (Z/pZ)* is cyclic lol
oh 
So this seems kinda the wrong way round
Fun fact lol if F is a field then any finite subgroup of F^x is cyclic
I was trying to show that (Z/pZ)* is cyclic lol
Ah
Not the easiest problem to do by yourself
It seems you have misunderstood something. Z/(p-1)Z is cyclic by definition, you see that ?
yes
it is generated by 1
<1> = Z/(p-1)Z
is there any condition between d and m?
because in Z/5Z there are no elements of order 3, for example
Well d | m
By Luigi
Joseph-Louis Lagrange (born Giuseppe Luigi Lagrangia or Giuseppe Ludovico De la Grange Tournier; 25 January 1736 – 10 April 1813), also reported as Giuseppe Luigi Lagrange or Lagrangia, was an Italian mathematician, physicist and astronomer, later naturalized French. He made significant contributions to the fields of analysis, number theory, and...
This is an interesting result. How does one go about proving it, if at all it is provable with a standard undergraduate level of understanding of group theory?
The first bit or the last bit lol
@covert cliff you ought to use the following lemma: a group is cyclic of order n if and only if there are exactly \phi(d) elements of order d for each d|n. Then use what you know about how many roots a polynomial can have over a field applied to x^{q-1} - 1 = 0
Haha the last bit, of course
The first bit is incorrect. The order of the product of commuting elements divides the least common multiple of their orders. It isn't necessarily equal to it.
Agreed
well the forward direction is the image I sent
@covert cliff I am telling you how to prove that that isomorphism exists in the first place
Or rather the corrected version
oh I see I see, my bad
@lusty marlin with very little work you can also show that lcm/gcd divides the order of the product and that these bounds are sharp.
I will try to prove this lemma first, I am doing all this for a number theory class and I have literally no algebra background, I love this uni 
@covert cliff alternatively you could try to just show that the q-1’st cyclotomic polynomial has a root over F_q always. But the argument will end up being similar.
@covert cliff also the last thing is that it might be easier to prove G is finite cyclic iff G has a unique subgroup of order d for each d|n.
And use that to conclude
Ok lemme give these a shot
Oh. Silly of me to assume that this wasn't the case. Thanks.
I don't quite recall the details, this result is proven in Milne's notes on group theory. My understanding is that one considers a sufficiently large number q and shows that PSL_2(F_q) contains elements of the prescribed order by using some basic facts about multiplicative groups of finite fields and some linear algebra. Nothing is terribly involved though
step 1: G = <a, b : a^l, b^m ,(ab)^n>
step 2: is G finite? no? ADD MORE RELATORS
repeat step 2
in general order of ab would only divide the lcm. if the orders are coprime then it works, but if not you can only say that there exists an element whose order is the lcm that follows by writing lcm as a product of two coprimes and reducing to the previous case.
for example a and a^-1 have the same order, but the product has order 1.
so yea only other precise statement you can make is order of a^d is n/(d, n) where n = |a|
I really like the example of the infinite dihedral group.
Or I guess dihedral groups in general
two generators of order two, yet their product is of arbitrary order...
... wtf!!!
so true
Dn = <x, y|x^2 = y^2 = (xy)^n = 1>
me like this presentation more 
so symmetric and cute
You just assumed the axiom of empty set

moldi is bacc 

It's easier for rep theory to know about the normal subgroups
true >.<
fuck the semidirect product we out here C_n \wr C_2
ermmmm but it's clearly a wreath product, babes
name a funny group
OK
it's sylow subgroups will be wreath products
Sylow
oooh
Let $X$ be a $G$-set. Then $G$ acts by automorphisms on $H^X$, which is to say the group of functions $X \to H$. Then $H \wr G$ is defined as $H^X \rtimes G$.
Boytjie (never-to-be-glomed)
S_n, definitely A_n with n odd but also probably even, GL over finite fields
etc. etc.
all their sylow subgroups are wreath mfs
that's why I personally care about them
they come up in automorphisms of n-ary trees as well
I care because a bunch of Coxeter (Weyl) groups are wreath products
we care for the same reason then
Can't remember, I think $B_n$ is $C_2 \wr S_n$
Boytjie (never-to-be-glomed)
it is
But this is coming up in my research
noice ty Wew
I cannot remember dynkin shit for the life of me
le graph
that's french for the graph btw

wreath you mean?
there's topological construcitons using them as weyl groups which are entirely representation theory-based but are not lie groups
I don't understand complex reflection groups
it is beyond fucked up
What how
they're called spetses (like hte island) I know fuck all about them
Who up fusing their systems
who up pseudoing they reflections
Yeah I was gonna say, I assume this is coming from the Weyl group of a f.s.
I got a pdf called "towards spetses I" and they don't even get around to defining them in 200+ pages why couldn't I have just done the funny fluids
much easier
Had a question. Can someone suggest me a neat way of showing whether or not the subgroup generated by subgroups H and K of a free product A x B with H = A and K = gBg^(-1) is free?
GOOD point
Are these finitely presented or no?
A and B? Not specifically but I don't remember us ever working with infinitely many generators so for the moment let's say yes
when you say free, are you asking if it's the free product of H and K
Isomorphic to the free product of H and K
<H,K> = H x K ( = being isomorphism symbol here)
I reduced it to showing whether a word with alternating letters in H or K is trivial in A x B, but it devolves into seemingly never ending nested cases
Can't wait for Cayley graphs, word problems are miserable
#❓how-to-get-help maybe
idk lol, I just write like that 🙂
Maybe it absorbed a high-energy photon?
does this example only apply to a free nonabelian group?
(cuz then each yk would just be y)
Sure, free abelian groups aren't free groups anyway (in general)
You answered it yourself!
just checking i don't trust myself lmfao
huh ok
Maybe you should! You're smart!
Free abelian groups are free group with some relations sprinkled in, specifically just a bunch of commutators
Kerr that is literally any group
Literally any group is a free group plus some relations
Yes, so?
For the same reason free abelian groups aren't free just like almost any group, they have relations
how will the prime power decomposition of the fundamental theorem of finitely generated abelian groups follow if we take d1 = 3, d2 = 18, ....? because then the proposed group will be isomorphic to Z_3 x Z_18 x ... and 18 cannot be written as a power of a prime
ewww CRT
CRT is very nice
CRT, my favourite change of basis theorem
CRT is uwu 
I think of the CRT in the same way that I do matrices
Matrices are a wonderful computational tool. They tell you so much! But they are also a brain worm
So often I see people computing with matrices as if they don't correspond to linear transformations. Often it is easier to do certain proofs by looking at things abstractly, rather than as matrices.
It seems that the CRT is similar: people see it as just a statement about solutions, but in fact it's an enormously useful fact about elementary number theory
E.g. here is a proof that Euler's totient function is multiplicative. We define phi(n) = |(Z/nZ)*|. Then if n,m are coprime, then phi(nm) = |(Z/nmZ)*| = |(Z/nZ x Z/mZ)*| = |(Z/nZ)* x (Z/mZ)*| = phi(n)phi(m).
This is infinitely more insightful than that horrible counting argument one typically sees when one first encounters phi
Anyway this is all to say that if you say "ewww CRT" you're a bad person and you should feel bad and I hate you and I'm never talking to you again >:((((((((
I think crt makes a lot better sense when one sees it in the context of rings
Or at least it was for me
I agree. It's really a statement about rings.
Learning it in high school as purely a computational tool (with no proof, no surprise) for number of solutions was just like bruh
Just like how in high school you learn how to multiply matrices, right?
Kinda yeah
Tbh I don't really understand why matrices aren't just introduced in the context of linear algebra
Instead of stand alone as a computational tool
Because you can reasonably do linalg as a class pretty much immediately after precalc anyway
But I guess crt is understandable somewhat since you probably can't do abstract algebra that quickly, though one of the discrete math sections last year tried to give intuition of ideals on a pset and people were rather confused lol
<@&268886789983436800> delete
wow I thought tubular cat was spitting facts
Nami 
maybe because it also appears in other ares of math? like say graph theory. the incidence matrix and other nice matrix you associate to a graph dont' have a deep meaning via linear maps, but the matrix multiplication still manages to capture some nice combinatorics in it.
Hmm maybe
det likes matrices 
the field of rational functions is the fraction field of the coordinate ring or?
yee
I'm gonna assume you guys aren't talking about critical race theory or cathode ray tubes
?
Chinese Remainder Theorem
what
Some people nowadays call it Sunzi's theorem, though it can't really be attributed to any one person imo.
Thanks
Nice
lol nice
Isn't CRT more of like a vibe at this point lol
Like refers to slightly different things depending on how general you want lol
crt is a trivial observation
once you already have the set up of rings, sure lol
The sea rises, illum

It's like easy once you have rings and first iso but those are like lol thousands of years after CRT was found innit but yes
Tbh all of ug maths is just a trivial observation


stuff after the main sequence was more uwu though
why are we talking about astronomy now...
huh
"main sequence" lol
(det never knew)
I'm starting to like commutative diagrams
last alg nt lecture we proved dedekind's criterion with a single commutative diagram and 🐍 🍋
illu finally cat pilled 
we also proved this other thing about lattices with a HUGE diagram
nooo only diagram chasing
whuts dedekind's criterion
diagram chasing 
stating it takes half a page
Oh do you mean like
equivalently Dedekind-Kummer?
like in algebraic number theory
yes dedekind kummer
from a google search, it seems so
my prof just called it dedekind
We did too ye
I think Dedekind-Kummer is over more general extensions without the ground being Q necessarily (?)

Didn't realise you could use big diagrams to do it lmao
yeah it's just that diagram and then commuting quotients
Oh is that just an arrow before Schlangenlemma
I was trying to decipher the word lmao
loool
ours called it kummer-dedekind
DEDEKINDS KRITERIUM
I always find it interesting when people swap round names or whatever
i can't wait for
dedekind
kummer
Diagrams are great
better than anything else
I would marry a diagram if I could
(I am horribly addicted to algebra)
hi irony
Hey did you know Pontryagin was a dick?
Factually false
aaa toric varieties I still don't understand how they relate to a torus
I think its a variety with a doughnut inside
I wouldn't be surprised lol
Only thing I know abt him was that he was totally blind
and his mother read math to him
Wow thats interesting
you let the funny n algebraic torus act on your variety
I liked the Gelfand transform too tho
and how it's an isomorphism in the case where you're transforming a closed unital self-adjoint commutative subalgebra
the only math history i know is: galois died young because he lost a duel and some guy who's name starts with a B was a nazi
Badolf Bitler
name any german mathematician from the 20th century and there's a good chance he was nazi affiliated lol
One of Noether's students collaborated with the nazis to expel the Jewish professors from Goettingen, which of course included Noether herself.
It's truly heartbreaking.
Brouwer was Dutch haha
ewww CRT
blocked and reported
That goddamn Gödel
what are algorithms for classifying groups up to isomorphism of order <=n for a given n
I mean, algorithms should exist right? cuz finite problem and then you only have to decide when two groups of the same (finite) order are isomorphic, again a finite problem
like you could actually run through all the |G|^{|G|^2} functions from GxG to G and check the axioms 
There aren't any
okay idk if this is the right channel or not but does anybody know any good articles/papers to read about the p-adic numbers (preferably not wikipedia lol)
We don't know, say, how many groups of order 2048 there are up to isomorphism
Gouvea has a text on them, but I personally have not used it that much
There are loads of books on valuation theory, you could check one of them
oh i was looking for like a paper or article or something brief not really a textbook (just want to gain some basic knowledge)
i'll check that out later tho thx
Oh idk. I usually just use wikipedia or nlab
the nlab page for the p-adic integers (read it first) is p good
p un intended
i learned about them originally when i was trying to learn some arithmetic dynamics, so i kinda just read about them from silverman's text on them
but i think generally most intro texts on something using them will have a section to catch you up on them
There are a lot of ways to enumerate all groups of a given set of length n, but the problem arises once you want to figure out when two groups are isomorphic. This is related to the word problem of groups, since any isomorphism must have trivial kernel and any map of mapping generators to combinations of generators will come down to verifying whether all non-trivial elements map to non-trivial elements. Since the group is finite and the aforementioned being equivalent to checking if the map is injective, this is automatically a criterion by which to see whether a given homomorphism is an isomorphism between finite groups/ their presentations
ok bet
yea that makes sense
what field (pun intended?) are they used most in
im not sure, perhaps someone else can answer this 
i just study whatever looks fun
So something I learned recently about the p-adics is they can be used to construct galois groups
If you want to study the galois group of some polynomial, that can be really quite hard
bieberbach
but yeah also a bunch of other germans
so one way of doing it is finding some prime p over which your polynomial splits, whence it is fairly easy (i.e., we have algorithms) to find explicit solutions in the p-adics
And they're relatively easy to work with
But fwiw the p-adics are just a general area of interest. There's a family of results wherein properties of the integers are reflected in the completions, which is to say R and all the p-adics
This is known as the Langlands programme, basically
It's a huge area of research.
My current research project is related to this. I have to deal with the p-adics and when group representations are realisable over them.
This is all in hope that we'll be able to show a correspondence between certain 'local' characters of a group and some global characters
This 'local-global' correspondence is precisely what we're looking for when I talked about these properties of the integers (the 'global') being reflected in the p-adics (the 'local')
I rambled for a bit there, I hope that broadly motivated the p-adics.
cool! thanks for typing that up
i actually i remember that my freshman professor was doing some research involving the langlands programme
My research is in number theory and geometry. In the late 1960s Robert Langlands proposed a series of deep and elegant conjectures linking arithmetic, geometry, analysis and representation theory. Since its inception this program has, thanks to the work of mathematicians such as Pierre Deligne, Vladimir Drinfeld, Alexander Beilinson and Robert Langlands himself, evolved in many directions and now permeates much of mathematics. My work predominantly explores the p-adic and geometric aspects of the Langlands program and is highly interdisciplinary, involving number theory, arithmetic geometry, algebraic geometry, p-adic analytic geometry, D-module theory, p-adic Hodge theory, motive theory and higher category theory.
yeah
I know p-adics as funny infinite number and number theory thing or as "try out categorical limits exercise no. 12"
What makes p-adics "local" ?
I couldn't tell you exactly. In some ways it's just a name
I'm sure a good number theorist could explain it, but alas I am neither a number theorist nor good
this is very cool research
I love how there is like two paradigms for research writeups on faculty websites, it is either an entire history of their discipline or its like "I do harmonic analysis, particularly the very harmonicy sort"
If there is almost ring theory maybe there is almost harmonic analysis, how harmonicy the analysis is seems very important to state IMO
definitely
Haven't seen such a proof before, could you share the relevant pages from (what i assume are) the professor's notes (statement and proof)?
Lol veritasium just uploaded a video on p-adics
https://youtu.be/3gyHKCDq1YA maybe you can check this
The p-adic numbers are bizarre alternative number systems that are extremely useful in number theory. They arise by changing our notion of what it means for a number to be large. As a real number, 1 billion is huge. But as a 10-adic number, it is tiny! #SoME2
Notes and references:
The last 30 digits of 2^1000000 and other lar...
10 adics
wdym local
If you are solving diophantine equations or related things then the name "local" is obvious
If some polynomial in integers has an integer root, then it has a root mod p for every prime p, etc
obvious
obvious
there's no algorithmic way to find a generator for this group right
not tryna do all that work sadly
that's some chinese remainder theorem shit
Sure there's an algorithmic way! You search through every element 🥰
At a glance I can't see any obvious way to find one.
Actually come to think of it
Wait, no. Nvm.
You may find something by inspecting powers of x, but this is just a hunch.
So there are algos? Like I wasnt exactly asking for an efficient explicit algorithm, ig more of a decidable thing and something that works for most 2 digit numbers and some numbers with a low number of prime factors.
And btw, the word problem is decidable on finite groups no? Maybe im saying nonsense rn, I dont remember how it went
It is really not saying much that the word problem is decidable
There is a LOT of variation of ease-of-computation in the class of decidable problems.
Like we are dealing with a finite problem, so ofc it's decidable. But this is far from saying it's easy.
there's no ontology to anything in math being obvious
I agree, Boytjie
if you're doing geometry, to get an open subset you can look at the non-vanishing set of a function. now you can think of an integer f in Z as a function on the set of prime numbers, namely if p is a prime, then f(p) := image of f in Z --> Frac(Z/p)
ofc you would want these functions to be continuous, and the natural topology to put on the set Spec Z which makes all these things true is the zariski top.
now you can look at germs of functions at the point p in Spec Z. that is, functions defined in an arbitrarily small nbhd of p. in particular, if a function f doesn't vanish at p, you should be able to define 1/f. so if you work this out, the germs of functions is exactly Z localized at the prime p. i.e. rational numbers where the denominator isn't divisible by p. this is a local pid aka DVR, and to understand a few things better you can take its completion. that's exactly the ring of p-adic integers... so in this sense it's "local".
similarly to understand an abelian groups which are Z-modules, you can reduce your work to understanding what happens with respect to each prime looking at Z_{(p)} modules and completing to get modules over Z_p, and hope that these primes capture enough information
and tell you about your original question.
Ill be honest, I dont get why people call these things geometry
Something to do with the 'prime at infinity'?
maybe comparing it to a different example would be helpful.
consider complex numbers and polynomial functions. a (non-zero) prime ideal in C[x] looks like p = (x-a) and if f in C[x] then f(p) is the image of f --> C[x]/(x-a) = C
let's focus at the prime p = (x-0) = (x). a germ of a function at p would be a rational function C(x) such that the denominator doesn't vanish at x = 0. this is again a local ring with the maximal ideal generated by x. sadly, the zariski topology is super coarse, so even this local ring "sees" a lot of global structure and is thus harder to analyze. if you complete it, that can be thought of as making the element x an infinitessimal and the completed ring is C[[x]], the ring of formal power series in x.
right, i'm not very sure about this relates to algebraic geo, but a natural question is to ask what are the absolute values on Q (or number rings in general). there is one that you get from the embedding Q --> R. and by a theorem of ostrowski, if you define two absolute values to be equivalent if they induce the same topology, then up to equivalence only absolute values are the euclidean absolute value and the p-adic absolute values. so in some sense, you can think of this absolute value because of R as a prime which you didn't see before. this makes a few things really pretty, like remember given a natural n, we define |n|_p = p^-(v_p(n)) and so one way to package the fundamental theorem of arithmetic is by saying (prod_p |n|_p) * |n| = 1
det wanna learn more math 
Isnt that like saying sum_(p in X) ord_p(f)=0 in a variety or something
So that in particular it is not equivavalent to unique factorization lol, although it is impled by
Makes sense, but how is are the p-adics the completion of the localizations of Z at a prime? I thought they were the completion/limit of the Z/p^nZ or is it both?
Both descriptions are correct
If we localize Z at p, then every element of that ring can be written as a unique power of p times a unit. Then we can complete it with respect to the -adic topology by considering the space of all formal power series in powers of p
Is it also still the limit sort of completion? If so, what is the diagram?
it's the inverse limit of Z/p^nZ
If you take an m-adic completion for a maximal ideal m, it doesn’t matter if you localize at m first
The completion at an ideal I is defined the inverse limit of R/I^n
If you do this at m a maximal ideal, because R_m/m^nR_m = R/m^n the completions are the same
I said as much, I am just trying to understand in what sense it is also the completion of localizations at p also
Oh, so like the usual inverse limit but instead with the image of I in the localization?
Well, the set of fractions with numerator in in the ideal I
Well you’re completing at mR_m
If you do it after localization
But it doesn’t matter because the quotients you look at are the same either way
It won’t be true if you take a completion at some other prime after localizing
Only when you do m-adic completion and localize at m
But in the case of p-adics this is the case since (p) is maximal in Z
Geometrically, is it sorta like poking a hole and then excising a set having contained that hole?
¯_(ツ)_/¯
I think not
These operations are what happens zooming into the point
You aren’t taking a punctured neighborhood
chmonkey
Why is it the case that if G is a cyclic group then if d divides |G| then G contains d elements of order dividing d?
you can see this very explicitly
Consider the subgroup generated by an element of order d
That has order (n, d) right, and then adding all the divisors would give d cus number theory says so
Kool
Ty
Oops order n/(n, d)
It has order d
Oh lol I was thinking power
If you take G=Z/nZ, then the elements of order d will be the k such that n | kd. But you also know that d must divide n. If we write na= kd and n= bd you then have ab=k. So k is a multiple of b=n/d, and must be <= n So you have d choices possibles. But it gives you the number of order a divisor of d, not exactly d
Yeah so I got D&F as a reference and it says with proof in 2.3 that for any divisor a that divides n, there are phi(a) elements of order a (where phi is the Euler totient function), and I knew that the sum of phi(k) for k a divisor of d is d. Where I was failing to make the jump to the conclusion was cus I was thinking "but this is an arbitrary group of order n, not d" but I just realized it doesn't matter cus any divisor of d divides n still 🤦♂️. I guess I should be good now as long as I internalize the proof of the statement I paraphrased, ty.
what is an open orbit?
An orbit which is open
ah
If a group $G$ is generated by a (not necessarily finite) set $S$, is every group homomorphism $\phi : G \rightarrow H$ determined by $\phi [S]$?
Like how a linear transformation is determined by where it sends the basis vectors?
Kroros
Absolutely
Yes
Alright thank you very much
But unlike the linear case you can not in general send S on whatever you want
more precisely, it's determined by the set function S --> H. and not just by its image phi[S].
My bad, read the question as having ϕ|S, which I interpreted to be ϕ restricted to S.
ah okie >.<
You can express this as a universal property
Ah alright, thank you
how do we define a group structure on an n dimensional algebraic torus
A function from G to S can be extended to a homomorphism from G to F(S) (the free group on S) and then compose that with the quotient from F(S) to H
🥺
the other way right
F(S) --> H, and then G is by definition quotient of F(S) by the relations, so factors as F(S) --> G --> H
ah
R^n/Z^n lol
wait nvm
that confused me even more
Z^n is a normal subgroup of R^n you are welcome
because we defined T_n to be (C^*)^n and I doubt that's isomorphic to (R/Z)^n
yeah
But as a topological group it's just $(R^*_{>0})^n \times T$ where $T$ is $R^n/Z^n$
Topos_Theory_E-Girl
so it's similar
Anyway C^* is a group in the obvious way, and a product of groups is a group soooo....
oh lmao I forgot that I knew the definition of T_n for a second 
that makes it even more painful


that just gives them some time to contemplate life decisions
this doesn't make sense
in the next sentence he says
"a cone in V = Q^n is a subset of the form blabla. If V = N_Q for a lattice N then we call blabla a lattice cone"
cuz like
if N_Q = Q ⊗_Z N = Q^n and V = Q^n then when will V not be N_Q

sad how she died of cancer too
Given an HNN extension with monomorphism that arent surjective, why does it then contain a free group of rank 2 by Britons lemma? If one chooses say an element a not in the image of of phi, then the words of a and t can only be reduced if a is of the form t psi(x) t^-1, which is then reduced if phi(x) isn't equal to some power of a. But Idk how to show that, or whether I even chose the right elements as generators
makes perfect sense to me (in general finite-dimensional Q-vector spaces call X a cone, call Y a lattice cone if it's a cone in the finite-dimensional Q-vector space N_Q)
how?
X is a cone in Q^n if it's a subset of the form ...
a cone is a lattice cone if Q^n = Q^n
so shouldn't all cones be lattice cones?
@dim widget this is literally what my prof wrote
"A lattice N is a Z-mod isomorphic to Z^n for some n. Define N_Q as Q tensor_Z N iso Q^n. A cone in V iso Q^n is a subset of the sigma = ... If V = N_Q for a lattice N then we call (sigma, N) a lattice cone"
but V is iso to Q^n and N_Q is also iso to Q^n
No condition on \sigma???
Yeah that is confusing, I assume in that case the v_i should come from N.
But I guess this makes sense (although it is kinda weird) if $N \subset V$ is a lattice then for any $v \in V$ there exists $n \in \mathbb{N}_{>0}$ such that $nv \in N$, so $cone(v_1, v_2, \dots, v_r) = cone(n_1, n_2, \dots, n_r)$ regardless of what the $v_i$ are.
Topos_Theory_E-Girl
Idk lattice cone just doesn't seem like a very useful piece of terminology when defined this way, it would've been useful to add a remark about this
wait
so what is the definition of a lattice cone lol
Can anyone explain what exactly the fixed field of a subgroup means, I don't really get how it's different to the Galois group of a field extension
galois group is a group
fixed field is a field
I think the definition that your professor gave is fine. It is equivalent to another definition that you might make
they are inverse to each other
when is a cone not a lattice cone? cuz like
if V = N_Q for a lattice N
then our sigma is a lattice cone
but V = Q^n
and N_Q = Q^n
When is a raven not a writing desk?
All cones $\sigma$ in $N_Q$ are canonically lattice cones via $\sigma \to (\sigma, N)$
Topos_Theory_E-Girl
But a lattice cone is the data of both $\sigma$ and the choice of lattice $N$
Topos_Theory_E-Girl
So for an abstract $V/\mathbb{Q}$ not all cones are lattice cones.
Topos_Theory_E-Girl
However they can be enriched to lattice cones for any choice of lattice in $V$.
Topos_Theory_E-Girl
Essentially a lattice cone is a pair of a cone and a lattice, and they don't have to satisfy any compatibility
Just come from the same V
what does V = N_Q have to do with sigma though
Nothing except that $\sigma \subset V$.
Topos_Theory_E-Girl
I'm doing a commutative algebra course basically and I'm having trouble understanding the difference
If K/F is a galois extension with galois group G then for any $H \subset G$ a subgroup we can look at the subset K/L/F where L is the set of $k \in K$ such that $h(k) = k$ for all $h \in H$.
Topos_Theory_E-Girl
That's the definition.
In this case K/L will be Galois with galois group $H$, and if $H$ is normal $L/F$ will be Galois with galois group $G/H$.
Topos_Theory_E-Girl
Yeah I think I largely get it, at first I just thought okay it's just the identity, but obviously in C/R the complex conjugate is there too
I'm assuming here that all of your extensions are finite extensions.
Um idk, it's not in our definition, he covered it before he covered finite extensions too
His definition was:
"Let L:K be a field extension. Then Gal(L/K) denotes the subgroup of Aut(L) of field automorphisms $\phi \in$ Aut(L) such that $\phi(a) = a \forall \a \in K$"
LeftySam
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for more information.
(You may edit your message to recompile.)
It's a fairly introductory course we've basically just covered UFDs, Euclidean Rings, symmetric polynomials, what a field extension is, kronecker's theorem, algebraic numbers over C, splitting fields, finite fields, cyclotomic fields, galois group of a field extension, separable field extensions, primitive element theorem, normal field extensions, galois field extensions and galois' dream. Basically, I know what it is but in the definition we're given it's not specified that L:K is a finite field extension in the definition we're given for Gal(L/K)
My impression was just that Gal(L/K) was just a set of automorphisms, since it wasn't specified I thought there might exist some example between infinite extensions
I still don't really get what the fixed field is saying
do you know the fundamental theorem of galois theory
Galois' dream?
Let L:K be a finite Galois extension and G:= Gal(L/K). There is a natural bijection between the subgroups H <= G and the intermediate fields F which is given by the following two maps that are inverse to each other a: F -> Gal(L/F) and b: H -> Fix(H)
yeah
fixed field of H is the subfield of L fixed by H. i.e. it consists of elements x in L such that phi(x) = x for each phi in H.
Like I know it, but idk if I understand that because idk what the Fix is doing
Since L:H is a field extension surely this is just an element of the Galois group, since it fixes elements over the subfield
it's weird talking about finite galois extensions but not other finite extensions 
We've spoken briefly about finite extensions
L is a field, H is a group, L:H is a whut 
Oh
So if you take a Galois extension that is finite, let's say L/K, that means it's normal and separable. I.e. it's algebraic, and every irreducible polynomial in K[t] that has a root in L splits into linear factors in L[t], and every element in L is separable over K, i.e. the minimal polynomial of every element in L, call it g, has gcd(g,g') = 1 in K. Then if you take some intermediate field of L/K, say, F, then you do the Gal(L/F).
I guess I'm not sure from that point how you go from Gal(L/F) back to F by Fix
That is Fix(H) for some subgroup of Gal(L/F)
There is no "minimal polynomial of every element in L"
You can take the minimal polynomial of a generator for L if L/K is finite separable
Sorry I meant to say for each element take the corresponding minimal polynomial
Yeah that's the point of galois theory is that for a finite extension L/K intermediate extensions F are in bijective correspondence with subgroups H \subset Gal(L/K)
Yeah I get they're in bijection but I don't get what the Fix function is actually doing
All I know is it's acting upon a subgroup of Gal(L/K)
Fix(H) takes H to the set of $k \in L$ such that $h(k) = k$ for all $h \in H$ as I already wrote...
Topos_Theory_E-Girl
but this is already true? I don't understand. H is a subgroup of the group of Gal(L/K) such that phi(a) = a over K.
Yes but i didn't write $k \in K$ i wrote $k \in L$.
Topos_Theory_E-Girl
Fix(H) is a field which contains K but it is larger.
Can you write it in more layman terms, so we have a subgroup of Gal(L/K), Fix(H) is all the k in the larger field such that h(k) for all h in H
It's the set of elements of L which are fixed by H
Meaning they are fixed by all the elements of H
And H is a set of automorphisms?
It is a subgroup of the group Gal(L/K)
So yes it is a set of automorphisms, but it also has a group structure.
In one of my past papers, the question is:
True or False: Each unique factorisation domain has infinitely many prime elements.
Answer is given as false, since fields are UFDs but have no prime elements
Maybe I'm missing something, but I still think this makes perfect sense. If V is finite-dimensional over Q, define cones to be something. A lattice cone is a cone in the finite-dimensional Q space produced from a lattice.
But if fields are ufd but have no primes, because they have no zero divisors, wouldn't it mean that all integral domains have no primes as they all don't have zero divisors? But this is obviously not true
yeah but every such V is produced from a lattice, no?
That's not what it is.
Guess I'm missing something, then.
Yes this is False.
It is a pair consisting of a cone and a lattice in V
That's not at all obvious from the way the definition is worded imo.
The way it's worded is "cones are this, lattice cones are cones in lattice vector spaces".
They define it to be a pair $(\sigma, N)$
Topos_Theory_E-Girl
see here
Yes, the cone sigma in the space N_Q, what'st he problem?
what I don't get is if field implies integral domain, and fields have no primes; why isn't it the case that integral domains have no primes?
because not every integral domain is a field
It's clear that N is part of the data is all...
Absolutely. Is that a point of contention?
.
Oh you mean that different lattices may produce the same space Q^n?
apparently it is?
Yes infinitely many
Your point being that the datum N in (\sigma,N) is sort of meaningless?
No I think it's an important part of the datum which is why I think the ordered pair is important. Because at some point they presumably want to talk about the "integral points of the cone"
uwu?
yes
so what's the point in differentiating between the two
Is the following true or false
the lattice is part of the data the lattice is part of the data the lattice is part of the data the lattice is part of the data the lattice is part of the data the lattice is part of the data
"Let $\mathbb{Q}_n = \mathbb{Q}(e^{\frac{2i\pi}{n}})$ be a cyclotomic field. Then there exists n > 6 such that $\mathbb{Q}_n$ intersection $\mathbb{R}$ = $\mathbb{Q}$
LeftySam
you should use galois theory
My lecturer used sigma: Q_n -> Q_n as the complex conjugation to start with but no idea how he got this idea
what is the fixed field of the group generated by sigma?
he says Q_n and R but no idea why
Also isn't the intersection of Q and R just Q? And if so sinc Qn is Q with primitve roots of n added why isn't Q_n and R intersection just Q again?
Well what would Galois theory tell you about the degree [K:Q] where $K$ is the fixed field of complex conjugation on $Q_n$
Topos_Theory_E-Girl
I don't know frankly
Okay well maybe look up the fundamental theorem of Galois theory
so the group generated by sigma is {id, conjugate} right?
I'm not entirely sure how fundamental galois theorem or whatever applies here
Well it tells you what the degree of the fixed field is over the base field
If L/K is galois and H is a subgroup of automorphisms and F = Fix(H) then you can compute the degree of F/K by knowing the degree of L/K and the size of H somehow...
I know that Fix(<sigma>) = Q_n and R from the solutions I just don't know why
Not sure how we can even talk about Fix anyway wrt to other fields
No $Fix(\sigma)$ is $Q_n \cap R$
Topos_Theory_E-Girl
Oh that's what you said yes
Why is this the case though
The fixed points of complex conjugation on all of C is just R
so the same is true for any number field considered as a subfield of C
Why do we automatically take C as the larger field? Aren't there field extensions of C?
I'm confused as to why it's Q_n intersection. We have <sigma} = id and conjugate, and Fix(<sigma>) is the field of all elements that map to themselves, so why is it not just R?
Oh nevermind
Because every element sigma is actually an automorphism of Q_n
So now I need to see why [Fix(<sigma>): Q] = [Q_n:Q]/2
I believe in you
So it's about demonstrating that [Q_n: Fix(<sigma>)] = 2
And is that because the extra dimension is all the irrational Q_n?
it's the part that is not Real numbers
The extra dimension is entirely irrational, but all of [Q(zeta_n):Q] comes from irrational numbers except for one dimension
Q_n and (R\Q)?
no
Not entirely sure why, surely all elements of Q_n are just Q_n and R or Q_n are R\Q
So we're looking for [Q_n: Q_n and R]
Yes try to show that that is 2-dimensional unless n is 2
I don't get why you can't just say it's 2 dimensional as you can take Q_n and R\Q
Sorry C\R
what do they mean by viewing the equation modulo 7?
yea and now u can brute force easily
ok thx
the second qualification for a UFD is "the factorization into irreducibles is unique up to associates and the order in which the factors appear" does this just mean that there can be multiple representations of an element in an UFD with there being different associates present in the product? im not entirely sure on what it means
i would assume "up to" in mathematics just means virtually the same in this lense
like there's only one field of order p a prime up to isomorphism
You can have two factorizations but they differ by a unit
would 6 = (2)(3) = (-2)(-3) be an example in the integers?
ye
if a_1 ... a_k and b_1 ... b_l are two factorisations of the same ting then there are units u_1,...,u_k and there's a permutation σ : {1,...,k} -> {1,...,l} such that b_i = u_i a_σ(i)
can i please have help understanding this part of a proof? this is notes from a course on elliptic curves, but i think all i need to understand the highlighted parts are basic facts on group homomorphisms
i feel like it should be simple but i am having trouble understanding the last phrase of the highlighted part
Well the way I'd think about it is that if φ: G -> H is a group homomorphism then the preimage of each element of H is of cardinality |ker(φ)| (or empty as it may be)
oh i see. so applying that here , we get the preimage of each thing in ker(beta) under gamma has size ker(gamma)
Hi folks 🙂 I'd like to get a formal understanding of the relationship between the 2-adics and two's complement arithmetic. While the 2-adics represent a number $n = \sum_{j >= 0}^\infty \alpha_j 2^j$, in two's complement we truncate the sum to some length $K$ (say 32, or 64, commonly in computers). How does this affect the number system? Some results still seem to translate just fine. So for example if we have $p(x) = 1 + x + x^2 + ... = \frac{1}{1-x}$, then by $x = 2$ we get the 2-adic representation of -1 as ...1111, and that matches the two's complement representation of -1, as 111....111, there being $K$ ones. This then yields a common trick to compute the representation of negative numbers: Since -1 is all-ones, then subtracting n from both sides yields $-n - 1 = ...1111 - n$, and adding one to that yields $-n = ...111 - n + 1$, where subtracting $n$ from ...111 corresponds to "flipping all the bits" in $n$.
In particular, I'd like to understand how division works. Say we have some odd number $n$. The representation of $-n$ is as we saw above. What's the representation of $\frac{1}{n}$? Let's say this is in the 2-adics, and I may be able to translate it to two's complement from there 🙂
flebron
Is this a valid proof (it sounds almost tautological, but I want to make sure):
a) From a previous lemma we know that the ideals of A are precisely the (direct) sums of A's isogenous components. Therefore a component is a minimal ideal (by the lemma, a component is an ideal and any ideal it contains is also a component and components are independent) and a minimal ideal is a component (an ideal is a a sum of components and every component is an ideal, therefore a minimal ideal is a sum of 1 component). The simple submodules of A are the minimal left ideals, therefore every ideal is a sum of these.
b) A is a direct sum of its components and only finitely many are necessary, since A is finitely-generated. From a previous lemma, if M=\sum_i N_i where the N_i are simple, then every simple submodule of M is isomorphic to one of the N_i. Since A is the sum of finitely many components, its every simple submodule has the same isomorphism type as one of these => finitely many components in general.
truncating a 2-adic means you're essentially working in Z/2^KZ. in this ring, 2^K = 0, which is why -n = 2^K - n = (2^K - 1) - n + 1 like you noticed.
to find the multiplicative inverse of n, you're solving the equation n * m = 1 mod 2^K, which is same as finding integer solutions to n * m + 2^K * x = 1. there many ways to do this algorithmically, reverse euclidean algorithm, using convergents of continued fractions, etc.
another way to think about this would be looking at 1/(1 - (1-n)) and as 1-n is an even number, it's 2-adic norm is smaller than 1, so you can write 1/n = p(1-n), but this also looks computationally heavy.
#include <stdint.h>
#include <stdio.h>
int main() {
uint32_t n = 43;
uint32_t m = (~n + 1) + 1;
uint32_t x = 1;
int i;
for (i = 0; i < 31; ++i) {
x = x * m + 1;
}
printf("n=%d, m=%d, x=%d, n*x=%d", n, m, x, n*x);
}
Which I realize is the same thing you said in your last thing 🙂
@rustic crown What's a way to make that "essentially" rigurous?
flebron
i think you mean x^j instead of 2^x
it's a ring homomorphism 
infact that's one way to construct p-adic numbers.
You're right of course 🙂
instead of thinking of p-adic numbers as formal power series in p and then manually defining how to add and multiply with messy carry overs, you define it via a sequence of partial sums.
what you can do is, look at the infinite product of the rings Z/p^kZ as k varies over N
so an element of this is just an infinite tuple (x_k) for x_k in Z/p^kZ
now you look at the subring of this consisting of elements such that x_k reduces to x_l mod p^l whenever k > l.
k here is >= 1, or >= 0?
Oh right, Z/p^0Z = Z/1Z = Z/Z = 1
And there's only one thing there, so it's adding no data to the infinite tuple
with this definition it's easier to see why it's inherently a ring
If x_k reduces to x_l mod p^l whenever k > l, this means you''ve got projection maps "down the chain", right? That are just taking modulo the lower power of p
if you know some basic cat theory, we're looking at the inverse limit of Z/p^kZ
So e.g. if the thing has a 3 in the mod 2^2 position, then it must have a 1 in the mod 2^1 position
yep 
if you know a number mod 64, you also know if it's even or odd.
Right, that makes sense, and it jives with "making more and more precise notions of 'how close to a power of p are you'"
you have natural map Z --> Z/p^lZ and p^k lies in the kernel, so you obtain natural maps Z/p^kZ --> Z/p^lZ
yep
The inverse limit thing is precisely this notion of projection maps, right?
you can think of these components as the partial sums of the power series in p
oh it is component wise
😮
Bilinear form is a map AFAIK..
Then how dot product can be bilinear form <@&286206848099549185>
have you looked at the definition of a bilinear form?
but yes it is a map from $\mathbb{R}^m \times \mathbb{R}^m \to \mathbb{R}$ in this case
Tubular Cat
such that it is linear in each argument
you can pretty easily check that the usual dot product satisfies this
detuwu 
btw @rustic crown newton-raphson converges after 5 iterations, though it's not clear how to derive the "5" for me:
int32_t z = 1;
for (i = 0; i < 5; ++i) {
z = z * (2 - n * z);
}
}
using f(x) = 1/x-n, f'(x) = -1/x^2
It says "on R^m"
@gilded stream the dot product "on R^m" is understood as the dot product between pairs of vectors, each in R^m 🙂
newton's method converges at a quadratic rate, so that makes sense. in each iteration, you would double the precision. we only care about 2^32, so that's why you need 5ish iterations
mfw 2^5 == 32
And precision here would be according to the valuation?
Is the damn thing that generalizable?
yeep
it's because you can describe p-adics in a very analytic way. the normal description of the real numbers is to start from rationals and complete in the missing holes by looking at cauchy sequences.
if you use the p-adic norm, you could do the same thing and get yourself a nice complete non-archimedian field Q_p, now p-adics integers are elements with non-negative p-adic norm. the estimate for convergence of newton's method is a simple consequence of taylor's theorem, so if you can make sense of all these things, it has to be true :p
What do Ext and Tor stand for?
extensions and torsion i think
no correct answers
Wtf
Why are there no correct answers who named these
(i think tteg is memeing >.<)
😭
exterior?
Followup question, why
Have you computed what Ext and Tor are for abelian groups?
see above
I have not
I think that's a good exercise then, what is Ext(G, G') parameterizing and what is Tor(Z/n, Z/m)?
Where G, G' are two arbitrary abelian groups
Tor_1(R/r, M) = {m in M : rm = 0} is the r-torsion elements. (r needs to be a non-zero divisor so that 0 --> R --> R --> R/r --> 0 is a resolution)
And Ext(M, M') parameterizes equivalence classes of sequences 0 \to M' \to N \to M \to 0
That's very neat
So like Ext(Z/p, Z/p) has two elements
one is just Z/p \times Z/p and the other is Z/p^2
morally this is what happens but there is a complication about the quivalence relation
Unfortunately the equivalence relation is not isomorphism of N, but an isomorphism of the sequence, so there are p-1 extensions corresponding to Z/p^2
so Ext^1(Z/p, Z/p) = Z/p and only the trivial element corresponds to the "stupid" extension
ahhh okay
cool! :)
on an unrelated note, algebraic topology has actually made me happy about the snake lemma
before this, I was just happy about it because snakes are cool
so you can build differentiation, manifolds, that sort of stuff, over Z_p?
(the diffgeo i've done always mentions R as a sort of "privileged" domain and codomain)
Yes
There are many ways to do this, but usually over Z_p you do this on analytic functions.
So you build p-adic analytic manifolds and p-adic analytic spaces
what about (p, q)-adic manifolds
probably zomeone elze know about the topic, zo i prefer to wait for zomeone elze that know about it
i wonder how [redacted] would handle this
s = z 
Can somebody explain to me what a free R-module of degree n is?
we defined it as an R-module, which is isomorph to R^n
That’s a perfectly fine definition
The point is that it has a basis, which lets you define R-linear maps by saying the basis element e_i goes to an element m_i in M
And then you have to send Sum r_ie_i to Sum r_im_i
They’re kind of like vector spaces in that sense
does it equivalently work as saying that the dimension of a finite vectorspace is n?
If you’re over a field, then yes
which means that if V is over R, then it is isomorph to R^n?
Using this language, you could say this
Any vector space is a free module, because all vector spaces have a basis
how does it generally work then?
is this intuition wrong? Do you have something, whihc makes more sense?
I don’t know what you mean
The intuition is that they behave like a vector space, but they can be defined over any ring
Vector spaces only exist over a field
They’re the modules which have a basis
Maybe that the degree isn't always invariant, it is for, say, commutative rings and some weird left or right special rings, but not in general.
I’m struggling with the exercise 1.7, here P designate the Poincaré Series and we are working with graded vector spaces over a field (commutative). I think that there is an issue, I tried to prove it and I found that it is (1+1/t)P(B*,t) and not (1+t)P(B*,t). Am I right ?
Why is the set of such N non-empty (we need to know this before we can apply Artiniannes)? Equivalently, if M is any module, why does it have a simple quotient?
NVM, here M is assumed noetherian => set of proper submodules has a maximal member => simple quotient.
Can't you also take like N = M
If M = 0 we have no choice lol
And then there are no proper submodules
Too picky ig
here L1[X] is the ring of polynomials with coefficients being polynomials modulo f
how do i know we can write f as (X-a)g(X)
??
f = X^3 - n , letting a = X + (f) becomes a^3 - n == 0 so X is a root of L1[X] in L1?
so we must be able to write it as (X-a)g(X) where a = X+(f)
why is this construction so confusing 😭
ℚ³?
The cubes in $\mathbb{Q}$
Topos_Theory_E-Girl
I see, weird notation
It's pretty normal for this kind of thing, but out of context it can look strange.
Yeah I think the way they're doing this is silly. Just say: $X^3 - n$ has 3 roots over $\overline{\mathbb{Q}}$ which are the three cuberoots of $n$. The ratio of any two cuberoots is a 3rd root of unity by an easy calculation, so the splitting field is of degree 6: $\mathbb{Q}(\operatorname{cuberoot}(n), \zeta_3)$. The galois group can be checked to be $S_3$.
Topos_Theory_E-Girl
here's a bit of a dumb question lol
is there any nice way to find the formula for the discriminant of a cubic/quartic or is it necessarily just a slightly annoying slog with symmetric polynomials lol
a simple and intuitive way, if you will
There is a general way for all n just using simple and intuitive linear algebra. However for degree n you need to compute a 2n + 1 x 2n + 1 determinant.
that ain't bad
Because the linear system you are trying to solve for an f of degree n is for a pair p, q such that pf + qf' = 0, so you want an expression which finds out when the resultant matrix is invertible. So actually its 2n-1 x 2n-1 which is better
So 5x5 for cubic
For a very specific kind of cubic/quartic (or more generally a trinomial) it's nice and simple. Source is Samuel's ANT.
And iirc every cubic/quartic is reducible to this kind of trinomial (which, iirc, is how Cardano originally found the formulas for the roots in terms of the coefficients).
Ah ok
Yeah that's the nice method I had in mind hehe
Qubes*
the way they do it gets a LOT more confusing
\
horrible
and it doesnt help with this really
here I can say that x^p - 2 has p roots over its splitting field
The
so we have indeed p roots
and then say Q(pthroot(2),zeta_p) is the smallest field containing all roots?
i also assume that the splitting field is over Q
bc they dont state this
Yeah that's right, you just have to say that you can get all the roots using multiplication on pthroot(2) and zeta_p and you can get pthroot(2) and zeta_p by multiplying/dividing the roots
Which proves inclusion in both directions
and inclusion would be showing Q(proot(2))(proot(2) x zetap)..(proot(2) x zetap^(p-1)) = Q(pthroot(2),zeta_p)
I was thinking of starting an abstract algebra study group using knapp. Where should I tell about this? Should I message modmail?
Yeah
ok ty
I think you just advertise around and see who's interested, you can prob message modmail to be allowed to post in #events about it
And then you can either start a thread in this channel for it or start another server and invite everyone interested
(This is not official advice, I'm not a mod lol)
fair enough, thanks for the info tao
quick question
id be intetested if we use artin
and like the measure theory group theres some pressure/motivation

You mean Basic/Advanced Algebra? Can confirm, he's very good.
Well, ngl I am not very fond of Artin plus I wanted to try something new
Yes indeed
For the bits on field & Galois theory look into Isaacs, his exposition is what made things finally click for me.
I'll also be taking wisdom from Rotman and other books. Isaacs is a new name for me.
Knapp's Advanced Algebra is pretty wild, does all sorts of things.
We'll stick to just parts of Basic Algebra. Advanced algebra is well... advanced
I think Isaacs is a little less known than the others, but I consider his book the absolute creme de la creme of basic algebra.
Also look into Jacobson's Basic Algebra I, also one of the best.
Oh yeah, I even have a physical copy of it
The only big issue is if people would be willing to commit
Knapp is definitely not for first timers
Purely hypothetically I think it is, if the person had a proper European-style LA 1,2 course.
Same for Asian universities, not sure about us and canada
👀 what is this Knapp book
Knapp's Basic/Advanced Algebra two-parter.
discussion of knapp book makes me sleepy 
k'dnap
I've got something to wake you up, gimme a sec to write up the question.
I don't get how the general case reduces to the case of a single isomorphism type via "grouping". Say we partition the index sets as $I=\bigcup I_\tau$ and $J=\bigcup J_\tau$ based on isomorphism type, how from $\bigoplus_{i\in I}N_i\cong\bigoplus_{j\in J}N'j$ can we follow that $\bigoplus{i\in I_\tau}N_i\cong\bigoplus_{j\in J_\tau}N'_j$ for every $\tau$?
Ocean Man

Don't make me question my decisions
knapp = nap
I had another pun in my native language but its niche

det no
but that was a cute pun 
I have never heard of the book, i have no opinion on it. Could be good!
knapp is more negative in german
Hm is the lattice of subgroups of (Z/nZ)^x hard to visualise
it follows because there is no zero map from N_1 \to N_2 if N_1, N_2 are two nonisomorphic simple modules.
does it mean something like "hardly"?
or is it cognate with knave?
More like "terse" or "short", but it has a variety of meanings afaik.
Yeah like if you're saying you only just managed to do smth
"just under" is the DeepL translation and the most fitting, probably
this is funny because i haven't spoken german in a while so sometimes when i go to say stuff i'm worried i'm just making it up cause i go by feel but no like it can indeed also mean like
smth is knapp = in short supply / nearly out
I mean it is a direct sum of cyclic groups, it's about as easy as it gets.
Okay sorry that was dumb I meant like uh
And you can calculate the factors explicitly if you can factor n
Okay actually I have just made my question more specific and now i can google probs lol
Ah, ok, so I can just apply Hom_A(N,--) to M and single out those N_i that are isomorphic to N.
Basically it's like I was looking at particularly nice subfields of Q(zeta_n) like
in particular Q(zeta_m) for m a multiple of n
But that corresponds to a particularly nice subgroup i guess
yep! suffices to work one $N$-isotypic piece at a time, for $N$ a simple module, because if you restrict the isomorphism to $N^m$ the image is isomorphic to $N^m$ as well.
Topos_Theory_E-Girl
you mean a divisor
And I am correct in understanding that for N finitely generated Hom(N,\bigoplus_iM_i) is isomorphic to \bigoplus_iHom(N,M_i), right (there's always an injective map and finiteness takes care of surjectivity).

